POPCORN 4

Question 1

Sampling for ACTH determination:
A. Prechilled heparin tube
B. Prewarmed heparin tube
C. Prechilled EDTA tube
D. Prewarmed EDTA tube

Answer 1

C. Prechilled EDTA tube

Question 2

A complete deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase results in which disease?
A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
B. Modification of diet in renal disease
C. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Reye’s syndrome
E. Megaloblastic anemia

Answer 2

A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Question 3

Select the coupling enzyme used in the kinetic AST reaction:
A. Lactate dehydrogenase
B. Malate dehydrogenase
C. Glutamate dehydrogenase
D. G-6-PD

Answer 3

B. Malate dehydrogenase

Question 4

The first intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum is:
A. Copepod
B. Snail
C. Fish
D. Crab

Answer 4

A. Copepod

Question 5

What is the infective stage of the broad tapeworm to humans?
A. Plerocercoid
B. Coracidium
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Cysticercus

Answer 5

A. Plerocercoid

Question 6

All are components of CLINITEST, except:
A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose

Answer 6

D. Lactose

Question 7

Which of the following is a component of ACETEST?
A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose

Answer 7

D. Lactose

Question 8

What type of leukocyte actively participates in acute inflammatory processes and contains myeloperoxidase within its primary (azurophilic) granules and alkaline phosphatase in its secondary (specific) granules?
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Monocytes
D. Lymphocytes
E. Plasma cells

Answer 8

A. Neutrophils

Question 9

Which of the following is an acceptable time in which a unit of whole blood is collected?
A. 33 minutes
B. 25 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 13 minutes

Answer 9

D. 13 minutes

Question 10

A unit tests positive for syphilis using the rapid plasma reagin test (RPR). The microhemagglutinin assay-Treponema pallidum (MHA-TP) on the same unit is negative. What is the disposition of the unit?
A. The unit may be used to prepare components
B. The donor must be contacted and questioned further; if the RPR result is most likely a falsepositive, then the unit may be used
C. The unit must be discarded
D. Cellular components may be prepared but must be irradiated before issue

Answer 10

A. The unit may be used to prepare components

Question 11

The earliest antibody response and development of IgM is in response to the OspC membrane protein, the flagellar antigens (FlaA and FlaB), or the fibronectin binding protein (BBK32):
A. AIDS
B. Lyme disease
C. Scarlet fever
D. Syphilis

Answer 11

B. Lyme disease

Question 12

Which technique is used to detect DNA containing a specific base sequence by applying a labeled probe to DNA bands immobilized onto nitrocellulose paper following electrophoresis?
A. Southern blot
B. Northern blot
C. Dot blot
D. Western blot

Answer 12

A. Southern blot

Question 13

Which of the following could be a broad cast?
A. Hyaline cast
B. Granular cast
C. Waxy cast
D. All of these

Answer 13

D. All of these

Question 14

Most commonly seen broad casts:
A. Hyaline and granular casts
B. Hyaline and waxy casts
C. Granular and waxy casts
D. RBC and WBC casts

Answer 14

C. Granular and waxy casts

Question 15

Bone marrow cellularity refers to the ratio of:
A. Red cell precursors to white cell precursors
B. Hematopoietic tissue to adipose tissue
C. Granulocytic cells to erythrocytic cells
D. Extravascular tissue to intravascular tissue

Answer 15

B. Hematopoietic tissue to adipose tissue

Question 16

What percentage of tissue located in the bone marrow cavities of adults is fat?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%

Answer 16

C. 50%

Question 17

Yellow ground-glass colonies on cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA):
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium perfringens

Answer 17

C. Clostridium difficile

Question 18

Laser is an acronym for:
A. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
B. Light augmentation by stimulated emission of radiation
C. Light amplification of stimulated energy radiation
D. Large-angle stimulated emission of radiation

Answer 18

A. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

Question 19

Which of the following types of leukemia is most associated with children ages 2 to 10 years?
A. Acute lymphoblastic
B. Acute myelogenous
C. Chronic lymphocytic
D. Chronic myelogenous

Answer 19

A. Acute lymphoblastic

Question 20

Waxy cast in KOVA STAIN: STERNHEIMER-MALBIN
A. Blue-green
B. Pale blue
C. Pale purple or pale pink
D. Red-brown

Answer 20

C. Pale purple or pale pink

Question 21

The most severe state of erythrocytic abnormality, with the abnormality prevalent throughout each microscopic field; comparable terms are marked or marked increase.
A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 3+
D. 4+

Answer 21

D. 4+

Question 22

Albumin reagent strips utilizing the dye ________ has a higher sensitivity and specificity for albumin:
A. DIDNTB
B. TMB
C. DBDH
D. Tetrabromphenol blue

Answer 22

A. DIDNTB

Question 23

Which of the following is contained in the primary granules of the neutrophil?
A. Lactoferrin
B. Myeloperoxidase
C. Histamine
D. Alkaline phosphatase

Answer 23

B. Myeloperoxidase

Question 24

Blood vessel that supply blood to the kidney:
A. Renal artery
B. Renal vein
C. Peritubular capillaries
D. None of these

Answer 24

A. Renal artery

Question 25

On a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear, stress or shift reticulocytes are: A. Smaller than normal reticulocytes B. About the same size as normal reticulocytes C. Larger than normal reticulocytes D. Noticeable because of a decreased blue tint

Answer 25

C. Larger than normal reticulocytes

Question 26

You receive a blood gas sample on a patient who is in the emergency room for assessment of unexplained vomiting for the past 4 days and abnormal respirations. Which of the following interpretations best describes the patient’s blood gas results? * pH: 7.50 * pO2: 85 mm Hg * pCO2: 55 mm Hg * HCO3-: 35 mmol/L A. Partially compensated metabolic acidosis B. Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis C. Compensated metabolic alkalosis D. Compensated metabolic acidosis

Answer 26

B. Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis

Question 27

Lyophilization: A. 4 C B. 40 C C. -4 C D. -40 C

Answer 27

D. -40 C

Question 28

An example of a pre-analytical (preexamination) error is: A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing B. Incorrect identification of a patient C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report D. Verbally reporting a laboratory result over the telephone

Answer 28

B. Incorrect identification of a patient

Question 29

An example of an analytical (examination) error is: A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing B. Incorrect patient identification C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report D. Use of the wrong anticoagulant in the patient sample tube

Answer 29

A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing

Question 30

An example of a post-analytical (post-examination)error is: A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing B. Incorrect patient identification C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report D. Use of the wrong anticoagulant in the patient sample tube

Answer 30

C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report

Question 31

Blood from the wrong patient is an example of a/an: A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error B. Analytical (examination) error C. Postanalytical (postexamination) error D. Either A or B

Answer 31

A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error

Question 32

Specimen collected in the wrong tube is an example of a/ an: A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error B. Analytical (examination) error C. Postanalytical (postexamination) error D. Either A or B

Answer 32

A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error

Question 33

Quality control outside of acceptable limits is an example of a/an: A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error B. Analytical (examination) error C. Postanalytical (postexamination) error D. Either A or C

Answer 33

B. Analytical (examination) error

Question 34

Standards are defined as: A. How close a test result is to the true value B. Specimens that are similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent C. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant D. Highly purified substances of known composition

Answer 34

D. Highly purified substances of known composition

Question 35

A control is defined as: A. How close a test result is to the true value B. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent C. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant D. Measurement of a highly purified substance of known composition

Answer 35

B. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent

Question 36

Calibration is defined as: A. How close results are to one another B. How close a test result is to the true value C. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent D. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant

Answer 36

D. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant

Question 37

Sensitivity is: A. Cases with a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result B. Cases without a specific disease or condition that produce a negative result C. Cases with a specific disease or condition that produce a negative result D. Cases without a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result

Answer 37

A. Cases with a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result

Question 38

These cells are increased in effusions resulting from PANCREATITIS: A. Lymphocytes B. Mesothelial cells C. Neutrophils D. Eosinophils

Answer 38

C. Neutrophils

Question 39

Decreased mesothelial cells and increased plasma cells in pleural fluid: A. Pancreatitis B. Pulmonary infarction C. Tuberculosis D. Pneumonia not responding to antibiotics

Answer 39

C. Tuberculosis