policy flash cards
(295 cards)
1
Q
High speed pursuits are only justified when?
A
reasonable grounds to believe the person being pursued committed or attempted to commit a serious felony
2
Q
What is considered a serious felony?
A
actual or threatened attack which could result in death or series bodily harm
3
Q
What is the paramount consideration in the decision to pursue?
A
reasonableness
4
Q
The pursuit will be ultimately judged with regard to the reasonableness in light of what 4 factors?
A
- seriousness of offense known at the beginning2. Officer’s judgement and decision to continue the pursuit3. tactics used4. the outcome
5
Q
To initialize and continue a pursuit, what factors should be considered?
A
- vehicle/ped traffic2. location for pursuit3. time of day/night4. weather and road conditions5. reason for pursuit6. speeds7. vehicle and driver capability
6
Q
Under section ORC 4511.24, officers may pace an offender, but officers must not do what 3 things?
A
- not violate any traffic laws other than speeding2. must operate with due regard & safety for others3. must use siren when necessary to warn other drivers/peds
7
Q
Initiation of a pursuit shall cause immediate notification to dispatch of what?
A
location, direction, reason, suspect vehicle/occupant description, speeds
8
Q
If a pursuit is initiated with an unmarked car, it shall only continue under what circumstance?
A
serious felony
9
Q
Ramming is allowed only under what circumstance? Direct approval must be given by whom?
A
fleeing suspect is endangering lives by use of a firearm; OIC
10
Q
Roadblocks guidelines include what 3 factors?
A
- vehicles positioned w/ due concern for safety of innocent persons2. overhead lights on3. vehicle unoccupied
11
Q
Prohibitions in pursuits include what 3 things? An OIC may assign add’l officer to the pursuit area.
A
caravaning, overtaking, paralleling
12
Q
Pursuits that start in the city, but continue outside of the limits, will be terminated within a reasonable distance except for what?
A
serious felony
13
Q
All pursuits are reviewed by whom? All pursuits are reviewed annually when?
A
Chief and Staff Commanders; December Staff meeting (becomes part of annual report)
14
Q
Silent runs are authorized when?
A
12a, 10 at a bank, life-threatening felony in progress calls, alarms at a business during normal business hours, emergency call where the suspect may take a hostage
15
Q
Pursuit policy is required to be reviewed how often?
A
annually
16
Q
How often are employees to receive training on the Code of Conduct?
A
Annually
17
Q
Uniformed officers at a parade will salute the American flag when it is how many paces from the officer?
A
6 paces
18
Q
During the hoisting of the American flag, officers present and in uniform will?
A
Salute the flag
19
Q
When the National Anthem is played, officers present and in uniform, including hat, will salute the flag. If not flag is present, officers will?
A
face and salute the band
20
Q
When the National Anthem is played, officers not wearing a hat will do what?
A
Stand at attention
21
Q
When an accident involved a City of Marion vehicle, a supervisor will be assigned to investigate under what circumstances?
A
- injury2. pedestrian involved3. member may be at fault4. extensive damage5. result of a pursuit
22
Q
Members shall submit their off-duty employment requests every ___ months?
A
12 months
23
Q
Class “A” uniform is worn when? Class “C” uniform is worn when?
A
funeral, formal, etc; normal duty
24
Q
Consular Notification: Who is responsible for notifying an arrestee or detainee’s consular? A list of mandatory consular notifications will be kept where?
A
The arresting officer; in the LT’s office bulletin board.
25
Legally Mandated Authority: The PD's authority and responsibility is granted by what section of the ORC?
ORC 737.11
26
Authority to Carry and Use Weapons: The PD's authority for sworn officers to carry and use firearms is granted by what ORC code?
ORC 109.80.1
27
Constitutional Rights: If a suspect wishes to make a statement, but refuses to sign the waiver (form 1.7), who should sign the waiver? A notation shall be made as to the reason for the refusal.
A witness and the investigating officer
28
Constitutional Rights: Arraignment timetables are governed.by what ORC section?
ORC 2945.71
29
Constitutional Rights: If there is any question on what can be released to the media, the Staff Commander in charge of what shall be contacted?
Records Bureau
30
Constitutional Rights: What shall normally be released to the media?
1. date and location of the offense2. name and address of the victim (except sex crimes/juveniles)3. name, address, charges against a formally charged suspect
31
Constitutional Rights: What will not be released to the media?
1. suspect's prior record2. motive3. evidentiary details4. content of statements5. possible pleas6. anything prohibited by judicial order
32
Warrantless Search and Seizure: What case law allows for an officer to conduct a stop and frisk of an individual when the officer has a tangible/reasonable belief to fear for his/her safety?
Terry v Ohio (1968)
33
Warrantless Search and Seizure: What case laws allow for the warrantless search of a vehicle under the movable vehicle exception?
Chambers v Maroney (1970) and US v Johns (1985)
34
Warrantless Search and Seizure: A warrantless search of a movable vehicle can be conducted when?
1. PC that contraband or evidence exists in the car2. The vehicle is about to be or could be moved; and,3. Obtaining a warrant would be impractical
35
Warrantless Search and Seizure: In Anderson v Sanders (1979), the court held what in regards to exigent circumstances?
where the societal costs of obtaining a search warrant, such as the danger to law enforcement officers or the risk of loss or destruction of evidence, outweigh the reasons for prior recourse to a neutral magistrate, an officer can conduct a limited search and seizure.
36
Warrantless Search and Seizure: Examples of exigent circumstances include what?
1. need to rescue (Mincey v Arizona (1978)2. danger of escape or destruction/removal of evidence
37
Warrantless Search and Seizure: An inventory search of a motor vehicle will include a documented inventory search of the vehicle and contents, including what?
including closed containers, contents of trunk/cargo area, exterior of vehicle, and engine compartment
38
Warrantless Search and Seizure: If access cannot be gained to a locked briefcase, box, luggage, etc, officers WILL / WILL NOT forcibly open locked containers unless a search warrant is obtained.
WILL NOT
39
Warrantless Search and Seizure: Search incident to a lawful arrest is allowed for what? Maryland v Blue (1990) and NY v Belton (1981)
1. Protection of the officer2. Prevent the destruction of evidence
40
Warrantless Search and Seizure: Search incident to a lawful arrest is limited to what?
1. Person2. Immediate area the detainee may access to get a weapon or destroy evidence
41
Warrantless Search and Seizure: What two case laws allow for the seize or evidence or contraband that is in plain view?
Coolridge v New Hampshire (1971),Horton v California (1990)
42
Procedures for Arrest: What ORC section allows for the arrest by anyone of someone who it is believed to have committed a felony?
ORC 2935.04
43
Procedures for Arrest: According to ORC 2935.07, when a person is engaged in the commission of a criminal offense, it IS / IS NOT necessary to inform him/her of the cause for the arrest.
IS NOT
44
Procedures for Arrest: Felony affidavits and warrants are filed with which court?
Municipal court of the county of offense
45
Procedures for Arrest: An officer may pursue outside of their jurisdiction and arrest and detain the person if?
1. pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay2. pursuit is initiated within jursidiction3. offense is a felony, M1, M2, or where points are chargeable pursuant to 4510.036
46
Procedures for Arrest: A legal arrest is constituted of what four elements?
1. An intent to arrest;2. Legal authority to arrest based on jurisdiction and venue;3. Accompanied by an actual or constructive seizure or detention or the person; and,4. Understood by the person being arrested.
47
Procedures for Arrest: What section of the ORC governs the procedures for arrest?
ORC 2935
48
Procedures for Arrest: The "no-knock" search warrant requirements are outlined in what ORC section?
ORC 2933.231
49
Procedures for Arrest: Which states are not violator compact states?
Michigan, Wisconsin, California, Montana, Oregon, and Alaska
50
Firearm Training: If an officer fails to qualify on their 3rd attempt, the officer assigned to a position that does not require a firearm and will be given how long to train under supervision?
2 weeks
51
Firearm Training: If, after the initial two weeks of training, the officer fails to qualify, the officer may be disciplined, but not?
may not be fired
52
Firearm Training: An additional two weeks will be given to train if after the first two weeks of training the officer did not qualify. If the officer does not qualify after the total of four weeks training, what happens?
the officer is terminated
53
Use of Force - Taser: Cartridges and probes of evidentiary value will be held a minimum of how many years?
2 years
54
Use of Force - Taser: Who is permitted to remove the Digital Power Magazine (battery) from the Taser?
Only a supervisor
55
Use of Force - Taser: Non-target areas for the Taser include what three areas?
head, neck, & groin
56
Use of Force - Taser: Do not use a Taser under which three specific conditions?
1. suspect is in danger of falling2. in conjunction with OC spray (may be used after OC spray if it was ineffective)3. near flammable liquids
57
Use of Force - Taser: Probes that do not break the skin can be removed by who? Probes that are superficially in the skin will be removed by who? Probes that are in the face, neck, ear, breast, or groin or are deeply embedded will be removed by who?
Officer, MCFD, Doctor at MGH
58
Use of Force - Taser: A suspect who has the Taser cycled on them at least how many times will be taken to the hospital for treatment unless a supervisor decides he/she should go with less cycles due to circumstances?
4 or more times
59
Requesting Federal Assistance: Federal agencies will not normally be called upon for emergency situations. What people may call upon for federal help if needed?
Chief, Mayor, Staff Commander (for a criminal investigation and the Chief will be notified)
60
Requesting National Guard: The Mayor may appeal to who for National Guard Assistance?
Governor
61
Organizational Structure: The Planning and Research Function, Fiscal Mgmt, IA, Public Information function, SRT, and Community Involvement Coordinator falls under which division?
Chief
62
Organizational Structure: The Administrative Division is in charge of what?
Chaplain Program, Accreditation, Computer Operations, Emergency Operations, and the Property Room.
63
Written Directives: Training Bulletins may be issued by who?
Chief and Staff Commanders
64
Written Directives: Memos can be issued by who?
Any supervisor
65
Written Directives: Personnel Orders can be issued by who?
Chief or Staff Commander that it affects
66
Written Directives: General Orders can be issued by who?
Only the Chief
67
Written Directives: All written directives that revise rules, regs, policy, procedure will be disseminated how many days prior to adoption of the rule?
14 days; Staff Commanders have 3 days to respond with recommendations
68
Written Directives: All members will acknowledge all written directives within how many working days?
3 working days
69
Reserve Officer: An applicant for Reserve Officer must pass a written test with a score of no less than what percent?
70%
70
Reserve Officer: A Reserve Officer will be require to work how many hours per month?
minimum or 10 or maybe 20 hrs
71
Budget Process: The annual budget process begins in the month of April in the year proceeding and must be completed by when?
July 1st
72
Purchasing Procedures: For non-bid purchases, form 17.1 will be forwarded to the Chief, then the Safety Director, then the Auditor, and finally who?
Requesting Officer
73
Purchasing Procedures: For bid purchases, the Chief will submit specs, costs, and basis for need to the Safety Director. The Safety Director forwards it to who? They then forward it to who?
Finance Committee for City Council; Full City Council for vote
74
Purchasing Procedures: Normally, the City is required to provide how many days notice to allow bidders to submit sealed bids? After this time, the Safety Director holds what?
30 days; public bid opening
75
Purchasing Procedures: After the open bid, the Safety Director make a recommendation to who? Who then must approve it?
Finance Committee; Full Council
76
Purchasing Procedures: A funds transfer must have the approval of what three people/committees?
the Mayor, Marion City Auditor, and the Legislative Finance Committee for the City of Marion.
77
Purchasing Procedures: Supplemental appropriations must have the approval of what three people/committees? These appropriations also require what?
the Mayor, Marion City Auditor, and the Legislative Finance Committee for the City of Marion; approval in the form of an ordinance and the majority vote of City Council
78
Line Item Accounting: The Auditor provides a statement on the status of each line item how often?
Monthy
79
Cash Funds: The MPD cash funds are audited how often?
at least quarterly
80
Cash Funds: The petty cash, controlled by the Admin Bureau, will have no more than $____ total and are for purchases of no more than $____.
$100, $20
81
Control of Property: A physical audit of all property is required how often?
At least biennially
82
Maintenance of Class Specs: Human Resources operate under what report for class specs?
The Yarger Report
83
Maintenance of Class Specs: Changes affecting MPD must be approved by who?
City Council and Civil Service
84
EAP: Front-line supervisors and the Command Staff will be trained on EAP at Staff Meetings at least how often?
Yearly
85
EAP: Who reviews EAP with other employees?
Their supervisors
86
Off-Duty Employment: Off-duty employment is limited to how many hours per week?
20 hours
87
Grievance Procedure: A member receiving a grievance shall forward it to the Grievance Coordinator within how many hours?
72 hours
88
Investigation of Cases of Dismissal: An officer subject to dismissal shall be given a statement citing what three things?
1. reason for dismissal2. effective date of dismissal3. statement of benefits due the officer
89
Records of Disciplinary Actions: The original copy of the personnel action is placed where? Where is this file kept?
the member's personnel file; Chief's office
90
Records of Disciplinary Actions: Where are two other copies of the personnel action placed?
with the administrative file supporting the action in the IA records and to the affected member
91
Recruitment Program: Which Staff Commander is in charge of the Recruitment Program?
Administrative
92
Recruitment Program: The Administrative Staff Commander shall keep apprised of what two areas in regards to recruitment?
Affirmative Action Plan and Equal Opportunity Plans
93
Affirmative Action/Recruitment Plan: The goal for minorities taking the Civil Service Exam is what percent of all applicants? What percent is the goal for females?
5% or more, 10% or more
94
Affirmative Action/Recruitment Plan: The PD shall strive to participate in minority job fairs within how many miles of Marion?
100 miles
95
Affirmative Action/Recruitment Plan: The PD shall speak to Tri-Rivers and the Marion Police Academy at least how often about needing a work force representative of the community?
annually
96
Affirmative Action/Recruitment Plan: Who is responsible for the implementation of this plan?
Chief
97
Affirmative Action/Recruitment Plan: At the end of a testing cycle conducted by Civil Service, what shall be done?
a statistical summary to be compared to the benchmark in this section
98
Hiring Process: All records created by the PD of a candidate appointed to probationary status shall be kept by who? Records for those not hired shall be returned to who?
Chief; HR dept
99
Training Committee: The Training Committee is composed of what five members? Who will act as Chairman?
1. Staff Commander in charge of Training2. LT selected by the Gold OLC3. PTL selected by the Blue OLC4. Member of COCO OLC5. Member of USWA Labor group;staff commander in charge of training will be Chairman
100
Training Attendance Requirements: Members shall provide a copy of the certificate for the training within how many working days after completion?
2 working days
101
Lesson Plans: Who must approve a lesson plan if a member of MPD is providing training?
Chief
102
Training Conducted by MPD: The Training Unit shall maintain a record of each training class it conducts or hosts that includes what 4 areas?
1. course content/lesson plan2. names of those in attendance3. performance on tests, if administered4. names/agencies of each instructor
103
Training Academy: Certification by whom of the OPOTA serves as proof of compliance of the recruit of training standards of the Training Council?
Executive Director of OPOTA
104
Field Training Program: Newly commissioned members are prohibited from accepting or working special duty until when?
They have completed FTO
105
Field Training Program: The Field Training Program will be considered complete when?
Chief directs in writing that the recruit has completed FTO and receives their permenant assignment.
106
Field Training Program: The FTO shall have who many years of experience?
3 years
107
Field Training Program: After the FTO period, platoon LTs will evaluate the member how often?
Monthly
108
Advanced Training Programs: What 4 factors are considered in deciding if advanced training requests are to be considered?
1. training budget2. needs of the unit3. staffing levels4. needs of department
109
Accreditation Training: Training on accreditation shall be done when?
1. for newly hired members2. annually3. as part of the self assessment4. prior to an on-site assessment
110
Performance Evaluation System: This system will include what 4 elements?
1. measurement definitions2. procedures for use of forms3. rater responsibilities4. rater training
111
Personnel Evaluation System: If an employee wants to contest their performance evaluation, they shall forward a request to whom through the proper chain of command?
Chief
112
Personnel Evaluation System: If an employee disputes their evaluation, the Chief will interview the employee. Who may also be present? What may the Chief do at the conclusion of the interview?
The rater or the rater's supervisor; the Chief may amend the eval
113
Personnel Evaluation System: How long are performance evaluations kept?
Permanently
114
Unsatisfactory Performance: Non-probationary employees will be advised how when their performance is unsatisfactory and at least how many days prior to the end of the annual rating period?
In writing, at least 90 days
115
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): What three steps comprise PEWS?
1. Identification2. Development and Implementation3. Documentation and Conclusion
116
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): Whose responsibility is it to observe and document conduct and behavior of employees?
first-line supervisor
117
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): First-line supervisors are tasked with taking remedial action, such as what three things?
1. training recommendations2. referral to EAP3. personnel counseling
118
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): Any remedial action is to be documented by Memo and forwarded to who?
Chief
119
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): In the Identification phase, a Staff-level employee will review information on use of force, complaints, etc at least how often?
semi-annually
120
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): A report is generated on a semi-annual basis listing who?
any employee with an occurance
121
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS):What is the criteria for eligibility into the program?
1. Use of force incidents2. Complaints against the employee3. Disciplinary action4. Crashed5. Excessive absences or tardiness6. Poor evaluations7. Duty-related injuries
122
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): A combined total of how many IA's in 6 months and/or how many occurrences as identified in the Identification phase in 12 months will have an employee considered for entry into PEWS?
3 or more, 8 or more
123
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): An outcome of a formal Admin Review may include an order by the Chief for an employee to participate in what?
EAP
124
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): Once an employee has been considered "eligible" for the program, a conference will be scheduled with the Chief or his designee within how many days?
30 days
125
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): A conference under the Development and Implementation Phase may include who?
1. Employee2. Employee's direct supervisor3. Administrator of PEWS4. Chief or his designee
126
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): Any decision for entry into the program will be made how?
case by case basis
127
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): If an employee may be entered into the program, the program may include what?
1. Counseling2. Mandatory physical examination3. Mandatory psychological examination for fitness for duty4. Request employee voluntarily enter EAP5. Retraining6. Recommending change in duty assignment7. Weekly performance evaluations
128
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): In regards to implementation, the employee's supervisor will be responsible for what three things?
1. Directing the employee to participate in the program2. Coordinate adjustments in employee's duty schedule3. Ensure the employee participates in and completes the plan in a timely manner
129
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): Once complete, the supervisor will do what three things and forward it to the Chief?
1. Describe data that identified the employee for entry into the program2. Narrate the development and implementation process3. Provide any supporting documents
130
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): Who maintains records of an employee's involvement in PEWS?
Chief
131
Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): Information about EAP may be obtained from who?
HR or an department supervisor
132
Bike Patrol: Officers must do what to do bike patrol?
1. Be able to ride a bike2. Volunteer for the program3. Complete a training course
133
Bike Patrol: Officers must have at least ____ year(s) of service with the department.
1 year
134
Silent Alarms: What phrase shall the dispatcher ask the person answering the phone? What is the proper response?
"This is the Cleveland Indians, is our deposit in?"The date in numerical form (ie, 0407 for July 4th)
135
Notification of Proper Authority: Reports to the media of serious felony crimes (UCR Part 1 Offenses should be left for who to review to determine the date, time, place and manner of releasing the information?
Chief or his designee
136
Missing Persons: Who's responsibility is it to obtain dental records for a juvenile within 30 days of the juvenile being reported missing?
Juvenile Intervention Officer
137
Amber Alert: An Amber Alert shall be declared under what circumstances?
1. 17 yoa or younger; and2. child's safety is at risk; and3. the abductor and child are likely to be in the Central Ohio broadcast area; and4. there is a likelihood that someone may see the abductor and/or child
138
Amber Alert: The 3 people who can authorize an Amber Alert are who?
Chief, Operations Major, Investigations Major
139
Amber Alert: Procedures for entering an Amber Alert:
1. dispatch complete and fax form to Crawford Co S.O.2. dispatch also call CCSO3. officer have parents sign a photo release4. CCSO completes a media report and send to Emergency Alert Stations5. EAS transmits for 2 hours6. MPD keeps CCSO appraised of updates7. when recovered, CCSO notifies EAS
140
Mental Illnesses: Training will be provided when?
entry level and every 3 years
141
Case File Mgmt: Cases submitted should be designated as 1 of what 3 statuses?
Active, Inactive, Closed
142
Intelligence Information: Intelligence info shall be limited to what?
criminal conduct and activities that present a threat to the community
143
Intelligence Information: The Criminal Intelligence file shall be purged how often?
every two years
144
Preliminary Investigation Steps: What are the duties of a responding officer?
Assist the victim, protect the crime scene, & apprehend the offender
145
Investigative Task Force: What 5 issues are to be addressed as a member of METRICH/MARMET?
1. ID purpose2. Define authority/responsibility3. Establish accountability4. ID resources5. Evaluate results
146
Technical Aids: Polygraphs may be scheduled with the consent of whom?
Investigative or Operations Commander, or, in their absence, the shift supervisor
147
Using Informants: What division maintains the CI files? Who will conduct periodic, unannounced inspections of the files? Access of the files is limited to whom?
Investigative; Chief; Investigative Commander and Chief
148
Using Informants: The CI file shall contain what?
1. Bio and background info2. Criminal history3. Code name or number for informant4. A record of funds paid and signed receipts
149
Using Informants: Who maintains the records of payments on the confidential ledger?
Investigative Commander
150
Using Informants: Codes and informant files shall be what?
stored separately and securely
151
Using Informants: Who may authorize the use of funds for informants?
Chief or Investigative Commander
152
Receiving and Processing Complaints: Who shall see that the Intelligence form is formally classified and properly filed?
Investigative Commander
153
Receiving and Processing Complaints: How often will records of the Intelligence Form (42.7) be purged?
2 years if they have remained inactive
154
Receiving and Processing Complaints: The Investigative Commander forwards a report to the Chief summarizing complaints, investigations, and arrests involving organized crime how often?
monthly
155
Juvenile Justice Liaison: In the case of error, update, or suggestion in this part of the policy, the Juvenile Officer will relay the information to whom?
Chief
156
Least Coercive Alternative/Notification: Who maintains a list of all community-based social agencies and department programs that provides services to juveniles?
JIS
157
Provisions for Taking a Juvenile into Custody: What rules and code cover taking a juvenile into custody?
Rule 6 of Juvenile Procedure and ORC 2151.31
158
Juvenile Custodial Interrogation: In Re Watson (1989), the court found that there IS / IS NOT a mandatory requirement that a parent or guardian of a juvenile suspect be present and informed of child's Miranda Rights prior to interrogation.
IS NOT
159
Juvenile Custodial Interrogation: Facts to be considered in the totality of the circumstances test include what?
education level, age, mental condition, past criminal experiences, improper police advice, police threats/coercion, length/frequency of interrogation, physical/mental mistreatment.
160
Juvenile Custodial Interrogation: A juvenile may be held up to 6 hours at the county jail if all of the following apply:
1. felony offense2. separate room and removed by sight and sound from other adult detainees3. supervised at all times
161
Juvenile Custodial Interrogation: A juvenile may be held up to 3 hours at the county jail if all of the following apply:
1. misdemeanor2. separate room and removed by sight and sound from other adult detainees3. supervised at all times
162
Juvenile Custodial Interrogation: A youth MAY / MAY NOT be interviewed after regular hours (8:30am-4:30pm, M-F) without the approval of the attorney or order of the Juvenile Judge.
MAY NOT
163
School Liaison Program: Who do the SROs report to?
Operations Major
164
The JIS is under the supervision of whom?
Support Services Major
165
Voluntary Abandonment of Newborn: A parent has the right to abandon their newborn within who many hours of birth?
72 hours
166
Voluntary Abandonment of Newborn: The newborn must be delivered to a whom?
EMS, peace officer, or hospital employee.
167
Citizen Survey: This survey will be conducted how often?
every 3 years
168
All-Hazard Plan: What are the different functions in the Incident Command System?
Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Admin
169
Testing of Department Equipment: At least monthly, what equipment must be tested?
radio comms, 9-1-1, generator
170
SRT: What is the minimum number of team members required to deploy the SRT?
4
171
SRT: How often is training conducted? How many hours? Proposed monthly training is prepared by whom, how many days prior, and forwarded to whom?
monthly; 8 hours; Team Leader, 10 days, Chief
172
SRT: SRT is under the control of whom?
Chief
173
SRT: SRT members commit to a minimum of how many years?
3 years
174
SRT: SRT members must meet standards developed by OPOTC in what two areas?
physical fitness and firearms proficiency
175
SRT: The Chief of Police will ensire that the SRT "Tactical Handbook" is reviewed how often?
Annually
176
SRT: The selection process includes what steps?
1. Written notice to Chief of desire2. Psych test3. SRT training course
177
SRT: Members qualified with specialized weapons will qualify how often?
2x/year
178
VIP Security: Who is the supervisor/coordinator for any given VIP security detail?
Chief or designee
179
Special Events: What is considered a special event?
prescheduled occurrence that requires resources beyond what would normally be scheduled
180
Special Events: Who coordinates a special event?
A staff commander selected by the Chief
181
Special Events: Who completes an after action report?
The coordinator (Staff Commander)
182
HazMat Awareness: Events involving chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear weapons are will be handled as outlined in what manual? Where is it kept?
County-Wide Emergency Operations Plan Manual; dispatch and on the servers
183
Bomb Disposal: Who is in charge of the scene of a suspected bomb?
Operations Commander
184
Bomb Disposal: What should the dispatcher get from the caller initially?
time of detonation or location (and as much info as possible)
185
Bomb Disposal: The decision to disregard a threat, search for a device, and/or evacuate rests with whom?
owner, manager, or person in charge of the facility
186
Bomb Disposal: If the person in charge decides to disregard the threat, the person will be requested to do what?
sign the report
187
Bomb Disposal: With incidents involving military bombs or ordinances, who will be contacted to dispose of the threat?
Allen County S.O.
188
Bomb Disposal: With incidents involving non-military bombs or ordinances, who will be contacted to dispose of the threat?
Columbus Fire Department's Bomb Disposal Team then Franklin County S.O. if CFD is unavailable
189
Bomb Disposal: Radio communication should be kept at a minimum using who as "runners" for communication? Cells and radio should not be used unless absolutely necessary.
search team members
190
Records of Complaints: Records of IA investigations shall be kept for how many years?
5 years
191
Complaints: If the complaint is of a criminal nature and/or may result in suspension, the supervisor should forward the complaint through the proper chain of command to whom?
Chief
192
Complaints: all investigations resulting in recommendations for what level of discipline and greater should be forwarded to the Chief through the proper chain of command?
written reprimand and higher
193
Complaints: Who shall investigate minor complaints? Who shall the results be forwarded to? Complaints of a series nature may be investigated by whom?
Lts; the LT's Staff Commander; Staff Commander
194
Complaints: Who will review all complaints?
Chief
195
Complaints: Complaints that could result in suspension, termination, or criminal charges will cause who to be notified immediately?
Chief
196
Complaints: How many days are allowed to complete an IA investigation for the Blue Unit? Gold Unit?
30 days; 45 days
197
Complaints: Is written verification required to complainants for complaints?
Yes
198
Complaints: Notice of the outcome of a complaint will result in 1 of 5 designations. What are they?
1. Improper Conduct2. Insufficient Evidence3. Policy Failure4. Proper Conduct5. Unfounded Complaint
199
Complaints: Who notifies the member at the conclusion of the investigation?
immediate supervisor
200
Complaints: When a member is the subject of an IA, the member will receive what?
written statement of allegations and their rights in accordance with Garrity Warnings.
201
Complaints: Shall members be required to submit financial disclosure statements as part of an IA?
No
202
Complaints: Can members not excluded by Labor Agreement be given a polygraph?
Yes
203
Complaints: Who may place someone on paid Admin Leave?
Any Staff Commander
204
Complaints: Within how many days or hours shall the member and Staff Commander be required to report to the Chief's office, unless otherwise directed by the Chief?
24 hours
205
Complaints: A Staff Commander may place a member on Admin Leave if when?
If he/she believes that the integrity or best interest of MPD requires a member to be relieved from duty due to the seriousness, particular circumstances, or possible criminal involvement of the member
206
Complaints: Upon hearing the facts of the Admin Leave, the Chief shall do what?
make recommendations and may require the member to report to the Safety Director's office the next business day
207
Complaints: What is the most discipline a LT may conduct?
counseling
208
Complaints: Improper Conduct means what?
allegation is true and the actions of the member was inconsistent with the MPD Policy
209
Complaints: Insufficient Evidence means what?
not sufficient evidence to confirm or refute the allegation
210
Complaints: Policy Failure means what?
allegation is true and, although the actions of the member were not inconsistent with policy, the complainant suffered harm
211
Complaints: Proper Conduct means what?
allegation is true, but the actions of the member were not inconsistent with policy, the complainant suffered no harm
212
Complaints: Unfounded Complaint means what?
allegation is demonstrably false or there is no evidence to support the allegation
213
Complaints: Improper Conduct is resolved in 1 of 6 ways. What are those ways?
1. Counseling (6 mos)2. Written Reprimand (1 year)3. Suspension (2 years)4. Reduction in rank (permanent)5. Termination6. Progressive discipline
214
Complaints: If Progressive Discipline is implemented, shall disciplinary personnel actions be removed or destroyed?
No
215
Complaints: Progressive Discipline shall be in effect for how many years?
2 years
216
Complaints: Who can implement Progressive Discipline?
Chief or a Staff Commander
217
Line Inspections: How often will line inspections be done and when? Where is this documented?
at least once every 30 days, during or right after briefing; OIC Log
218
Public Information Function: Can victim information be released?
Yes, the name and address can be released, if requested, if it doesn't place the victim in any further peril
219
Public Information Function: Can witness information be released?
no
220
Public Information Function: Can suspect information be released?
Yes and no. Only physical description and characteristics, no names.
221
Public Information Function: The loos of cash shall not be released, except as authorized by whom?
Chief
222
News Media Access: The media SHALL / SHALL NOT be allowed to photograph, film, or video pivate property without the owner's consent.
SHALL NOT
223
News Media Access: Who controls access of the news media at a crime scene, natural disasters, major fires, etc?
OIC of scene
224
Marion's Most Wanted: When should a request for publication be made to the Marion Star?
Monday
225
Marion's Most Wanted: MPD must have a picture of the suspect from within how many years?
3 years
226
Marion's Most Wanted: All requests shall be forwarded to whom?
Investigative Commander
227
VAWA: An analysis for accessing victims' needs will be completed how often?
at least every 3 years
228
VAWA: When required, who will meet to improve the functions of this program?
Admin Commander and the Director of the Victims Assistance Program
229
Selective Traffic Enforcement: The traffic enforcement analysis shall be completed by whom and include what 2 aspects?
Traffic Safety Liaison, citations issued, accident location and times
230
Special Persons: If a Consular or Diplomatic Officer or a member of their immediate family or staff become involved in any actions taken by MPD, who shall immediately be notified and furnished with all pertinent information?
Governor
231
Special Persons: A Consular or Diplomatic Officer shall not be handcuffed, subjected to any tests, or mistreated in any way? True or False
True
232
Special Persons: Diplomats are protected by what type of immunity?
unlimited
233
Special Persons: Consulars are protected by what type of immunity?
limited
234
Uniform Enforcement Policies: Officers will warn a driver for how many days after the issuance of a new traffic law unless otherwise stated in the law?
90 days
235
Speed Measuring Devices: Is an operational malfunction occurs, requests for service are made through what Division?
Administrative Division
236
Speed Measuring Devices: All records of maintenance and calibrations shall be kept with which Commander?
Administrative
237
OVI Details: The responsibility of DUI enforcement details will lay with who? Who will be assigned to form and assign officers?
Operations Commander; a patrol LT
238
Accidents: A vehicle in a fatal accident will be held until when?
fully examined and photographed
239
Escort Services: Escorts for non-government functions will be scheduled through whom?
Operations Commander
240
Escort Services: Emergency escorts for public officials or dignitaries will be handled by whom?
OIC at that time
241
Escort Services: Emergency escort services will not be provided for who?
non-government functions or other emergency vehicles or civilian vehicles in medical emergencies
242
Prisoner Escapes: Who will be notified?
dispatch, shift OIC, agency or agencies of jurisdiction
243
Transporting Sick, Injured or Disabled Persons: If the prisoner is transported by squad, an officer will accompany the prisoner in the squad if the prisoner when?
If charged with a felony, escape risk, or combative
244
BAC/Interview Rooms: Officer will be trained how often on the proper use of the breathalyzer area and interview rooms?
initially and every 3 years
245
BAC/Interview Rooms: Who is primarily in charge of the care of these areas? Who reviews the area at least every 3 years and forwards it to the Chief?
a LT; Admin Major
246
Warrants: Misdemeanor warrants will be entered as a pursuit 4 unless for OVI, DV, or Escape Prior to Confinement. In such cases, the pickup radius will be what?
Pursuit 2
247
Warrants: Who may authorize a larger pickup radius for a warrant?
Staff Commander
248
Warrants: Felonies will be entered as what pursuit?
Pursuit 1, unless specified otherwise
249
Warrants: Confirmation by teletype to the ORI shall be filed in which teletype file?
"outgoing"
250
Warrants: When a warrant is cancelled, the warrant file card is completed with the cancellation information and forwarded to who?
LEADS/NCIC Supervisor
251
Warrants: When a warrant is served, the required information is noted on the warrant file card and forwarded where?
LEADS/Institutional Rights - Compliance Files
252
Civil Writs: Officers will not normally be required to serve civil process, except for what two exceptions?
Ex Parte Order or Order of Detention from Juvenile Court
253
Security Measures: In the event the smoke/fire alarm is triggered, who shall be immediately notified?
MCFD by Comm 2, and OIC by any dispatcher
254
Security Measures: Who should also be notified of an alarm at City Hall? If he is not available, then whom?
Maintenance Man; City Electrician with approval of OIC
255
Records: Who is authorized to access documents in the Records Division?
records clerk, supervisors, property officers
256
Records: Who can authorize the removal of original reports from Records?
Staff Commander or Chief
257
Records: If an original report is authorized to be removed, the receiving officer shall do what?
copy, then sign and date the copy to be replaced in Records
258
Juvenile Records: Juvenile information containing arrest or suspect information will be marked on the front page with what?
a red stamp denoting that juvenile information is contained within
259
Juvenile Records: Who can authorize the release of juvenile suspect or arrest information?
Staff Commander or Chief
260
Juvenile Records: For cases NOT involving Category 1 or 2 offenses, fingerprints or photographs shall only be released to whom? Whose responsibility is it to follow through with retention and dissemination of fingerprints and photographs?
LEO (provided to court), a court of jurisdiction; Juvenile Court Liaison
261
Records Retention Schedule: What ORC section establishes Records Retention laws?
149
262
Records Retention Schedule: Where is the Records Retention Schedule to be placed?
Records Division window and other major components within the department
263
Central Computer Backup: The central records computer will be backed up how often?
weekly
264
Central Computer Backup: A password audit is completed at least how often?
annualy
265
Central Computer Backup: The back up tapes are to be kept where?
Off site in the computer systems office
266
Computer Security Protocol: Who is responsible for the LEADS terminal?
TAC officer
267
Computer Security Protocol: Copies of CCH printouts shall be given or kept where?
Prosecutor's office and with the case file in records
268
Field Reporting System: Reports are completed when a victim or witness requests AND what?
elements of a crime exist, an arrest is made, and any time a the officer desires to make a lengthy report of a case that may be investigated later or has intricate details
269
Field Reporting System: How long do officers have to submit a crash report per 5502.11?
5 calendar days
270
Reports Received by Telephone: Minor thefts of how much can be handled over the phone?
less than $150
271
Receiving Property: Caustic or flammable property shall be placed where? The Property Caretaker will be notified and a copy of the report placed in their mailbox.
explosives container in the storage shed
272
Storage in Secure Area: Who are the only people with access to the secured area of the property room?
Staff Commander assigned to oversee, primary and alternate Property Caretakers
273
Inspection of Property Room: How often shall the Commander in charge of the property room do an inspection for compliance to policy?
At least semi-annually
274
Inspection of Property Room: The annual audit of the property held by the police department shall be conducted by whom?
Staff Commander not directly connected to the property control function on a regular basis
275
Inspection of Property Room: Unannounced inspections of property storage areas while occur how often at the direction of the Chief of Police?
at least once a year
276
Property: All property acquired through civil orders will be accounted for how?
though Auditor's asset requirements
277
Per Policy, who is in charge of the K9 program? The Canine Officer is under the general direction of whom?
Operations LT; Admin LT
278
What are automatic calls for K9 response?
1. 12a's, 10a's2. Track possible3. Open doors/windows where K9 may search4. All major disturbances where the K9 can standby if an unruly situation develops5. Any other call a supervisor asks
279
The decision to deploy the K9 remains with who?
the K9 officer
280
The K9 team may only be used in crowd control situations under what circumstances?
1. When in the opinion of the OIC, the presence of the K9 team will prevent or deter a serious breach of peace2. When in the opinion of the OIC, it is necessary to prevent or avoid injury to a police officer or citizen3. On approval of the Chief, when specifically requested, where large crowds are expected
281
When a K9 is used in any crowd control situation, the K9 will remain on a lead not to exceed ____ feet.
6 feet
282
When requesting a K9 search a vehicle, what four procedures shall be followed?
1. K9 officer makes sure it's a safe location2. Other officers on scene watch operator/passengers3. If inside is searched, requesting officer will remove drugs/paraphernalia in plain sight along with any food4. At search completion, K9 officer tells officer of anything found. Requesting officer decides if arrest is to be made.
283
What are the four procedures to be followed when searching a building with a K9 for drugs?
1. search w/o K9 and remove any items in plain view2. K9 Officer makes sure area is safe3. Advise over the radio that the K9 has been released4. All other officer seek cover and remain still
284
Who can approve K9 aggression (attack work) at a K9 demonstration?
K9 supervisor
285
If the handler is injured, how should be contacted if the K9 is acting aggressively?
spouse or another officer familiar with the K9
286
How many years as a sworn police officer are required to be a K9 handler?
4 years
287
All entries into the K9's training log will be made within how many hours of the actual training?
24 hours
288
A K9 team will train for at least how many hours monthly?
4 hours
289
Approval to use an off-duty K9 by another agency must be approved by whom?
Operations Commander
290
When a K9 reaches how many years, the handler and K9 supervisor will decide if the dog will continue to work.
8 years
291
The K9 manual will be issued to whom and reviewed how often?
all supervisors, annually
292
Drug samples used for training will be changed every how often unless there sufficient replacement in property? What is done if no replacement exists in property?
12 months; keep the current sample until a new sample exists
293
All drug samples are tested for quality and quantity prior to what?
prior to being broken down into smaller amounts by the K9 LT for training
294
All drug samples are inventoried how often?
quarterly
295
Copies of inventoried drug samples (forms, initial and final qualitative and quantitative test results) are forwarded to whom?
Operations Commander
