polity Flashcards
(206 cards)
1
Q
Q1) Which is NOT a Fundamental Duty? A) Develop scientific temper B) Safeguard public property C) Cherish freedom struggle ideas D) Mandatory national service of 5 years
A
D
2
Q
Q2) Which Article contains Fundamental Duties? A) 32A B) 45A C) 62B D) 51A
A
D
3
Q
Q3) Which is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution? A) Universal Adult Franchise B) Independent Judiciary C) Dual Citizenship D) Blend of rigidity & flexibility
A
C
4
Q
Q4) Articles 52-78 in Part V deal with ______. A) Finance Commission B) Union Executive C) Amendment of Constitution D) National emergency
A
B
5
Q
Q5) Which articles deal with parliament proceedings? A) 51A B) 36-51 C) 79-122 D) 12-35
A
C
6
Q
Q6) Which is NOT a Fundamental Duty? A) Prohibit trade in rare species B) Preserve heritage C) Safeguard public property D) Protect sovereignty
A
A
7
Q
Q7) Feature borrowed from Irish Constitution? A) Directive Principles B) Concurrent List C) Fundamental Rights D) Rule of Law
A
A
8
Q
Q8) When is Constitution Day celebrated? A) 26th Jan B) 26th Nov C) 15th Aug D) 2th Oct
A
B
9
Q
Q9) How many Rajya Sabha members nominated by President? A) 12 B) 10 C) 20 D) 15
A
A
10
Q
Q10) Part IV (Articles 36-51) enshrines ______. A) Fundamental Rights B) Fundamental Duties C) Directive Principles D) The Union
A
C
11
Q
Q11) What does Article 1 mention? A) Federation of states B) Parliamentary democracy C) Union of states D) Presidential democracy
A
C
12
Q
Q12) The judicial system in India is: A) Partial Judicial system B) Dual judicial system C) Independent judicial system D) Plural judicial system
A
C
13
Q
Q13) The oath of office to the Vice-President is administered by the ______. A) Chief Justice of India B) President C) CAG D) Prime Minister
A
B
14
Q
Q14) Which fundamental duty applies when students vandalize a heritage site? A) Safeguard public property B) Defend the country C) Uphold sovereignty D) Protect environment
A
A
15
Q
Q15) Which Article deals with the election of the President? A) 72 B) 54 C) 74 D) 66
A
B
16
Q
Q16) Fundamental duty applicable during religious conflict? A) Promote harmony B) Preserve heritage C) Develop scientific temper D) Protect environment
A
A
17
Q
Q17) Which Article mentions ‘Village Panchayats’? A) 31 B) 38 C) 36 D) 40
A
D
18
Q
Q18) Correct statement about Indian political parties? A) Symbols assigned by President B) Multi-party system C) Registered with Supreme Court D) Status by Parliament
A
B
19
Q
Q19) Articles NOT suspended during emergency? A) 15 & 17 B) 20 & 21 C) 14 & 16 D) 30 & 32
A
B
20
Q
Q20) Part IV A was inserted via ______ Amendment. A) 44th B) 46th C) 48th D) 42nd
A
D
21
Q
Q21) Which part of the Constitution deals with Panchayats? A) Part IV B) Part IX C) Part VII D) Part X
A
B
22
Q
Q22) Directive Principles mentioning Village Panchayats? A) 38 B) 42 C) 40 D) 36
A
C
23
Q
Q23) State with no Panchayati Raj Institution? A) Assam B) Gujarat C) Nagaland D) Punjab
A
C
24
Q
Q24) INCORRECT statement about Fundamental Rights? A) Enforced by law B) Derived from Britain C) Articles 12-35 D) Article 21 protects life
A
B
25
Q25) Ordinance-making power under Article 123 belongs to: A) President B) Rajya Sabha C) Legislative council D) CJI
A
26
Q26) Article mentioning CAG? A) 154 B) 156 C) 148 D) 136
C
27
Q27) Part of Constitution dealing with Vice President election? A) IV B) III C) VI D) V
D
28
Q28) Money Bill in state assembly requires permission from: A) Governor B) Auditor General C) Finance Minister D) CAG
A
29
Q29) Amendment Act for GST Council? A) 102nd B) 100th C) 101st D) 103rd
C
30
Q30) Transfer of power from EIC to British Crown via: A) 1833 Charter B) 1773 Regulating C) 1784 Pitts D) 1858 GoI Act
D
31
Q31) Legislative organ of Union government? A) Judiciary B) Legislative assembly C) Executive D) Parliament
D
32
Q32) NOT a member of NHRC? A) District Magistrate B) Ex-HC CJ C) Ex-SC CJ D) Ex-SC Judge
A
33
Q33) Which article deals with writ jurisdiction similar to Article 32? A) 227 B) 228 C) 225 D) 226
D
34
Q34) NOT a Fundamental Duty? 1) Defend country 2) Pay income tax 3) Cast vote 4) Safeguard property A) 1 B) 2 C) 2&3 D) 2&4
C
35
Q35) NOT a condition for President’s office? A) No free official residence B) Not Parliament member C) Allowances not diminished D) No office of profit
A
36
Q36) Article for PM appointment by President? A) 71 B) 66 C) 75 D) 62
C
37
Q37) 'Independence of judiciary' borrowed from? A) Ireland B) France C) USA D) Britain
C
38
Q38) Law-making process inspired by? A) Irish B) British C) US D) Canadian
B
39
Q39) Who unfurls flag on Republic Day in state capitals? A) HC Judge B) CM C) Governor D) Speaker
C
40
Q40) Number of High Courts in India (March 2023)? A) 25 B) 35 C) 30 D) 20
A
41
Q41) Student making compost fulfills which duty? A) Strive for excellence B) Safeguard property C) Develop scientific temper D) Protect environment
D
42
Q42) Part dealing with Election Commission? A) XV B) XII C) IV D) XI
A
43
Q43) Article for Rajya Sabha composition? A) 76 B) 80 C) 84 D) 92
B
44
Q44) Articles 214-231 (Part VI) deal with: A) High Courts B) District Courts C) Subordinate Courts D) Supreme Court
A
45
Q45) Upper House of State Legislature? A) Vidhan Parishad B) Rajya Sabha C) Lok Sabha D) Vidhan Sabha
A
46
Q46) Supreme Court Judges (excluding CJI)? A) 37 B) 35 C) 38 D) 33
D
47
Q47) Election Commission founded in? A) 1955 B) 1952 C) 1950 D) 1947
C
48
Q48) Controversial Article for President's Rule? A) 358 B) 356 C) 360 D) 352
B
49
Q49) Organisation headed by CAG? A) Indian Civil Accounts B) Controller General of Accounts C) Indian Audit and Accounts Dept D) ICAI
C
50
Q50) Articles/Part dealing with State Legislature? A) 214-231 (Part VI) B) 168-212 (Part VI) C) 243-243O (Part IX) D) 79-122 (Part V)
B
51
Q51) Industrial policy marking liberalization? A) 1991 B) 1980 C) 1977 D) 1956
A
52
Q52) Violation if 12-year-old works in factory? A) Art 24 B) Art 25 C) Art 23 D) Art 26
A
53
Q53) Article providing for Vice President? A) 61 B) 63 C) 65 D) 62
B
54
Q54) INCORRECT about DPSP? A) Ensure development B) Justiciable C) Governance guidelines D) Morally binding
B
55
Q55) Article for environment/forest protection? A) 47A B) 47B C) 48A D) 49C
C
56
Q56) Part XI (Articles 245-255) deals with? A) Emergency B) Financial relations C) Legislative relations D) Tribunals
C
57
Q57) Prohibits religious instruction in state schools? A) 29 B) 28 C) 30 D) 31
B
58
Q58) Article for President appointing SC Judges? A) 124(2) B) 123(1) C) 127(3) D) 128(4)
A
59
Q59) Authority empowered by Environment Act 1986? A) State Govt B) Central Govt C) Supreme Court D) Municipalities
B
60
Q60) Tenure of Chief Election Commissioner? A) 6yrs/65yrs B) 5yrs/65yrs C) 5yrs/60yrs D) 6yrs/60yrs
A
61
Q61) Act introducing provincial autonomy? A) 1919 B) 1813 C) 1909 D) 1935
D
62
Q62) Article 77 deals with? A) VP term B) VP role C) VP oath D) Govt business
D
63
Q63) Fundamental duty violated if child works? A) 51A(h) B) 51A(k) C) 51A(l) D) 51A(l)
B
64
Q64) Article promoting rural cottage industries? A)44 B)49 C)43 D)42
C
65
Q65) Article for SC/ST educational interests? A)45 B)48 C)47 D)46
D
66
Q66) Article allowing President re-election? A)58 B)56 C)59 D)57
D
67
Q67) PIL originated in? A) Switzerland B) Iceland C) USA D) NZ
C
68
Q68) Republic feature from? A) France B) Ireland C) Britain D) Australia
A
69
Q69) Indian High Courts Act year? A)1860 B)1861 C)1859 D)1858
B
70
Q70) Not a parliamentary device? A) Half-hour B) Zero-hour C) Two-hour D) Full-day
D
71
Q71) UK govt in 1945? A) Democrat B) Labour C) Socialist D) Liberal
B
72
Q72) Flag misuse violates? A)51A(c) B)51A(d) C)51A(a) D)51A(b)
C
73
Q73) Commission identifying legal provisions for Fundamental Duties? A) Vasantrao Naik B) Sarkaria C) Rajamamar D) Justice Verma
D
74
Q74) 2021 Bill for MSME working capital? A) Essential Commodities B) Minerals Laws C) Factoring Regulation D) Insolvency Code
C
75
Q75) States Reorganisation Commission setup year? A)1963 B)1953 C)1956 D)1958
B
76
Q76) Highest state law officer? A) Advocate General B) Attorney General C) HC CJ D) Auditor General
A
77
Q77) Committee on Fundamental Duties? A) Mulla B) Verma C) Sagre D) Krishna Iyer
B
78
Q78) Article for social order promoting welfare? A)37 B)38 C)39 D)36
B
79
Q79) Anna Chandy's High Court? A) WB B) Kerala C) TN D) AP
B
80
Q80) Ambedkar's description of DPSP? A) Soul B) Identity card C) Precious part D) Novel feature
D
81
Q81) Writ against lower court exceeding jurisdiction? A) Quo Warrant B) Habeas Corpus C) Certiorari D) Prohibition
D
82
Q82) INCORRECT about DPSP? A) Personal/individualistic B) Moral sanctions C) Social democracy D) Positive obligations
A
83
Q83) Directive Principles added by 42nd Amendment? A) Two B) Three C) Five D) Four
D
84
Q84) Shortest-serving PM? A) Chandra Shekhar B) Gulzarilai Nanda C) Charan Singh D) Vajpayee
B
85
Q85) Article for Advocate-General's legal advice duty? A)168 B)165 C)167 D)166
B
86
Q86) UPSC's Constitutional Article? A)320 B)324 C)328 D)332
A
87
Q87) Minimum ministers in state (incl. CM)? A)11 B)10 C)13 D)12
D
88
Q88) Article for Rajya Sabha seat allocation? A)81 B)82 C)83 D)80
D
89
Q89) State enacting Cattle Preservation Act 2021? A)Tripura B)Sikkim C)Arunachal D)Assam
D
90
Q90) Article for resource distribution to subserve common good? A)39(a) B)39(b) C)39(c) D)39(d)
B
91
Q91) Ranjana Desai's original government organ? A)Legislature B)Judiciary C)Vigilance D)Executive
B
92
Q92) Amendment Bill for SC list in Tamil Nadu? A)2019 ST B)2013 ST C)2015 SC D)2021 SC
D
93
Q93) 2022 SC/ST Order Bill introduced for? A)Odisha B)Bihar C)UP D)MP
C
94
Q94) Article for conduct of state govt business? A)177 B)167 C)164 D)166
D
95
Q95) Right of Persons with Disabilities Act year? A)2010 B)2002 C)2016 D)2019
C
96
Q96) 1989 committee for local govt recognition? A)Ashok Mehta B)PK Thurgon C)Balwant Rai D)Verma
B
97
Q97) Marine Aids Bill 2021 replaced? A)Dangerous Machines Act B)Personal Injuries Act C)Lighthouse Act D)Doutine Act
C
98
Q98) Governor membership restriction under Article 158 (Schedule)? A)7th B)5th C)1st D)3rd
C
99
Q99) Praised Constitution's amending feature? A)Granville Austin B)Nor Jennings C)K C Wheare D)HM Seervai
C
100
Q100) Article on state-Union executive power? A)261 B)247 C)257 D)123
C
101
Q101) Epidemic Diseases Ordinance 2020 amended? A)1892 B)1895 C)1890 D)1897
D
102
Q102) Judges Salary Bill 2021 intro date in LS? A)27 Sep B)30 Nov C)29 Mar D)28 Apr
B
103
Q103) Election eligibility date reform? A)2 dates B)No date C)4 dates D)3 dates
C
104
Q104) NOT an AERA 2021 amendment? A) Govt can declare major airports B) Clubbing airports C) PPP packages D) 35 lakh passenger definition
D
105
Q105) Muslim Women Act 2019's subsistence allowance section? A)5 B)6 C)7 D)4
A
106
Q1) Indian Constitution came into force on ______ and is celebrated as Republic Day. A) 26 Jan 1951 B) 26 Jan 1950 C) 26 Jan 1948 D) 26 Feb 1950
B
107
Q2) The Parliament of India has passed the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 2002, which establishes the basic rights of primary education for children between: A) 7-16 Years B) 5-11 years C) 6-14 Years D) 6-17 Years
C
108
Q3) ______ has called the Right to Constitutional Remedy as the ‘Soul of the Constitution’. A) Dr. BR Ambedkar B) Lal Lapat Rai C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
A
109
Q4) Which of the following Fundamental Rights has been deleted from the original list of fundamental rights provided in the Constitution of India? A) Right to freedom of religion B) Cultural and educational rights C) Right to constitutional remedies D) Right to property
D
110
Q5) Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deal with citizenship? A) Article 10 – 17 B) Article 8 – 15 C) Article 5 – 11 D) Article 12 – 18
C
111
Q6) These 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of Indian Constitution was passed in the year ______. A) 1976 B) 1977 C) 1978 D) 1979
A
112
Q7) On 26 January 1950 India became: A) a sovereign, democratic, republic state B) a socialist and secular state C) an independent state D) a unitary state
A
113
Q8) A housemaid gets her 12-year-old daughter to help in her work as a house cleaner at a residential colony instead of sending her to school. Which fundamental duty is violated by the housemaid? A) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence B) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood C) To defend the country and render national service D) To provide opportunities for education to his/her child
D
114
Q9) How many languages are included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India as scheduled languages? A) 23 B) 21 C) 22 D) 24
C
115
Q10) The Fundamental Duties of Citizens were introduced by the 42nd Amendment in the year: A) 1978 B) 1980 C) 1976 D) 1988
C
116
Q11) Which Articles of the Constitution deal with citizenship? A) Articles 5 to 11 B) Articles 5 to 10 C) Articles 5 to 8 D) Articles 5 to 9
A
117
Q12) Which of the following committees recommended the inclusion of fundamental duties in the Constitution of India? A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee B) Sarkaria Committee C) Swaran Singh Committee D) Raja Mannar Committee
C
118
Q13) The 42nd amendment of the Indian Constitution added ______. A) Legislature B) Fundamental rights C) Fundamental duties D) National anthem
C
119
Q14) Which of the following is NOT a condition for acquiring the citizenship of India? A) Holding property B) Descent C) Registration D) Domicile
A
120
Q15) Fundamental duties were introduced in Part IVA of the Constitution by the: A) Forty-third Amendment Act, 1977 B) Forty-first Amendment Act, 1976 C) Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976 D) Forty-fourth Amendment Act, 1978
C
121
Q16) Which part of the Constitution of India deals with ‘Citizenship’? A) Part I B) Part III C) Part IV D) Part II
D
122
Q17) Citizens are NOT discriminated against on the basis of religion, caste or sex because of: A) Right to Equality B) Right against Exploitation C) Right to Freedom D) Right to Freedom of Religion
A
123
Q18) Article 15 of the Constitution of India entails: A) cultural and educational rights B) equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment C) freedom of speech and expression D) prohibition of discrimination against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
D
124
Q19) Secularism is a feature of the Indian Constitution, which means: A) The State can promote any religion. B) The State does not promote any religion. C) The State promotes the religion of the minority community. D) The State promotes the religion of the majority community.
B
125
Q20) ______ of the Constitution of India has provisions for legal enforcement of the fundamental rights. A) Article 28 B) Article 19 C) Article 32 D) Article 29
C
126
Q21) In which part of the Constitution will you find the six broad categories of Fundamental Rights? A) Part II B) Part III C) Part IV D) Part I
B
127
Q22) All historical monuments have signages with instructions that public should not write on the walls. To which fundamental duty does the given statement belong? A) To develop the scientific temper B) To defend the country and render national service C) To promote harmony and spirit of common brotherhood D) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
D
128
Q23) Writ of Mandamus is a Fundamental Right classifiable under: A) the right to equality B) cultural and educational rights C) constitutional remedies D) the right to freedom of religion
C
129
Q24) Suppose a mine worker asks his son, aged 9 years, to help him in his work instead of going to school. Which Article of the Constitution of India will be violated in this case? A) Article 18 B) Article 24 C) Article 20 D) Article 29
B
130
Q25) Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution are related to Fundamental Rights? A) 14-32 B) 32-51 C) 12-35 D) 12-36
C
131
Q26) How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court to protect the Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens? A) Six B) Four C) Five D) Seven
C
132
Q27) Which of the following Amendment Acts led to the insertion of Article 21 A? A) Eighty-seventh Amendment Act, 2003 B) Eighty-sixth Amendment Act, 2002 C) Eighty-fourth Amendment Act, 2002 D) Eighty-fifth Amendment Act, 2002
B
133
Q28) Which of the following writs in Latin means ‘we command’? A) Prohibition B) Habeas corpus C) Quo-warranto D) Mandamus
D
134
Q29) Which of the following is NOT mentioned in fundamental duties provided under Indian Constitution? A) To join Defence forces B) To develop scientific temper C) To safeguard public property D) To respect the national flag
A
135
Q30) The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India comes under the: A) Ministry of Finance B) Ministry of Home Affairs C) Ministry of Corporate Affairs D) Ministry of Rural Development
B
136
Q31) A school teacher asks students to stand up every time national anthem is sung. Which Article enshrines this fundamental duty? A) Article 51 (d) B) Article 51 (c) C) Article 51 (b) D) Article 51A (a)
D
137
Q32) Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution is described as the ‘Magna Carta of India’? A) Part IV B) Part II C) Part III D) Part I
C
138
Q33) Which of the following Articles prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour? A) Article 25 B) Article 28 C) Article 23 D) Article 22
C
139
Q34) Which of the following committees had recommended the inclusion of a chapter on the Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India and stressed that the citizens should become conscious that, in addition to the enjoyment of rights, they also have certain duties to perform? A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1976) B) JR Varma Committee (1996) C) Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) D) Swaran Singh Committee (1976)
D
140
Q35) Part IV A of the Indian Constitution is related to ______. A) Directive Principles of State Policy B) Fundamental Duties C) Fundamental Rights D) Citizenship
B
141
Q36) The Indian Constitution borrowed the concept of concurrent list from ______. A) Australia B) Germany C) USSR D) Japan
A
142
Q37) The Preamble of the Constitution describes India as: A) a unitary state B) a federal state C) an atheist state D) a secular state
D
143
Q38) Judicial Review, a salient feature of the Constitution of India, has been borrowed from which of the following countries? A) South Africa B) Canada C) Ireland D) The US
D
144
Q39) Certiorari comes under the: A) right against exploitation B) right to constitutional remedies C) right to equality D) right to religious freedom
B
145
Q40) The Constitution of India was adopted on ______. A) 26 November 1949 B) 24 November 1947 C) 26 January 1949 D) 26 January 1950
A
146
Q41) Which of the following statements are INCORRECT vis-à-vis features of the Indian Constitution? 1) The Constitution empowers the Prime Minister to proclaim three types of emergencies. 2) A reservation policy is there to uplift the disadvantaged sections of society. 3) The Supreme Court has no power of judicial review. 4) The Constitution provides for universal adult suffrage. A) 2 and 4 B) 1 and 3 C) 1 and 2 D) 3 and 4
B
147
Q42) Which writ literally means ‘what is your authority’? A) Habeas Corpus B) Mandamus C) Quo-Warranto D) Prohibition
C
148
Q43) Article 20 of the Constitution of India is related to ______. A) protection in respect of conviction for offenses B) abolition of titles C) equality of opportunities in matters of public employment D) freedom to manage religious affairs
A
149
Q44) Which of the following is a feature of Directive Principles of State Policy, and also distinguishes it from Fundamental Rights? A) It protects the interest of the individual. B) It is prohibitive in nature. C) It is non-justiciable. D) It is justiciable.
C
150
Q45) Recently, a bill on Uniform Civil Code (UCC) was introduced. Consider the following statements about UCC and identify the correct statement(s) from them. 1. The Uniform Civil Code in India Bill, 2020, was introduced in the Lok Sabha as a private member bill. 2. UCC refers to the same set of civil laws applicable to all the citizens of India in all the personal matters. 3. The provision for UCC in the Constitution of India is mentioned under Article 44. A) Only 1 B) Only 1 and 3 C) Only 2 and 3 D) Only 3
C
151
Q46) Which of the following is NOT a way to acquire citizenship in India? A) Renunciation B) Registration C) Birth D) Incorporation of territory
A
152
Q48) How many Fundamental Rights were initially provided in the Constitution of India? A) Six B) Nine C) Seven D) Eight
C
153
Q49) The original constitution did NOT mention any fundamental duty because: A) Initially fundamental duties were not expected to be performed B) It was expected that the citizens of the country would perform their duties willingly C) It was expected that the citizens of the country would perform their duties forcefully D) Initially fundamental duties were punishable as per the constitution
B
154
Q50) In which of the following years was the National Anthem adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly? A) 1947 B) 1950 C) 1942 D) 1954
B
155
Q51) ______ Fundamental Duties were added in Part-IV of the Constitution under Article 51-A in the year 1976 through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. A) Eight B) Ten C) Twelve D) Nine
B
156
Q52) Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India CANNOT be amended with simple majority? A) 21 B) 3 C) 2 D) 169
A
157
Q53) Which Article provides that all minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice? A) Article 26 B) Article 24 C) Article 32 D) Article 30
D
158
Q54) In a situation wherein A (female) and B (male) are working in same office, same designation, same nature of work but unequal payment, which of the following Articles of the Constitution will be applicable? A) Article 21 B) Article 39(d) C) Article 18 D) Article 48A
B
159
Q55) Which of the following Articles in the Constitution of India provides protection to President and Governors and Rajaramukhs? A) Article 361 B) Article 352 C) Article 370 D) Article 356
A
160
Q56) Which set of Articles in the Constitution of India are known as ‘Cultural and Educational Rights’? A) Articles 19-20 B) Articles 29-30 C) Articles 14-15 D) Articles 23-24
B
161
Q57) ‘Reservation in promotion’ comes under which Article of the Constitution? A) Article 15 (3B) B) Article 19 (2) C) Article 14 (4A) D) Article 16 (4A)
D
162
Q58) In which of the following years did the Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Act come into force? A) 2001 B) 2020 C) 2015 D) 2009
C
163
Q59) Which of the following word sequences is correct as per the Preamble to the Constitution? A) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic B) Socialist, secular, democratic, republic, sovereign C) Secular, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign D) Sovereign, secular, socialist, democratic, republic
A
164
Q60) Which of the following statement(s) is/are INCORRECT vis-à-vis Fundamental Duties? 1) They are obligatory in nature 2) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental duties are complementary to each other. 3) The introduction of Article 51A created strong base for a concrete national character and strong harmony. 4) Eleventh fundamental duty was added by 78th constitutional amendment act. A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) Only 3 D) Only 4
D
165
Q61) Federalism in the Indian constitutional context means: A) the existence only one level of government in the country B) the existence of one nation one government in the country C) the existence of states in the country D) the existence of more than one level of government in the country
D
166
Q62) The Citizenship Act, 1955 does NOT deal with _____ . A) termination B) election C) determination D) acquisition
B
167
Q63) Any citizen of India can make a declaration renouncing his/her Indian citizenship under the _____ . A) Citizenship Act, 1975 B) Citizenship Act, 1985 C) Citizenship Act, 1955 D) Citizenship Act, 1965
C
168
Q64) With reference to the Directive Principles of State policy contained in the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1.Article 37 of the Constitution of India provides that the Directive Principles of State Policy are enforceable in the High Courts only. 2.Article 38 provides that the State shall strive to minimise the inequalities in income amongst individuals and groups of people. 3.Article 39 provides that the State shall direct its policy towards securing that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women. A) Only 1 and 3 B) Only 2 C) Only 1 D) Only 2 and 3
D
169
Q65) Which of the following statement(s) is/are INCORRECT vis-à-vis features of the Indian Constitution? 1) Though India has a federal system, the Constitution does not mention the word ‘federation’. 2)Article 5 of the Constitution says that the Parliament by law can create a new state. 3) On the subjects in the Union list, each State Legislature can enact laws for the State. 4)Both the Parliament and State Legislature can pass laws on subjects in concurrent list. A) 1 and 4 B) 1 and 3 C) Only 1 D) 2 and 3
D
170
Q66) Articles 344 (1) and 351 of the Constitution of India are related to the: A) Third Schedule B) Sixth Schedule C) Fifth Schedule D) Eighth Schedule
D
171
Q67) The establishment of Union Public Service Commission, State Public Service Commissions and Joint Public Service Commission falls under which of the following features of the Constitution of India? A) Federalism B) Parliamentary Government C) Directive Principles of State Policy D) Fundamental Rights
A
172
Q68) Which of the following statement(s) is/are INCORRECT vis-à-vis Fundamental Duties? 1) The 44th amendment Act introduced Fundamental duties in the Constitution. 2) Fundamental Duties were expanded by the 86th amendment act. 3) Article 51A (a) entails respect its ideals and institutions, national flag and the national anthem. 4) Fundamental Duty obliges parents to provide opportunities for education to their child between 6-14 years of age. A) Only 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 2 and 3 D) 1
D
173
Q69) Which Article of the Constitution of India vests plenary powers in Parliament to legislate on the subject of citizenship? A) Article 8 B) Article 5 C) Article 11 D) Article 6
C
174
Q70) Which Article of the Constitution mentions that “the Parliament consists of the President and two Houses known as the Council of States (Raiya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha)”? A) 82 B) 79 C) 70 D) 73
B
175
Q71) A _____ is issued to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction, which is not legally vested, or acting without jurisdiction or acting against the principles of natural justice. A) writ of mandamus B) writ of habeas corpus C) writ of prohibition D) writ of quo-warranto
C
176
Q72) On 7 November 2022, the Supreme Court of India upheld the reservations for the weaker sections (EWS). Which of the following amendments brought this reservation in the first place? A) 103rd Amendment of the Constitution B) 102nd Amendment of the Constitution C) 104th Amendment of the Constitution D) 101st Amendment of the Constitution
A
177
Q73) Which of the following organisations said that India CANNOT have a parallel judicial system - one for the rich and the other for the poor? A) Supreme Court B) Himachal High Court C) Gujarat High Court D) Kerala High Court
A
178
Q74) Which of the following Fundamental Rights is available for Indians as well as foreigners? A) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions B) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment C) Right to protection of language, script and culture of minorities D) Right to elementary education
D
179
Q75) How many fundamental duties were recommended to be inserted in the Indian Constitution by the Swarna Singh Committee? A) 7 B) 6 C) 8 D) 9
C
180
Q76) Which of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code deals with ‘rape’? A) Section 370 B) Section 380 C) Section 375 D) Section 385
C
181
Q78) Which of the following Articles of the Constitution states that ‘It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.’? A) 51 A (b) B) 51 A (d) C) 51 A (e) D) 51 A (c)
C
182
Q79) After independence, the Census Act was enacted in India in the year ______. A) 1960 B) 1955 C) 1962 D) 1948
D
183
Q80) On 11 August 2021, the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Amendment Bill, 2021 was passed by the Parliament and it amended the ______. A) Life Insurance (Nationalisation) Act, 1975 B) General Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1970 C) Motor Insurance (Nationalisation) Act, 1980 D) General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972
D
184
Q81) Which Clause of Article 20 incorporates the doctrine of double jeopardy? A) 1 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2
D
185
Q82) Which Article of the Constitution mentions about establishing and maintaining institutions for religious and charitable purposes? A) Article 28 B) Article 26 C) Article 29 D) Article 30
B
186
Q83) Which committee is related to fundamental duties? A) Verma Committee B) LM Singhvi Committee C) Vasantrao Naik Committee D) Rajmannar Committee
A
187
Q84) Which of the following Articles was amended in the Constitution (Fifth Amendment Act), 1955? A) Article 45 B) Article 3 C) Article 34 D) Article 17
B
188
Q85) In which year was the National Human Rights Commission established in India? A) 2005 B) 1993 C) 1995 D) 2003
B
189
Q86) From which of the following Constitutions has the India Constitution adopted the system of ‘First Past the Post’? A) Irish Constitution B) United States Constitution C) French Constitution D) British Constitution
D
190
Q87) Lal Thanhawla holds the record for the longest-serving Chief Minister of ______, occupying the position for five terms. A) Sikkim B) Manipur C) Mizoram D) Meghalaya
C
191
Q88) The parliamentary standing committees have a tenure of ______ years. A) one B) four C) three D) two
A
192
Q89) In which year did the Indian Constitution declare Hindi in Devanagari script to be the official language of the Union? A) 1951 B) 1952 C) 1949 D) 1955
C
193
Q90) The Supreme Court, in May 2023, observed that it can give divorce on the ground of irretrievable breakdown of marriage by exercising its discretionary power under _____. A) Article 136 of the Constitution of India B) Article 32 of the Constitution of India C) Article 142 of the Constitution of India D) Article 143 of the Constitution of India
C
194
Q91) In which of the following years was the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 amended? A) 2015 B) 2021 C) 2019 D) 2013
B
195
Q92) Under the discretionary power of which Article of the Indian Constitution did the SC of India recognise sex work as a profession? A) Article 142 B) Article 143 C) Article 141 D) Article 140
A
196
Q93) The Maritime Anti-Piracy Act, 2022, was enacted to give effect to which of the following? A) United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea relating to repression of piracy on high seas. B) United Nations Convention on Oceans and Seas relating to repression of piracy on high seas. C) United Nations Regional seas convention relating to repression of piracy on high seas. D) United Nations Treaty on Oceans relating to repression of piracy on high seas.
A
197
Q94) Which of the following statement/(s) is /are true with respect to Supreme Court Observation in A.G. Perarivalan vs The State Of Tamil Nadu State? 1. It highlighted that the Governor’s powers are qualified by the constitutional mandate, chiefly requiring them to act in aid and advice of the council of ministers 2. The bench headed by justice L Nageswara Rao ordered the freedom of one of the convicts in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case. 3. The bench was of the opinion that there are three sources of power-Governor, Council of Ministers and the Constitution. A) Only 1 B) Both 1 and 2 C) Only 3 D) Both 2 and 3
B
198
Q95) In which judgement did the Supreme Court extend the scope of Article 21 and observed that ‘the Right to education flows directly from the Right to life’? A) Kharak Singh v State of UP B) Malak Singh v State of Punjab C) Mohini Jain v State of Karnataka D) Neerja Choudhari v State of M. P.
C
199
Q96) The Press and Periodicals Registration Bill, 2023 replaced which act with a simplified law that decriminalizes various provisions and brings digital media under its ambit? A) Censorship of Press Act, 1799 B) Newspaper (Increment to Offences) Act, 1908 C) Press (Objectionable Matters) Act, 1951 D) Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867
D
200
Q97) Which Section of the Representation of People’s Act (RPA), 1951 deprives the prisoners of their right to vote? A) Section 62 (5) B) Section 15 (3) C) Section 72 (5) D) Section 10 (4)
A
201
Q98) The Press and Registration of Books (PRB) Act was enacted in which year? A) 1887 B) 1877 C) 1867 D) 1857
C
202
Q99) Which of the following Articles was amended by The Constitution Fiftieth Amendment Act, 1984? A) Article 56 B) Article 33 C) Article 78 D) Article 99
B
203
Q100) The Maritime Anti-Piracy Act, 2022, received the assent of the President on ______. A) 31 March 2023 B) 30 April 2023 C) 31 December 2022 D) 31 January 2023
D
204
Q101) Which south-eastern Dravidian language has been approved by Odisha state to be included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, on 10th July 2023? A) Tulu B) Kodaqu C) Kui D) Malto
C
205
Q102) On 9 August 2021, the Parliament had passed the Limited Liability Partnership (Amendment) Bill, 2021. It amended the: A) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2012 B) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 C) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2004 D) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2016
B
206
Q103) After being passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, the Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2023 received the President’s assent on ______ to become the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023. A) 21 April 2023 B) 11 April 2023 C) 1 April 2023 D) 14 April 2023
B
