POP QUIZ Flashcards

Question

In serum protein electrophoresis, when a barbital buffer of pH 8.6 is employed, what protein fraction will migrate the fastest toward the anode? Albumin Alpha1-globulin Beta-globulin Gamma-globulin

Answer 1

Albumin The order of migration of the serum proteins, starting at the anode with the fastest-moving fraction, is albumin, alpha1-globulin, alpha2- globulin, beta-globulin, and gamma-globulin.

Answer 2

Monochromator A monochromator is a device for selecting a narrow band of wavelengths from a continuous spectrum. The three kinds of monochromators are filters, prisms, and diffraction gratings.

Answer 3

Scattered by particles in suspension Nephelometry is the measurement of the amount of light scattered by particles in suspension.

Answer 4

Hydrogen electrode The universally accepted standard half-cell with which all other half-cells are compared is the standard hydrogen electrode.

Answer 5

pH, pCO2, pO2 pH, PCO2, and PO2 are measured directly from the specimen by utilizing electrodes.

Answer 6

Valinomycin Because of its ability to bind K + , the antibiotic valinomycin is used as the neutral carrier for the K+-selective membrane.

Answer 7

Exhibit net negative charge Buffer solutions of pH 8.6 are commonly used for serum protein electrophoresis. At this alkaline pH, the serum proteins have a net negative charge. Therefore, the negatively charged serum proteins migrate toward the anode. This is true for all the proteins except the gamma-globulins, which tend to show the phenomenon of endosmosis.

Answer 8

Two alpha chains and two beta chains In adult hemoglobin, or hemoglobin A1, there are two alpha chains and two beta chains.

Answer 9

F Hemoglobin F is able to resist denaturation and remain soluble when added to an alkaline solution.

Answer 10

Electrolytes Categories of ligands for which immunoassay methods have been developed include drugs, hormones, vitamins, tumor markers, and enzymes. Electrolytes are commonly quantified using ion-selective electrodes.

Answer 11

Nitrogen The presence of nitrogen in all protein compounds distinguishes proteins from carbohydrates and lipids.

Answer 12

Burkholderia pseudomallei Burkholderia pseudomallei is the causative agent of melioidosis. The bacterium is found in soil and water in subtropical areas of Southeast Asia and Australia. Melioidosis exhibits several forms, from skin abscesses to abscess formation in internal organs.

Answer 13

Francisella tularensis Francisella tularensis requires cysteine or cystine for growth. Glucose-cysteine with thiamine and cystine heart media are commercially available for suspected cases of tularemia. They both require the addition of 5% sheep or rabbit blood. Buffered charcoal yeast extract also supports the growth of F. tularensis, a medium generally used by clinical laboratories for the cultivation of Legionella spp.

Answer 14

Capnocytophaga Capnocytophaga spp. are fermentative gram-negative bacteria that inhabit the oral cavity of humans. These organisms have been identified as a cause of disease in the oral cavity, and in compromised hosts they have been implicated in systemic disease isolated from cerebrospinal fluid, pleural fluid, and pulmonary secretions. The gliding motility is best observed during the log phase of growth and can be demonstrated by darkfield microscopy and on sheep blood agar by the production of concentrically spreading growth around primary colonies.

Answer 15

Neisseria meningitidis The Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome of disseminated intravascular coagulation occurs in cases of fulminant meningococcemia—Neisseria meningitidis septicemia. Invasion of the circulatory system by N. meningitidis may produce only a transient bacteremia or meningitis or may go on to cause a rapidly fatal infection. In cases of meningococcemia with intravascular coagulation, acute adrenal insufficiency due to hemorrhage into the adrenal gland may result.

Answer 16

Serotype b Before the development of an effective vaccine, the strain of Haemophilus influenzae found to be implicated in the majority of cases of bacterial meningitis in children 1-6 years of age was serotype B. This serotype is surrounded by a weakly immunogenic polyribitol phosphate capsule. The widespread use of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine beginning in 1985 has significantly reduced the incidence of invasive H. influenzae type b disease.

Answer 17

Gastroenteritis Campylobacter jejuni rivals Salmonella as the most common bacterial cause of diarrheal disease in humans. Campylobacter enterocolitis is characterized by fever, bloody diarrhea, and abdominal pain. Special selective culture media and incubation under a microaerophilic atmosphere at 42°C are required for the recovery of this organism from clinical samples.

Answer 18

Bordetella pertussis Whooping cough, or pertussis, is caused by Bordetella pertussis, a minute, encapsulated, nonmotile, gram-negative, pleomorphic bacillus. The best identification method is the polymerase chain reaction. Regan-Lowe medium is recommended for the isolation of this agent.

Answer 19

Lactose Neisseria lactamica is part of the normal nasopharyngeal flora of humans. In the laboratory this agent may be mistakenly identified as Neisseria meningitidis, an organism of significant pathogenicity. Differentiation of these two species is easily accomplished by demonstrating the fermentation of lactose or an ONPG (o-nitrophenyl- beta-galactopyranoside) positive test.

Answer 20

Haemophilus aegyptius Haemophilus aegyptius is the causative agent of "pinkeye." This form of conjunctivitis is highly contagious and is frequently seen in children attending daycare centers. The agent is an aerobic gram-negative bacillus that is nonmotile and requires both hemin (X factor) and nicotine adenine dinucleotide (NAD, V factor) for growth.

Answer 21

Bone marrow Brucella spp. are fastidious, gram-negative, coccobacillary organisms. They are predominantly animal pathogens, but occasionally produce disease in humans. The usual specimens for recovery of Brucella are blood and bone marrow, with the latter considered the more sensitive.

Answer 22

E. coli O157:H7 E. coli O157:H7 produces a toxin similar to Shiga toxin produced by Shigella dysenteriae. It is most commonly transmitted by ingestion of undercooked ground beef or raw milk. Hemorrhagic colitis is characteristic of infection, but infection can also lead to hemolytic uremic syndrome resulting from toxin-mediated kidney damage.

Answer 23

Helicobacter pylori Helicobacter pylori is found in the human gastric mucosa colonizing the mucous layer of the antrum and fundus but does not invade the epithelium. Approximately 50% of adults over the age of 60 years are infected, with the incidence of gastritis increasing with age. H. pylori has been cultured from feces and dental plaque, supporting the theory of a fecal-oral or oral-oral route of transmission.

Answer 24

Vibrio parahemolyticus Vibrio parahemolyticus is found in brackish or salt water. The mode of transmission is the ingestion of contaminated water or seafood. V. parahemolyticus is halophilic.

Answer 25

A positive ONPG Shigella sonnei is a group D Shigella and is characterized by its ability to ferment lactose. S. sonnei is ONPG positive but is a delayed lactose fermenter. This is the most commonly isolated species of Shigella in the U.S. The genus Shigella is characterized biochemically by being negative for citrate, urease, motility, and lysine decarboxylation.

Answer 26

Enterobacter aerogenes The Voges-Proskauer (VP) test is a broth test that detects the presence of acetoin from the metabolism of glucose in the medium. A red color indicates a positive reaction. The most common clinical isolates from the genera Providencia, Escherichia, Salmonella, and Proteus are generally VP negative, whereas most members of the Klebsiella, Enterobacter, and Serratia are positive. Enterobacteriaceae that are VP positive are typically methyl red negative.

Answer 27

Nonmotile Pathogenic mechanisms of V. cholera include adherence to enterocytes via pili, motility, enzymes such as protease and mucinase, and the production of an enterotoxin. Epidemic strains colonize the small intestine where they elaborate choleragen, an enterotoxin. Disease is produced when the enterotoxin stimulates the secretion of large volumes of fluids into the intestinal lumen.

Answer 28

O1 Classic epidemic strains of Vibrio cholera are included in the antigenic O group 1. The Ogawa and Inaba strains are considered the predominant epidemic strains. In the last few years the strain O139 has also been associated with outbreaks of cholera.

Answer 29

Klebsiella oxytoca Motility can be important in the identification of microorganisms. Of the Enterobacteriaceae, the genera Klebsiella and Shigella are characteristically nonmotile, as is Tatumella. Motility of the Enterobacteriaceae can normally be detected by the use of a semisolid motility medium, which is grossly observed for the determination of motility. The hanging-drop method is perhaps the most accurate means of detecting motility of nonfermentative microorganisms

Answer 30

Serratia marcescens When streaked on DNase test medium, colonies of Staphylococcus aureus and Serratia marcescens will demonstrate a positive reaction for DNase activity. Inoculated plates are incubated 18 to 24 hours, after which the plates are flooded with a 0.1% solution of HC1. DNase producing organisms are differentiated by the development of a clear zone in the agar around the colonies.

Answer 31

Escherichia coli The indole reaction is a widely used method for differentiating lactose-positive Escherichia coli from other members of the family Enterobacteriaceae. Organisms such as E. coli, which possess the enzyme tryptophanase, are able to metabolize the amino acid tryptophan with the production of indole, pyruvic acid, and ammonia. Indole represents the "I" in the IMViC reactions, a battery of tests used for the identification of the Enterobacteriaceae

Answer 32

Corynebacterium diphtheriae On serum-cystine-sodium thiosulfate-tellurite medium (Tinsdale medium), Corynebacterium diphtheriae is differentiated from other cornybacteria and other bacteria of the respiratory tract by its ability to produce black colonies surrounded by a brown-black halo after 48 hours of incubation. Growth factors needed by C. diphtheriae are provided by the addition of the serum. Potassium tellurite is inhibitory to many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, but corynebacteria are resistant.

Answer 33

Listeria monocytogenes Listeria monocytogenes is a cause of human and bovine abortion. In humans, the mother's symptoms are usually mild, resembling the flu and causing a low-grade fever. The organism can be isolated from aborted fetuses as well as from the maternal placenta. When infection with this etiologic agent is detected early, appropriate therapy can be initiated, which may prevent the death of the fetus.

Answer 34

Food poisoning Bacillus spp. are gram-positive, spore-forming bacilli widely found in the environment. Bacillus cereus is of particular interest as an etiologic agent of human cases of food poisoning. This enterotoxin-producing microorganism is most commonly associated with cases of food poisoning following ingestion of reheated rice served at Asian restaurants.

Answer 35

Bacillus anthracis Bacillus anthracis infects humans by three routes: respiratory, gastrointestinal, and cutaneous. Malignant pustule is the name given to lesions seen in cutaneous anthrax in humans. The lesion is, however, neither malignant nor a pustule. The disease produces a localized abscess on the skin, which forms a characteristic black eschar surrounded by a red raised ring.

Answer 36

Enterococcus faecalis Enterococcus faecalis and E. faecium grow in the presence of bile, hydrolyze esculin, and produce acid from glucose in the presence of high salt concentration. These bacteria also express streptococcal group D antigen. The ability to tolerate high salt concentrations differentiates the enterococci from the group D streptococci like the S. bovis group.

Answer 37

Blood The etiologic agents of brucellosis are the brucellae, which are small, nonmotile, gram-negative coccobacilli that are facultative intracellular parasites. Isolation of these organisms is difficult. In suspected cases, which are generally job related, multiple blood cultures are recommended for optimal recovery of the agent. Bone marrow cultures have been found to be positive when cultures of blood failed to recover the organism.

Answer 38

Stimulation of adenylate cyclase, which gives rise to excessive fluid secretion by the cells of the small intestine Enterotoxins are produced in the intestinal tract and primarily cause diarrhea. The heat-labile enterotoxin of Escherichia coli, which resembles cholera toxin, acts to stimulate the enzyme adenylate cyclase. The stimulation of the enzyme adenylate cyclase by the toxin increases the production of cyclic AMP, causing rapid gastrointestinal fluid loss. Diarrhea results following stimulation of the secretion of chloride ions by the cells lining the small intestine.

Answer 39

Cytochrome oxidase The genus Neisseria contains organisms that possess cytochrome oxidase activity. Colonies can be identified by the development of a dark purple color following the application of tetramethyl- p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride. The reaction relies on the property of the molecule to substitute for oxygen as an electron acceptor. In the presence of the enzyme and atmospheric oxygen, the molecule is oxidized to form indophenol blue.

Answer 40

Shigella dysenteriae Shigella dysenteriae, the type species of the genus, is a causative agent of bacillary dysentery. Differential and selective media for the recovery of enteric pathogens from stool samples would demonstrate Shigella species as H2S negative, non-lactose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli. Further biochemical testing would generally show these organisms to be unable to use citrate as their sole carbon source, unable to decarboxylate the amino acid lysine, and urease negative.

Answer 41

Vibrio A highly selective medium, thiosulfate-citrate-bile salt-sucrose (TCBS) is used for the isolation of Vibrio spp. Species able to ferment sucrose, such as V. cholerae, produce yellow colonies. Non-sucrose-fermenting organisms produce green colonies.

Answer 42

Subacute bacterial endocarditis Subacute bacterial endocarditis is an inflammation of the lining membrane of the heart, which most often is caused by a member of the viridans group of streptococci. Streptococcus sanguis is one of several species that may lodge in an abnormal heart or on valves damaged by previous infection. Viridans streptococci are normal inhabitants of the human upper respiratory tract.

Answer 43

Streptococcus pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae is most commonly associated with cases of lobar pneumonia. Patients characteristically produce blood-tinged, rust-colored sputum in which the characteristic gram-positive lanceolate diplococci can be found. S. pneumoniae forms alpha-hemolytic colonies when grown on sheep blood agar.

Answer 44

Corynebacterium diphtheriae Clinical material sent to the laboratory for the recovery of Corynebacterium diphtheria should be inoculated on cystine-tellurite agar plates or Tinsdale medium. On tellurite-containing media, colonies of this pathogen will appear dark-brown to black, which aids in their differentiation. Suspicious colonies should be further tested for their biochemical activity and toxin production.

Answer 45

Nocardia asteroides In immunocompromised patients, Nocardia asteroides can cause invasive pulmonary infection and can often spread hematogenously throughout the body. Lesions in the brain are commonly associated with dissemination and have a poor prognosis. The organism is ubiquitous in nature, and infection is acquired by traumatic inoculation or inhalation.

Answer 46

Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus epidermidis is a saprophytic microorganism found on the skin and mucous membranes of humans. This coagulase-negative Staphylococcus is seen frequently as a contaminant in blood cultures when proper venipuncture technique has not been used. S epidermidis has been implicated in serious human infections associated with the surgical insertion of prosthetic devices.

Answer 47

Bacillus anthracis Bacillus anthracis is the etiologic agent of human anthrax that occurs in any of three forms: cutaneous, pulmonary, and gastrointestinal. On Gram stain this organism appears as a large, spore-forming, gram-positive bacillus that characteristically grows in long chains. Colonies on agar plates are large and opaque with fingerlike projections referred to as "Medusa head" forms.

Answer 48

Streptococcus pneumoniae The susceptibility of alpha-hemolytic streptococcal isolates to optochin, or ethylhydrocupreine HC1, is a presumptive test for the differentiation of Streptococcus pneumoniae from viridans streptococci. Viridans streptococci are typically resistant to this agent and show no zone of inhibition or a zone of less than 10 mm with a 6-mm disk. S. pneumoniae characteristically is susceptible and produces a zone of inhibition greater than 14 mm.

Answer 49

Streptococcus pneumoniae Solubility of Streptococcus pneumoniae colonies by surface-active agents, such as sodium desoxycholate, is a widely used presumptive identification procedure. When a 10% solution of this reagent is applied to test colonies, S. pneumoniae will be totally dissolved. Colonies of viridans streptococci typically remain intact when bile is applied.

Answer 50

Staphylococcus aureus The ingestion of food contaminated with enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely cause of the disease in the case described. 5. aureus multiplies rapidly in improperly stored food. Within a few hours, levels of 105 organisms per gram of food can be found. Enterotoxin is elaborated when the organism reaches stationary growth phase. Ingestion of small amounts of toxin results in a rapid onset (1-6 hours) of vomiting and diarrhea as a result of a neural response.

Answer 51

Staphylococcus saprophyticus Most strains of Staphylococcus saprophyticusare resistant to novobiocin. This organism is frequently found in urine culture of young women and may be misidentified as S. epidermidis. A 5-ug disk is used in the test, and a zone of 16 mm or less determines resistance.

Answer 52

S Streptolysin S is primarily responsible for the beta-hemolysis seen on the surface of a sheep blood agar plate inoculated with a group A streptococcus. Of the two hemolysins secreted by beta-hemolytic group A streptococcus, Streptolysin S is stable in the presence of atmospheric oxygen. Streptolysin O is inactivated in the presence of oxygen, and it is best demonstrated when the agar has been stabbed and subsurface hemolysis is revealed.

Answer 53

Erysipelothrix Erysipelothrix is a nonmotile, catalasenegative, gram-positive bacillus that often appears as long filaments. Unlike other aerobic grampositive bacilli, this organism produces H2S, which can be demonstrated in triple sugar iron agar. Erysipeloid, a skin disease of the hands usually associated with the handling of infected animals, is the human infection produced most commonly by this agent.

Answer 54

Listeria monocytogenes Listeria monocytogenes is motile at room temperature. When inoculated into a semisolid medium, growth away from the stab is characteristic of motility. Motility is generally enhanced just below the agar surface, giving the growth pattern an "umbrella" appearance. L. monocytogenes is nonmotile at 35°C.

Answer 55

Bile-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae, a primary etiologic agent of lobar pneumonia, is an encapsulated, gram-positive, lanceolate diplococcus. Fastidious in its growth requirements, the organism on sheep blood agar produces characteristic alpha-hemolytic colonies, which are convex and often mucoid in appearance and bile soluble. Upon aging, colonies of S. pneumoniae undergo autolytic changes. There are approximately 80 types of pneumococci based on specific capsular antigens.

Answer 56

Viridans streptococci Viridans streptococci do not produce the enzyme pyroglutamyl aminopeptidase and, therefore, in the PYR test do not produce a positive or red color. The PYR test is used predominantly for the presumptive identification of group A streptococci and Enterococcus. Micrococcus and Lactococcus are known to produce a positive reaction as well, although the reaction may be delayed.

Answer 57

An optochin test should be performed on the culture isolate. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of lobar pneumonia as well as other serious bacterial infections. The Gram stain smear of clinical specimens can provide a rapid presumptive diagnosis when the characteristic morphology and Gram reaction is observed. The optochin disk test can be performed to presumptively identify this organism. Optochin lyses pneumococci, producing a zone of inhibition around the disk.

Answer 58

Streptococcus pyogenes Bacteriologic cultures of a typical impetigo lesion may yield either a pure culture of Streptococcus pyogenes or a mixed culture of S. pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus. The thick crust form of impetigo, which is most commonly seen, is primarily caused by S. pyogenes. It is the bullous form of impetigo for which S. aureus is the etiologic agent. The route of infection is direct inoculation of the causative agents into abraded or otherwise compromised areas of the skin.

Answer 59

Streptococcus agalactiae Group B streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae), unlike other streptococci, can hydrolyze sodium hippurate to benzoic acid and glycine. If glycine is produced, the addition of ninhydrin to the medium will reduce the glycine to produce a purple color. The use of ninhydrin to detect glycine is a sensitive and rapid test of hippurate hydrolysis.

Answer 60

High salt tolerance The physiology of staphylococci enables them to remain infectious in the environment longer than many other pathogenic bacteria. Staphylococci are somewhat heat resistant and can survive dry conditions. Their high salt tolerance enables strains to grow in salt-preserved foods and causes cases of food poisoning. Staphylococci, however, cannot resist temperatures as high as 55 °C for long periods, and they are not bile resistant. Most species are sensitive to novobiocin.

Answer 61

Scarlet fever The rash of scarlet fever is a result of the action of an erythrogenic toxin produced by group A streptococci. Because of the rapid diagnosis and treatment of group A streptococci infections, scarlet fever is rare in most developed countries. The other diseases listed do not involve an erythrogenic toxin.

Answer 62

Corynebacterium diphtheriae Strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae infected by a lysogenic bacteriophage produce an extremely potent exotoxin. Absorption of the toxin may cause a rapidly fatal hypertoxic disease characterized by myocarditis and neuritis. This disease most commonly affects children aged 1 to 10 years. Transmission is by contact with a human carrier or with contaminated fomites.

Answer 63

Urinary tract infections The recovery rate of coagulase-negative Staphylococcus saprophyticus from urinary tract infections in young females is second only to that of Escherichia coli. The organism has a predilection for the epithelial cells of the urogenital tract and is often seen in large numbers adhering to these cells on Gram stain. Key to the identification of this coagulase-negative Staphylococcus is its resistance to novobiocin.

Answer 64

Streptococcus agalactiae Streptococcus agalactiae (group B Streptococcus) is a principal cause of bacterial meningitis and septicemia in neonates. The organism, which is a part of the indigenous microbial flora of the vagina, is transmitted by the mother before birth, usually as the baby passes through the birth canal. Neonatal infection with group B streptococci may occur either as an early-onset disease (at birth) or as a delayed-onset syndrome that manifests itself weeks after birth.

Answer 65

Streptococcus pyogenes Erysipelas results from person-to-person transmission of group A streptococci. Symptoms occur when nasopharyngeal infection spreads to the face. The rare complication of an upper respiratory infection with Streptococcus pyogenes is characterized by sensations of burning and tightness at the site of invasion. Erythema associated with this superficial cellulitis rapidly spreads with an advancing elevated margin. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae causes a similar disease referred to as erysipeloid.

Answer 66

Catalase Organisms that synthesize the enzyme catalase are able to protect themselves from the killing effects of H2O2 by converting it to H2O and O2. Streptococci are unable to synthesize the heme prosthetic group for this enzyme and are catalase negative. Therefore, they grow better on blood-containing media because of the catalaselike activity of hemoglobin.

Answer 67

Scalded skin syndrome Scalded skin syndrome is a form of dermatitis produced by strains of Staphylococcus aureus that elaborate exfoliative toxin. Two types of this toxin have been identified: exfoliation A and exfoliation B. This potent toxin acts by disturbing the adhesive forces between cells of the stratum granulosum, which causes the appearance of the clear, large, flaccid bullae and the skin to peel off. Infants and children are most commonly affected with this form of dermatitis, beginning about the face and trunk and subsequently spreading to the extremities.

Answer 68

Micrococcus Staphylococci and micrococci are both catalase positive gram-positive cocci. Staphylococci are more clinically significant, so it is important to differentiate Micrococcus from Staphylococcus. Micrococci are modified oxidase positive, whereas Staphylococci are negative.

Answer 69

S. agalactiae Streptococcus agalactiae isolates can be presumptively identified by the demonstration of a positive CAMP reaction. CAMP is an acronym for the scientists (Christie, Atkins, Munch- Petersen) who discovered this phenomenon. Group B streptococci elaborate the CAMP factor, which acts to enhance the zone of hemolysis produced by beta-lysin-producing strains of Staphylococcus aureus. Incubation of test plates should be earned out in ambient air, because increased CO, and anaerobic incubation increase the rate of false-positive CAMP reactions by group A streptococci.

Answer 70

Corynebacterium diphtheriae The formation of the characteristic Corynebacterium diphtheriae granules and cellular morphology seen in methylene blue stains is enhanced when the organism is grown on Loeffler's serum medium. Although this medium is primarily designed for the recovery of C. diphtheriae from clinical samples, it is not a differential medium. The agar slant, when inoculated, may demonstrate growth of corynebacteria within 8 to 24 hours.

Answer 71

Lactic acid Whether growing aerobically or anaerobically, streptococci obtain all their energy from the fermentation of sugars to lactic acid. Streptococci are all catalase negative and grow on conventional media such as sheep blood agar. Most are part of the normal flora of human skin, throat, and intestine but produce a wide variety of infections when introduced in tissues or blood.

Answer 72

Double embedding

Answer 73

- Infiltrated with - Celloidin - Embedded with - Paraffin *ICEP

Answer 74

45 to 50 C

Answer 75

Picric acid

Answer 76

Picric acid

Answer 77

RAPID DIAGNOSIS

Answer 78

frozen section

Answer 79

Phase contrast microscopy

Answer 80

COAGULATION NECROSIS

Answer 81

Clostridium difficile

Answer 82

Corynebacterium amycolatum

Answer 83

Candida albicans

Answer 84

Acanthamoeba castellanii

Answer 85

leishmanial form

Answer 86

pH 5.5 or less

Answer 87

10,000 g for 5 minutes

Answer 88

creamy layer

Answer 89

chylomicrons

Answer 90

osmic acid/osmium tetroxide

Answer 91

Microanatomical fixatives

Answer 92

it inhibits hematoxylin

Answer 93

glacial acetic acid

Answer 94

due to its affinity for nuclear chromatin.

Answer 95

nuclear fixatives

Answer 96

- Helly's - Regaud's - Orth's - flemming's without HAc - Formalin with post-chroming *HROFF

Answer 97

cytoplasmic fixatives

Answer 98

Glacial acetic acid (HAc)

Answer 99

destroys the mitochondria and Golgi bodies.

Answer 100

Cambridge/Rocking microtome

Answer 101

Paldwell Trefall *Na-fall dahil sa Rock sa daan

Answer 102

Coulombic attraction/electrostatic bonds, hydrogen bonds

Answer 103

Bond between Best carmine and glycogen

Answer 104

Regressive stain

Answer 105

Regressive staining

Answer 106

PAS, Azocarmine stain

Answer 107

Postmortem clotting

Answer 108

Antemortem thrombi

Answer 109

Leadership

Answer 110

cryoprecipitate (fibrinogen) and topical thrombin

Answer 111

GLITTER CELLS stain LIGHT BLUE as opposed to the VIOLET COLOR usually seen with NEUTROPHILS.

Answer 112

Prealbumin (transthyretin)

Answer 113

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

Answer 114

fetal blood

Answer 115

maternal blood

Answer 116

Florence test

Answer 117

Barbiero's test

Answer 118

Blondheim's test

Answer 119

millimicron

Answer 120

neutral red

Answer 121

Janus Green

Answer 122

Early pregnancy

Answer 123

Harris hematoxylin, OG 6 and EA

Answer 124

1200 mL/min

Answer 125

600 to 700 mL/min

Answer 126

testosterone(Marshall)

Answer 127

primary aldosteronism

Answer 128

PCOS (polycystic ovary syndrome, Marshall)

Answer 129

Primary male hypogonadism

Answer 130

Secondary male hypogonadism

Answer 131

BASAL STATE

Answer 132

BASAL STATE

Answer 133

COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES

Answer 134

osmotic pressure, freezing point, boiling point and vapor pressure

Answer 135

compare accuracy, mean (TAM)

Answer 136

compare precision, SD (SPF)

Answer 137

1:2SD, 1:3SD, R:4S (ODD NUMBERS)

Answer 138

Random error

Answer 139

2:2SD, 4:1SD, 10:x (EVEN NUMBERS)

Answer 140

Systematic error

Answer 141

ZERO-ORDER KINETICS:

Answer 142

FIRST-ORDER KINETICS

Answer 143

Arteriosclerosis

Answer 144

Atherosclerosis

Answer 145

Addison’s disease

Answer 146

Conn’s syndrome

Answer 147

Cushing’s syndrome

Answer 148

Phaeochromocytoma

Answer 149

Amenorrhea

Answer 150

Gilbert’s syndrome

Answer 151

Crigler-Najjar syndrome

Answer 152

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

Answer 153

Rotor syndrome

Answer 154

Wilson’s disease

Answer 155

Menkes disease

Answer 156

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Answer 157

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Answer 158

Graves’ disease

Answer 159

Kwashiorkor

Answer 160

Kwashiorkor

Answer 161

Leydig cells

Answer 162

ACUTE TUBULAR NECROSIS

Answer 163

ADSORPTION

Answer 164

POINT MUTATION

Answer 165

ANASTOMOSIS

Answer 166

DOLICHOS BIFLORUS

Answer 167

ANTI-A1 LECTIN

Answer 168

BANDEIRAEA SIMPLICIFOLIA

Answer 169

ANTI-B LECTIN

Answer 170

ULEX EUROPAEUS

Answer 171

ANTI-H LECTIN

Answer 172

IBERIS AMARA

Answer 173

ANTI-M LECTIN

Answer 174

VICIA GRAMINEA

Answer 175

ANTI-N LECTIN

Answer 176

PRIVATE ANTIGEN

Answer 177

PUBLIC ANTIGEN

Answer 178

Ecchymosis

Answer 179

Koilonychia

Answer 180

Koilonychia

Answer 181

Alder-Reilly anomaly

Answer 182

Chediak-Higashi anomaly

Answer 183

May-Hegglin anomaly

Answer 184

Sezary syndrome:

Answer 185

Gaucher’s disease

Answer 186

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

Answer 187

Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

Answer 188

Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

Answer 189

Lactoferrin

Answer 190

1,200 mL/min

Answer 191

600 to 700 mL/min

Answer 192

Glomerulus

Answer 193

MW of less than 70,000 daltons

Answer 194

275 to 300 mOsm

Answer 195

50 and 1,400 mOsm

Answer 196

70 mEq/day

Answer 197

600 to 2,000 mL in 24 hours

Answer 198

1,200 to 1,500 mL in 24 hours

Answer 199

pH 4.5 to 8

Answer 200

1.022 ± 0.001

Answer 201

1.034 ± 0.001

Answer 202

less than 10 mg/dL or 100 mg/24 hours (Henry less than 150mg/24 hours)

Answer 203

20 to 200 ug/min or 30 to 300 mg albumin/24 hours

Answer 204

160 to 180 mg/dL

Answer 205

78% β-hydroxybutyrate (BHA), 20% acetoacetate (AAA) and 2% Acetone

Answer 206

at least 25 mg/dL

Answer 207

0 to 500,000 RBCs, 0 to 1,800,000 WBCs and epithelial cells and 0 to 5,000 hyaline casts in a 12-hour urine

Answer 208

400 RCF for 5 minutes

Answer 209

indicates tubular injury and specimens should be referred for cytologic urine testing

Answer 210

ACID DICHROMATE

Answer 211

HOLLOW CATHODE LAMP

Answer 212

Gaussian (normal) distribution

Answer 213

VALINOMYCIN

Answer 214

YELLOW FLAME

Answer 215

violet flame

Answer 216

blue flame

Answer 217

O-TOLUIDINE

Answer 218

HEXOKINASE

Answer 219

BISALBUMINEMIA

Answer 220

CREATININE

Answer 221

CK then AST then LD

Answer 222

ARTERIAL BLOOD

Answer 223

PARATHYROID

Answer 224

ALDOSTERONE

Answer 225

EPINEPHRINE

Answer 226

Conn’s disease

Answer 227

ARGENTAFFINOMA

Answer 228

Carcinoid tumors

Answer 229

ARGENTAFFINOMA

Answer 230

liberation, absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion (LADME)

Answer 231

INTRAVENOUS

Answer 232

SALICYLATE

Answer 233

Acetaminophen (paracetamol)

Answer 234

AMINOGLYCOSIDES

Answer 235

Aminoglycoside

Answer 236

WHOLE BLOOD

Answer 237

TETRAHYDROCANNABINOL (THC)

Answer 238

CYANIDE POISONING

Answer 239

chronic ARSENIC poisoning

Answer 240

RAPID DIAGNOSIS

Answer 241

FATS/FORMALIN/FROZEN SECTIONS

Answer 242

ALCOHOLIC FIXATIVES

Answer 243

NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALDEHYDE OR FORMALDEHYDE VAPOR

Answer 244

ALCOHOL-BASED such as Rossman’s fluid or cold absolute alcohol

Answer 245

MERCURIC CHLORIDE:

Answer 246

Zenker’s fluid

Answer 247

Zenker’s-formol (Helly’s)

Answer 248

Heidenhain’s susa solution

Answer 249

Regaud’s (Moller’s/Muller’s) fluid

Answer 250

Orth’s fluid

Answer 251

LEAD FIXATIVES

Answer 252

Carnoy’s fluid

Answer 253

Newcomer’s fluid

Answer 254

NITRIC ACID

Answer 255

PERENYI’S FLUID

Answer 256

X-ray or radiological method

Answer 257

EPON (PLASTIC MEDIUM)

Answer 258

REGRESSIVE STAINING

Answer 259

approximately 6-10C lower than the mp of wax

Answer 260

JANUS GREEN

Answer 261

PAS, AZOCARMINE

Answer 262

TOLUIDINE BLUE, CRESYL VIOLET ACETATE

Answer 263

RABBIT followed by goat, pig, sheep, horse, guinea pig and others

Answer 264

160 to 180 mg/dL

Answer 265

ammonium sulfate (BLONDHEIM’S TEST)

Answer 266

BLONDHEIM’S TEST)

Answer 267

CRYSTAL VIOLET AND SAFRANIN

Answer 268

Pseudocasts

Answer 269

amorphous urates

Answer 270

ACUTE GLOMERULOPNEPHRITIS

Answer 271

Moderate hematuria and RBC casts

Answer 272

PYELONEPHRITIS

Answer 273

Pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts

Answer 274

HIPPURIC ACID

Answer 275

Oval fat bodies

Answer 276

NEPHROTIC SYNDROME (Heavy Proteinuria >4 g/day)

Answer 277

CALCIUM OXALATE

Answer 278

TRIPLE PHOSPHATE/magnesium ammonium phosphate

Answer 279

CALCIUM PHOSPHATE

Answer 280

Limulus lysate test

Answer 281

Amoeba in CSF

Answer 282

uric acid or monosodium urate

Answer 283

PSEUDOGOUT

Answer 284

calcium pyrophosphate

Answer 285

SERUM FREE ESTRIOL

Answer 286

acrosomal deficiency

Answer 287

VARICOCELE

Answer 288

Pap’s stain

Answer 289

ZOLLINGER-ELLISON SYNDROME

Answer 290

CLERICAL ERRORS

Answer 291

DISCARD THE UNIT

Answer 292

DO NOT ISSUE THE UNIT, indication of contamination or bacterial growth

Answer 293

CHECK FOR CLERICAL ERRORS

Answer 294

up to 3 days after the red cell expire

Answer 295

filtering, centrifugation and washing

Answer 296

FROZEN RBCs

Answer 297

CRYOPRECIPITATE

Answer 298

NEWBORNS with severe infections

Answer 299

HEMOGLOBIN S

Answer 300

IgM and secretory IgA

Answer 301

IgM and IgG

Answer 302

chronic active hepatitis

Answer 303

urinary bladder cancer

Answer 304

POLYCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST

Answer 305

ORTHOCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST

Answer 306

PROMYELOCYTE

Answer 307

ILIAC CREST

Answer 308

RETICULOCYTES

Answer 309

Megaloblastic anemia

Answer 310

Anemia in sickle cell disease

Answer 311

Iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia:

Answer 312

AUTOSPLENECTOMY

Answer 313

SICKLE CELL ANEMIA

Answer 314

Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria.

Answer 315

LYMPHOCYTES

Answer 316

G6PD deficiency

Answer 317

BITE CELLS

Answer 318

schistocytes and nucleated RBCs

Answer 319

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

Answer 320

CHLORAMPHENICOL

Answer 321

NORMOCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC

Answer 322

acute leukemia

Answer 323

REED-STERNBERG CELLS

Answer 324

TEARDROP RBCs

Answer 325

Myelofibrosis

Answer 326

Hodgkin’s disease

Answer 327

acute promyelocytic leukemia

Answer 328

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

Answer 329

M3: acute promyelocytic leukemia

Answer 330

MULTIPLE MYELOMA

Answer 331

Franklin’s disease

Answer 332

GAMMA HEAVY CHAIN DISEASE

Answer 333

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)

Answer 334

Common ALL (CALLA)

Answer 335

BOTH PROLONGED

Answer 336

polycythemia

Answer 337

ALPHA2-ANTIPLASMIN

Answer 338

FIBRINOLYTIC SYSTEM

Answer 339

PHOSPHOLIPID

Answer 340

CYCLOOXYGENASE

Answer 341

UNRESECTABLE (cannot be removed completely through surgery)

Answer 342

BENCHMARKING

Answer 343

y-intercept

Answer 344

CONSTANT systematic error

Answer 345

PROPORTIONAL systematic error

Answer 346

EPIDERMOPHYTON FLOCCOSUM

Answer 347

UNRESECTABLE (cannot be removed completely through surgery).

Answer 348

either Stimulation Index (SI) or percent relative response (%RR)

Answer 349

Reporting Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction

Answer 350

ASCHOFF BODIES

Answer 351

RHEUMATIC FEVER.

Answer 352

FORMALDEHYDE WASTES

Answer 353

BARR (sex chromatin) BODY or DRUMSTICK

Answer 354

DOHLE BODIES

Answer 355

CHEDIAK-HIGASHI

Answer 356

CHEDIAK-HIGASHI

Answer 357

37C and decreases as the temperature lowers.

Answer 358

a nonstaining halo surrounding the platelet

Answer 359

bubbles and fibrin clots,

Answer 360

HYGROMETERS

Answer 361

70% to 100%

Answer 362

because concentrations less than 70% solutions will produce lysis of cells.

Answer 363

Ethanol and methanol, including Carnoy’s solution

Answer 364

BE PURE ETHANOL

Answer 365

A blue discoloration of COPPER SULFATE crystals

Answer 366

FULL SATURATION WITH WATER

Answer 367

Skeletal muscle

Answer 368

Skeletal muscle

Answer 369

Skeletal muscle

Answer 370

Cardiac muscle

Answer 371

Cardiac muscle

Answer 372

Cardiac muscle

Answer 373

Skeletal muscle

Answer 374

Smooth muscle

Answer 375

Smooth muscle

Answer 376

CASEOUS NECROSIS

Answer 377

Tubercle Bacillus

Answer 378

CASEOUS NECROSIS

Answer 379

PYKNOSIS, KARYORRHEXIS (segmentation and fragmentation) and KARYOLYSIS (dissolution of the nucleus).

Answer 380

CLOUDY SWELLING, FATTY DEGENERATION, CELL DEATH OR NECROSIS and CALCIFICATION.

Answer 381

BM aspiration

Answer 382

Department of Labor and Employment

Answer 383

DOLE Secretary.

Answer 384

CARBON DIOXIDE.

Answer 385

TURNAROUND TIME (TAT)

Answer 386

POISONOUS, CORROSIVE OR CARCINOGENIC.

Answer 387

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)

Answer 388

Urinometer

Answer 389

taken at the BOTTOM OF THE URINE MENISCUS.

Answer 390

METHIONINE MALABSORPTION.

Answer 391

CABBAGE urine odor

Answer 392

TOXIC TO RENAL TUBULES

Answer 393

acute renal failure.

Answer 394

MONOHYDRATE CAOX

Answer 395

TRIPLE PHOSPHATE

Answer 396

MAKLER COUNTING CHAMBER

Answer 397

COMPUTER-ASSISTED SEMEN ANALYSIS (CASA)

Answer 398

F. The first 2 to 3 mL

Answer 399

OSMOTIC DIARRHEA

Answer 400

MALABSORPTION AND MALDIGESTION.

Answer 401

SECRETORY DIARRHEA

Answer 402

BACTERIAL ENTEROTOXINS.

Answer 403

at least 6 g/dL.

Answer 404

LEAK POTASSIUM

Answer 405

HARMENING 4th edition: significant is 32 5th edition: significant is 16 to 32 6th edition: critical titer is 16

Answer 406

GLASS PIPET

Answer 407

CAPILLARY BLOOD SAMPLES

Answer 408

ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE

Answer 409

RENIN-ANGIOTENSIN-ALDOSTERONE SYSTEM

Answer 410

BULKY/FROTHY STOOL:

Answer 411

RIBBON-LIKE STOOL

Answer 412

BLACK STOOL

Answer 413

AZOOSPERMIA

Answer 414

OLIGOSPERMIA

Answer 415

SPERMATIDS

Answer 416

SERTOLI CELLS

Answer 417

LEYDIG CELLS

Answer 418

ACROSOMAL CAP

Answer 419

PROTEIN ERROR OF INDICATORS

Answer 420

CHAIN OF CUSTODY

Answer 421

CHAIN OF INFECTION

Answer 422

TOTAL QUALITY MANAGEMENT (TQM)

Answer 423

CONTINUOUS QUALITY IMPROVEMENT (CQI)

Answer 424

FORWARD angle light scatter

Answer 425

SIZE OF A CELL

Answer 426

SIDE ANGLE/right angle light scatter

Answer 427

GRANULARITY OF A CELL

Answer 428

RADIOIMMUNOSORBENT TEST (RIST)

Answer 429

RADIOALLERGOSORBENT TEST (RAST)

Answer 430

DIAPEDESIS

Answer 431

DiGeorge anomaly

Answer 432

Franklin’s disease

Answer 433

Kahler’s disease

Answer 434

multiple myeloma.

Answer 435

SENSITIVITY

Answer 436

SPECIFICITY

Answer 437

ONCOFETAL ANTIGENS

Answer 438

EPITHELIAL TISSUE origin

Answer 439

CONNECTIVE TISSUE origin

Answer 440

Conversion of glucose into lactate or pyruvate When glucose is metabolized, for example, to produce energy, it is con- verted to lactate or pyruvate. This process is called glycolysis.

Answer 441

Glycated hemoglobin Because red blood cells have an average life span of 120 days and the glycation is irreversible, measurement of glycated hemoglobin reflects the average plasma glucose level of an individual during the previous 2- to 3-month period. This test is used as a monitor of diabetic control.

Answer 442

Occurs more frequently in adults Type 1 occurs more commonly in individuals under 20 years of age. Studies suggest that type 1 is associated with autoimmune destruction of (3-cells, and it is characterized by insulin deficiency and thus a dependency on injection of insulin. Unlike people afflicted with type 2, type 1 individuals are prone to ketoacidosis and to such complications as angiopathy, cataracts, nephropathy, and neuropathy.

Answer 443

Hexokinase Although there are several reliable enzymatic glucose methods available, the hexokinase method is the reference method for quantifying glucose.

Answer 444

Insulin Of these hormones, insulin is the only one that decreases the blood glucose level.

Answer 445

Increased blood glucose level Epinephrine is produced by the adrenal medulla. It promotes glycogenolysis, thus increasing the blood glucose level. Epinephrine also inhibits the secretion of insulin and stimulates the secretion of glucagon.

Answer 446

Hyperglycemia In dishing syndrome the adrenal cortex secretes an excessive amount of the hormone cortisol. Because cortisol has a stimulatory effect on gluconeogenesis, hyperglycemia commonly occurs as a secondary disorder.

Answer 447

Impaired fasting glucose When a fasting plasma glucose test is performed and the glucose value is between 100 to 125 mg/dL, the individual is considered to have impaired fasting glucose (IFG). This is less than the value associated with diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, which is a fasting plasma glucose greater or equal to 126 mg/dL. IFG is considered a risk factor and a stage between normal glucose metabolism and development of diabetes mellitus.

Answer 448

C-peptide is active form The protein hormone insulin is synthesized in the pancreas by the (3-cells of the islets of Langerhans. Insulin, a two-chain polypeptide, consists of 51 amino acids. A single-chain pre- proinsulin is cleaved to proinsulin, which is the immediate precursor of insulin. Proinsulin is hydrolyzed to form insulin, a two-chain polypeptide, and inactive C-peptide. Insulin promotes the entry of glucose into tissue cells.

Answer 449

Chylomicron After fat ingestion, lipids are first degraded, then reformed, and finally incorporated by the intestinal mucosal cells into absorbable complexes known as chylomicrons. These chylomi- crons enter the blood through the lymphatic system, where they impart a turbid appearance to serum.

Answer 450

In the fasting state, approximately 9 to 12 hours after eating Blood specimens for lipid studies should be drawn in the fasting state at least 9 to 12 hours after eating.

Answer 451

Cholesterol Total cholesterol screenings are commonly performed on nonfasting individuals.

Answer 452

Chylomicrons Chylomicrons are protein-lipid complexes composed primarily of triglycerides and containing only small amounts of cholesterol, phospho- lipids, and protein. After food ingestion, the chylomicron complexes are formed in the epithe- lial cells of the intestines. From the epithelial cells, the chylomicrons are released into the lymphatic system, which transports chylomicrons to the blood. The chylomicrons may then carry the triglycerides to adipose tissue for storage, to organs for catabolism, or to the liver for incorporation of the triglycerides into very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs).

Answer 453

Beta-hydroxybutyric acid Beta-hydroxybutyric acid, acetoacetic acid, and acetone are collectively referred to as ketone bodies.

Answer 454

Cholesterol The beta-lipoprotein fraction is composed of approximately 50% cholesterol, 6% triglycerides, 22% phospholipids, and 22% protein. The beta-lipoproteins, which are also known as the low-density lipoproteins (LDLs), are the principal transport vehicle for cholesterol in the plasma.

Answer 455

Cholesterol The 27-carbon, ringed structure of cholesterol is the backbone of steroid hormones. The nucleus is called the cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene ring. The steroid hormones having this ring include estrogens (18 carbons), androgens (19 carbons), glucocorticoids (21 carbons), and mineralocorticoids (21 carbons).

Answer 456

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) A double nomenclature exists for the five principal lipoprotein fractions. The nomenclature is such that the various fractions have been named on the basis of both the electrophoretic mobilities and the ultracentrifugal sedimentation rates. The chylomicrons are known as chylomicrons by both methods. The chylomicrons are the least dense fraction, exhibiting a solvent density for isolation of less than 0.95 g/mL, and have the slowest electrophoretic mobility. The HDLs, also known as the alpha-lipoproteins, have the greatest density of 1.063-1.210 g/mL and move the fastest electrophoretically toward the anode. The VLDLs, also known as the prebeta-lipoproteins, move slightly slower electrophoretically than the alpha fraction. The VLDLs have a density of 0.95-1.006 g/mL. The IDLs, intermediate-density lipoproteins, have a density of 1.006-1.019 g/mL and migrate as a broad band between beta- and prebeta-lipoproteins. The LDLs, also known as the beta-lipoproteins, have an electrophoretic mobility that is slightly slower than that of the IDL fraction. The LDLs have an intermediate density of 1.019-1.063 g/mL, which is between the IDLs and the HDLs.

Answer 457

Coronary artery disease The quantification of the HDL cholesterol level is thought to contribute in assessing the risk that an individual may develop coronary artery disease (CAD). There appears to be an inverse relationship between HDL cholesterol and CAD. With low levels of HDL cholesterol, the risk of CAD increases.

Answer 458

Triglyceride The VLDL fraction is primarily composed of triglycerides and lesser amounts of cholesterol and phospholipids. Protein components of VLDL are mostly apolipoprotein B-100 and apolipoprotein C. VLDL migrates electrophoret- ically in the prebeta region.

Answer 459

Heparin-manganese Either a dextran sulfate-magnesium chloride mixture or a heparin sulfate-manganese chloride mixture may be used to precipitate the LDL and VLDL cholesterol fractions. This allows the HDL cholesterol fraction to remain in the supernatant. An aliquot of the supernatant may then be used in a total cholesterol procedure for the quantification of the HDL cholesterol level.

Answer 460

20 mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 250 mg/dL total cholesterol A number of risk factors are associated with developing coronary heart disease. Notable among these factors are increased total cholesterol and decreased HDL cholesterol levels. Although the reference ranges for total cholesterol and HDL cholesterol vary with age and sex, reasonable generalizations can be made: An HDL cholesterol less than 40 mg/dL and a total cholesterol value >240 mg/dL are undesirable and the individual is at greater risk for coronary heart disease.

Answer 461

210 Once the total cholesterol, triglyceride, and HDL cholesterol are known, LDL cholesterol can be quantified by using the Friedewald equation LDL cholesterol = Total cholesterol —(HDL cholesterol + Triglyceride/5).

Answer 462

Lp(a) Lp(a) is believed to interfere with the lysis of clots by competing with plasminogen in the coagulation cascade, thus increasing the likelihood of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease.

Answer 463

Increased total cholesterol, triglyceride, LDL, and VLDL If the alcoholism has advanced to the state where there is liver damage, the liver can become inefficient in its metabolism of fats, leading to an increase of total cholesterol, triglyceride, LDL, and/or VLDL in the blood- stream. The elevation of these lipids along with the previous liver damage (e.g., cirrhosis) leads to a poor prognosis for the patient.

Answer 464

Transferases Transferases are enzymes that catalyze the transfer of groups, such as amino and phosphate groups, between compounds.

Answer 465

Aldolase Aldolase and carbonic anhydrase are examples of the class of enzymes known as the lyases. Lyases are enzymes that split molecules between carbon-to-carbon bonds without the addition of water.

Answer 466

Oxidoreductases Lactate dehydrogenase and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase are examples of oxidoreductases.

Answer 467

GPT Alanine aminotransferase (ALT), formerly known as glutamate pyruvate transaminase (GPT), and aspartate aminotransferase (AST), formerly known as glutamate oxaloacetate transaminase (GOT), are categorized as transferase enzymes.

Answer 468

Mass immunoassay When measuring CK-MB, the mass immunoassay is more sensitive because it is quantifying the amount of enzyme present. This is in contrast to a kinetic method, which measures enzyme activity by means of the enzyme catalyzing a reaction and the product of that reaction being measured. Electrophoretic methods also measure enzyme activity based on colored product or fluorescent product formation.

Answer 469

hs-CRP C-reactive protein is an acute-phase reactant that is increased in the presence of inflammation. High-sensitivity C-reactive protein (hs- CRP) refers to a sensitive method that is able to measure low levels of CRP in serum. One theory is that elevated levels of CRP contribute to the damage of arterial walls that precedes plaque formation. hs-CRP is considered a good predic- tor test for assessing cardiovascular risk. However, it is also elevated in other conditions, including infection, stress, and trauma.

Answer 470

Bone disease Increased serum creatine kinase (CK), formerly called creatine phosphokinase (CPK), values are caused primarily by lesions of cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle, or brain tissue. Hypothyroidism causes a moderate increase in CK values.

Answer 471

Creatine kinase Alanine aminotransferase, aspartate aminotransferase, alkaline phosphatase, gamma-glutamyltransferase, and lactate dehydrogenase are enzymes for which the serum activities may be assayed to assess liver function. At the cellular level, alkaline phosphatase functions in the membrane border, gamma-glutamyltransferase functions in the cell membrane, and alanine aminotransferase functions both in the cytoplasm and mitochondria. With tissue damage and necrosis, the cells disintegrate and leak their contents into the blood. Because these enzymes are cellu- lar enzymes, any increase in their activity levels in serum is indicative of tissue destruction. It is important to remember that these enzyme levels must be used in conjunction with other clinical data because enzymes generally are not organ specific; they are found in several tissues.

Answer 472

Amylase Amylase and lipase are the two most important enzymes in evaluating pancreatic function. The values of amylase and lipase activity are significantly elevated in acute pancreatitis and obstruction of the pancreatic duct. In most case of acute pancreatitis, the lipase activity stays elevated longer than amylase activity.

Answer 473

Acid phosphatase Thequantificationofserumprostate-specific antigen has replaced measurement of serum acid phosphatase for assessing carcinoma of the prostate. PSA measurement in conjunction with the digital rectal examination is recommended for prostate cancer screening. In addition, PSA can be used to stage and monitor therapy of prostatic cancer.

Answer 474

CK, AST, LD WhenanAMIoccurs,CKisthefirstenzyme to become elevated in the blood, rising within 4 to 6 hours following chest pain. AST exhibits a rise in the serum level within 6 to 8 hours. LD shows an increase in 8 to 12 hours following infarction. Measurement of these three enzymes to assess acute myocardial infarction has been replaced by cardiac troponin, myoglobin, and CK-MB.

Answer 475

LD, CK-MB, troponin For many years, the diagnosis of an AMI was facilitated by assaying serum levels of aspartate aminotransferase (AST), lactate dehydrogenase (LD), creatine kinase (CK), and LD and CK isoenzymes. Today the clinical usefulness of AST and LD has been replaced primarily by cardiac troponin and to a lesser degree by myoglobin, whereas CK isoenzymes continue to play a role.

Answer 476

Abnormal serum alkaline phosphatase isoenzyme pattern Because alkaline phosphatase isoenzymes are associated with liver, bone, intestinal, and placental tissues, their analysis would not contribute any significant information to determining the occurrence of an AMI.

Answer 477

Moderately elevated ALP The child's symptoms are consistent with Duchenne dystrophy, which is an X-linked recessive disorder. It is characterized by muscle weakness, which is caused by destruction of muscle fibers. Symptoms are seen in male children starting at 3 to 7 years of age. The most notable enzyme increase is in creatine kinase, which may increase 50-100 times the reference range. Aspartate transaminase and lactate dehydrogenase would also be increased, because both enzymes are present in skeletal muscle tissue. Alkaline phosphatase is not present in skeletal muscle tissue and is measured to assess hepatobiliary and bone disorders.

Answer 478

Creatine kinase To aid in the diagnosis of skeletal muscle disease, measurement of creatine kinase would be most useful. CK yields the most reliable information when skeletal muscle disease is suspected. Other enzymes that are also useful to measure are aspartate aminotransferase and lactate dehydrogenase. Both of these enzymes will be moderately elevated, whereas CK is significantly increased.

Answer 479

Amylase The function of amylase to catalyze the hydrolysis of starch to dextrins, maltose, and glucose has been used as the basis for several methods over the years. The more commonly used methods today employ small oligosaccharides and 4-nitrophenyl-glycoside as substrates. In general, these methods can be automated, using an oxygen electrode system and UV or visible wavelength spectrophotometry to determine amylase activity.

Answer 480

Lipase Lipase activity can be determined using a dilute olive oil emulsion as the substrate.

Answer 481

Elevated in bone disease Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) catalyzes the transfer of gamma-glutamyl groups from peptides to an appropriate acceptor. GGT is found in almost all cells. The highest amount of GGT is found in the kidney, and slightly less is found in the liver and pancreas. Diagnostically, the assay of GGT is widely used to investigate hepatic disease. Increased values are seen in a variety of liver disorders and in conditions that are characterized by secondary liver involvement, including acute pancreatitis, pancreatic carcinoma, infectious mononucleosis, alcoholism, and cardiac insufficiency. Normal GGT levels are seen in bone disorders, in growing children, and during pregnancy.

Answer 482

Increased trypsin in feces Cystic fibrosis is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. It is a systemic disease that affects the exocrine glands, causing gastrointestinal malabsorption, pancreatic insufficiency, and pulmonary disease. Cystic fibrosis is characterized by increased concentrations of chloride and sodium in sweat. With pancreatic insufficiency, the amount of lipase, amylase, trypsin, and bicarbonate secreted into the duodenum is decreased. Because the three enzymes contribute to digestion of fats, starches, and proteins, respectively, children with this disorder suffer from malabsorption.

Answer 483

B-type natriuretic peptide Symptoms are sometimes nonspecific, making it difficult to diagnose congestive heart failure. B-type (brain) natriuretic peptide (BNP) is used to determine if physical symptoms are related to congestive heart failure.

Answer 484

Oxidation of creatine Creatinine is produced at a rate of approximately 2% daily from the oxidation of creatine mainly in skeletal muscle. Creatine can be converted to creatinine by addition of strong acid or alkali or by the enzyme creatine hydroxylase.

Answer 485

It is completely filtered by the glomeruli Creatinine concentration is dependent upon muscle mass, but varies by less than 15% per day. Creatinine is not metabolized by the liver, or dependent on diet, and is 100% filtered by the glomeruli. It is not reabsorbed significantly but is secreted slightly, especially when filtrate flow is slow. Plasma creatinine and cystatin C are the two substances of choice for evaluating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

Answer 486

Creatinine clearance = U/P X V X 1.73/A Clearance is the volume of plasma that contains the same quantity of substance that is excreted in the urine in 1 minute. Creatinine clearance is calculated as the ratio of urine creatinine to plasma creatinine in milligrams per deciliter. This is multiplied by the volume of urine produced per minute and corrected for lean body mass by multiplying by 1.73/A, where A is the patient’s body surface area in square meters. Separate reference ranges are needed for males, females, and children because each has a different percentage of lean muscle mass.

Answer 487

Serum creatinine, age, gender, race The eGFR should be calculated according to the MDRD formula, and reported along with the serum or plasma creatinine. eGFR (mL/min/1.73m2) = 186 x Plasma Cr –1.154 x Age –0.203 x 0.742 (if female) x 1.21 (if Black)

Answer 488

Cystatin C Although all of the analytes listed are increased in chronic kidney disease as a result of low GFR, potassium, urea, and uric acid may be increased by other mechanisms and therefore, they are not specific for glomerular function. Cystatin C is an inhibitor of cysteine proteases. Being only 13 kilodaltons, it is completely filtered by the glomerulus then reabsorbed by the tubules. The plasma level is highly correlated to GFR because little is eliminated by nonrenal routes. Plasma levels are not influenced by diet, age, gender, or nutritional status.

Answer 489

Saturated picric acid and NaOH The Jaffe method uses saturated picric acid, which oxidizes creatinine in alkali, forming creatinine picrate. The reaction is nonspecific; ketones, ascorbate, proteins, and other reducing agents contribute to the final color. Alkaline CuSO4 is used in the biuret method for protein.

Answer 490

Urinary microalbumin Measurement of urinary microalbumin concentration should be reported as a ratio of albumin to creatinine (e.g., mg albumin per g creatinine). This eliminates the need for 24-hour collection in order to avoid variation caused by differences in fluid intake.

Answer 491

The catabolism of proteins and amino acids Urea is generated by deamination of amino acids. Most is derived from the hepatic catabolism of proteins. Uric acid is produced by the catabolism of purines. Oxidation of pyrimidines produces orotic acid.

Answer 492

2.14 BUN is multiplied by 2.14 to give the urea concentration in mg/dL.

Answer 493

Nitrogen balance Because BUN is handled by the tubules, serum levels are not specific for glomerular filtration rate. Urea clearance is influenced by diet and liver function as well as renal function. Protein intake minus excretion determines nitrogen balance.

Answer 494

Glutamate dehydrogenase BUN is most frequently measured by the urease-UV method in which the urease reaction is coupled to the glutamate dehydrogenase reaction, generating NAD+.

Answer 495

NAD+ In the urease-UV method, urease is used to hydrolyze urea, forming CO2 and ammonia. Glutamate dehydrogenase catalyzes the oxidation of NADH, forming glutamate from 2-oxoglutarate and ammonia. The glutamate dehydrogenase reaction is used for measuring both BUN and ammonia.

Answer 496

Phenylalanine hydroxylase PKU is an overflow aminoaciduria resulting from the accumulation of phenylalanine. It is caused by a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase, which converts phenylalanine to tyrosine. Excess phenylalanine accumulates in blood. This is transaminated, forming phenylpyruvic acid, which is excreted in the urine.

Answer 497

Fanconi syndrome Fanconi syndrome is an inherited disorder characterized by anemia, mental retardation, rickets, and aminoaciduria. Because the aminoaciduria results from a defect in the renal tubule, it is classified as a (secondary-inherited) renal-type aminoaciduria.

Answer 498

Maple syrup urine disease Valine, leucine, and isoleucine accumulate due to branched-chain decarboxylase deficiency in maple syrup urine disease.

Answer 499

Hepatic coma Hepatic coma is caused by accumulation of ammonia in the brain as a result of liver failure. The ammonia increases central nervous system pH and is coupled to glutamate, a central nervous system neurotransmitter, forming glutamine.

Answer 500

Catabolism of purines Uric acid is the principal product of purine (adenosine and guanosine) metabolism.

Answer 501

Renal failure Excessive retention of uric acid results from renal failure and diuretics (or other drugs) that block uric acid excretion.

Answer 502

Levels above 10 mg/dL cause urinary tract calculi Uric acid calculi form quickly when the serum uric acid level reaches 10 mg/dL. They are translucent compact stones that often lodge in the ureters, causing postrenal failure.

Answer 503

Prerenal failure BUN is affected by renal blood flow as well as by glomerular and tubular function. When blood flow to the kidneys is diminished by circulatory insufficiency (prerenal failure), glomerular filtration decreases and tubular reabsorption increases due to slower filtrate flow. Because urea is reabsorbed, BUN levels rise higher than creatinine. This causes the BUN:creatinine ratio to be greater than 10:1 in prerenal failure.

Answer 504

Levy–Jennings The Levy–Jennings plot is a graph of all QC results with concentration plotted on the y axis and run number on the x axis.

Answer 505

Tonks–Youden The Tonks–Youden plot is used for interlaboratory comparison of monthly means. The method mean for level 1 is at the center of the y axis and mean for level 2 at the center of the x axis. Lines are drawn from the means of both levels across the graph, dividing it into four equal quadrants. If a laboratory’s monthly means both plot in the lower left or upper right, then systematic error (SE) exists in its method.

Answer 506

Cusum Cusum points are the algebraic sum of the difference between each QC result and the mean. The y axis is the sum of differences and the x axis is the run number. The center of the y axis is 0. Because QC results follow a random distribution, the points should distribute about the zero line. Results are out of control when the slope exceeds 45° or a decision limit (e.g., ±2.7s) is exceeded.

Answer 507

Student’s t test Student’s t test is the ratio of mean difference to the standard error of the mean difference (bias/random error) and tests for a significant difference in means. The F test is the ratio of variances and determines if one method is significantly less precise.

Answer 508

Proportional error Proportional error (slope or percent error) results in greater absolute error (deviation from the target value) at higher sample concentration. Constant error refers to a difference between the target value and the result, which is independent of sample concentration.

Answer 509

False positives The clinical specificity of a laboratory test is defined as the true negatives divided by the sum of true negatives and false positives (FP).

Answer 510

Measure the analyte in 120 healthy adults and calculate the central 95th percentile Since the concentration of an analyte may not be normally distributed in a population, the reference range should not be determined from the standard deviation. It is more appropriate to determine the central 95th percentile (the range that encompasses 95% of the results). A minimum of 120 samples is needed for statistical significance.

Answer 511

Delta limit The significant change limit is the difference in test results that is medically significant, or that which cannot be attributed to the sum of normal physiological and analytical variation. The delta limit (delta check) determines whether the difference between two measurements usually 24–48 hours apart exceeds the expected.

Answer 512

Six sigma All four of the answer choices are total quality management (TQM) tools used in the clinical laboratory to improve performance. Six sigma is a measurement of the frequency of product defects. In clinical laboratories, it refers to the frequency of an erroneous result. At the six-sigma level, the analytical process has such small variance that an error of six times the standard deviation would still be within acceptable limits for total allowable error.

Answer 513

Standard deviation index The standard deviation index (SDI) compares the lab’s mean to the peer group’s mean in terms of standard deviations instead of concentration. This normalizes the value so that it is independent of mean, and allows performance comparisons for any analyte. The SDI equals the lab’s mean minus the peer group’s mean divided by the peer group’s standard deviation. It has a similar probability distribution to a t test and a value greater than 2.0 is considered significant.

Answer 514

Vitamin K Vitamin K compounds include phylloquinone (K1), which is the major form of vitamin K in plants, and menaquinone (K2), which is produced by bacteria. Up to 50% of the vitamin K needed by the body is provided by the normal bacteria of the GI tract. Vitamin K is required for the posttranslational conversion of glutamyl residues in some proteins into γ-carboxylates. It participates in the hepatic carboxylation of four procoagulants (factors II, VII, IX, and X) and plasma proteins C and S. For these four proclotting factors, this γ-carboxylation provides the calcium-binding sites necessary for the calcium-dependent interaction with a phospholipid surface. A deficiency of vitamin K, which can result from fat malabsorption, broad-spectrum antibiotics, or diffuse liver disease, produces a bleeding diathesis characterized by hematomas, ecchymoses, hematuria, melena, and bleeding from the gums.

Answer 515

Coagulative necrosis Myocardial infarction resulting from the sud- den occlusion of the coronary artery is a classic example of coagulative necrosis.

Answer 516

Vasodilation of arterioles Redness (rubor) and heat (calor) are primar- ily the result of increased blood flow secondary to vasodilation of arterioles. This vasodilation is mainly the result of prostaglandins (prostacyclin) and nitric oxide, but histamine and bradykinin also participate in this response. Swelling (tumor) results from fluid leaking into the interstitium, while pain (dolor) results from the secretion of bradykinin. Loss of function (functio laesa) results from the swelling and pain.

Answer 517

Mast cells Vasoactive amines are important mediators of the early signs and symptoms of acute inflammation. Two important vasoactive amines are histamine and serotonin. Histamine is found in mast cells, basophils, and platelets, and is primarily responsible for the initial swelling found in acute inflammation. This swelling results from histamine binding to H1 receptors and increasing the permeability of venules. Histamine release is induced by temperature changes (both hot and cold), antibodies (a type I hypersensitivity reaction), anaphylatoxins, IL-1, and IL-8. Neuropeptides, such as substance P, can cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability directly and by stimulating histamine release by mast cells. Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is found in platelets and enterochromaffin cells and has actions similar to those of histamine, although these may not be physiologically significant in humans.

Answer 518

Neutrophils Acute inflammatory processes, such as pyogenic bacterial infections and tissue necrosis, are associated with infiltrates of neutrophils into tissue and increased numbers of neu- trophils in the blood; hence neutrophils are thought of as acute inflammatory cells.

Answer 519

Macrophages m. In the lung, alveolar macrophages can phagocytize the red blood cells that accumulate in alveoli in individuals with congestive heart failure. These cells contain hemosiderin and are referred to as “heart failure cells.”

Answer 520

Grossly have the appearance of “chicken fat” overlying “currant jelly” Large postmortem clots may have a “chicken fat” appearance overlying a dark “cur- rant jelly” base.

Answer 521

Sphingomyelin Sphingomyelin, a lipid composed of phosphocholine and a ceramide, is characteristically found in abnormally high concentrations throughout the body tissues of patients who have any one of the forms of Niemann-Pick disease.

Answer 522

IgM and IgD These cells with surface IgM and IgD are called mature B cells. They are also called “virgin” B cells because these cells have not encountered any foreign antigen.

Answer 523

IgM IgM, which constitutes about 5 to 10% of the Ig in the serum, is secreted in the first exposure to antigen (primary immune response). The monomeric form of IgM is found on the surface of some B cells, while the pentameric form is found in the serum and cannot cross the placenta. IgM is very effective at activating complement.

Answer 524

Phagocytosis

Answer 525

c. B lymphocytes

Answer 526

b. T lymphocytes

Answer 527

d. Process antigen and present it*

Answer 528

b. Class II

Answer 529

c. Class III

Answer 530

c. Heavy chain constant region (Fc)

Answer 531

a. Classical*

Answer 532

d. C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9

Answer 533

a. Postzone antigen excess

Answer 534

b. Prozone antibody excess

Answer 535

c. Zone of equivalence*

Answer 536

d. Affinity for antigen * associated with Fab

Answer 537

a. Opsonins*

Answer 538

b. Epitope

Answer 539

d. Zeta potential

Answer 540

c. Every 8 weeks

Answer 541

Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases, owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG. b. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG.

Answer 542

c. Apheresis platelets. in US

Answer 543

c. 5 days at 20°C to 24°C

Answer 544

d. 5.5 x 10 10th

Answer 545

d. 10 years.

Answer 546

a. 3 x 10 11th

Answer 547

a. 1°C to 6°C

Answer 548

c. 24 hours

Answer 549

c. Both bovine & human hemoglobins

Answer 550

a. pH decreases

Answer 551

d. All of the above

Answer 552

c. Gram stain

Answer 553

c. 5 days. Explanation: When platelet concentrates (usually 4 to 6) are pooled using an open system, the storage time changes to 4 hours. A new method of pooling that uses a closed system allows the pool to be stored for 5 days from the date of collection.

Answer 554

a. Entry of skin plugs into the collection bag

Answer 555

choroid plexuse

Answer 556

newer edition Strasinger 90 to 150 mL (old edition 140 to 170 mL)

Answer 557

10 to 60 mL

Answer 558

0 to 5 WBCs/uL

Answer 559

0 to 30 WBCs/uL

Answer 560

viral infections

Answer 561

MS or other degenerating neurologic disorders

Answer 562

parasitic infections, fungal infections primarily COCCIDIOIDES IMMITIS

Answer 563

60 to 70 percent

Answer 564

15 to 45 mg/dL

Answer 565

8 to 18 mg/dL

Answer 566

30 to 60 minutes

Answer 567

at least 200 sperms should be evaluated

Answer 568

Modified Bloom's (eosin-nigrosin)

Answer 569

20 high-power fields

Answer 570

newer edition Strasinger >20 M to 250 M per mL (old edition: 20 M to 160 M per mL)

Answer 571

≥ 40 M per ejaculate

Answer 572

MECHANICAL (positive-displacement) rather than a Thoma pipette

Answer 573

50% with a rating of 2.0 after 1 hour is considered normal

Answer 574

Fructose ≥ 13 umol per ejaculate

Answer 575

within 2 hours or FROZEN

Answer 576

possible RAPE

Answer 577

less than 3.5 mL

Answer 578

clear and pale yellow

Answer 579

4 to 6 cm string

Answer 580

Less than 2,000 RBCs/uL

Answer 581

Less than 200 WBCs/uL

Answer 582

less than 10 mg/dL lower

Answer 583

Fluid-to-blood ratios for protein and LD

Answer 584

chest-tube drainage, in addition to antibiotics in cases of pneumonia.

Answer 585

pH as low as 6

Answer 586

BLUNT TRAUMA INJURIES

Answer 587

CA 125 antigen

Answer 588

3-day stool collection

Answer 589

more than 10

Answer 590

between 7 and 8

Answer 591

pH below 5.5

Answer 592

COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT

Answer 593

COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT

Answer 594

TRAPPED PLASMA

Answer 595

TRAPPED PLASMA

Answer 596

vary from 1 to 3% HIGHER

Answer 597

FALSELY LOW due to shrinkage of cells

Answer 598

Air bubbles

Answer 599

FALSELY LOW

Answer 600

FALSELY ELEVATED

Answer 601

(1) as percentage, e.g., 42% or (2) as a decimal point, e.g., 0.42.

Answer 602

LEUKOCYTOSIS

Answer 603

3 minutes (Brown) to ensure hemolysis and adequate mixing [Rodak 10 minutes] PLEASE FOLLOW RODAK, 10 MINUTES.

Answer 604

marked thrombocytopenia

Answer 605

F. SWELL AND THEN FRAGMEENT

Answer 606

platelet DISINTEGRATION

Answer 607

1% ammonium oxalate

Answer 608

falsely lower ESR

Answer 609

ESR IS MARKEDLY INCREASED

Answer 610

F. falsely decreased

Answer 611

Citrated whole blood

Answer 612

F. cause negative results

Answer 613

Citrated whole blood

Answer 614

leukemia or myelosclerosis

Answer 615

10% to 80% hemolysis

Answer 616

Whole blood defibrinated

Answer 617

UREA: Colorimetric: diacetyl

Answer 618

UREA: Enzymatic: NH3 formation

Answer 619

Colorimetric

Answer 620

Enzymatic: UV

Answer 621

Enzymatic: H2O2

Answer 622

BANANAS, VANILLA, TEA AND COFFEE,

Answer 623

4-Hydroxy-3-Methoxymandelic acid

Answer 624

Taenia asiatica

Answer 625

reported as rare, few, moderate, or many per hpf

Answer 626

reported per lpf

Answer 627

PROMASTIGOTE

Answer 628

TRYPOMASTIGOTE

Answer 629

SPOROZOITES

Answer 630

ANGIOSTRONGYLUS CANTONENSIS

Answer 631

Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis

Answer 632

URINARY MEATUS:

Answer 633

greater than 2.5 L/day in adults

Answer 634

less than 400 mL/day in adults

Answer 635

phenazopyridine (brand name Pyridium) or azo-gantrisin compounds

Answer 636

Bence Jones protein

Answer 637

1. between 40°C and 60°C 2. 100°C.

Answer 638

REFLECTANCE PHOTOMETRY

Answer 639

NEAR THE EDGES OF THE COVER SLIP

Answer 640

Rare, few, moderate, or many per LPF

Answer 641

Rare, few, moderate, or many per HPF

Answer 642

AVERAGE NUMBER PER 10 HPFS

Answer 643

MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES

Answer 644

YELLOW CSF

Answer 645

ORANGE CSF

Answer 646

PALE GRAY with mucus

Answer 647

FATTY LAYER

Answer 648

BUFFY COAT

Answer 649

PACKED CELLS

Answer 650

POOR PROGNOSIS

Answer 651

>11 x 10 9th/L

Answer 652

Forward light scatter

Answer 653

CELL GRANULARITY

Answer 654

KERATOCYTES

Answer 655

ANTI-dsDNA:

Answer 656

CHRONIC ACTIVE HEPATITIS

Answer 657

Polymerase chain reaction

Answer 658

LEUKOPOOR RBCs

Answer 659

CORDOCENTESIS, or PERCUTANEOUS UMBILICAL BLOOD SAMPLING (PUBS),

Answer 660

URINARY BLADDER CANCER

Answer 661

CARD PREGNANCY/POSITIVE

Answer 662

CARD PREGNANCY/NEGATIVE

Answer 663

CARD PREGNANCY/INVALID: The test should be repeated using another Card Pregnancy Test device.

Answer 664

new sample be collected 48 hours later and tested again using another Card Pregnancy Test device.

Answer 665

Western blot.

Answer 666

indirect immunofluorescence assay (IFA), radioimmunoprecipitation assay (RIPA), line immunoassays, and rapid confirmatory tests

Answer 667

active infection

Answer 668

IgM anti-HBc:

Answer 669

Total anti-HBc

Answer 670

inflammation

POP QUIZ Flashcards

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