Polygraph Flashcards

(124 cards)

1
Q

*What is Mosso known for?

A

Scientific cradle.

Randy Moss cradled the football

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2
Q

*What was Marston known for?

Marcus = MAR-cuff = BP cuff

A

Discontinuous BP test.

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3
Q

*What is Keeler known for?

A

Father of modern day polygraph.

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4
Q

*What is Larson known for?

Larson = tracings

A

Simultaneous recording of tracings / charts.

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5
Q

*What is Reid known for?

A

Probable lie comparison.

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6
Q

*What is Baxter known for?

Ax murderers are psycho and get damp from blood

A

Psychological set. Dampening theory.

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7
Q

*What is Benussi known for?

A

I / E ratio.

Benussi = Benussi/e

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8
Q

*What are the stipulations for victim of a sex crime to take a polygraph

A
  1. Victim must volunteer / ask to take the test. Cannot be suggested by investigator
  2. Must be a YES test.
  3. Suspect must have declined the test.
  4. Suspect is unknown.
  5. Investigator must provide inconsistencies in victim’s statements.
  6. Victim must be told that victim’s advocate can be present.
  7. Victim must be told that the test can be stopped any time at their request.
  8. Must be video recorded.
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9
Q

*An address change for examiners must be completed within ___ days?

A

30

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10
Q

*What is known as the homeostatic control center for the brain?

A

Hypothalamus.

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11
Q

*What is Boyle’s Law?

Imagine air being forced into the lungs bc the pressure outside is higher, which forces air into the lungs.

A

I / E. Inhalation / exhalation. The act of breathing causes the pressure inside of the lungs to be lower than that outside and thus air flows inward. If the volume of a gas increases, its pressure decreases, and vice versa.

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12
Q

*What is known as the heart’s pacemaker?

A

SA node (sinoatrial node).

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13
Q

*What are the 3 parts of a nerve cell?

ACD

A
  1. Axon
  2. Dendrite
  3. Cell body
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14
Q

*What is the largest organ innervated by the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Sweat glands / Skin

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15
Q

*What is the only organ directly innervated by the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Adrenal medulla.

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16
Q

*Study sympathetic, parasympathetic chart.

A

Page 26 on study guide.

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17
Q

*Diastolic BP readings point ___ on a chart.

When you DIE (DI-astolic), you go UP to heaven

A

Up.

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18
Q

*Systolic BP readings point ___ on a chart.

Having a CYST/SYST makes u feel DOWN

A

Down.

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19
Q

*The dicrotic notch is in the ___ of the chart.

A

Middle. The rebounding of blood against the closed semi-lunar valves, causes a momentary interruption in the flow of blood and a small increase in blood pressure which appears as the dicrotic notch (MIDDLE on chart) on the CV waveform

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20
Q

*What are the countermeasure types?

A
  1. Physical
  2. Mental
  3. Pharmacological / chemical
  4. Behavioral
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21
Q

*Where is the peroneal artery located?

A

Lower leg / calf.

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22
Q

*What does 0/ (zero slash; zero with a slash thru it) mean?

A

Artifact.

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23
Q

*What is the minimum number of charts required to complete a test?

A

3.

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24
Q

*What is RBPF?

A

Respiratory blood pressure fluctuations - undulation associated with breathing. When inhalations and exhalations track exactly with the cardio simultaneously, the cause is likely that the bp cuff is in direct contact with the torso. Also sometimes caused intentionally by the examinee to control their breathing. Other factors could be vascular disease, age, fatigue, medication, and obesity.

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25
*What is a false positive?
When a truthful person is told they failed the test.
26
*What is sensitivity in relation to polygraph testing? ## Footnote A sensitive person may be deceptive
The ability to accurately detect deception.
27
*What is specificity in relation to polygraph testing? ## Footnote Specificity rules out everything EXCEPT deception.
Ability to rule out everything EXCEPT deception.
28
*What is the accuracy of overall polygraph when you combine specific and screening tests?
87%
29
*What are the 6 validated features of scoring pneumos? Fill in the blank. ## Footnote KNOW. ASP(da)-DCT
1. Apnea/blocking 2. Suppression 3. Progressive decrease in amplitude 4. Decrease in rate 5. Change in I/E ratio 6. Temporary increase in baseline
30
*What are the defense mechanisms?
**1. Repression 2. Denial 3. Fantasy / imagination 4. Projection 5. Displacement 6. Rationalization 7. Compensation 8. Regression 9. Sublimation** 10. Emotional insualation 11. Intellecualization 12. Reaction formation 13. Undoing 14. Identification
31
*What are the 7 stages of the post test interview? ## Footnote KNOW. ITC CHP O
1. Initial confrontation 2. Theme development 3. Controlling denials 4. Confronting objections 5. Handling the breaking point 6. Providing optional questions 7. Obtaining the confession
32
*____ controls the concept of right & wrong.
Superego
33
*What is the question order review? ## Footnote SRCIS
1. Sacrifice relevant 2. Relevant 3. Comparison 4. Irrelevant 5. Symptomatic
34
*____ questions are always last in the question review?
Symptomatic
35
*What is the unweighted average accuracy rating of the category of each technique? ## Footnote E-PT-I
Evidentiary - 90% Paired testing - 86% Investigative - 80%
36
What does PDD stand for?
Psychophysiological detection of deception
37
What is the Frye decision?
Excluded polygraph testimony in court.
38
*What is the EPPA? ## Footnote ND IS CS
Employee Polygraph Protection Act (EPPA) 1988. Prohibits employers from requesting polygraphs, seeking retribution against employees for not taking pg. **Excluded - US government for private contractors for national defense, intelligence and security, controlled substances. Not applicable to government employees** (US, state, local).
39
What are the optional locations for EDA, cardio, pneumo, and PPG?
EDA - bottom of feet, forehead, arm, forearm, abdomen. Cardio - forearm, wrist, calf. Pneumo - no good options. PPG - toes.
40
What are PVC's?
Premature ventricle contractions. Skipped heartbeats.
41
Before a person may be licensed as an examiner, he must have at least ____ experience in detection of deception.
1 year's experience.
42
KRS standard - Every examiner shall use an instrument which records permanently and simultaneously the subject's ____ and ____ patterns as minimum standards.
Pneumo, cardio
43
The examiner shall, immediately upon request of the examinee, ____ an examination in progress.
Terminate.
44
If the examinee has submitted to fewer than three (3) presentations of each relevant question, the results shall be recorded as ____
No opinion.
45
The examiner shall maintain on file for at least ____ years all records, papers, polygraph charts, consent to examination forms, notes, question lists or sheets, and reports of polygraph examinations that the examiner conducted.
2
46
Each examiner shall complete at least ____ hours of instruction in subject matter relating directly to the polygraph profession during the licensing year.
20
47
APA standards - Polygraph examinations shall be conducted with properly functioning instrumentation that records with, at a minimum, the following physiological data: ____
Seat sensor, pneumo, EDA, cardio.
48
The ZCT was designed by ____
Backster
49
The You Phase ZCT was designed by ____
Backster
50
Study p. 27-30 of study guide. Sympathetic, parasympathetic nervous systems.
51
The ____ is the grand conductor of homeostatic control of the body. It is part of the autonomic control center, the emotional response control center, and directs life supporting behaviors such as food and water intake and sleep. It controls the release of hormones from the endocrine system which also helps maintain homeostatic balance of the body.
Hypothalamus.
52
Increased sweating as a result of mental activity, especially during emotional arousal, is referred to as ____ ____. It occurs primarily on the glabrous skin on the palmar and plantar surfaces of the body and is likely activated via the hypothalamus. EDA reactions during polygraph testing can be a result.
Emotional sweating.
53
Normal, quiet inspiration is known as ____
Eupnea
54
The ____ is attached to the sternum and is the muscle most responsible for eupneic breathing.
Diaphragm
55
Integumentary system is known as ____
Skin
56
Outer layer of skin ____
Epidermis
57
Inner layer of skin ____
Dermis
58
The ____ ____ lies beneath the dermis. Beneath = sub
Subcutaneous layer
59
The ____ ____ ____ is known as fight, flight or freeze.
Sympathetic nervous system
60
The ____ ____ ____ is known as rest and relax.
Parasympathetic nervous system
61
The sympathetic nervous system & parasympathetic nervous system are part of the ____ ____ ____
Autonomic nervous system
62
Dilates pupils, inhibits salivation, relaxes bronchi, accelerates heartbeat, inhibits digestion (peristalsis and secretion), stimulates glucose production and release, secretion of adrenaline and noradrenaline/epinephrine and norepinephrine, inhibits bladder contraction, stimulates orgasm. Primary neurotransmitter is norepinephrine.
Sympathetic nervous system
63
Constricts pupils, stimulates flow of saliva, constricts bronchi, slows heartbeat, stimulates digestion (peristalsis and secretion), stimulates bile release (digestion), contracts bladder. Primary neurotransmitter is acetylcholine. Vagus nerve primary nerve for the parasympathetic nervous system.
Parasympathetic nervous system
64
Typical resting rate breathing cycle (eupnea or quiet breathing) is ____ breaths per minute.
14-16
65
The contraction phase of the heartbeat is known as ____ and is ____ on the chart.
Systole (systolic); down
66
The relaxation phase of the heartbeat is known as ____ and is ____ on the chart When u DIE, you relax and go UP to heaven
Diastole (diastolic); up
67
Average heart rate ranges between ____ bpm.
70-80
68
A heart rate below 60 bpm is termed ____ ## Footnote Tom **Brady** is slow
Bradycardia
69
A heart rate above 100 bpm is termed ____ ## Footnote A racecar has a **tach**ometer
Tachycardia
70
The specific location on a polygraph chart where the spot analysis concept is employed and is generally anchored to a relevant question is called ____ ____.
Analysis spot
71
An often-observed phenomenon in which examinees sometimes react only to a single relevant question when they are actually being deceptive to two or more in the same test is called ____ ## Footnote acdc
Anticlimax dampening concept | acdc = Anti Climax Dampening Concept
72
**Preventative** measures used by PDD examiners to block or neutralize the countermeasure efforts of examinees are called ____ ## Footnote Preventative / proactive.
Anti-countermeasures | Proactive = anti-countermeasure
73
Anti-countermeasures are ____ and counter-countermeasures are ____ **PARC**
Proactive; reactive **P**roactive = **A**nti **R**eactive = **C**ounter
74
An ____ is the cause for a change in the examinee’s physiological data that is **not attributable to an applied stimulus or recovery (i.e., movement, sensor slippage).**
Artifact
75
____ refers to a complex interactive regulatory system by which the body strives to maintain a state of internal **equilibrium**. Being able to recognize an examinee’s homeostatic signature, for each of the recording systems being monitored and recorded, is truly essential to effective test data analysis. Examiners often use the following terms interchangeably with homeostasis: physiological norm, pre-stimulus baseline, resting state, and tonic level.
Homeostasis
76
____ refers to the **period of time** between stimulus onset and response onset. Any physiological response that begins following stimulus onset is said to display ____ ____. ## Footnote Perios of time - late / latency
Latency; response latency
77
The examiner shall inform the prospective examinee that taking the detection of deception examination is a ____ act and the examiner shall obtain the ____ ____ of the examinee to undergo the examination.
Voluntary; written consent
78
The examiner shall not conduct an examination on any person whom the examiner believes, through observation or any other credible evidence, to be ____ or ____ unfit for the examination at that time.
Physically; psychologically
79
The examiner shall, immediately upon request of the examinee, ____ an examination in progress.
Terminate
80
Those procedures **routinely** included in the examination protocol to deter or neutralize CM's are called ____.
Anti-countermeasures.
81
Those procedures invoked only when **CM are suspected** and are used to defeat them or confirm their presence are called ____.
Counter-countermeasures.
82
Those strategies by examinees to affect PDD testing by the intentional employment of physical, mental, pharmacological, or behavioral efforts are called ____.
Countermeasures.
83
____ questions ask the examinee to provide **whatever information** he/she wishes to provide.
Open-ended
84
____ questions are **narrow focused** questions that require very brief answers. ## Footnote Narrow = closed
Closed-ended
85
____ questions are those questions for which the examinee is allowed to give an answer **without direction** from the PDD examiner. ## Footnote without direction / non-directive
Neutral (non-directive)
86
____ questions are questions phrased in ways that suggest the PDD examiner has a **preferred** answer.
Leading
87
____ is any act or statement made by the examinee that is a **partial** acknowledgement of the offense.
Admission
88
____ is a full and **complete** acknowledgement of guilt concerning involvement in the commission of a crime. ## Footnote Complete / confession. C / C
Confession
89
“Yes” answered relevant questions are reserved for PDD examinations of ____, ____, and ____. ## Footnote WIV
Informants, victims, and witnesses
90
____ is the novelty, or **intensity** of a stimulus aka relevant question.
Salience
91
____ ____ is a psychophysiological test of deception or recognition sometimes referred to as lie-detection as a term of convenience. The polygraph examination is a standardized, evidence-based test of the margin of uncertainty or level of confidence surrounding a categorical conclusion of deception or the possession of knowledge or information regarding a test target issue.
Polygraph exam
92
An ____ exam is a polygraph examination in which the written and stated purpose agreed to by the parties involved is to provide a diagnostic opinion as **evidence** in a pending judicial proceeding.
Evidentiary
93
____ ____ exams are polygraph examinations conducted in **tandem on two or more individuals** by different examiners who are mutually blind to the other test results regarding a single central contested fact to which all examinees are expected to know the truth thereof.
Paired testing
94
An ____ exam is a polygraph examination which is intended to **supplement and/or assist an investigation** and for which the examiner has not been informed and does not reasonably believe that the results of the examination will be tendered for admission as evidence in a court proceeding. These examinations may be conducted for screening purposes or to investigate known allegations or known incidents.
Investigative
95
A ____ exam is an **event specific** evidentiary or investigative polygraph examination conducted to assist in determining the veracity of an examinee regarding his or her knowledge of or involvement in a reported issue or allegation. ## Footnote Event specific
Diagnostic
96
A ____ exam is polygraph examination conducted in the **absence of a reported incident or allegation**. ## Footnote A screen is absent a window. A screening exam is absent an incident
Screening exam
97
A sex crime victim shall not be interrogated under any circumstance. T/F
True
98
Past sexual history of a sex crime victim shall not be explored by the examiner. T/F
True
99
The ____ ____ ____ is the system of nerves that regulates all innervated tissues and organs except striated muscle fibers. Consists of the sympathetic nervous system (fight or flight) and parasympathetic nervous system (rest and relax). Performs vegetative functions and regulates arousal levels.
Autonomic nervous system (ANS)
100
One of the most crucial steps in beginning your analysis process is to make a ____ assessment of all the physiological data collected.
Global
101
The ____channel is known as “the effector channel.”
Pneumo
102
The ____ is the **executive or decision making** part of our personality. ## Footnote Executive / Ego. Executives make decisions. E / E.
Ego
103
The ____ represents **basic instincts, urges and desires, operating on the pleasure principle and seeking immediate gratification**. It is entirely unconscious. ## Footnote Idiots act on urges & desires
Id
104
**Relevant Question** Steal Shoot Set Fire Drug Possession Drug Use Rape Suspect Child Abuse (Physical)
**Comparison Question** Steal Hurt/Harm/Injure Damage/Destroy Contraband Lie (but not about using drugs) Sex comparison/Lie about sexual activities Hurt/Harm/Injure
105
***Federal Polygraph Handbook – Pages 29-66. See document in study guide.
106
***DACA Numerical Evaluation Pamphlet (23 Aug 06) – (Wave Form Scoring Criteria)
Chapter 4
107
MOVEMENT TALKING DEEP BREATH COUGH CLEAR THROAT SWALLOW **SNIFF (3)** YAWN SNEEZE **LAUGH (3)** **SLEEP (3)** BELCH **OTHER (3)** OTHER STIMULUS EXAMINER INSTRUCTION EXAMINER ERROR POORLY WORDED ? **WILL REPEAT ? (3)** MOVEMENT INSTRUCTION TALKING INSTRUCTION ANSWERING INSTRUCTION BREATHING INSTRUCTION WAKE UP CHANGED ANSWER
MV T DB C CT SW SNF Y SZ LGH SLP B OTH OS EI EE PW WRQ MI TI AI BI WU CA
108
*A spike on the cardio chart indicates a ____ ____
Muscle twitch / movement
109
*When someone likes to point out the shortcomings of others, it is known as ____ ## Footnote When you POINT, you PROJECT your finger --->
Projection
110
*What is it called when someone **drops** in level? ## Footnote Drop = regress = regression
Regression
111
*Some obstacles that may cause frustration are ____?
Economic, relationships...?
112
*What type of question is “Did you help anyone steal any of that money?”
Secondary relevant
113
*What things do you do to modify a question to make it an exclusive probable lie? ## Footnote Golf course - TPC
Time stamp, place, category
114
*What type of question is "Do you know for sure who shook that baby?"
Guilty knowledge
115
*What type of question is "Did you cut the lock on that gate?"
Secondary relevant
116
*What are the exceptions to the Employee Polygraph Protection Act?
Drugs, armed security, government
117
*Sweat glands are controlled by the ____ ____ ____
Sympathetic nervous system
118
*Primary criteria for scoring EDA?
Amplitude
119
*What are the validated scoring systems?
Federal, ESS, Empirical scoring, Utah, Lykkn Scoring system
120
*What are the scoring rules for ESS and Federal scoring systems?
ESS - you double the weight of the EDA and then use the grand total. ESS - 3 point scoring system. Federal - 7 point scoring system.
121
*What is the question string for a DLST?
**Subset A** IR1 IR2 SR 1C1 1R1 1R2 1C2 2R1 2R2 2C1 3R1 3R2 2C2 **Subset B** IR1 IR2 SR 1C1 1R3 1R4 1C2 2R3 2R4 2C1 3R3 3R4 2C2
122
*What is the question string for a 3Q MGQT, Version 2?
I1 SR2 C3 R4 R5 C6 R7 C8
123
*What is the Lepet Scoring question string?
**4 Question** I1 SR2 C3 R4 C5 R6 C7 R8 C9 R10 C11
124
Question 97: E Question 98: D Question 99: B Question 100: F Question 101: D Question 102: C Question 103: E Question 104: A Question 105: B Question 106:D Question 107: C Question 108: A
EDBF DCEA BDCA