Policy Review #1

Question 1

If an officer on your shift wants to resolve adverse written findings of a citizens’ complaint investigation or any adverse comments on performance documents (i.e. 100 forms, MODs, Censurable Incident Reports), which of the following are the mechanism for resolution:

Answer 1

Informal Dispute Resolution

Question 2

Informal Dispute Resolution, Level III, involves a formal “meet and confer” between the CAHP and ___________.

Answer 2

Commissioner of the CHP.

Question 3

Each level of review for Informal Dispute Resolution must occur within __________ of the issuance of written comments considered adverse to the employee’s performance.

Answer 3

21 calendar days

Question 4

With regard to a Unit 5, employee filing a formal Complaint against the Department. If the complainant is not satisfied with the decision rendered in ___________, the complainant may appeal the decision within _________ to the Office of the Commissioner. This is the final and last step of the procedure.

Answer 4

Level III, 14 calendar days

Question 5

The grievance procedure has ________ formal levels. If the grievant is not satisfied with the decision rendered at the previous level, the grievant may appeal the decision within _______________ to the _______________ or his/her designee.

Answer 5

Four: 14 calendar days; Director of the California Department of Human Resources (CalHR).

Question 6

What is the process to resolve a dispute of one or more employees, or a dispute between the State and CAHP involving the interpretation, application, or enforcement of the express terms of the Memorandum of Understanding (MOU):

Answer 6

Grievance

Question 7

You are the graveyard sergeant in your Area. While reviewing CHP 415s, you observe that an officer on your shift has submitted a CHP 415 requesting OIC pay. Which of the following are required for the officer to qualify for OIC pay:

Answer 7

The Officer must supervise two or more officers for 6 hours or more during a shift.

Question 8

A _____________ is the process to resolve a dispute of one or more employees or a dispute between the CAHP and the Department involving the application or interpretation of an existing written rule or policy. This procedure does not cover merit related issues.

Answer 8

Complaint

Question 9

Employees shall qualify for a swing shift pay differential when four or more hours of the regularly scheduled work shift falls between _______ and ________.

Answer 9

1800 hours; 0100 hours

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT an unfair labor practice:
a. Giving the employee representative all the bad jobs or inundating them with unwanted overtime.
b. Assisting employees in researching background to file grievances.
c. Failing to bargain in good faith.
d. Speaking with an employee about their union activity.

Answer 10

Speaking with an employee about their union activity.

Question 11

Public Safety Officers’ Procedural Bill of Rights (POBR) applies to all employees of the California Highway Patrol, EXCEPT:

Answer 11

Cadets

Question 12

The Ralph C. Dills Act was enacted in California to provide which of the following rights:
a. Represented employees have the right to be represented by their exclusive representative regarding wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment.
b. Excluded employees have the right to be represented by an attorney of their choice regarding wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment.
c. Managerial employees have the right to be represented by their exclusive representative regarding wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment.
d. Supervisory employees have the right to be represented by their exclusive representative regarding wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment.

Answer 12

Represented employees have the right to be represented by their exclusive representative regarding wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment.

Question 13

Which of the following employee job classifications is considered a “nonsensitive position”:
a. Office Assistant
b. Officer
c. Auto Technician
d. Commercial Vehicle Inspection Specialist (CVIS)

Answer 13

Office Assistant

Question 14

You are on-duty Sergeant in your Area Office conducting a substance abuse investigation on Officer Jones. You smell the odor of an alcoholic beverage emitting from his person. You observe the Officer and obtain additional observations of alcohol use/impairment. You inform a confirming official of your reasonable suspicion. The confirming official authorizes you to obtain a chemical sample from the employee. Because you suspect solely the abuse of an alcoholic beverage, which of the following chemical tests SHALL you use to obtain a chemical sample:

Answer 14

Breath Test Only

Question 15

Peace Officer Bill of Rights, which is located in California Government Code, is NOT extended to which of the following job classifications in the CHP:
a. Officer
b. Sergeant
c. Office Assistant
d. Cadet

Answer 15

Cadet

Question 16

An employee and the employee’s representative may be granted up to _____ hours of release time to prepare for a pre-disciplinary hearing (Skelly hearing):

Answer 16

4 hours

Question 17

For Bargaining Unit 5, an employee grievance/complaint shall be discussed with the employee’s immediate supervisor. This “Informal Level” discussion must occur within _______ of the event or circumstances occasioning the grievance.

Answer 17

21 calendar days

Question 18

The Ralph C. Dills Act REQUIRES which of the following:
a. Management to pay union dues, even if unrepresented
b. Management and Union Representatives to meet and confer in good faith
c. Union representatives to receive overtime pay for representing employees outside of normal working hours.
d. A friendly working relationship between management and employees.

Answer 18

Management and Union Representatives to meet and confer in good faith

Question 19

The Peace Officer Bill of Rights (POBR) entitles public safety employees to all of the following rights EXCEPT:
a. Interrogation must be conducted at a reasonable hour, during normal waking hours.
b. Right to refuse to take a lie detector test.
c. Right to refuse to provide personal financial disclosure.
d. Right to respond to a written adverse comment in his/her personnel file within 15 days.

Answer 19

Right to respond to a written adverse comment in his/her personnel file within 15 days.

Question 20

The Peace Officer Bill of Rights (POBR) entitles public safety employees to protection from the following behavior by management, EXCEPT:
a. Not allowing an Officer to run for elected office as member of a school board.
b. Requiring the consent of an officer to post his/her photograph on the Internet for any purpose if that officer reasonably believes that the disclosure may result in a threat, harassment, intimidation, or harm to that officer or his/her family.
c. No adverse comments placed in the employee’s personnel file without employee having opportunity to read and sign or refuse to sign the document containing the adverse comment.
d. Employee reassigned to duties that are within the normal scope of his/her employment.

Answer 20

Employee reassigned to duties that are within the normal scope of his/her employment.

Question 21

Discipline with a suspension of more than 20 days is considered to be what level of review:

Answer 21

Commissioner or Deputy Commissioner

Question 22

Final level of approval for adverse actions resulting in suspension of six (6) to 20 working days, or the equivalent monthly step reduction, or removal from a specialty pay position (Bargaining Unit 5 personnel), is vested in which of the following positions:
a. Commissioner or Deputy Commissioner
b. Assistant Commissioner
c. Division Commander
d. Area Commander

Answer 22

Assistant Commissioner

Question 23

A confirming official is always ___________ and may determine reasonable suspicion to conduct an administrative chemical test upon a sensitive employee based upon ____________.

Answer 23

The first designated manager in the supervisor’s chain of command; reasonable suspicion.

Question 24

Sufficient cause for a confirming official to order a chemical test be obtained from a sensitive employee could be based on all of the following EXCEPT:
a. An industrial accident, red/watery eyes, unsteady gait.
b. Unusual demeanor or appearance and atypical behavior.
c. The odor of alcohol or marijuana on the employee’s breath or clothing.
d. Slow or slurred speech, poor balance, and abnormal work performance.

Answer 24

The odor of alcohol or marijuana on the employee’s breath or clothing.

Question 25

A memorandum of direction (MOD) is considered what level of progressive discipline:

Answer 25

Corrective Action

Question 26

A formal written reprimand is considered what level of progressive discipline:

Answer 26

Adverse Action

Question 27

Preventative action in the progressive discipline methodology is all of the following, EXCEPT: a. Adequate ongoing training for all classifications b. Informal counseling regarding substandard performance c. Referrals to Employee Assistance Program (EAP) d. Provide fair, engaged, and impartial supervision

Answer 27

Informal counseling regarding substandard performance

Question 28

You are the graveyard Sergeant for the Bakersfield Area. Officer Jones has been on your shift for one year. Officer Jones’ enforcement activity seems to be within the normal range for the shift but Officer Jones’ has always been one of the enforcement contact leaders on your shift. You decide to conduct a private- closed door discussion with Officer Jones about the unexpected drop in enforcement contacts. During your conversation with Officer Jones, he discloses that he is experiencing marital problems. You refer the Employee Assistance Program to Officer Jones. Your private discussion with Officer Jones is considered:

Answer 28

Preventative Action

Question 29

The next month, Officer Jones’ has poor uniform appearance, has a major drop in enforcement activity which makes him the lowest in enforcement activity for the shift, and has several verbal confrontations with his fellow officers. You have another closed-door session with Officer Jones and issue him a Memorandum of Counseling with a Bazemore Admonition. Your supervisory actions are considered to be:

Answer 29

Corrective Action

Question 30

List the six penalties for an adverse action.

Answer 30

Suspension, Dismissal, Salary Reduction within Salary range of class, Formal Written Reprimand, Involuntary Transfer, Demotion.

Question 31

First Responder Awareness: Nonuniformed personnel who are likely to encounter hazardous materials during the course of their regular duties (e.g., Motor Carrier Specialists and Commercial Vehicle Inspection Specialists) Should or Shall be trained to the level of First Responder Awareness?

Answer 31

Shall

Question 32

An employee may use leave credits to satisfy a suspension of 5 days or less. For any suspension of 6 days or more, the employee may use leave credits to satisfy up to what portion of the suspension period.

Answer 32

Half

Question 33

All employees can use leave credits to satisfy an adverse action penalty of suspension or step reduction except who?

Answer 33

Cadets

Question 34

True/False In exchange for approval of this request (using leave credits to satisfy a suspension), the employee shall agree to waive all rights to appeal the adverse action?

Answer 34

True

Question 35

May officers obtain warrantless blood samples from unconscious DUI suspects where the suspect’s condition and other factors exist that would significantly delay the process of securing a search warrant?

Answer 35

Yes

Question 36

Officers holding their bicycles perpendicular to the crowd and using the bicycle as an extension of their body to push the crowd out of an area constitutes / does not constitute a use of force

Answer 36

Does not

Question 37

Name the 4 Goals of the Strategic Plan?

Answer 37

Protect Life and Property Enhance Public Trust Through Superior Service Invest in our People Anticipate Public Safety and Law Enforcement trends and Provide Assistance to Allied Agencies

Question 38

What ranks are required to carry the approved departmental impact weapon?

Answer 38

Sergeants and Officers

Question 39

After receiving the initial RCB training by a Division OST instructor, what impact weapon(s) are authorized to be carried on duty?

Answer 39

Only the RCB, unless assigned to SRT.

Question 40

The CHP 415 is accessed through ATS. The CHP 415 must be completed within what time frame?

Answer 40

Within 24 hours of the end of each work shift, except for full day absences.

Question 41

On the first workday of the FLSA period, what dates shall be projected on the ATS calendar?

Answer 41

Regular Days Off (RDOs) and Project Leave

Question 42

Supervisors should review and approve a CHP 415 within what timeframe?

Answer 42

Within 24 hours of the end of the employee's shift

Question 43

There are 4 types of CHP 415 in ATS. What are they?

Answer 43

Regular, Overtime, Leave, RDO

Question 44

True/False. When an enforcement contact results in the issuance of a CHP 215, Notice to Appear, a line entry SHALL NOT be made for any subsequent verbal warning issued or service performed on the same stop/individual.

Answer 44

True

Question 45

Policy requires an original document be served to an employee for which adverse actions?

Answer 45

Notice of Adverse Action

Question 46

Portable Document Format (PDF) is now considered an original document if served in what manner?

Answer 46

PDF sent via email to involved command

Question 47

The DMV has stopped issuing the 10 year driving record (H6). What document must a School Bus Officer or Coordinator require instead?

Answer 47

A Driver Record printout obtained from the DMV

Question 48

The School Bus Officer will allow how much time for all written rules and regulations tests, including the First Aid test?

Answer 48

50 minutes each

Question 49

After three failed First Aid tests, the applicant is disqualified. How long must they wait to reapply?

Answer 49

45 days

Question 50

The California Special Driver Certificate applicant gets how long for their pre-trip inspection?

Answer 50

35 minutes

Question 51

What is the maximum amount that is allowable for an “X” number?

Answer 51

Under $10,000 ($9,999)

Question 52

As defined by the Penal Code, what is a “Fixed place of detention”?

Answer 52

Jail, Law enforcement station, office

Question 53

Are custodial interrogations of a minor suspected of murder required to be video recorded in entirety?

Answer 53

Yes

Question 54

During collision investigations that may result in a charge of 187 PC, the custodial interrogation of a suspect should/shall be conducted in a fixed place and should/shall be electronically recorded?

Answer 54

Shall/Shall

Question 55

What is the Departments Occ Safety Program goal for preventable deaths, preventable Departmental aircraft crashes, preventable disabling injuries and accidental discharges?

Answer 55

0

Question 56

What are the 5 categories of Occ Safety Goals for each office?

Answer 56

1. Preventable Injuries 2. Preventable marked P/V TCs 3. Preventable unmarked P/V TCs. 4. Preventable special purpose (MCS, MRE, 4x4) TCs 5. Preventable MC TCs

Question 57

How shall monthly commercial activity of officers and CVIS’ be tracked?

Answer 57

The Interis inSPECT report for the previous month

Question 58

By which date is an Interis inSPECT document required to be submitted to an employee’s immediate supervisor?

Answer 58

5th of the following month

Question 59

GO’s shall not exceed how many numbered pages including annexes and appendices.

Answer 59

25

Question 60

Highway Patrol Manuals establish ___________, assign _______________, and contain procedures that direct personnel on how they are to perform their duties.

Answer 60

Policy, Responsibility

Question 61

Management Memorandums are good for up to what period of time from their effective dates and provide temporary directives, policy and regulatory material.

Answer 61

9 months

Question 62

Comm-net messages shall be placed in the appropriate publication within how many days of the date of message.

Answer 62

30 days

Question 63

Staff, board, Committee, Conference Minutes must be placed in a permanent publication (manual) after how many months to remain in effect.

Answer 63

6 months

Question 64

Publications SHALL be reviewed by the OPI every how many months?

Answer 64

6 months

Question 65

Comm-net messages that contain policies or procedures, expire how many calendar days from the date of the message.

Answer 65

90 calendar days

Question 66

Policy and procedures of the Comm-Net message shall be incorporated into an HPM, GO, or MM and submitted to the appropriate Assistant Commissioner’s office within how many calendar days of the of the original Comm-Net message for approval.

Answer 66

45 calendar days

Question 67

When the public demands a printed publication the request shall be referred to which office?

Answer 67

Publications Unit

Question 68

A complete revision shall occur when how much of the publication or manual chapters contain changes?

Answer 68

50% or more

Question 69

Management Memorandums may be extended one time, on a case-by-case basis, for an additional how long? The extension request shall be submitted and approved prior to what?

Answer 69

6 months / the original expiration date

Question 70

An CHP 47 Information Bulletin (IB) is the required medium for transmitting communications that are strictly WHAT in nature?

Answer 70

Informational

Question 71

What is the maximum allowable time to act on correspondence?

Answer 71

15 business days

Question 72

Which format shall be used for correspondence between state agencies?

Answer 72

CHP 51WP (Memorandum)

Question 73

Which format shall be used for outside of state agencies?

Answer 73

CHP Letterhead

Question 74

Who is the approving agency for all correspondence to members of Congress or the President’s Cabinet, requests for Congressional Action, or any other federal official?

Answer 74

California State Transportation Agency

Question 75

Which office shall be coordinated with for correspondence replying to inquiries from members of the legislature?

Answer 75

Office of Special Representatives

Question 76

What is the reference source used to determine rules for punctuation, capitalization, spelling and grammar?

Answer 76

The Gregg Reference Manual

Question 77

What are the four elements that shall be used on all headquarters correspondence?

Answer 77

Signer's Location Code Signer's ID Composer's ID OPI Location Code

Question 78

Single paragraph correspondence shall be _________ spaced. Multiple paragraph correspondence shall be _________ spaced

Answer 78

Double / Single

Question 79

“Attachment(s)” or “Enclosures(s)” shall be shown two lines (one blank line space, type on the second line) below the signature block flush with the left margin. Attachments are used for __________ and enclosures are used for ___________.

Answer 79

Memorandums / Letters

Question 80

A category 1 correspondence is conducted on what type of document?

Answer 80

CHP51WP (Memorandum)

Question 81

The California Highway Patrol (CHP) letterhead (CAT II) is used when preparing correspondence in letter format to whom?

Answer 81

Non State Agencies

Question 82

What mail carrier shall be used for mailing a letter from one office to another unless tracking or insurance is required?

Answer 82

USPS

Question 83

When shipping overnight packages from the field office which carrier is preferred?

Answer 83

UPS

Question 84

Who is responsible for developing, coordinating and administering employee relations policies and procedures for the Office of Commissioner?

Answer 84

Office of Employee Relations

Question 85

Under the Dills Act, represented employees have the right to be represented by their exclusive representative regarding what 3 things?

Answer 85

Wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment

Question 86

Do supervisory employees have the right to be represented regarding all matters related to employment conditions and supervisory employer-employee relations?

Answer 86

Yes

Question 87

The Supreme Court decision that established the right of a bargaining unit employee to be assisted by a union representative at an investigatory interview to which the employee has been summoned by management, when the employee reasonably believes disciplinary action may result from the interview is known as what rule?

Answer 87

Weingarten Rule

Question 88

All managerial, confidential and supervisory employees and all civil service employees are known as what type of employees?

Answer 88

Excluded

Question 89

An employee who is not designated as supervisory, managerial, confidential, or excluded under the Dills Act, another name is rank-and-file employee, is known as what type of employee?

Answer 89

Represented

Question 90

If there is a conflict between departmental policy and provisions of a negotiated contract, which is controlling (which one trumps the other)?

Answer 90

The Contract

Question 91

Are Supervisory employees entitled to bargaining units, exclusive representation, contracts, or have the right to file an unfair labor practice charge?

Answer 91

No

Question 92

When an employee representative is acting in that capacity, they are on _______ _______ with management?

Answer 92

Equal Ground

Question 93

What is the role of the supervisor?

Answer 93

Directs the work force towards accomplishing the department's goals and serves as management's contact with departmental employees.

Question 94

Who must a representative receive approval from to access a work location?

Answer 94

Area commander or designee

Question 95

Who must a representative obtain permission from to engage in representational matters to engage, during working hours, in a business relating to representational matters?

Answer 95

Immediate Supervisor

Question 96

In what circumstances may access of a CAHP representative be denied/delayed to a work location?

Answer 96

Safety, Security, work load requirements, other legitimate circumstances.

Question 97

What should happen if a CAHP representative is denied access to a work location?

Answer 97

Reasonable alternatives should be provided

Question 98

Who may post on an employee organization bulletin board and what may be posted on the bulletin board?

Answer 98

A recognized employee organization (squad club) -notice/results of meeting -elections and their results -recreational/social events -official business

Question 99

What shall be on any materials posted to the bulletin board? Who shall the materials be provided to?

Answer 99

The date and initials of the organization representative. A copy shall be provided to the commander.

Question 100

What should happen if management wants to remove material from an employee organization bulletin board?

Answer 100

A reasonable effort should be made to contact the organization to explain the reason. Management retains final authority for removal.

Question 101

When may employees participate in Union activity?

Answer 101

During non-working hours

Question 102

May Union Representatives use office phones? State Vehicles? Department’s Internal Mail System?

Answer 102

Yes/no/no

Question 103

What is State Release Time and who can approve it?

Answer 103

State time used for representational purposes permitted by contract or policy. Immediate supervisor.

Question 104

May travel time be authorized during the use of State Release Time? Are travel expensesauthorized? May overtime authorized?

Answer 104

Yes, if it can be accomplished within the amount of authorized State Release Time / No / No

Question 105

An employee may use State Release Time during assigned work hours. A reasonable amount for grievance/complaint representation. What amount of time is considered reasonable?

Answer 105

4 hours

Question 106

Is an Excluded Employee authorized to use State Release Time to represent another Excluded Employee, if so, when may this State Release Time be used?

Answer 106

Yes / During the excluded employees normal work hours

Question 107

Requests for the use of state release time for meet and-confer purposes shall be submitted to the appropriate commander. Such requests should be submitted HOW and should include WHAT 3 Items?

Answer 107

In writing -the subjects to be discussed -the number of persons planning to attend -the names of departmental employees for whom state release time is requested

Question 108

When submitting for the use of State Release Time, in what hour increments may State Release Time be used?

Answer 108

0.5 hour increments

Question 109

What is the first level in the grievance/complaint process?

Answer 109

Informal

Question 110

Are employees entitled to the Confidentiality during the grievance/complaint process?

Answer 110

Yes

Question 111

If a formal written grievance / complaint is submitted prior to an informal discussion the command should do what?

Answer 111

Return the grievance / complaint to the employee

Question 112

A formal grievance / complaint contains what three elements?

Answer 112

Alleged Violation Statement of the Problem Proposed Remedy

Question 113

Processing a Grievance / Complaint – Step 1: A copy of the formal grievance/complaint, the first level response, and all pertinent documentation necessary to investigate the issue in dispute shall be forwarded to the respective Division and the Office of Employee Relations (OER) within _____ after issuance of the response.

Answer 113

5 days.

Question 114

Documentation: Grievance records shall be retained at the affected command for a period of _____ following the date of the final action.

Answer 114

3 years

Question 115

Documentation: Complaint records shall be retained at the affected command for a period of _____ following the date of the final action.

Answer 115

1 year

Question 116

A grievance/complaint by a represented employee must be filed with the immediate supervisor within how many days of the causing event? How many days does the supervisor have to respond after the informal discussion?

Answer 116

21 calendar days / 7 calendar days

Question 117

If a represented employee does not agree with the immediate supervisor’s decision they may appeal within how many days to the Area Commander? The Area Commander has how many days to respond to the appeal?

Answer 117

7 calendar days / 14 calendar days

Question 118

Which employees are expressly excluded from collective bargaining by the Dills Act?

Answer 118

managers, supervisors and confidential employees

Question 119

Prior to removing an employee for cause from a specialty pay position, requires approval from who?

Answer 119

Approval from appropriate assistant commissioner

Question 120

Name the 4 specialty pay positions?

Answer 120

Motor Officer Pilot Officer Bilingual Officer ISU Officer

Question 121

What are the two reasons (processes) an employee can be removed from a specialty pay position?

Answer 121

For Cause / Adverse Action

Question 122

If an employee will be removed from a specialty pay position for cause what type of file must be completed to establish cause and provide the appropriate documentation?

Answer 122

Specialty Pay Removal File

Question 123

The effectiveness of the substance testing program is dependent on the Department's ability to justify its actions and demonstrate a proper application of the policy. The following elements are critical if the program is to be successful: (Name the six C’s)

Answer 123

Consistency, Confirmation, Collection of Sample, Chain of Custody, Control of Quality, Contracts

Question 124

The state's substance testing policy requires the involvement of specified managers at least one rank above the supervisor establishing reasonable suspicion in all substance tests to confirm reasonable suspicion exists before any sample can be collected. These managers are to make certain the policy is properly applied and the test appropriately administered. They are known as what?

Answer 124

Confirming official

Question 125

Supervisors who suspect substance abuse by non-sensitive employees are encouraged to support their observations using the same criteria used to establish reasonable suspicion for sensitive positions. Since a chemical test will not normally be part of the investigation, it is essential that the supervisor’s final determination be based upon what?

Answer 125

Specific Articulable Facts

Question 126

Name the 14 sensitive positions?

Answer 126

Peace Officers, Cadets, Auto Mechanics, Auto Technicians, CVIS, PSD/PSO, PSD Supervisor, Gunsmith, Heavy Truck Driver, Lead Auto Mechanic, Lead Motorcycle Mechanic, Motor Carrier Specialist, Motorcycle Mechanic, School Pupil Transportation Safety Coordinator

Question 127

Supervisors investigating suspected substance abuse must remain aware of possible criminal violations. If the supervisor believes criminal violations(s) exist which should be conducted first a criminal investigation or the administrative investigation?

Answer 127

Administrative Investigation

Question 128

If the Substance Abuse Investigation Interview is conducted, the supervisor should keep in mind the employee’s rights under the POBR. During pre-field sobriety questions, the questions are limited to what?

Answer 128

Only those pertaining to the employee's possible need for medical attention should be asked.

Question 129

What is the only authorized chemical test an employee suspected of being under the influence of alcohol may be administered? Suspected of being under the influence of drugs?

Answer 129

Breath Test/ Urine Test

Question 130

When evaluating an employee who is believed to be under the influence, from the moment reasonable suspicion is developed until the time a sample is provided, the employee should remain under what?

Answer 130

Continual Supervision

Question 131

During a sample collection from an employee suspected of being under the influence, ensure at least what amount of urine is collected (to be split into two containers after collected)?

Answer 131

60 ml or 2 oz

Question 132

After employee substance testing, all positive results will be communicated to who for further evaluation. In this instance, that person will attempt to contact the affected employee directly for information (such as legal prescriptions) to determine if there is a legitimate medical explanation for the positive test?

Answer 132

Medical Review Officer

Question 133

Under the substance abuse when an employee is tested for alcohol use, what amount is considered a positive test? Under the inconsistent and incompletable policy what is considered amount is considered a violation of the policy?

Answer 133

0.04% BAC, Any Detectable Amount

Question 134

An employee in violation of the substance abuse policy whose violation is for alcohol only will be ordered to go home. If alcohol is the only violation, when may the employee return to work?

Answer 134

The next work shift as long as the alcohol is fully dissipated.

Question 135

What device MAY NOT be used to develop reasonable suspicion of an employee under the influence?

Answer 135

PAS

Question 136

CalHR requires that a “reliable informant” in developing reasonable suspicion be a __________ who is willing to testify on behalf of management.

Answer 136

Uniformed Peace Officer

Question 137

Employees suspected of being under the combined influence of alcohol and a drug(s) be required to submit which chemical test?

Answer 137

Breath and Urine

Question 138

Substance testing experts believe the best time to collect a urine sample is within how many hours of the initial observation?

Answer 138

2 to 4 hours.

Question 139

When a supervisor has been authorized by the confirming official to conduct the substance test what 7 steps must be followed in regards to the collection of the sample?

Answer 139

Obtain sample kit from Sgt. Office Complete the checklist and chain of custody form Collect the sample Ensure 60 ml or 2 oz Secure in a locked evidence locker Make Arrangements with the designated courier service for sample delivery Notify the Office of Internal Affairs Substance Testing Coordinator

Question 140

Are employees permitted to drink water for the purpose of aiding them in providing a sample?

Answer 140

Yes as long as it is supervised

Question 141

The supervisor collecting the sample must be what and do what as the sample is being collected?

Answer 141

Be the same sex and watch the sample leave the body

Question 142

If an employee refused to cooperate anytime during the substance testing process the supervisor shall advise them of what?

Answer 142

The employee shall be ordered to cooperate and advised that failure to do so may subject them to disciplinary action for insubordination.

Question 143

When a sample is collected the Office of Internal Affairs Substance testing coordinator shall be notified within what period of time of the sample being collected?

Answer 143

48 hours

Question 144

Is the employee entitled to representation during any conversation with the Medical Review Officer about the sample?

Answer 144

Yes

Question 145

If, after how many days, the Medical Review Officer is unable to reach the employee directly (and no exculpatory information was provided by the employee via memorandum), the test be considered a “Positive by non-contact.”

Answer 145

7 days

Question 146

If an employee is suspected of being under the influence of both drugs and alcohol, which chemical test will they be required to submit to?

Answer 146

Breath and Urine

Question 147

Once the confirming official approves the supervisor’s reasonable suspicion, the supervisor should do what next 6 things?

Answer 147

(1) Inform the employee that a decision has been reached to administer a substance test. (2) Assure the employee that the sample will be collected in a proper setting. (3) Advise the employee of the possible consequences of a positive test, which could include termination from state service. (4) If the employee refuses to cooperate, inform the employee that this refusal will result in a request for adverse action and could lead to termination from state service. (5) Make arrangements for testing and, if necessary, transportation. (6) If a uniformed employee is involved, take and secure the employee’s duty belt and weapon until such time as the employee is released to duty.

Question 148

When a sensitive position employee is suspected of being under the influence of drugs after completion of the chemical test, when may the employee return to work?

Answer 148

Not until the results are known

Question 149

After completing the substance testing of an employee suspected of being under the influence, the employee shall be provided what explaining both the supervisor’s role and the employee’s rights relative to substance testing. Along with the memorandum provided to the involved employee, a list of items explaining substance testing, results, and employee assistance shall also be provided?

Answer 149

A memorandum.

Question 150

Positive test results and the documented reasonable suspicion will become part of the request for an Adverse Action File and maintained for what period of time?

Answer 150

5 years

Question 151

The CHP 202X Reasonable Suspicion Report, unless not reasonable possible, should be provided to the involved sensitive position employee within what period of time?

Answer 151

48 hours

Question 152

Commercial Vehicle drivers for the Department who are in a qualifying collision should be drug tested within what period of time?

Answer 152

32 hours

Question 153

How much time should an inquiry for an applicants previous time of employment include for a ‘Non-Sensitive’ position? How much time should an inquiry for an applicants previous time of employment include for a ‘Sensitive’ position?

Answer 153

1 year / 3 years

Question 154

When a departmental supervisor or manager is notified of or discovers alleged misconduct on the part of an employee, notification to the next level in the chain of command shall be made when? If the alleged misconduct is egregious, the supervisor or manager shall make notification when to the succeeding level in the chain of command?

Answer 154

As soon as practical / Immediately

Question 155

POBR stands for what?

Answer 155

Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill Of Rights

Question 156

Name the 6 Adverse Action Penalties:

Answer 156

Formal Written Reprimand Suspension Salary Reduction Within Pay Scale Demotion Involuntary Transfer Dismissal

Question 157

How many days can an employee be Absence Without Leave (AWOL) before its considered an automatic resignation?

Answer 157

5 consecutive work days effective the last day the employee worked

Question 158

Employees shall be notified that misconduct for which they are being counseled may be charged in a future adverse action if the written document contains what admonition? And shall be contained in which document?

Answer 158

Bazemore / Memorandum of Direction

Question 159

The process by which an employee who was considered AWOL has the opportunity to present information to an impartial and uninvolved departmental member with the authority to recommend a final disposition is called?

Answer 159

Coleman Hearing

Question 160

An admonishment given in administrative interrogations which advises the subjects of the interrogations that they do not have the right to refuse to answer administrative questions is known as what?

Answer 160

Lybarger Admonishment

Question 161

What are the two expectations of supervisors and managers in regards to progressive discipline?

Answer 161

Ensure employees are informed of expectations Recognize those individuals who are meeting or exceeding standards

Question 162

Name the eight options on the progressive discipline wheel?

Answer 162

Verbal Counseling CHP 100/112 Memorandum of Counseling Memorandum of Direction Censurable CHP 2 Denial of Salary or Rate Change Interim Reporting Rejection During Probation Adverse Action

Question 163

In an adverse action what rank shall the investigator be?

Answer 163

At lease one rank higher than the involved employee

Question 164

There are two accepted methods for conducting a criminal investigation without negatively influencing the corresponding administrative investigation, what are they?

Answer 164

Concurrent and Consecutive

Question 165

Can criminal investigators participate in administrative interrogations?

Answer 165

No

Question 166

Once this type of interrogation has been conducted, the administrative and criminal investigators shall not have any further contact regarding the investigation until all criminal aspects have been resolved. What type of interrogation is this referred to?

Answer 166

Administrative

Question 167

When an allied agency is conducting the criminal investigation, its report may be used by the Department as a starting point for the administrative investigation. For uniformed employees, a copy of the criminal investigation and/or arrest record shall be included with the administrative investigation. For non-uniformed employees, can arrest reports which have not resulted in a conviction be included in the investigative file?

Answer 167

No

Question 168

In what 3 situations shall a non-uniformed employee be administratively investigated?

Answer 168

Criminal conduct resulting in a felony conviction Criminal conduct resulting in a misdemeanor for moral turpitude Criminal misconduct where the employee has established a nexus to the department.

Question 169

Within how many days does the area and division commander have to forward the investigation to OIA?

Answer 169

60 calendar days

Question 170

The decision to consent to an interview with an outside investigation regarding a civil rights investigation shall be at the sole discretion of who?

Answer 170

The employee being investigated

Question 171

Adverse action shall not be undertaken against an employee for any act, omission, or other allegation of misconduct if the investigation is not completed within how long of the Department’s discovery of the allegation by a person authorized to initiate an internal investigation?

Answer 171

1 year

Question 172

A probationary employee must be served with a notice of rejection during probation prior to when, allowing time for the pre-disciplinary hearing.

Answer 172

The last day of the probationary period

Question 173

The employee under investigation shall not be subjected to visits by the press or news media without the employee’s express consent, nor shall the employee’s what 2 things NOT be given to the press or news media without the employee’s consent?

Answer 173

Home address or photograph

Question 174

Should a Citizens’ complaint investigations normally be COMPLETED before or Investigated CONCURRENTLY with an administrative investigation which results in an adverse action or rejection during probation?

Answer 174

Completed before

Question 175

When an employee is placed on a leave of absence without pay, the investigation must be completed, reviewed, and the employee served with the notice of adverse action within how many calendar days?

Answer 175

15 Calendar days

Question 176

A Department-initiated leave of absence may be terminated at any time by providing the employee a notice within what period of time?

Answer 176

48 hours

Question 177

During the course of an investigation, allegations of discrimination, harassment, and/or racial profiling may be made or discovered. Appropriate notifications shall be made to Division and the Office of Equal Employment Opportunity (OEEO). Should the allegations be made part of the current investigation or should a separate investigation be conducted?

Answer 177

Separate Investigation completed consecutively or concurrently

Question 178

The first actions of the investigator can have a profound effect on the outcome and quality of the investigation. Careful planning and good case management skills are essential to any successful investigation. The investigator shall meet with the commander (or designee) and establish a what?

Answer 178

Investigative plan

Question 179

Once the investigative plan has been established the supervisor shall begin a detailed account of all actions taken and evidence obtained from the time Area became aware of the misconduct until the investigation was completed is known as a what?

Answer 179

Chronological summary

Question 180

In order to ensure an investigation is conducted in accordance with policy and law, investigators should review what?

Answer 180

POBR

Question 181

Managers, supervisors, or other authorized personnel may only review non-threshold event video recordings under what 3 circumstances:

Answer 181

Employee responsible for the MVARS event voluntarily agrees to viewing Prior PRA or discovery request For the purpose of proving or disproving specific allegations of misconduct

Question 182

Evidence pertaining to an administrative investigation shall be stored for a minimum of what period of time?

Answer 182

5 years

Question 183

Under what 4 circumstances may an employee’s locker be searched?

Answer 183

In the involved employee's presence With the involved employee's consent After a valid search warrant has been obtained The employee should be provided a reasonable opportunity to respond to the Department's search location and observe the search

Question 184

All statements from departmental employees who are interviewed as witnesses during internal investigations shall be RECORDED or SUMMARIZED on a Confidential Memorandum?

Answer 184

Both

Question 185

Prior to conducting an interview with an employee regarding potential criminal acts, investigators shall issue what?

Answer 185

Miranda Warning

Question 186

During a criminal interrogation are employees required to answer questions? During a administrative interrogation are employees required to answer questions?

Answer 186

No / Yes

Question 187

Prior to the administrative interrogation the involved employee shall be provided official what and covering what?

Answer 187

Notice of interrogation covering the full scope of questioning

Question 188

The Notice of Administrative Interrogation shall contain what 4 elements?

Answer 188

Scope of the interrogation Rank, name, and command of the lead and assistant interrogator Date, time and location of the interrogation The right to representation

Question 189

At the conclusion of the interrogation (but while still being recorded) the investigator shall advise the employee the investigation is ongoing and order the employee what?

Answer 189

Not to discuss the interrogation or investigation with anyone other than a chosen representative, attorney, commander (if not party to the investigation) or investigators assigned.

Question 190

In accordance with Evidence Code § 970 - 981, the marital privilege exempts a married person from having to testify against a spouse in any proceeding. The intention of the martial privilege is to protect confidential communications between two individuals at the time they were in a marital relationship. Does marital privilege exist when both spouses are uniformed members of the Department?

Answer 190

No

Question 191

Government Code § 3306 Admonition, Employees covered under the Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights Act (POBR) have the right to submit a written response within how many days?

Answer 191

30 calendar days

Question 192

When an internal investigation originates as the result of information reported by another departmental employee how many days do you have to provide the reporting employee any closing documentation?

Answer 192

30 calendar days

Question 193

This hearing allows the affected employee an opportunity to respond prior to the imposition of discipline (Rejection during probation, or termination, or reassignment for medical reasons as required by state). What type of hearing is this?

Answer 193

Pre-disciplinary hearing

Question 194

Who is responsible for scheduling the Pre-disciplinary hearing?

Answer 194

The effected employee

Question 195

If an employee separates from the Department during an administrative investigation, the file shall be converted to what type of investigation?

Answer 195

Miscellaneous Investigation

Question 196

What happens during an administrative investigation if an employee begins short-term military leave prior to the completion of the investigation?

Answer 196

The employee shall be provided a memorandum advising the one year timeframe for completion and service of the investigation has been paused due to the employee's unavailability

Question 197

Travel time of up to how many hours is approved for a scheduled employment interview for any state civil service employment list.

Answer 197

8 hours

Question 198

A CHP 127 package may be submitted via e-mail up to, but not exceeding, HOW MANY days in advance of an anticipated nonuniformed position vacancy?

Answer 198

90 calendar days

Question 199

Vacant nonuniform positions shall be advertised for a minimum of HOW MANY calendar days in accordance with Title 2, CCR Section 249.2. The advertisement is valid for HOW MANY days from the posted date. If a conditional offer of employment has not been made within that time frame, the vacant position shall be re-advertised?

Answer 199

10 calendar days / 180 calendar days

Question 200

Hiring Command. Hiring supervisors and managers shall electronically review all applications received, apply the preestablished application screening criteria to all applications, and update the hiring actions IN WHAT SYSTEM for all applicants?

Answer 200

The examination and certification online system (ECOS)

Question 201

Minimum Response Time Frames. In accordance with Title 2, CCR Section 258, when establishing the time periods for eligibles to reply to an employment inquiry, the following minimum time frames shall apply. (1) Verbal/Telephone: A minimum of HOW MANY business days response time following the initial contact, including a voicemail message. (2) Mail: A minimum of HOW MANY business days after the date the written notice is sent. (3) Electronic: A minimum of HOW MANY business days after the date the electronic notice is sent.

Answer 201

(1) 2 business days (2) 6 business days (3) 6 business days

Question 202

A former uniformed employee must apply for reinstatement to a uniformed position within how many years of separation?

Answer 202

3 years

Question 203

What is the maximum travel distance from residence to work location for noncommand employees using a state vehicle?

Answer 203

50 miles

Question 204

How many days of service in a pay period must an employee work to be considered a complete pay period?

Answer 204

11 days

Question 205

How many hours must a probationary employee work during a 6 month probationary period? A 12 month probationary period?

Answer 205

840 hours / 1680 hours

Question 206

During a probationary period is vacation and military leave counted towards total hours worked while on probation?

Answer 206

No

Question 207

When an employee is on military leave what period of time is considered short-term military leave?

Answer 207

6 months or less

Question 208

When must a permanent or probationary employee return to state service after short-term military leave?

Answer 208

Within 14 days after the end of the military leave

Question 209

What is the effective date of long-term military leave?

Answer 209

Within 90 calendar days after the last day the employee physically worked

Question 210

Government Code (GC) Section 19838 requires the state to recoup salary overpayments; however, action to recoup an overpayment cannot be taken unless the action is initiated within how many years from the date of the overpayment, and the recoupable amount must not exceed what percent of the employee’s monthly net disposable earnings.

Answer 210

3 years / 25%

Question 211

In what five ways can an eligible employee receive Catastrophic Leave?

Answer 211

Annual leave, vacation, CTO, personal leave, and/or holiday credits (not sick leave)

Question 212

Catastrophic Leave Donations: The donating employee must maintain a minimum of how hours of paid leave time to be eligible to donate.

Answer 212

80 hours

Question 213

In what three ways can Catastrophic Leave be used?

Answer 213

For illness or injury of an employee For illness of a qualifying family member For an employee significantly impacted by a natural disaster

Question 214

Donated credits will be credited to the employee’s account in what hour increments and will be reflected as an hour-for-hour addition to the vacation/annual leave balance of the receiving employee.

Answer 214

1 hour increments

Question 215

How many days does an employee have to submit a memorandum stating they canceled their secondary employment?

Answer 215

10 calendar days

Question 216

If an employee refuses to sign a censurable CHP 2, what shall the supervisor indicate in the employee’s signature box if anything?

Answer 216

Refused to sign

Question 217

How long shall a CHP 2 written reprimand be maintained in an employee’s field folder?

Answer 217

3 years

Question 218

A new ESA ID card will be issued every how many years at the time of the employee’s annual performance appraisal?

Answer 218

Every 5 years

Question 219

Employers shall permit an employee to use, in any calendar year, an amount not less than the sick leave that would be accrued during how many months or hours at the employee’s current rate of entitlement to attend to the illness of a child, parent, spouse, or domestic partner of the employee.

Answer 219

6 months / 48 hours

Question 220

If an employee takes time off for a state civil exam, evaluation for duty, entry into military service, or a SCIF appointment, the absence PAID or UNPAID time off.

Answer 220

Paid

Question 221

The charge to bereavement leave shall not exceed HOW MANY eight-hour days for any one occurrence. Bereavement leave may only be used in increments of WHAT NUMBER of hours. If the death occurred outside the state, an additional HOW MANY days may be requested and shall be charged either to the employee’s sick leave or leave without pay.

Answer 221

3, 8 hour days 1 hour 2 days

Question 222

A Commander shall provide at minimum a 30 minute to one hour meal period for an employee who works at least how many hours in a shift?

Answer 222

5 hours

Question 223

A Commander may grant up to 15 minutes of rest periods for every four hours an employee works. The total time for rest periods per shift shall not exceed how many minutes?

Answer 223

25 minutes

Question 224

Overtime will be credited on a what hour basis with a full quarter hour credit to be granted if half or more of the period is worked. Smaller fractional units will not be accumulated.

Answer 224

One quarter

Question 225

Overtime for officers and sergeants on the 8.5-hour work schedule is defined as all hours worked in excess of how many hours in a 28-day work period.

Answer 225

170 hours

Question 226

Overtime for officers and sergeants on the 9.5-hour schedule is defined as all hours worked over how many hours in a 28-day work period. Each employee working this schedule shall be credited with either one-half hour or 1 hour of CTO at straight time for time worked more than how many hours, but less than 171 hours every 28-day work period

Answer 226

171 hours / 170 hours

Question 227

Nonuniformed employees may earn up to how many hours of CTO. Hours earned in excess of how many hours shall be converted to paid overtime? Officers and sergeants may earn up to how many hours of CTO?

Answer 227

240 hours / 480 hours

Question 228

For the purpose of assigning voluntary overtime details, uniformed employees shall not be considered available if the assignment would result in the employee working more than how many hours in any 24-hour period.

Answer 228

16.5 hours

Question 229

Employees who are called back to work during their regular shift hours on a day that they are officially on leave credit (sick leave, vacation/annual leave, or CTO) shall be credited with a minimum of how many hours work time?

Answer 229

4 hours

Question 230

An overtime meal allowance of $8 may be provided only when an employee is required to work how many consecutive hours prior to or how many consecutive hours after the regular work shift?

Answer 230

2 hours / 2 hours

Question 231

An employee shall be allowed time off with pay for an employment interview scheduled during the employee’s working hours with any department when the employee’s name has been certified for a position from any state civil service employment list. Departmental policy allows a reasonable amount of travel time up to how many hours for such interviews. If the employee is on vacation, annual leave, CTO, PLP, or holiday credit, no restoration of credits will be made.

Answer 231

8 hours

Question 232

The Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) and the California Family Rights Act (CFRA) require employers to provide up to _____ weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave during a ____-month period for eligible employees for specified family and medical reasons.

Answer 232

12 weeks / 12 months

Question 233

Supervisors shall be responsible for completing and providing an employee with the CHP 738 within how many business days after the employee has submitted a request for an FMLA/CFRA leave or the supervisor becomes aware the employee’s leave may qualify for FMLA/CFRA. Supervisors shall be responsible for completing and providing an employee with the CHP 739 within how many business days after the employee has submitted the applicable completed medical certification form.

Answer 233

5 business days / 5 business days

Question 234

The CHP 738 informs the employee whether or not the employee is eligible for an FMLA/CFRA leave based on the eligibility requirements of having worked 12 months and at least how many hours in the previous 12 months.

Answer 234

1250 hours

Question 235

Regardless of whether or not FMLA/CFRA is to be continuous or will be taken intermittently, an employee must provide their supervisor at least how many days advance notice before FMLA leave is to begin if the leave is foreseeable?

Answer 235

30 days

Question 236

To be eligible for FMLA/CFRA benefits, an employee must have at least 12 months (52 weeks) of state service, and have worked at least 1,250 hours (actual time worked) immediately before the date the FMLA/CFRA leave is to start. Sick leave, vacation/annual leave, administrative time off, compensating time off, holidays, informal time off, or personal leave, any paid leave due to job-related injuries or illness will not be counted towards the 1,250 hours of work. Which of the 3 ARE counted in the 1250 hours FMLA qualification? (1) Overtime hours (2) Time off for military leave (3) Union Paid Leave

Answer 236

All of them are counted toward FMLA

Question 237

Authority for incident command at hazardous materials events is defined in:

Answer 237

2454 CVC 8574.17 GC CA Hazmat Incident Contingency Plane

Question 238

"Designated employees"; are required to report incidents to County Health Officers and Boards of Supervisors if there is a reasonable belief that the release or threatened release poses substantial present or potential hazard to human health, safety, property or the environment, within their jurisdictions. Notification of the County Health Officer and the Board of Supervisors must be made ________ of the employee's knowledge of the incident.

Answer 238

72 hours

Question 239

It is not necessary to report spills of fluids incidental to the operation of a motor vehicle (e.g., gas from the fuel tank, oil from the engine, or coolant from the radiator) less than _______ total that are wholly contained within the paved portion of the highway and promptly cleaned up and disposed of by Caltrans (or county roads/public works).

Answer 239

42 gallons

Question 240

CHP 407E - Hazardous Materials Incident Report. Requirements for Completion. A CHP 407E shall be completed for all hazardous materials incidents and suspected hazardous materials incidents resulting in a response by an employee of this Department, except as described in paragraph 6.b. of this chapter. The CHP 407E shall be completed and submitted to Division within _____ business days following conclusion of the incident. The original CHP 407E shall be forwarded through normal channels to CVS within _____ business days following conclusion of the incident.

Answer 240

10 business days 30 business days

Question 241

Officers are assigned monthly critical task ratings using a three-point rating system on the CHP 100, Officer’s Evaluation/Activity Summary. ____ critical tasks have been identified as essential to performing the job of an officer and are used in evaluating individual performance. These critical tasks and their rating guidelines reflect the expectations of the Department and have been developed to emphasize observable job behaviors of officers in the work setting. An officer’s performance of the critical tasks is to be rated on the three-point system (_______, _______, and __________).

Answer 241

Eight Excellent Proficient Needs Improvement

Question 242

The rating system used for the CHP 118, Performance Appraisal – Officer, consists of a three-point rating scale as follows:

Answer 242

Excellent Proficient Deficient

Question 243

CHP 118, Performance Appraisal – Officer. A rating of _______ will _______result in the initiation of interim reporting.

Answer 243

Deficient. Always

Question 244

CHP 118, Performance Appraisal – Officer. Probationary officers shall receive written performance appraisals within 10 days of _______________________.

Answer 244

the end of 4 months, 8 months and 12 months

Question 245

California Code of Regulations, Title 2, Section 321, prescribes specific requirements for completion of the probationary period. If an officer has not worked the required _______ for the probationary period due to absences, the period will be extended.

Answer 245

1680 hours

Question 246

Area Field Training and Evaluation Program Coordinators (FTEP). Area FTEP coordinators and their alternates are sergeants who administer Area training operations as collateral duties. Each Area assigned a trainee shall provide an Area FTEP coordinator. When an Area is assigned more than ______trainees, the Area will also provide an alternate Area FTEP coordinator.

Answer 246

Two

Question 247

During Phases I, II, and III, a minimum of ____ hours of training shall be provided per phase. At the conclusion of the four phases, a minimum of ____ hours of training shall have been provided to the trainee. Limbo days (the first day of Phases I, II, and III) are included in the total number of training hours as they are assigned to an FTO on that first day; however, the initial orientation period is not included.

Answer 247

187 hours, 600 hours

Question 248

Area FTEP coordinator will arrange for all trainees to be interviewed by either the Area commander or an Area management-level designee at the end of the____________. The purpose of these interviews is to ensure field training is conducted in an environment that is free of sexual harassment or other forms of discrimination and the trainee displays an understanding of the Public Trust Initiative.

Answer 248

The first and third phase of training

Question 249

The ________________ is the recommended reference source to be used when preparing departmental written work. ______________ presents the basic rules for punctuation, capitalization, spelling, and grammar that apply in virtually every piece of writing.

Answer 249

Gregg Reference Manual

Question 250

Signatures. The original of all correspondence shall be signed in _________.

Answer 250

Blue Ink

Question 251

Communications Network (Comm-Net) messages are a method by which the California Highway Patrol (CHP) disseminates information throughout the Department. These messages may also be used to establish policy for up to_____________. Communications Network messages must be uploaded to the Communications Network Message System site for CHP employees to view.

Answer 251

90 calendar days

Question 252

The campaign hat shall be worn by uniformed employees under the following conditions:

Answer 252

Part of formal uniform used at funerals, memorial services, formal personnel inspections, Academy graduations, awards presentations, or as directed by the commander When performing traffic control (peace officer recognition) When on the grounds of the State Capitol Public contact (PIO stuff)

Question 253

Soft body armor shall be replaced within______________________. The serial numbers, level of vest, lot numbers, and sizes of each panel shall be recorded in the Employee Training Records System.

Answer 253

5 years from date of manufacture

Question 254

A(n)_______________ is a conflict regarding the application of a contract or MOU.

Answer 254

Grievance

Question 255

An injury or illness claim to which there exists substantial evidence to question whether the injury or illness is employment (job) related is considered a(n) _____________.

Answer 255

Questionable Injury or Illness

Question 256

A person arrested for driving under the influence of drugs ____ be evaluated by a DRE.

Answer 256

Should

Question 257

A chronological summary is required in which type of complaints:

Answer 257

Category 1 complaints

Question 258

Radar-certified officers must be recertified _____________.

Answer 258

Each calendar year

Question 259

Requests for supplemental law enforcement assistance from allied agencies (should/shall) follow the steps of the ______.

Answer 259

Should, mutual aid process

Question 260

True of False, The Fresh Pursuit Act is applicable to felony and misdemeanor pursuits.

Answer 260

False, Felony's only, unless there has been a request for interstate mutual assistance

Question 261

You are the on-duty supervisor; you are notified by dispatch that an allied law enforcement agency is working a homicide adjacent to a freeway. What shall you do?

Answer 261

You shall respond to represent the Department and assist the allied agency IC by managing traffic with minimal disruption to normal traffic.

Question 262

The exclusive means by which a peace officer’s personnel records can be disclosed in court is by what is commonly known as a:

Answer 262

Pitchess motion

Question 263

The category of “Other complaints” does not include one of the following: A. Departmental complaint B. Citation validity C. Other agency D. Rescinded complaint E. Frivolous complaint

Answer 263

C. Other Agency

Question 264

A “Minor” adverse action is an action which requests a penalty of ____ days or less or a step reduction in salary for _____ months or less (excluding formal written reprimands)

Answer 264

five days / five months

Question 265

During field training, what is the maximum number of days a trainee can miss without training being expanded the number of days missed?

Answer 265

Up to two during a phase

Question 266

True/False: It is not necessary to retain field notes if all of the following conditions are met: The notes are incorporated into a formal report; the report accurately reflects the contents of the notes; the prosecutor turns over a copy of the formal report to the defense prior to the start of trial.

Answer 266

True

Question 267

Officers _______ (should/shall) not use OC at a distance of less than ________ feet unless an extreme hazard exists, and ________ (should/shall) not aim directly into subject’s eyes at a distance less than ________ feet.

Answer 267

shall 3 feet / should 5 feet

Question 268

When responding to a custodial facility, the mission of the California Highway Patrol will be limited to:

Answer 268

Prevention of death or injury to a person including inmates or wards and protection of Property

Question 269

LIMITATIONS. The total petty cash fund shall be limited to $______ and the change fund shall be limited to $_______.

Answer 269

$300 / $100

Question 270

Occupational Safety -- PHILOSOPHY. The Department is _____________ responsible for the safety of its employees. Safe work conditions and safe work procedures are essential to the efficient functioning of the CHP. The Department is also responsible for ensuring everything possible will be done to protect employees from accidents, injuries, occupational illnesses, and exposures to hazardous substances. a) legally. b) morally. c) Both (a) and (b). d) sometimes.

Answer 270

c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 271

Civilians’ Complaints. -- Category II Complaints include the following:

Answer 271

Complaints alleging verbal misconduct, nonverbal misconduct (not involving physical contact), and/or complaints regarding matters not related to an employee's conduct

Question 272

Civilians’ Complaints. -- Category I Complaints include the following:

Answer 272

Complaints alleging physical contact, excessive force, and/or criminal, racial, sexual, or immoral conduct. Category I complaints also include those which allege acts of dishonesty and/or falsification of documentation, or allegations of unethical conduct.

Question 273

Officer Scruffy’s shift ended at 0600 hours. He drives his personal car to the gym on the way home, works out in his gym clothes, and arrives at home around 0730. His neighbor, Ms. Foster, has seen Officer Scruffy conduct multiple traffic stops in town in the CHP patrol vehicle, and recognizes him as her neighbor. Additionally, Officer Scruffy displays the “thin blue line flag” in his window of his residence. As Ms. Foster sees Officer Scruffy arrive home, she yells at him from across the street, “You better take that flag down out of your window!” Officer Scruffy yells back at Ms. Foster to “Fuck off!” Ms. Foster contacts you, as the newly promoted Sergeant to your Area, to file a Civilians’ Complaint. You should:

Answer 273

A nexus to employment by the Department was not established by Officer Scruffy. The fact Ms. Foster is aware of Officer Scruffy's position does not alone provide a nexus to the Department.

Question 274

Civilians’ Complaints: The normal suspense period for complaints received at the command, or forwarded from Office of Internal Affairs, is _____ days. The suspense period for legislative complaints is ______ days.

Answer 274

60 days / 30 days

Question 275

Citizens' complaints which originate while an employee is in training at the Academy will be the responsibility of the _________________.

Answer 275

The Academy Commander

Question 276

Corrective Documentation To Employee. Any corrective documentation issued to an employee as the result of a complaint investigation, shall be removed from the employee’s field personnel folder after a period of ________ , commencing from the date of issue.

Answer 276

3 years

Question 277

Complaint Investigations. Category I, Category II, and Other complaints shall be destroyed after a period of _________, commencing from the date the Department originally received the complaint.

Answer 277

5 years

Question 278

Six-Month Probationary Period. Employees on a 6-month probation shall receive written appraisals at 2 months, 4 months, 6 months, and more frequently as necessary. An employee serving a 6-month probationary period must work a minimum of ______ hours during the 6-month period.

Answer 278

840 hours

Question 279

Twelve-Month Probationary Period. Employees on a 12-month probation will receive written appraisals at 4 months, 8 months, 12 months, and more frequently as necessary. An employee serving a 12-month probationary period must work a minimum of ______ hours during the 12-month period.

Answer 279

1680 hours

Question 280

Uniformed Employees-Training Required Upon Return from an Approved Leave of Absence. Uniformed employees who are on an approved leave of absence for less than 1 year shall be retrained and recertified at"

Answer 280

Their assigned command

Question 281

Uniformed employees who are on an approved leave of absence for 12 continuous months to 2 years are required to complete Refresher Training at _________prior to resuming field-related duties at their assigned commands.

Answer 281

The Academy

Question 282

Uniformed employees who are on an approved leave of absence for over 2 years are required to complete __________________________prior to resuming field-related duties at their assigned commands.

Answer 282

Reinstatement Training at the Academy

Question 283

Military Leave. Short-term military leave is leave for ____________________ less.

Answer 283

6 months or less (180 Calendar Days)

Question 284

NONINDUSTRIAL DISABILITY INSURANCE (NDI). Payments may be authorized for a maximum of ________for one continuous period of disability.

Answer 284

26 weeks

Question 285

Supervisors shall ensure new ESA ID cards are issued to their employees every ______ year(s) in conjunction with the replacement of the field folder photograph.

Answer 285

5 years

Question 286

The use of any official CHP insignia decals must be approved by the ___________.

Answer 286

The commissioner's office

Question 287

Secondary firearms which meet the secondary firearm criteria (i.e., caliber, design, and safety mechanisms) may be carried in lieu of the primary firearm only while traveling to, during, and returning from court in civilian attire, in a ____________.

Answer 287

Privately owned vehicle

Question 288

Pursuant to CFR Section 1544.219, when flying armed, the consumption of alcoholic beverages will be prohibited ______ hours prior to and during a flight.

Answer 288

8 hours

Question 289

All uniformed personnel shall train with the primary firearm on a ______basis, shooting a minimum of ____ rounds.

Answer 289

Quarterly, 100 rounds

Question 290

The commander shall designate a ________ or above to conduct a _________ inspection of all ammunition controls.

Answer 290

supervisor / quarterly

Question 291

The number of keys to the ammunition storage location shall be limited to_______________, plus a commander's emergency access key.

Answer 291

The number of primary range officers assigned to the command (no more than two)

Question 292

Approximately six months later, a second inspection shall be conducted requiring the firearm to be “field-stripped” and checked for obvious defects and cleanliness. A test fire of ______ is required prior to the firearm being placed back into service.

Answer 292

No test fire is required for "field strip" inspections of departmental or secondary firearms.

Question 293

Tactical rifles that are routinely fielded or used for live-fire training shall be inspected and cleaned with a departmentally approved cleaner/lubricant quarterly. One of these inspections is required to be a full tear-down that will include test-firing with __________of departmental ammunition.

Answer 293

10 rounds

Question 294

Recording Total Staff Hours. The total number of staff hours involved in the incident response shall be listed on the CHP 735, rounded to the nearest _____ minutes.

Answer 294

15

Question 295

Adverse Action. A disciplinary legal action taken in response to an employee’s misconduct or continued failure to meet the rules of conduct established by law and/or departmental policy. Penalties consist of:

Answer 295

Formal Written Reprimand, Suspension, Reduction in Salary, Demotion, Involuntary Transfer, Dismissal

Question 296

An admonishment given in administrative interrogations which advises the subjects of the interrogations that they do not have the right to refuse to answer administrative questions.

Answer 296

Lybarger Admonishment

Question 297

The process by which an employee who has resigned (by being absent without leave [AWOL]) has the opportunity to present information to an impartial and uninvolved departmental member with the authority to recommend a final disposition.

Answer 297

Coleman Hearing

Question 298

The ______________shall be included in all Memorandums of Direction (MOD).

Answer 298

Bazemore Admonition

Question 299

_________________ is intended to modify an employee’s behavior, and should instruct and train the employee to act and perform in accordance with established standards of conduct.

Answer 299

Progressive Discipline

Question 300

Corrective Documentation. This is the next step in the progressive discipline process. Corrective documentation can take the form of any of the following: a) Monthly evaluation comment (e.g., CHP 100, CHP 100PSD, CHP 112). b) Memorandum of Counseling. c) Memorandum of Direction d) Censurable CHP 2. e) All of the above.

Answer 300

e) All of the above.

Question 301

Supervisors are the main defense in maintaining a drug-free workplace. When a problem arises, it is their responsibility to confront the situation and initiate the proper action, including substance testing. For the substance test to be effective, each supervisor must ensure that:

Answer 301

Reasonable suspicion is supported by proper documentation; The sample is properly collected; The chain of custody is maintained; and The employee's rights are not violated.

Question 302

The effectiveness of the substance testing program is dependent on the Department's ability to justify its actions and demonstrate a proper application of the policy. The following elements are critical if the program is to be successful:

Answer 302

Consistency, Confirmation, Collection of Sample, Chain of Custody, Control of Quality, and Contracts

Question 303

CONSTITUTIONAL CONSIDERATIONS: Any scientific test of bodily fluids will reveal personal information about the person providing the sample. This information may include drugs the person has ingested (both legally and/or illegally), a disease such as diabetes, or some other medical condition not previously known by the employer. Consequently, there is ongoing debate as to whether or not the state is entitled to such personal information if it was obtained against an employee's will or without a warrant. There are three constitutional issues in such debates:

Answer 303

Fourth amendment - search and seizure Fifth amendment - self-incrimination Fourteenth amendment - due process.

Question 304

Fourteenth Amendment. This amendment guarantees the right to due process and has been the basis for challenges to certain substance testing programs. This protection requires the government to ensure procedural and substantive due process when an employee's constitutional rights are affected. When claims are made that due process has been denied, they most frequently allege:

Answer 304

A lack of advance notice of testing. No advisement of consequences. Inadequate opportunity to respond to charges. Lack of opportunity to challenge test results or inability to order additional tests to compare results.

Question 305

For the purposes of substance abuse testing, a sensitive position is defined as any peace officer as identified in Section 830 of the Penal Code and any other position in which drug or alcohol affected performance could clearly endanger the _________.

Answer 305

health and safety of others.

Question 306

The following departmental classifications have been designated and approved as sensitive positions, except for: a) All peace officers.. b) Cadets. c) Office Technician (typing) d) School Pupil Transportation Safety Coordinator.

Answer 306

Office Technician (typing)

Question 307

SUBSTANCE ABUSE: Reasonable suspicion is the good faith belief based on:

Answer 307

Specific articulable facts or evidence that an employee may have violated the substance abuse policy; and Substance testing could reveal evidence in support of a violation.

Question 308

Use of the PAS device to establish reasonable suspicion ________ .

Answer 308

Is not authorized.

Question 309

Sample Collection at Work Location. If the supervisor decides to collect the sample, it must be done in an atmosphere of dignity and reasonable privacy. The office restroom could be used in this situation as long as the sample is provided under the supervisor's direct observation with some arrangement so that other employees cannot enter during collection of the sample. Before collecting the sample, the supervisor shall:

Answer 309

Ensure at least 60 milliliters (approximately two fluid ounces) of urine is collected; (to be split into two containers after collected).

Question 310

SUBSTANCE ABUSE TESTING; When collecting the urine sample, the supervisor:

Answer 310

Shall be of the same sex and will actually watch the urine leave the employee’s body.

Question 311

SUBSTANCE ABUSE TESTING; Employees refusing to cooperate at any stage of the collection process:

Answer 311

Shall be ordered to cooperate and advised that failure to do so may subject them to disciplinary action for insubordination.

Question 312

The following chemical test(s) may be obtained for substance abuse testing for a non-sensitive employee: a) breath. b) urine. c) blood. c) all of the above. d) none of the above.

Answer 312

d) none of the above

Question 313

SUBSTANCE ABUSE TESTING; Reasonable suspicion exists only after the appointing power or a designee has also considered the facts and/or evidence and agrees that the constitute a finding of reasonable suspicion. This person is known as:

Answer 313

the Confirming Official

Question 314

SEXUAL HARASSMENT; Courts have recognized two types of sexual harassment under federal and state law. These include ___________ and _____________:

Answer 314

Quid pro quo and hostile work environment

Question 315

Harassment is defined as pervasive, persistent, unwelcome conduct which is perpetuated by an individual’s status in a protected group. Harassment reaches the level of illegality when the conduct becomes a condition of continued employment, or the conduct is severe or pervasive enough to be considered hostile, intimidating, or abusive; as measured by the __________________.

Answer 315

reasonable person standard

Question 316

After January 1, 2006, each employer covered by this section shall provide sexual harassment prevention training and education to each supervisory employee in California once every ____ .:

Answer 316

2 years

Question 317

DUI checkpoints; At least _____ warning signs shall be used when setting up a sobriety checkpoint.

Answer 317

Six

Question 318

What is the Excluded employees bill of rights?

Answer 318

Supervisory employees have the right to be represented regarding matters related to employment conditions and supervisor employee relations.

Question 319

Unit 5. Who is considered a represented employee?

Answer 319

An employee who is not designated as a supervisor or manager of a confidential employee (rank and file)

Question 320

True or False: Supervisory employees are not entitled to bargaining unit rights, exclusive representation, or the right to file an unfair labor practices charge.

Answer 320

True: Limited rights only

Question 321

What is the role of a management team?

Answer 321

Direct the workforce towards accomplishing goals, reflection of management

Question 322

May any employee conduct association/union activities during work hours? If not, when?

Answer 322

No. An employee may conduct business during non-work hours. Such as lunch breaks, rest breaks, before and after work.

Question 323

Release time: The needs of the command are the primary consideration when approving request for release time. When may release time be granted?

Answer 323

During employees regular work hours. No shift or schedule changes are allowed.

Question 324

Who may grant or deny release time?

Answer 324

Employee’s supervisor

Question 325

Can employee representative claim travel time for rep activities, employee organizations business or interrogation representation?

Answer 325

No

Question 326

True or False: During work hours, an employee may utilize a reasonable amount of release time for grievance / complaint representation?

Answer 326

True (not for meet and confer)

Question 327

How many hours of release time may a rep use to assist an officer who has been involved in an officer involved shooting?

Answer 327

8 hours. If the time is outside the reps regular works hours, the reps regular work shift shall be adjusted to compensate

Question 328

When is the grievance procedure used?

Answer 328

Violation of contract. Example: denial of representation, denial of OT compensation, annual performance evaluation dispute.

Question 329

When is the complaint procedure used?

Answer 329

Settles dispute over policy and procedures. Examples: allegation officer must work graveyard shift alone, denial of hardship transfer

Question 330

What are the 5 levels of grievance/complaint process?

Answer 330

1. Informal (discussion employee and supervisor 2. Level 1 – Area Commander 3. Level 2 – Division Commander 4. Level 3 – Office of comm. (final level for represented employees 5. Level 4 – DPA (last level for excluded employees)

Question 331

Can a grievance or complaint be accepted on a CHP memo? Yes or No

Answer 331

No. Only on a CHP 94

Question 332

Grievance and appeal procedures (excluded Employees). What are the time limits for an informal discussion (employee/rep)?

Answer 332

Employee/rep shall discuss grievance with immediate supervisor within 10 days. Supervisor shall render a decision either verbally or in writing within 5 days.

Question 333

What is the purpose of arbitration?

Answer 333

Arbitration is a third party settlement of disputes outside of court. Handled by OER and DPA.

Question 334

True or False: A commander may choose not to meet and confer with a rep over findings in a citizen’s complaint, a comment on performance documents, MOD or Form 2?

Answer 334

False. A commander is obligated to meet. However, it is the commander choice whether or not to allow the employee in the meeting.

Question 335

What is an unfair labor practice?

Answer 335

Actions or inactions that violate the Dill’s Act.

Question 336

True or False. The manager acting as a confirming official must be physically present during the investigation.

Answer 336

False. May be done by telephone if needed.

Question 337

In what code can you find POBR?

Answer 337

Government Code. Sections 3300-3312

Question 338

Can a public safety officer be ordered to cooperate with other agencies involved in a criminal investigation?

Answer 338

Yes. Failure to cooperate may lead to a charge of insubordination.

Question 339

Generally, no officer is required to disclose any financial records. What are the exceptions?

Answer 339

If such information is obtained or required under proper legal procedure or law. Can be done if an employee is applying for a specialized unit where there is a strong possibility of bribes or other improper inducements.

Question 340

If it is shown that an agency has “maliciously violated” the employees POBR rights “with the intent to injure the public safety officer” a civil penalty of up to $ _______ plus attorney fees can be assessed.

Answer 340

$25,000

Question 341

Who can reject an employee during probation?

Answer 341

Commander or designee

Question 342

Without an extension, the internal investigation should be completed and forwarded to OIA within ___ days?

Answer 342

60 calendar days

Question 343

If the commander feels a polygraph would be desirable during an investigation. He / she may submit a request. Who can approve the request?

Answer 343

Commissioner No adverse comment can be made anywhere in the file if the employee refuses.

Question 344

If an interrogation is to take place and the employee refuses to waive his Miranda Rights, can an admin. Interrogation immediately take place?

Answer 344

It should not be conducted until approval is obtained from prosecutor.

Question 345

After approval, can an employee obtain a copy of the investigative file? If so, what is required?

Answer 345

Yes. A memo shall be attached admonishing the employee of confidentiality

Question 346

How long should a copy of the investigative file be retained in the areas?

Answer 346

5 years unless employee resigns, 3 years in personnel file.

Question 347

What is the procedure for filling a vacant non-uniform employee position?

Answer 347

1. CHP 127 (Request for position Action) completed and sent through channels to the appropriate AC. 2. CHP 129 (Duty Statement) 3. Org Chart 4. Comm-Net Message

Question 348

Who can approve a CHP 127 (Request for position Action)?

Answer 348

The appropriate commissioner. A communications center Commander may approve a PSD and a PSO.

Question 349

When interviewing a prospective employee, can the employer question them regarding prior criminal arrests that did not result in a conviction?

Answer 349

No, unless they are interviewing for the position of peace officer or any position where they would have access to criminal offender record information.

Question 350

Is citizenship a requirement for employment?

Answer 350

Only for uniformed officers.

Question 351

Government Code Section 21193 states, in summary, an employee who applies for reinstatement and is no longer incapacitated for duty in the position held when retired for disability, or in a position in the same classification, shall be reinstated, at the employee’s option. What is the max. age?

Answer 351

The former employee must be at least six months less than the age of compulsory retirement. Must complete reinstatement process.

Question 352

What are the mileage restrictions for state vehicles?

Answer 352

50 mile for non-commanders 70 miles for commanders

Question 353

Who is the final approving authority for a Temp. Leave of Absence Request (30 days)?

Answer 353

Commander

Question 354

Name four types of Discretionary Leave, the following are types of leaves of absence:

Answer 354

(a) Regular leave of absence (b) Adoption leave. (c) Temporary leave of absence. (d) Informal leave

Question 355

What shall a uniformed employee do upon learning she is pregnant?

Answer 355

Notify her commander and submit a statement from her medical care provider regarding her ability to perform full or limited duties. Shall submit a CHP 209, Advisory: Potential Health Hazards Associated with Firearms Training, signed by their medical care provider.

Question 356

What are the qualifying events for FMLA?

Answer 356

1. Birth/care of a newborn 2. Care of an adopted/foster child 3. Care of an immediate family member 4. Own serious health needs (spouse, son, daughter, parent, domestic partner)

Question 357

How much are employees entitled to for NDI payments?

Answer 357

Sick / vacation leave program: $135 per week Annual leave: 50%. May use leave credits to supplement at 75% or 100%

Question 358

What is a temporary separation from the Department?

Answer 358

Leaves of absence including informal and temporary leave Military leave Suspension Termination for medical reasons Involuntary leave Layoff Disability retirement.

Question 359

If the employee has not contacted the commander at the end of the first ____hours of a scheduled shift, the commander should attempt to contact the employee.

Answer 359

4 hours

Question 360

If the employee cannot be contacted (AWOL). The commander shall_________________?

Answer 360

1. Send a written notice to last known address 2. Overnight mail, not certified 3. Contain an implementation date with reasonable time to allow for an appeal

Question 361

Payment to discharged employees shall be paid when (all credits)?

Answer 361

At time of separation

Question 362

If an employee resigns, he must be paid when (all credits)?

Answer 362

Within 72 hours

Question 363

Retired peace officers may maintain the DMV confidentiality of their home address. How about employees who separate for other reasons?

Answer 363

May maintain for 3 years.

Question 364

If a sergeant resigns and receives a permissive reinstatement, s/he will return as a sergeant? True or False

Answer 364

False. All go to rank of officer

Question 365

Who shall a commander immediately notify when an employee files for retirement?

Answer 365

Personnel Transaction Unit

Question 366

Who shall notify a retired peace officer that his CCW permit has been revoked?

Answer 366

The commander. It is also the commanders responsibility to notify the next level when he becomes aware that a retiree did something that may cause a revocation.

Question 367

Which employees shall maintain a contact phone number?

Answer 367

All uniformed employees, PSD’s and PSDS, nonuniformed section commanders and Division chiefs

Question 368

Can an employee work a secondary job while on sick time, injury leave or limited duty status?

Answer 368

Commanders may require written assurance from an appropriate medical authority stating the secondary employment activity will not aggravate the injury nor prolong the employee’s recovery.

Question 369

If an employee is suspended for full pay period or longer s/he is considered to be in non-pay status. What must the employee pay into to continue medical benefits?

Answer 369

COBRA Employees who resign may pay into COBRA for 18 months

Question 370

All reports containing medical information for injury claims shall be maintained at the local office.

Answer 370

False - Medical reports, or copies of medical reports, shall not be retained at the local level after all command action has been completed. Will be forwarded to Business Services Section

Question 371

There are three different categories of arrest techniques the officer has the option of utilizing. The use of a technique is based on what is reasonable according to the facts and circumstances perceived by the officer at the time of the event. The techniques are?

Answer 371

Standing Kneeling Prone

Question 372

True/False: Bent wrist handcuffing technique is approved for the Kneeling Arrest Technique

Answer 372

False

Question 373

The Prone Arrest Techniques are ?

Answer 373

Prone Twist Lock High Risk Prone Twist Lock

Question 374

The preliminary frisk is an exception to the Fourth Amendment’s guarantee against warrantless search and seizure? What court case decided this?

Answer 374

Terry v. Ohio, 392 U.S. 1 1968

Question 375

True/False: When an officer conducts a consensual encounter with a subject, the subject has the right to refuse a search for weapons?

Answer 375

True

Question 376

All strip searches and visual body cavity searches shall be conducted within a ______________________ and in an area of privacy so that the search cannot be observed by persons not participating in the search

Answer 376

Booking/Holding Facility

Question 377

When________________, officers are required to utilize de-escalation techniques, crisis intervention tactics, and other alternatives to force.

Answer 377

Safe and Feasible under the totality of the circumstances.

Question 378

De-Escalation: The prospect of a favorable outcome is often enhanced when ____________ of an overall response to potential violent encounters by coordinating resources and officers’ tactical actions

Answer 378

supervisors become involved in the management

Question 379

CHP 287, CLAIMS OF $1,000 OR LESS. When an individual claims to have suffered a loss of $1,000 or less, they_______ be provided a CHP 287. A field supervisor ______ carry this form with them in order to expedite the claim process.

Answer 379

shall/should

Question 380

List the legal intervention/forcible stops?

Answer 380

Ramming/PIT Hollow spike strip Channelization Boxing in Road Blocks Use of firearms

Question 381

Denial of overtime compensation provided by the contract is an example of?

Answer 381

Grievance

Question 382

Denial of a hardship transfer is an example of?

Answer 382

Complaint

Question 383

A disagreement with an annual performance evaluation is?

Answer 383

Grievance

Question 384

Denial of representation during the grievance procedure may be an example of?

Answer 384

Grievance

Question 385

Allegation that an officer must work a graveuard shift alone is an example of?

Answer 385

Complaint

Question 386

The Standing Arrest Techniques are?

Answer 386

Bent Wrist Twist Lock Modified Twist Lock

Question 387

Ammunition – Evidence. Items such as unfired cartridges, fired cartridge cases, fired bullets, fired bullet fragments, projectiles, shot wads, shot pellets, and loaded magazines that have evidentiary value and may require testing should be packaged in the following manner. Gloves should be worn to preserve Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA), latent prints, and trace evidence. These items should be packaged in___________________ .

Answer 387

Kraft Paper/manila-type envelopes

Question 388

HPM 70.1 requires a copy of this chapter shall be printed and placed in a binder at each Area’s packaging station for immediate reference:

Answer 388

Chapter 5

Question 389

Employee Tracking System (CHP 121D, Injury/Illness Status Report). The monthly 121D is reported to the respective Divisions by the ______ of each month. The report shall contain information on employees who are___________________.

Answer 389

10th, assigned to limited duty or are off duty for 30 calendar days or more as a result of an occupational injury or illness.

Question 390

Mandatory Activations -- The MVARS RECORD function shall be activated during the following enforcement actions and activities:

Answer 390

Vehicle Inventories Motorist Service Pat Down Frisk or search Emergency Response Pursuits Enforcement Contacts Confrontational Interactions

Question 391

___________________shall be used for all other correspondence outside of state agencies

Answer 391

CHP Letterhead

Question 392

True/False: Uniformed personnel in the Investigative Services Unit shall make public contact data entries on the CHP 415, Daily Field Record, in the departmental Activity Tracking System

Answer 392

True

Question 393

As it applies to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, Reasonable Suspicion is

Answer 393

The good faith belief based on specific articulable facts or evidence that an employee may have violated the substance abuse policy; and substance testing could reveal evidence in support of a violation.

Question 394

As it applies to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, Reasonable suspicion exists only after?

Answer 394

The appointing power or a designee (confirming official) has also considered the facts and/or evidence and agrees that they constitute a finding of reasonable suspicion.

Question 395

As it applies to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, (HPM 9.2, 7-3): employees suspected of being under the combined influence of alcohol and a drug(s) are required to submit to:

Answer 395

both a urine and a breath test

Question 396

As it applies to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, (HPM 9.2, 6-5): Use of the PAS device to establish reasonable suspicion is:

Answer 396

not authorized

Question 397

As it applies to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, (HPM 9.2, 6-5) is the employee entitled to representation during the following: When the supervisor makes initial contact with the employee in an appropriate confidential interview setting to ask questions regarding abnormal behavior, inefficiency, absenteeism, tardiness, unusual appearance, etc.?

Answer 397

No.

Question 398

What is the definition of Permanent and Stationary status?

Answer 398

An injury condition is considered to be permanent and stationary when future changes in the condition, either for the better or for the worse, are not expected to occur.

Question 399

An employee may use sick leave while on scheduled vacation if:

Answer 399

(1) The employee becomes injured or ill and is unable to continue vacation. (2) The employee has a medical examination or treatment by a licensed practitioner.

Question 400

Family Sick can be used for:

Answer 400

mother, father, husband, wife, domestic partner, son, daughter, brother, sister, or any person residing in the employee’s immediate household.

Question 401

When an employee’s sick leave absence is more than two consecutive work days, commanders shall indicate the method of verification in this section. Those methods include:

Answer 401

1. Telephone, Physician statement, home or hospital visit. 2. If doctors visit was not done, a commander may require a note from another person, ie. Spouse.

Question 402

What is the maximum accumulation of vacation/annual leave credits for: Non-uniformed: Officers and Sergeants Lt’s and above

Answer 402

640 hours 816 hours 816 hours

Question 403

Commanders shall allow employees who work more than 5 hours per day a minimum of _____ minutes for a meal and not more than ______ minutes.

Answer 403

30 mins and 60 mins

Question 404

Non-represented employees may get a rest period not to exceed _____ minutes each four hours of their work shift. The total time per day shall not exceed _____ minutes.

Answer 404

15 mins 25 mins

Question 405

What is the max accumulation for CTO? Uniformed and Non-uniformed

Answer 405

240 hours 480 hours

Question 406

The 16.5 hour OT rule applies to what type of OT?

Answer 406

Voluntary

Question 407

If an employee is called back more than 3 hours after the end of his shift does he claim call back or straight through?

Answer 407

Call back

Question 408

When an employee is called back within ___ hours of the beginning of the employee's next shift, call back credit shall be received only for the hours remaining before the beginning of the employee's next shift.

Answer 408

4 hours

Question 409

The minimum time subject to dock pay is ______

Answer 409

10 minutes

Question 410

State employees are or are not entitled to jury duty pay?

Answer 410

Are not. They will receive their normal pay.

Question 411

Can an employee take a State Civil Service during normal working hours with pay?

Answer 411

Yes. As long as two day notice is given.

Question 412

Election Day – Employees are granted a maximum of ___ hours work time to vote. May take more, but will not be paid for the rest

Answer 412

Two hours

Question 413

In order to clarify sick time usage, a supervisor may ask an employee to document their medical diagnosis on the STD 634 True or False

Answer 413

False. General nature only.

Question 414

The decision to implement an alternate work week is made by ____________

Answer 414

Commander with Division concurrence

Question 415

Commanders may make an immediate temporary change or suspension of the alternate work week. To make a permanent change they must give ____day notice.

Answer 415

30 days

Question 416

What happens if a vote of no less than 67 percent (rounded to the closest whole number) of the affected and eligible employees in the command elects to change an existing workweek schedule to another.

Answer 416

Commander conducts a meet-and-confer. Sergeant will be included in a separate vote

Question 417

If an employee assigned to 12 hours shifts takes bereavement leave how is the time calculated?

Answer 417

the charge to bereavement leave shall not exceed 3 – 8-hour days (24 hours) per occurrence

Question 418

Medical file must be kept where if they are in the office.

Answer 418

Locked file outside of personnel file.

Question 419

In the event of an employee’s death. Their personnel file must immediately be sent to ___________.

Answer 419

the Personnel Files Services (PFS), Human Resources Section (HRS).

Question 420

If an attorney requests to contact a former officer for testimony in a civil case. The Department may contact the employee, but information will not be given to the attorney unless _______.

Answer 420

DA for criminal case or AG for civil case involving the Department.

Question 421

An employee’s rep may review the employee’s personnel file under what circumstances?

Answer 421

Written permission dated within the past 30 days

Question 422

A commander may certify a sergeant as on-call when the sergeant is on call at least 10 days. What is the pay?

Answer 422

$50 per month for office with 3+ sergeants, 75$ per month for 2 or less or RPs

Question 423

Who is EAP available to?

Answer 423

Employees, spouse, dependent children

Question 424

How does an employee document the use of Merit Behavioral Care (MBC) if it occurs during work hours?

Answer 424

STD 634 – sick or vacation time

Question 425

True or False A manager drafts a “management supervisor referral” letter to MBC (Merit Behavioral Care) for an employee, but they cannot force an employee to go.

Answer 425

True

Question 426

Regarding Peer Support. What is considered a critical incident?

Answer 426

Any event, on duty or off duty job related, involving actual or threatened death or serious injury, which has the potential to create a sense of fear, helplessness, horror or general distress.

Question 427

A commander may request peer support under the following circumstances?

Answer 427

1) Employee involved critical incident. 2) Group debriefing for CI. -Employee may decline -Commander will assist in selection of peer support counselor

Question 428

In the event of a critical incident, the commander will make direct contact through the local __________________ where a peer support roster is maintained.

Answer 428

Communications center

Question 429

An off duty peer support counselor (PSO, PSPSD, PSA) may be compensated up to _____ hours of ______ when responding to a commanders request for service.

Answer 429

4 hours of CTO

Question 430

Who can approve the use of the Departments aircraft for peer support?

Answer 430

The appropriate Asst. Comm.

Question 431

Who is the program coordinator for the ESAP (Employee Substance Abuse Program)?

Answer 431

Health and Safety Section, Personnel and Training Division

Question 432

The CHP Chaplain is available on request and may provide assistance to whom?

Answer 432

All employees, active and retired, plus family of deceased employees upon request.

Question 433

Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) – How does a commander request CIRT services?

Answer 433

By contacting Health and Safety Section / Personnel and Training Division or the Sacramento Comm. Center

Question 434

Are critical incident stress debriefings mandatory for employees? If so, within how many hours?

Answer 434

Only for shooting incidents and then completed within 72 hours (generally)

Question 435

Occupational Safety – Who is responsible for ensuring the employees are trained?

Answer 435

Manager

Question 436

What form is to be filled out in order to report unsafe conditions?

Answer 436

CHP 113B

Question 437

Command Occ Safety Committee (COSC) – What types of incidents shall the COSC review?

Answer 437

Vehicle accidents, occupational illnesses and hazardous materials exposure to determine errors in skills

Question 438

Occ Safety – Who determines preventability?

Answer 438

Commander

Question 439

Occ Safety – The Dept. Occ Safety Committee meeting minutes shall be prepared within ___ days and the DOSC shall meet ___________.

Answer 439

10 Quarterly

Question 440

Occ Safety – Who are the primary instructors for the Department?

Answer 440

Managers and Supervisors

Question 441

Occ Safety – Regarding managers and supervisors, safety performance of their respective units shall be an element of their annual performance review True or False

Answer 441

True

Question 442

Occ Safety – An incident deemed preventable can be appealed through who?

Answer 442

Command Occ Safety Committee (COSC) then through the grievance procedure

Question 443

Occ Safety – How often shall the commander conduct inspections of departmental facilities?

Answer 443

Semi-annually

Question 444

Occ Safety – Accountability reporting is required _____ of all commands by submission of the CHP ______.

Answer 444

Quarterly CHP 113

Question 445

Occ Safety / Haz. Mat. – May a commander release exposure records? If not, who can?

Answer 445

No Occupational Safety Unit

Question 446

Occ Safety – Where should commands post the CHP 189 (Hazardous Substance Inventory)?

Answer 446

On the Command Occ Safety bulletin board

Question 447

Occ safety – Who should be assigned to conduct commentary driver training?

Answer 447

Sergeant or non-uniformed supervisor for non-uniformed personnel when the sergeant is not available.

Question 448

Occ Safety – Who is required to ensure the workplace and equipment is safe and in compliance?

Answer 448

Commander

Question 449

What are the three categories of Citizen Complaints?

Answer 449

Cat 1 Cat 2 Other

Question 450

What is an “other” complaint?

Answer 450

Complaints which may contain Category I or II allegations as outlined above, but which also meet the definition of one of the following types of complaints, as defined in this chapter: Departmental complaint, Citation Validity complaint, Rescinded complaint, Frivolous complaint\

Question 451

What is a Cat 1 complaint?

Answer 451

Complaints alleging physical contact, excessive force, and/or criminal, racial, sexual, or immoral conduct. Category I complaints also include those which allege acts of dishonesty and/or falsification of documentation, or allegations of unethical conduct.

Question 452

What is a Cat 2 complaint?

Answer 452

Complaints alleging verbal misconduct, nonverbal misconduct (not involving actual physical contact), and/or complaints regarding matters not related to an employee's conduct.

Question 453

What are the 5 possible findings of a Citizen’s Complaint?

Answer 453

1. Sustained 2. Unintentional error 3. Undetermined / No finding 4. Departmental 5. Exonerated

Question 454

Citation validity is normally classified as what category of complaint?

Answer 454

Normally a Category II complaint, a citation validity allegation may be processed as an ‘Other’ complaint if there are no other allegations by the complainant.

Question 455

Which form is provided to a citizen who wishes to file a complaint? Uniformed and non-uniformed? How many days do they have to return it?

Answer 455

CHP 240B CHP 240D 10 business days

Question 456

All complainants (Citz. Complaints) shall be acknowledged by correspondence within ____ business days and normally signed by _______.

Answer 456

5 / Commander Not normally required if the complainant contacted the Department in person.

Question 457

The commander is responsible for ensuring all investigations are completed in a timely manner. The normal suspense period for complaints received at the command, or forwarded from BIA, is ____days.

Answer 457

60 days

Question 458

If a complaint involves officers from more than one command, who should be the primary investigator?

Answer 458

The area with the employee with the most serious allegation or the command with the greatest number of employees involved.

Question 459

Planning is a key element for a successful investigation. What are initial steps an investigator should do when getting assigned a cit complain investigation?

Answer 459

1. Meet with the commander 2. Begin chronological log required for Cat 1) 3. Establish investigative file 4. Clarify allegations

Question 460

There are generally three basic steps in the investigative process for citizen complaints. What are they?

Answer 460

1. Determine the questions (needed to be answered for investigation) 2. Determine the answers (what do you need answered, this may come in the form of physical evidence) 3. Document the results

Question 461

Normally an employee does not have the right to representation when being interviewed for a citizen complaint. What is the exception?

Answer 461

If the complaint investigation is of a serious nature, and/or the facts indicate adverse action may reasonably result, the employee shall be afforded the right to representation. Before refusing a request, contact OER.

Question 462

Keeping in mind POBR, when can an employee be asked to draft a memo during a citizen complaint investigation?

Answer 462

1. After the interview has been completed to clarify specific questions 2. When provided a written interrogatory and afforded representation

Question 463

Can an investigator record the interview with an employee during a citizen complaint investigation? Can a complainant/witness record and interview with the investigator

Answer 463

Only with the permission of the employee. Yes, but the investigator shall also record it.

Question 464

____ complaints with allegations of criminal misconduct which have been given a finding of _______or _______ _______ shall be referred to the respective prosecuting district attorney’s office for review.

Answer 464

All Sustained or Unintentional error

Question 465

To obtain a finding for a citizen complain investigation. The investigation must show ? Preponderance of evidence or probable cause to sustain or exonerate

Answer 465

Preponderance of evidence

Question 466

What are the maximum amount of findings (i.e. sustained, exonerated,……) you can have per an allegation in a citizen complaint investigation.

Answer 466

One

Question 467

If a complainant choses to rescind a complaint, the commander should tell the investigator to discontinue the investigation. True or False

Answer 467

False. Commanders may elect to accept or decline base on the circumstances. If rescinded a closing correspondence is still required.

Question 468

Closing correspondence shall be sent within ___ days of the investigation being approved.

Answer 468

30 days

Question 469

Corrective action (for sustained and unintentional error) to the employee for a citizen complaint shall be in written form. The commander shall use one of the following based on the severity of the allegation (name 4):

Answer 469

a) Request for Adverse Action. (b) CHP 2, Incident Report (Censurable). (c) Memorandum of Direction. (d) Memorandum of Findings

Question 470

The ___________ admonition shall be included in all Memorandums of Findings or Direction. In instances where the corrective documentation is being issued solely as a result of a finding of Unintentional Error, the inclusion of the __________ admonition should be left to the discretion of the commander.

Answer 470

Bazemore

Question 471

If s/he chooses, can a commander issue closing documentation to an employee for a finding of undetermined/no finding and include the Bazemore admonition?

Answer 471

Yes

Question 472

Closing documentation requiring a Governor or legislative response. Who prepares it?

Answer 472

Prepared by the command with coordination of the Office of Special Reps. If some circumstances it should come from BIA.

Question 473

Who is the final approval for Cat 1, Cat 2 and Other complaints?

Answer 473

Cat 1: Division Commander or designee Cat 2: Generally Area Commander Other: handled by which category they initially fell into (i.e. Cat 1 or Cat 2).

Question 474

The employee shall be provided the opportunity to review the investigation in its entirety, except for any _______ specifically marked in the “List of ______” as not releasable to the employee reviewing the complaint.

Answer 474

Exhibit Exhibits Includes medical forms, financial records, complainant if listed as confidential

Question 475

A copy of the corrective action may only be placed in the employees personnel file if there was a finding of ___________ or ______________.

Answer 475

Sustained or unintentional error Employees response, if completed, will also be in the personnel file.

Question 476

Re: Complaint Investigation file: Category I, Category II, and Other complaints shall be destroyed after a period of _____ years, commencing from the date the Department originally received the complaint.

Answer 476

5 Includes employee response

Question 477

Re: Corrective Documentation: Any corrective documentation issued to an employee as the result of a complaint investigation, shall be removed from the employee’s field personnel folder after a period of _____ years, commencing from the date of issue.

Answer 477

3 Includes employee response

Question 478

What happens to the copy of the complaint in the area Complaint File when the employee transfers to another command?

Answer 478

Goes with the employee to the new command

Question 479

Can a commander release a complaint investigation file to the Attorney General?

Answer 479

Yes, when they are defending the Department or its employees. Coordinate with Legal Coordination Unit. Anyone else needs a subpoena or court order

Question 480

Grand Juries: Any request for complaint records or interviews with departmental employees shall be coordinated with _____________.

Answer 480

BIA and the Legal Coordination Unit.

Question 481

If the complainant is not satisfied with the results of the investigation, who shall conduct a separate complaint review?

Answer 481

The succeeding level of command. A Division level review shall be conducted when a complainant is not satisfied with an investigation conducted by an Area command. If still not satisfies then a BIA review.

Question 482

Office of Equal Employment Opportunity reviews, processes, and submits finalized investigations to state and federal compliance agencies such as (name two):

Answer 482

1. Department of Fair Employment And Housing (DFEH) 2. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC).

Question 483

Employment discrimination, including harassment, based on the following protected groups is prohibited by law (13):

Answer 483

1. Race 2. Color 3. Religion 4. National Origin 5. Ancestry 6. Age 7. Sex (sexual harassment / gender identity 8. Physical or mental disability 9. Political Affiliation / Opinion 10. Marital Status 11. Sexual Orientation 12. Medical Condition 13. Retaliation

Question 484

Definition of Harassment: Harassment becomes illegal when:

Answer 484

Pervasive, persistent, unwelcome conduct which is perpetuated by an individual’s status in a protected group. The conduct becomes a condition of continued employment, or the conduct is severe or pervasive enough to be considered hostile, intimidating, or abusive; as measured by the reasonable person standard.

Question 485

What is the definition of sexual harassment?

Answer 485

Unsolicited and unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal, physical, visual/written conduct of a sexual nature when: 1. Submission is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of employment 2. Basis for employment decisions, unreasonably affects work performance and/or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment.

Question 486

Define Age Discrimination and is anyone excluded?

Answer 486

The ADEA applies to persons 40 years of age and over. Public Health or Safety Classifications are excluded

Question 487

Medical Condition refers to only two items, what are they?

Answer 487

Employee/applicant has or had cancer, and genetic characteristics (e.g., sickle cell anemia, Tay-Sachs Disease, hemophilia).

Question 488

RE: Sexual Harassment - California Fair Employment and Housing Act (FEHA), and California Government Code (GC) Sections 12900 - 12996, apply to employers with ____ or more employees

Answer 488

15

Question 489

Sexual Harassment is a form of discrimination originally contained in what federal act:

Answer 489

Title VII of the federal Civil Rights Act of 1964

Question 490

GC Section 12950.1(a): an employer having 50 or more employees shall provide at least ___ hours of classroom or other effective interactive training and education regarding sexual harassment prevention to all supervisory employees. How Often:

Answer 490

2 hours every 2 years

Question 491

Courts have recognized which two types of sexual harassment under federal and state law?

Answer 491

1. Quid Pro Quo 2. Hostile Work Environment

Question 492

RE: Sexual Harassment – What is the definition of quid pro quo?

Answer 492

"submission to or rejection of (unwelcome sexual) conduct by an individual is used as the basis for employment decisions affecting that individual,"

Question 493

RE: Sexual Harassment - What is the definition of a hostile work environment?

Answer 493

Unwelcome sexual conduct unreasonably interferes with an individual's job performance or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment, even if it does not lead to tangible or economic consequences.

Question 494

True or False Hostile work environment may also occur on the basis of other protected groups (e.g., race, disability, national origin).

Answer 494

True

Question 495

True or False It is the Managers responsibility to Ensure supervisors within their command receive both initial and refresher training on sexual harassment prevention

Answer 495

False (Commander)

Question 496

RE: Sexual Harassment – What is the role of the Manager/ Supervisor (Name 4):

Answer 496

1. Take immediate action 2. Timely and appropriate action 3. Atmosphere free of discrimination 4. Maintain business like environment

Question 497

Yes or No RE: Sexual Harassment - Are employees required to tell the offending employee to stop their harassment?

Answer 497

No, but encouraged

Question 498

RE: Hostile Work Environment – How do you determine whether sexual harassment has risen to a hostile environment?

Answer 498

The Supreme Court: “sufficiently severe or pervasive to alter the conditions of [the victim’s] employment and create an abusive working environment.”

Question 499

RE: Sexual Harassment – The victim is not required to confront the harasser, but what must they do?

Answer 499

Demonstrate in some manner the behavior was unwelcome.

Question 500

Yes or No In order to be in violation of the law, must sexual harassment be pervasive?

Answer 500

No “A single, unusually severe incident of harassment may be sufficient. The more severe the harassment, the less need to show a repetitive series of incidents. This is particularly true when the harassment is physical."

Question 501

If an employee initially participates in conduct of a sexual nature, what must they do before filing a hostile work environment complaint?

Answer 501

An employee in this situation bears the burden of showing that further conduct is unwelcome, work related harassment. To do so, the employee must clearly notify the individual that the conduct is no longer welcome.

Question 502

Sexual harassment can come in what 5 forms?

Answer 502

1. Written 2. Verbal 3. Physical 4. Visual 5. Other

Question 503

During their annual review or after completing training, managers and supervisors shall have an employee sign what form?

Answer 503

CHP 237A (Sexual Harassment Prevention and Discrimination Policy Admonition)

Question 504

What agency definitions does the CHP use when referencing employment issues related to the Persons with Disabilities Program?

Answer 504

California Fair Employment and Housing Act (FEHA)

Question 505

The Department's Persons with Disabilities Program has two major objectives to ensure compliance with federal and state laws. What are they?

Answer 505

1. reach, attract, and employ qualified persons with disabilities 2. ensure all qualified individuals with physical and/or mental disabilities have access to any programs, services, and/or activities under the jurisdiction of the Department for which they are eligible.

Question 506

The American with Disabilities Act (ADA) guarantees what?

Answer 506

Equal opportunity for individuals with disabilities in employment, public accommodations, transportation, state and local government services, and telecommunications.

Question 507

What is the program definition for Persons with Disability?

Answer 507

1. physical or mental impairment which limits one or more of that person's major life activities 2. “Has a record of or history of” such impairment 3. “Is regarded as having” such an impairment (treated by employer as an impairment)

Question 508

True or False The broader definition (ADA) of Persons with Disabilities shall be applied.

Answer 508

True

Question 509

True or False Defined by law, an alcoholic is a person with a disability?

Answer 509

True

Question 510

Define reasonable accommodations.

Answer 510

Logical adjustment made to a job and/or the work environment which enables a qualified person with a disability to perform the essential duties of their position. This begins with the initial examination

Question 511

Who is entitled to reasonable accommodations?

Answer 511

A qualified individual who meets the definition of a person with a disability

Question 512

When can a request for reasonable accommodations be denied?

Answer 512

If the request would cause an undue hardship on the operation of departmental programs or if it can be shown that the person would pose a direct threat to the health or safety of themselves or others.

Question 513

Who is responsible for processing a CHP 163, Reasonable Accommodation Request, upon receipt? How many days do they have to respond in writing to the employee/applicant?

Answer 513

Commander 10 days

Question 514

True or False A CHP 163 (reasonable Accommodation Request) shall be maintained in the employee’s personnel file?

Answer 514

False It is a medical record so it needs to be in the Medical File

Question 515

What are the 5 types of reasonable accommodation requests?

Answer 515

1. exam process 2. perform essential duties 3. continue to perform duties 4. participate in training 5. equal access and privileges

Question 516

Can a commander request an employee to provide medical proof of the need for a reasonable accommodation?

Answer 516

Yes The employee has 21 calendar days to submit

Question 517

The Department has a return to work coordinator. Where are they located?

Answer 517

Disability and Retirement Unit and OEEO.

Question 518

Can an employee appeal denial of reasonable accommodations?

Answer 518

Yes. In writing, within 5 working days of either the receipt of the denial or exhaustion of the ten working-day period without a response. These appeals shall be made to the Office of the Commissioner through OEEO.

Question 519

Name the two state agencies and two federal agencies that can handle discrimination complaints?

Answer 519

(1) The designated state agencies include the Department of Fair Employment and Housing (DFEH) and the Department of Industrial Relations (DIR). (2) The designated federal agencies include the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) and the Department of Labor.

Question 520

RE: EEO – What are the commander’s responsibilities?

Answer 520

1. Post name and phone numbers for EEO counselors. 2. Provide full support to the EEO counselor program and attempt informal resolution if the EEO counselor is unable to resolve the issue(s). 3. Provide location for private meetings 4. attempt to resolve complaints 5. Caution about retaliation

Question 521

Who is the overall administrator of the discrimination complaint process?

Answer 521

OEEO Commander

Question 522

What is the role of an EEO counselor?

Answer 522

To establish and provide an open channel of communication through which employees may raise questions, discuss concerns, receive answers, and obtain informal resolutions. They are separate from formal complaint process..Tries to resolve issue before it becomes a complaint.

Question 523

What is the role of an EEO investigator?

Answer 523

Responsibility for inquiring into, and reporting findings of fact on, formal complaints. Shall not make a final decision about the merits of the complaint. They only gather evidence and present the facts.

Question 524

True or False An EEO investigator may be of the same rank as the employee under investigation?

Answer 524

False - The EEO investigator shall be at least one rank higher than any alleged discriminatory employee.

Question 525

After the EEO investigator completes his investigation, who determines if there was a violation of departmental policy?

Answer 525

Division Chief

Question 526

EEO investigators shall attend recertification training every ___ months.

Answer 526

24

Question 527

Complaints filed with Federal Equal Employment Opportunity Commission must be filed with _____ days of the last incident or notification of the discriminatory act. The covered acts include:

Answer 527

300 days race, color, religion, national origin, age, sex (includes sexual harassment), disability, equal pay/compensation, genetic information, pregnancy, and/or retaliation

Question 528

Complaints filed with Federal Department of Labor must be filed with _____ days of the last incident or notification of the discriminatory act. The covered acts include

Answer 528

300 Days disability and veteran status.

Question 529

Complaints filed with California State Department of Fair Employment and Housing must be filed with _____ days of the last incident or notification of the discriminatory act or date of discharge. The covered acts include

Answer 529

365 Days

Question 530

Complaints filed with California Department of Industrial Relations must be filed with _____ days of the occurrence of the alleged discriminatory or retaliatory act. What are the two exceptions:

Answer 530

180 days Retaliation against victims of domestic violence or sexual assault = 1 year Being paid less than an employee of the opposite sex doing the same work = 2 years

Question 531

Informal Process - The complainant has ___ months from the last incident to contact an EEO counselor regarding discrimination-related issues.

Answer 531

11

Question 532

Re_ EEO Couselors: If complaint is resolved complete a CHP 612B within ___ days. If it is not resolved, a CHP 612B should be completed within ____ days.

Answer 532

5 working days 20 working days

Question 533

If the employee is not satisfied with the EEO counselor’s inquiry, they have the right to file a complaint with the Division Chief with ____ days of the receipt of the 612B.

Answer 533

10 working days

Question 534

Employees who allege discrimination as the motive for an adverse action (AA) or rejections during probation (RDP) must file an appeal directly with the Commissioner? True or False

Answer 534

False, SPB

Question 535

Investigation File: Evidence gathered during an investigation shall be retained for a minimum of ____ years or the life of the investigation file, whichever is longer.

Answer 535

5

Question 536

EEO Invest: All interviews of employees and non-employees shall be recorded. True or False

Answer 536

False Employees shall. Non-employee shall, but can object.

Question 537

What is the font used in an EEO investigation report?

Answer 537

Arial 12

Question 538

Racial profiling and cultural awareness training must be conducted for law enforcement officer at least every 5 years by law. However, the CHP conducts classroom training every ___ years and online training every ___ years. What rank shall instruct these classes?

Answer 538

2 2 (conducted on odd years) Lieutenant or above

Question 539

Bilingual positions are filled when the number of LEP persons, in any given language, comprises ______ percent or more of the public contacts experienced by any local office of a state agency.

Answer 539

5

Question 540

Laws covering “upward mobility” are covered in which code?

Answer 540

Government

Question 541

Upward mobility is defined as________________.

Answer 541

movement from low-paying classifications with minimal career opportunities into higher paying classifications within the Department with broader career opportunities.

Question 542

What are the components of the upward mobility program?

Answer 542

a. Career counseling; b. Academic counseling; c. In-service and out-service training; d. Training and development assignments; e. On-the-job training; and, f. Job restructuring

Question 543

What form contains the CHP upward mobility plan for employees?

Answer 543

CHP 50B

Question 544

Participation in the Upward Mobility Program is/is not a guarantee of promotion

Answer 544

Is not

Question 545

An Upward Mobility Plan terminated for any reason shall be forwarded through the appropriate Division to Equal Employment Opportunity Unit within ___ days of termination

Answer 545

30

Question 546

It is a major goal of this department/CHP to achieve and maintain a work force representative of ______________________________ and the community it serves.

Answer 546

The relevant work force

Question 547

In the California Highway Patrol, the workforce analysis is completed by __________________.

Answer 547

Office of Equal Employment Opportunity.

Question 548

For the purposes of travel reimbursements, headquarters is defined as __________.

Answer 548

Where employee spends most time or location to which he/she returns upon completion of assignment.

Question 549

Travel status is at least _____ miles from Headquarters

Answer 549

50

Question 550

When an employee is granted sick leave while away from headquarters on State business, the employee may claim reimbursement for travel expenses up to day(s).

Answer 550

3

Question 551

The minimum travel advance request is_____with the maximum not to exceed _____ .

Answer 551

$25, normally estimated expenses for less than 30 days

Question 552

A properly prepared travel expense claim to substantiate the travel advance must be submitted as soon as possible _________ or at least ___________.

Answer 552

After the trip(s), once a month

Question 553

When attending In-Service Training at the Academy, and the distance traveled is less than 50 miles from the employee's headquarters, the employee may claim __________ mileage.

Answer 553

Only that mileage exceeding their normal commute from home to their headquarters.

Question 554

To be eligible for reimbursement of overtime meal expenses, the overtime must be worked within ___ miles of the employee’s headquarters.

Answer 554

50

Question 555

Mileage reimbursement may be claimed if on travel status, called back to work or working on a scheduled day off on a voluntary overtime detail. True or False

Answer 555

False – not voluntary overtime

Question 556

Privately-owned motorcycles or motor-driven cycles are authorized to be reimbursed at half the rate for other privately owned vehicles? True or False

Answer 556

False – Not authorized as a means of transportation

Question 557

Employees will submit no more than travel claim(s) per month

Answer 557

1

Question 558

TECs can only be submitted for _______ and __________.

Answer 558

Current and two prior fiscal years.

Question 559

Parking charges should be shown in the “Tolls, Parking” column of the TEC. Charges exceeding $__ for one continuous period of parking must be substantiated with a parking receipt

Answer 559

10

Question 560

A fiscal plan of operation detailing proposed expenditures for a given period and the proposed means of funding them is a

Answer 560

Budget

Question 561

Budget year runs from ____ to __________.

Answer 561

July 1 to June 30

Question 562

It is the policy of this Department to present a budget adequate to assure compliance with statutory _____ and __________, and represents the Department’s mission and goals.

Answer 562

duties and responsibilities

Question 563

Travel expenses incurred by an employee for any type of interviews are or are not reimbursable.

Answer 563

Are NOT

Question 564

True or False An employee can claim travel status when they are 60 miles from their HQ and 45 miles from their dwelling?

Answer 564

False. Both have to be over 50

Question 565

Can an employee claim overtime meals while on travel status?

Answer 565

No

Question 566

What is the minimum amount an employee can receive for a travel advance?

Answer 566

$25

Question 567

When can a travel advance be requested?

Answer 567

No earlier than 2 weeks prior to travel

Question 568

What are the meal rates while on travel / per diem?

Answer 568

Breakfast – $7 Lunch –$11 Dinner - $23 Incidentals - $5

Question 569

An employee begins travel at 1630 hours. Can s/he claim a dinner?

Answer 569

Yes, as long as travel begin prior to 1700 hours

Question 570

An employee must work at least ___hours to be eligible for the first overtime meal, at least ___ hours for the second overtime meal, and at least ___ hours for the third overtime meal.

Answer 570

10 16 22 Based on 8 hour day. Must be 2 hours past regular work hours. 6 hours in between.

Question 571

Normally, employees are not to drive a departmental vehicle for more than ___ consecutive hours.

Answer 571

8 can voluntarily be extended to 12 hours. Breaks do not count towards time.

Question 572

Commanders are authorized to sell discarded tires, junk batteries and used rotors. How many bids are required?

Answer 572

3

Question 573

Employees who quality for relocation status may claim relocation per diem allowances for a maximum of ___ days

Answer 573

60

Question 574

Are employees allowed to claim meals and/or lodging expenses while searching for a new residence after relocation expenses have been approved. If so, for how long.

Answer 574

Yes for a total of 14 days

Question 575

If relocation has been approved, what is the max time an employee has to sell their house?

Answer 575

2 years

Question 576

Reimbursable services may be cancelled with ___ hours’ notice and must be done during _____ hours.

Answer 576

24 Normal hours 0800-1700 If a reimbursable contract is not cancelled prior to 24 hours, the hiring company/agency must pay $50 per officer assigned.

Question 577

True or False A commander, if contacted, may provide an estimate for reimbursable services?

Answer 577

True Contact FMS for assistance

Question 578

All motor vehicle accidents shall be reported within ___ hours to the Department of General Services (DGS), Office of Risk and Insurance Management (ORIM), using the _____.

Answer 578

48 hours STD 270, “Report of Vehicle Accident.” ASAP if a death, serious injury, illness, or substantial property damage occurs to a non-state party as a result of a vehicle accident.

Question 579

If an officer conducting a pre-shift inspection observes undercarriage damage, the commander shall cause a report to be prepared. The driver should be listed as ___________.

Answer 579

Unknown.

Question 580

True or False A STD 270 shall be taken when the windshield of a patrol vehicle is struck by a rock thrown up from another vehicle. (property damage only)

Answer 580

False Falls under exception

Question 581

True or False A CHP 208 (Accident Prevention Report) is not required when a STD 270 is completed for liability purposes only.

Answer 581

True

Question 582

Can an employee submit a travel expense to pay for damages to a personally owned vehicle while driving on state business?

Answer 582

Yes. Must first submit to insurance

Question 583

All (Damage) claims in excess of $1000.00 must be filed with ______________________________. Claims must be completed within 6 months of the date of alleged incident.

Answer 583

Victim Compensation and Govt Claims Board.

Question 584

The Department can settle claims for $______or less. A CHP 287 shall be completed.

Answer 584

$1000

Question 585

The ____________ office provides legal counsel for eligible departmental employees in civil lawsuits arising out of an act or omission occurring within their course and scope of employment. The Employee must request representation __________________.

Answer 585

Attorney General’s In writing

Question 586

If the immediate superior or designated agent is tendered service of a subpoena less than ____ working days prior to the date of hearing, and he/she is not reasonably certain he/she can complete the service, he/she may refuse acceptance (Penal Code Section 1328(e))

Answer 586

5 Must notify the server within 48 hours that s/he was unable to serve the subpoena

Question 587

Proper Service (Summons and Complaint / Civil Case). Pursuant to the Code of Civil Procedures Section 415, proper service of a summons and complaint may be affected by one of the following methods:

Answer 587

1. Personal Service 2. Substituted Service 3. Service by Mail

Question 588

Summons and Complaint. A summons and a complaint are the initial legal documents served on the _____________ or ___________when a when a lawsuit has been filed.

Answer 588

Department and/or departmental employees

Question 589

If unable to contact the subpoenaing attorney, and there is not sufficient time for a letter to reach the attorney prior to the appearance, who, if anyone should appear?

Answer 589

Immediate supervisor

Question 590

True or False An employee is subpoenaed to appear as a witness in a criminal proceeding (other than those arising from the performance of official duties or those which he/she is a litigant or an expert witness), he/she shall be granted a leave of absence without pay

Answer 590

False With Pay

Question 591

A uniformed employee responding to a subpoena for the defense shall not appear in court in uniform. True or False

Answer 591

True

Question 592

A uniformed employee responding to a subpoena for the defense shall notify the district attorney and his/her supervisor of such subpoena. True or False

Answer 592

False – Commander (not supervisor)

Question 593

An employee subpoenaed by the defense for the sole purpose of being an expert witness shall complete a ____________.

Answer 593

CHP 318 (secondary employment)

Question 594

What is a subpoena duces tecum?

Answer 594

may compel the production of documents and/or may require the personal appearance of a witness to bring the requested documents. Must be personal served

Question 595

In addition, pursuant to Government Code Section 68097.2, witness fees in the amount of $___, together with the subpoena, shall be tendered for each ___ the uniformed or nonuniformed employee is required to remain in attendance.

Answer 595

$150 Day The $150 fee should not be accepted when the Department is a party (plaintiff or defendant) to the case.

Question 596

If a process server attempts to serve a subpoena for an employee on suspension, the immediate superior or designated agent shall refuse to accept. True or False

Answer 596

True

Question 597

Notices for State Personnel Board hearings must be served on the Attorney General’s Office. They shall not be accepted by the CHP. True or False

Answer 597

True

Question 598

Notices for State Personnel Board hearings must be served on the Attorney General’s Office. They shall not be accepted by the CHP. True or False

Answer 598

True

Question 599

The CHP may accept notices for Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board hearings? True or False

Answer 599

False - must be served on the State Compensation Insurance Fund.

Question 600

When an employee is subpoenaed to testify by the appellant’s attorney as a result of an incident he/she perceived or investigated within the scope of his/her employment (official), the subpoena must be include ___________. It shall be served on the ____________________________.

Answer 600

A $35 witness fee deposit immediate supervisor or designee. If non-official (not resulting from official duties) then served on employee.

Question 601

Is an employee required to respond to an out of state subpoena?

Answer 601

No, unless a California court orders it.

Question 602

Is an employee required to appear as a witness for an SPB hearing 200 miles from home, but still in an adjacent county?

Answer 602

No, 100 miles or same county

Question 603

A CHP 90, Report of Court Appearance - Civil Action (Annex 10-E-1), shall be completed in duplicate for each subpoena received. It shall be submitted within __ hours to Accounting Section along with the ___.

Answer 603

24 Travel Expense Claim

Question 604

An officer testifies for three days at a civil deposition. How many CHP 90’s shall be completed?

Answer 604

3 - One for each day

Question 605

True or False Each Area shall designate a person to release criminal offender record information and that person shall be familiar with proper use and control. The training is to be documented in their personnel file.

Answer 605

True A log shall be maintained of records released for 3 years.

Question 606

Booking slips and arrest reports (are) (are Not) criminal offender record information.

Answer 606

Are not

Question 607

Records of arrest for certain laws relating to marijuana offenses (possession of less than 1 oz., present where it’s used, and using or being under the influence) are subject to a maximum retention of____.

Answer 607

2 years

Question 607

All records shall be destroyed if a civil action has been filed against the arresting officer or Department after 5 years. True or False

Answer 607

False – Shall not be destroyed

Question 608

What are the exemptions to PRA requests?

Answer 608

Prelim / personal notes Records pertaining to pending litigation Personnel and medical records Exams Library and museum materials used solely for reference material Other records exempt by law Invest files Records prepared for Collective bargaining Investigations Juvenile records Intelligence information Materials dealing with officer safety / internal security

Question 609

An Employee’s name and work location are available with a valid PRA request?

Answer 609

True name, work location, classification, assignment, gross salary rate, dates of employment, time base, rehire information, and training received at state expense.

Question 610

Can a BAC be released for an arrestee in the arrest log? What is the fee per page?

Answer 610

No - name, home address, date of birth, gender, and criminal charges against the arrestee. Only business addresses of peace officers arrested shall be placed on the log. $0.30 or $0.50 for microfilm or computer records

Question 611

All requests under the Public Records Act (PRA), other than routine requests (e.g., accident or arrest information, motor carrier records, etc.), shall be immediately sent to the __________.

Answer 611

Legal Coordination Unit

Question 612

People inspecting records pursuant to a PRA request should be placed in a private room? True or False

Answer 612

False - Inspection of records shall be made only in the presence of departmental personnel to prevent them from being destroyed, mutilated, defaced, or altered.

Question 613

True or False Upon receipt of a request for records, the Department must, within 10 days, make a determination whether to comply with the request

Answer 613

True Can be extended if unusual circumstances

Question 614

If charges are not filed, does the defendant have a right to the arrest report?

Answer 614

No – refer to DA

Question 615

Can a departmental employee release driver’s license or vehicle registration information to the individual for which it belongs?

Answer 615

No – Refer to DMV

Question 616

The information Privacy Act (IPA) governs the collection, use, maintenance and dissemination of personal information about individuals by state agencies. True or False

Answer 616

True

Question 617

If a seizure of a vehicle is done pursuant to Asset Forfeiture Laws, the Division AF coordinator shall be notified in ____ hours

Answer 617

48

Question 618

Can an area commander requests AF funds to pay for a specialized enforcement project?

Answer 618

Yes - The requesting command will prepare a detailed project plan, including a project budget/cost analysis. Submitted through channels.

Question 619

What is the max amount allowed by law for DUI cost recovery?

Answer 619

$12,000

Question 620

The Department will seek to recover DUI incident-related costs for alcohol or a combination of alcohol and drugs provided all the following apply:

Answer 620

1. Arrest for 23125/23153 VC or greater 2. Arrested party caused the T/C And one of the following: 1. BAC .08 or higher or commercial .04

Question 621

True or False A conviction is required for DUI cost recovery if the arrestee is a refusal, has a BAC under .08 or chemical test is positive for drugs only

Answer 621

True

Question 622

Staff hours for DUI cost recovery are billed by 10 minute increments or 15 minute increments?

Answer 622

15

Question 623

True or False The time spent by a Sergeant, Lieutenant, or Captain assisting at an accident scene can be included on the CHP 735. This includes their supervision time.

Answer 623

False, supervision time not included

Question 624

A CHP 78, Agreement Request shall be used to initiate all service contracts which are repetitive, regardless of the estimated dollar value or are one-time services exceeding $4,999.99. What process is used for a One-time, short-term, occasional, or annual (single state fiscal year) services under $5,000 from any source within one state fiscal year?

Answer 624

X-number

Question 625

A CHP 78R, Reimbursable Services Contract Request, shall be used to initiate reimbursable service agreements with another state entity regardless of the estimated _______, or with a local government entity, or private sector with an estimated dollar value in excess of $________.

Answer 625

Dollar value $50,000

Question 626

To avoid conflict of interests, all service contracts shall contain what forms?

Answer 626

78V, Conflict of Interest and Confidentiality Statement – Vendor and/or CHP 78S, Conflict of Interest Statement-Employee.

Question 627

True or False A driver license check is required if the contractor and/or specifically assigned personnel are scheduled to be on-site for more than 60 days.

Answer 627

False 30 days

Question 628

On a Saturday, your office has a significant leak in the roof and water will cause significant property damage (Emergency). Who should the commander contact immediately?

Answer 628

For incidents occurring after normal work hours or on weekends, commands shall obtain the required emergency service and contact the BSS Procurement Manager or designee on the next business day. BID PROCESS EXEMPT

Question 629

X-Numbers obtained after services are rendered require approval from ___________.

Answer 629

Asst. Commissioner

Question 630

True or False An area supervisor shall approve all invoices prior to submitting them to FMS?

Answer 630

False – Commander shall

Question 631

RE: X-Number: If service can only be provided by an authorized dealer, can you be exempt from the bid process?

Answer 631

Yes

Question 632

Materials which include information that could reasonably be expected to cause damage to personal and/or departmental security if disclosed shall be considered __________ and requires special handling.

Answer 632

Classified

Question 633

Are materials marked “confidential” exempt from PRA disclosure?

Answer 633

Yes

Question 634

When transmitting classified material to another command, the originating command shall assure a ___________ is attached?

Answer 634

CHP 26, Classified Document Notice

Question 635

Classified material to be transmitted by US mail shall be placed in two envelopes. True or False

Answer 635

True

Question 636

Command level Chapter Inspections shall consist of the ___ (how many) designated by the appropriate Division commander each calendar year

Answer 636

2

Question 637

Are command level inspections required to be sent to the OIG?

Answer 637

No – Division only within 30 calendar days

Question 638

Can a commander appeal and inspection? If yes, how?

Answer 638

Yes On a CHP 51 within 5 working days

Question 639

A chapter inspections utilizes the corresponding _______________.

Answer 639

Inspection checklist

Question 640

A commander receives an anonymous letter stating an issue with following policy in his command. It would be proper for the commander to conduct an inspection to determine the validity. True or False

Answer 640

False - The inspection process shall not be used in response to anonymous letters, internal issues, or as a “management audit.”

Question 641

The commander shall document a response to all of the inspector’s identified deficiencies. This documentation shall not identify any employee(s) responsible for the inspected program by name. True or False

Answer 641

True

Question 642

The commander has 90 days to document a corrective action plan and timeline to correct identified deficiencies True or false

Answer 642

False – shall immediately

Question 643

How many employees (at a minimum) must be present when conducting an evidence room inspection?

Answer 643

2

Question 644

When conducting an Evidence Room inspection, how many items shall be inspected

Answer 644

At least 10 percent of the items, with a minimum of ten items, from the evidence/property system shall be inspected. If discrepancies are revealed, an additional 10 percent of the items, or at least ten additional items, shall be inspected so that a total of 20 percent, or a minimum of 20 items.

Question 645

There shall be only ____ sets of keys for the evidence/property room and temporary storage lockers.

Answer 645

One for each evidence officer plus the commanders key for the evidence/property room and two max for the temporary storage lockers.

Question 646

Change funds over $____ and petty cash funds over $____ are stored in a locked, metal cash box to maintain the fund and receipts, and located in a secure place

Answer 646

100 300

Question 647

If a crime scene is outdoors or in a large area indoors. The initial area for the crimes scene the scene should initially be identified as ______ the distance from the center of the scene to the farthest known piece of evidence.

Answer 647

Twice

Question 648

RE: Interview / Interrogations: Case law requires ___ recordings to be preserved for trial.

Answer 648

All

Question 649

Evidence obtained as a result of an administrative investigation shall be retained for a minimum of ____ years or ___________ whichever is longer.

Answer 649

5 years or the life of the investigation

Question 650

A witness hearing a gunshot and sees the subject flee from the location. This is considered what type of evidence?

Answer 650

Circumstantial

Question 651

A witness observes the subject shoot the victim. This is considered what type of evidence?

Answer 651

Direct

Question 652

What are the three basic types of evidence?

Answer 652

1. Testimonial 2. Documentary 3. Physical

Question 653

After securing the scene. What is the primary concern of the investigator?

Answer 653

Preservation of evidence

Question 654

Plastic bags shall not be used for packaging of specimens that contain __________.

Answer 654

Moisture – such as blood, fingerprint evidence, marijuana plants (not dried)

Question 655

Staples should / shall not be used to seal evidence in any type of container.

Answer 655

Should

Question 656

True or False - Large quantities of controlled substances (in excess of ten pounds) may be destroyed without a court order.

Answer 656

True - pursuant to Health and Safety Code (H&S) Section 11479.

Question 657

True or False - Employees shall place all evidence and property in the evidence/property designated temporary locker prior to the end of their work shift. Employees shall not store evidence or property in a personnel locker or any other location.

Answer 657

True

Question 658

Controlled substances (except marijuana) and unknown substances shall be sealed in heat seal polyester bags. Suspected PCP shall be _________

Answer 658

Double bagged

Question 659

True or False – To determine the net weight of controlled substance for booking, the officer should remove the original packaging.

Answer 659

False – weight as packaged

Question 660

Section 33800 PC states, “When a firearm is taken into custody by a law enforcement officer, the officer should / shall issue the person who possessed the firearm a receipt describing the firearm.

Answer 660

Shall

Question 661

If unloaded a firearm and ammunition can be packaged in the same evidence box. True or False

Answer 661

False - Separate

Question 662

In cases where the Department confiscates live marijuana plants, the plants shall not be removed from the soil or container. True or False

Answer 662

True – Potted plants should be stored in paper bags, cardboard container, or wrapped in paper material

Question 663

Money in excess of $1,000, seized as evidence or for safe keeping, shall not be stored _________.

Answer 663

in an evidence locker/cabinet (including pass-through cabinets). Such items shall be secured inside the evidence room, a secure safe, an allied agency evidence room, or a safety deposit box (cash only) at a financial institution.

Question 664

Who shall be notified to secure money in excess of $1000 during or outside normal business hours.

Answer 664

Area evidence officer, alternate, or Area commander

Question 665

Except for felony cases or cases involving persons ______ _____ years of age, alcoholic beverages should not be seized and retained.

Answer 665

Under 21

Question 666

The CHP 36 serves six purposes. It serves as:

Answer 666

1. Record 2. Receipt 3. Notice (right to property hearing) 4. Declaration (of ownership) 5. Affidavit (people who turn in found prop) 6. Report

Question 667

How is an evidence number generated?

Answer 667

AIS

Question 668

Penal Code Section 11108 requires that all serialized evidence and property be entered into the _______________ or _____________ as appropriate.

Answer 668

DOJ Automated Property System (APS) or Automated Firearms System (AFS) AFS includes conductive energy weapons

Question 669

All firearms are required to be entered into ATF’s ___________________________.

Answer 669

Etrace – Electronic Tracing System

Question 670

True or False In almost all circumstances, All firearms associated with a criminal act that come into the custody of the Department shall be entered into the NIBIN/IBIS.

Answer 670

True NIBIN/IBIS hits should be referred to ISU

Question 671

In the event the appropriate prosecutor declines to file a case, the evidence shall be disposed of ___ days after the date of arrest.

Answer 671

90

Question 672

Pending adjudication, evidence shall be held for the time prescribed by law. There are exceptions, but in general felonies are kept for _________ year(s) and misdemeanors/infractions for _______year(s)

Answer 672

3 1 For non-adjudicated cases check with DA

Question 673

TRUE or FALSE - All evidence retained from threshold incidents (e.g., on-duty officer death, shooting, on-duty traffic collisions, conductive energy weapon deployments) and incidents which may result in litigation against the Department, shall be held at the Area for at least ten years

Answer 673

True

Question 674

Can unclaimed property or evidence from closed and expired cases be used by the Department.

Answer 674

Yes. With approval from the Asst. Comm. For training and educational purposes.

Question 675

Blood and urine samples are required to be retained for a period of one year to allow the defendant an opportunity to have their own test conducted. If there is an early adjudication, the sample may be destroyed immediately. True or False

Answer 675

False

Question 676

Property and evidence are disposed of in the same manner. Name 6 ways to dispose them

Answer 676

(1) Returned to the owner/finder. (2) Sold. (3) Destroyed. (4) Recycled. (5) Discarded. (6) Donations (local charity).

Question 677

Except for firearms, all property taken from a person, other than firearms, shall be held by the Department for a period of 90 days prior to disposal. True or False

Answer 677

True – Firearms 180 days

Question 678

A citizen finds property valued at $300 and turns it into the CHP. If the rightful owner does not claim the property, the evidence officer will place an advertisement in the newspaper. After an additional 7 days, the finder can receive the property if they _______.

Answer 678

Pay for the price of the newspaper advertisement

Question 679

True or False - A court order of return is not needed for the release of marijuana stored as property.

Answer 679

True 1. Using sound professional judgment, determine the validity of the document presented by the claimant. 2. If valid, verify ID

Question 680

True or False - A court order of return is needed for the release of marijuana stored as evidence.

Answer 680

True – verify documents

Question 681

True or False – With some exceptions, a court order is required for the destruction of controlled substances.

Answer 681

True Exceptions are usually associated with drug labs

Question 682

Prior to destruction of controlled substances, what should be conducted at the burn site?

Answer 682

a random test of the controlled substances

Question 683

For Destruction: All shipments will be escorted by ___ employees to ensure accountability.

Answer 683

2 – one must be uniformed Twice per year

Question 684

How do you pay for a drug burn?

Answer 684

X-Number

Question 685

A legal firearm may be released to its lawful owner. What is required:

Answer 685

Proof of ownership, government issued identification card, and a clearance letter from the Department of Justice (DOJ) is required.

Question 686

Owner has 60 days to file an application with Cal DOJ to obtain his clearance letter for a firearm return. If the owner does not contact the CHP after ___ days, the evidence officer should initiate destruction proceedings

Answer 686

180

Question 687

Approval for release obtained by DOJ - Prior to the release of any firearm, the evidence officer shall ensure a criminal history check is performed to ensure __________________________.

Answer 687

Anything recent that would prohibit possession of a firearm (i.e., retraining orders)

Question 688

Section 11108.9 PC requires that an attempt be made to restore the serial number of all firearms that have been altered or have obliterated numbers. All restoration of serial numbers shall be preformed by the ___________.

Answer 688

Academy Weapons Control Unit

Question 689

The Commander shall appoint an evidence ____________, ______________ and _______________.

Answer 689

Evidence officer, alternate evidence officer and supervisor.

Question 690

The evidence supervisor shall conduct __________ (Time Frame) inspections of the property system following the procedures outlined in this chapter.

Answer 690

Quarterly

Question 691

A random sample of property sufficient to validate the integrity of the system shall be verified. At least ___ percent of the items, with a minimum of ___ items, from the property system shall be inspected.

Answer 691

10 10 If discrepancies are revealed, an additional ten percent of the items, or at least ten additional items, shall be inspected. If further discrepancies are revealed, the entire property system shall be inspected to ensure compliance with policy and legal statutes.

Question 692

How are keys to the property/evidence room issued, who has them?

Answer 692

The number of key(s) to the property room shall be limited to the number of primary property officers assigned to the command plus the commander's emergency access key(s).

Question 693

The Area commander or designee shall conduct at least ____ unscheduled (unannounced) inspection of the property room per calendar year.

Answer 693

One

Question 694

How often should a complete 100% inventory of the property/evidence room be completed?

Answer 694

Inventories shall be conducted annually and documented on a memo Also conducted upon change of command or evidence officer.

Question 695

There shall be a maximum of ___ sets of keys for the temporary storage lockers

Answer 695

2 - Primary evidence officer and other to the commander. Both the evidence room and temp storage locker keys assigned to the commander shall be kept in a sealed envelope. One extra temp storage locker key can be kept in the evidence room for the alternate to use.

Question 696

What is the policy for the extra set of evidence keys issued to the commander?

Answer 696

The evidence officer shall seal the envelope with evidence tape, then date and initial the seal. Use of the spare key shall be restricted to the commander or commander’s designee. Any property room entry by use of the spare key shall be documented on the property room entry log.

Question 697

True or False When a change of the evidence officer takes place, the locks shall be changed?

Answer 697

True

Question 698

True or False The evidence officer should not be an active field officer or investigator involved in collecting evidence in the field or court officer

Answer 698

True

Question 699

How are evidence rooms required to be secured (i.e., locks)?

Answer 699

dead-bolt lock or A Personal Identification Number or Biometric scanner that records door access history, may be used instead of a dead bolt if used in conjunction with an intrusion alarm.

Question 700

Properties shall not be left in temporary lockers more than 48 hours, excluding weekends and holidays. True or False

Answer 700

False – one day

Question 701

Drugs, currency, and valuables should be separated from other evidence in a secure location within the property room. True or False

Answer 701

True

Question 702

Section 22655.5 VC applies to vehicles taken as evidence from a highway, public or private property. Permission from a ___________or __________shall be obtained prior to impounding.

Answer 702

supervisor or officer-in-charge (OIC)

Question 703

22655.5 VC impound 180’s: The chain of custody page shall be placed ______________________and placed within the glove box (or other conspicuous location) of the impounded vehicle.

Answer 703

in a plastic California Highway Patrol evidence bag

Question 704

__________ shall be responsible for creating an Area Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) with specific instruction on how MVARS DVDs shall be issued and handled in regard to the Department’s policy established within this manual. Divisions or Areas

Answer 704

Areas

Question 705

Are officers allowed to make a copy of a MVARS DVD to utilize to write their reports

Answer 705

No - Under no circumstances shall an employee make a copy, record a copy, or permanently retain the contents of an MVARS DVD.

Question 706

What form is used to document the issuance and chain of custody for MVARS DVD’s?

Answer 706

A sergeant, officer-in- charge (OIC), or coordinator(s) shall complete a CHP 36D documenting all DVDs issued for the Area each day.