Portfolio management Part 1 Flashcards
What are the components of the discount rates?
- The real risk-free rate
- Expected inflation
- A risk premium reflecting uncertainty about the cash flow (RP)
How is the value of an asset computed?
PV of expected cashflow, discounted at appropriate risk- adjusted discount rate.
Most uncertain the cashflow -< the higher discount rate.
What factors can cause the value of an asset to change?
The value of an asset can change if:
- Cash flow forecasts change
- Any component of the discount rate changes (e.g., risk-free rate, risk premium)
Risk premiums vary across assets and asset classes, and can also change with investor perceptions of risk.
What are the 2 decompose factor that the value of an asset depends on?
1) Expected future cashflow
2) discount rate
What is the role of expectations and changes in expectations in market valuation? How does new information change the following?
New information leads market participants to revise expectations, affecting valuations. The impact depends on how the news compares to prior expectations—for example, 53% earnings growth may increase or decrease value depending on whether it exceeds or falls short of what was expected.
What is the inter-temporal rate of substitution?
Investors trade-off between real consumption now and real consumption in the future
The tradeoff of inter-temporal rate of substitution.
Inter-temporal rate of substitution = marginal utility of consuming 1 unit in the future at time t / marginal utility of current consumption of 1 unit
What does the risk-free rate represent
With no inflation, a default free bond has to compensate an investor for forgoing their current consumption.
Take an inflation-indexed bond, calculate the risk-free rate
How do consumption preferences, expected income, and uncertainty affect the real interest rate?
Higher preference for current consumption → higher real interest rate
Diminishing marginal utility of wealth → consumption has more value during economic contractions
Expectations of higher future income → lower marginal utility of future consumption → less saving, higher real rates
Expectations of lower future income or uncertainty → more saving, driving real rates down
Higher expected returns or higher income uncertainty → increased saving
What drives real risk free rates?
- Higher preference for current consumption -> higher real interest rates
- Diminishing marginal utility of wealth; wealthier each additional dollar adds less satisfaction
Tough times -> consumption has more value → people save more → lower real interest rates. (expected future income is low)
Good times: marginal utility of future consumption is low, so people save less → higher real rates. (expected future income is high)
What does risk aversion mean?
Investors hate losses more than they enjoy equivalent gain.
-> They demand a risk premium to hold assets with uncertain (risky) future cash flows.
What is risk aversion in investing?
Risk aversion means investors dislike losses more than they enjoy equivalent gains. → A $100 loss feels worse than the joy from a $100 gain. → So, investors demand extra return (risk premium) to hold risky assets.
Why do investors demand a risk premium?
Because risky assets have uncertain future cash flows, investors face potential losses. To be compensated for this uncertainty, they demand a risk premium—an expected return above the risk-free rate.
What happens to marginal utility of wealth as wealth increases?
It decreases (diminishing marginal utility). → Each extra dollar is less valuable when you’re already wealthy. → During bad times (low wealth), each dollar means more, increasing marginal utility.
How is risk premium related to covariance with utility?
Risk premium arises from the covariance between asset payoffs and marginal utility of consumption. If an asset pays off in good times → utility is low → value is low → requires higher return. This negative covariance → positive risk premium.
What is the formula involving risk premium and utility?
P₀ = E(P₁)/(1 + R) + cov(P₁, m₁) → P₀: current asset price; E(P₁): expected future price; R: real risk-free rate; cov(P₁, m₁): covariance with marginal utility → Negative covariance = lower price = higher expected return = risk premium.
Why don’t risk-free bonds have a risk premium?
Because their future payoff is certain → no uncertainty → covariance = 0. So, they are priced using only the real risk-free rate, with no risk premium.
Risk aversion
Investors experience a larger loss of utility for a loss in wealth as compared to a gain in utility for an equivalent gain in wealth.
For a single period risk free bond, what is its covariance
For a single-period risk-free bond, the covariance is zero as there is no uncertainty about the terminal value; there is no risk premium.
What is the correlation of interest rates and GDP growth rates
Positively correlated.
If GDP growth is forecasted to be high, the utility of consumption in the future (when incomes will be high) will be low and the inter-temporal rate of substitution will fall; investors will save less, increasing real interest rates.
What is the correlation between interest rates, and expected volatility in GDP growth
Positively
Because higher risk premium
What is nominal risk free interest rates
Adds premium for expected inflation
- Actual inflation is uncertain
- Adds a premium, for uncertainty of expected inflation
- Higher for longer maturity bonds
For short term, what do we do with the uncertainty of inflation (like t-bills).
Uncertainty is negligible
r(short-term) = R + π
For longer term bonds, we add the risk premium for uncertainty about inflation, θ:
r(long-term) = R + π + θ