Post Mid-2 Flashcards

1
Q

Coffee is a ___ preparation, an infusion of complex ___ from a ___ __

A

Coffee is a botanical preparation, an infusion of complex chemicals from a plant fruit

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2
Q

How are new chemicals from a plant source identified and characterized for pharmacological activity?

A
  • extraction
  • purification
  • predictions about which chemical we are going to investigate
  • characterization
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3
Q

What series of experiments should psychoactive chemicals pass in order to understand the potential addictiveness of a drug?

A
  • animal behaviour e.g. lever presses- drug seeking
  • physiological measures
  • biochemical assays
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4
Q

Methylxantines resemble a ___ (-rgic) base like __ and ___

A

Methylxantines resemble a purine (-rgic) base like adenosine and guanine

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5
Q

When people drink coffee, caffeine is metabolized into 3 other methylxantines which are…

A

1) Theophylline (4%)
2) Theobromine (12%)
3) Paraxanthine (84%)

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6
Q

___ acid induce phase II transferases like GST and other liver enzymes

A

Chlorogenic acid induce phase II transferases like GST and other liver enzymes

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7
Q

____ acid has anti-inflammatory properties on its own and it also promotes vascular health by increasing NO production

A

dihydrocaffeic acid has anti-inflammatory properties on its own and it also promotes vascular health by increasing NO production

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8
Q

___ and ___ are diterpenes. They increase phase II enzymes, they induce anti-stress genes (antioxidant) but elevate cholesterol

A

Kahewol and cafestol are diterpenes. They increase phase II enzymes, they induce anti-stress genes (antioxidant) but elevate cholesterol

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9
Q

___ and ___ are the most common anti-oxidant sources

A

coffee and tea are the most common anti-oxidant sources

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10
Q

Caffeine is a ___ stimulant in ___ infants, ___ most commonly prescribed ___ drug after antibiotics.

It functions by inhibiting ___ which increases concentration of cAMP within ___ neurons, creating a ___ ___ in those cells.

Promotes ___ and ___ ___ in babies

A

Caffeine is a respiratory stimulant in premature infants, 2nd most commonly prescribed NICU drug after antibiotics.

It functions by inhibiting PDE4 which increases concentration of cAMP within preBotC neurons, creating a robust rhythm in those cells.

Promotes breathing and blood oxygenation in babies

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11
Q

Caffeine is also used in ___ because it is a bronchodilator

A

Caffeine is also used in asthma because it is a bronchodilator

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12
Q

Caffeine can be used to treat ___ in certain cases because it reduces cranial blood flow

A

Caffeine can be used to treat migraines in certain cases because it reduces cranial blood flow

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13
Q

___ is the most commonly consumed psychoactive substance on the planet

A

Caffeine is the most commonly consumed psychoactive substance on the planet

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14
Q

Absorption of caffeine

A
  • ingestion
  • small intestine is where absorption occurs
  • 45 min to peak
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15
Q

Distribution of caffeine

A
  • amphipathic
  • rapid and widely distributed- penetrates brain tissue
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16
Q

Metabolism of caffeine

A
  • limited or no first-pass metabolism
  • CYP1A2 (demethylation reactions)
  • paraxanthine: will increase blood glycerol/fatty acid via lipolysis
  • theobromine: dilate vessels, increase urine volume- makes caffeine a diuretic
  • theophylline: inhibit PDE, increases concentration of cAMP, relaxes smooth muscle
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17
Q

Caffeine is excreted through the __

A

kidneys

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18
Q

Caffeine also effects ___ release and ___ receptors

A

Caffeine also effects Ca release and GABA receptors

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19
Q

AR (adenosine receptor) and PDE (phosphodiesterase) are ___ (expressed everywhere in body)

A

AR (adenosine receptor) and PDE (phosphodiesterase) are ubiquitous (expressed everywhere in body)

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20
Q

Caffeine will antagonize all 3 major types of ___ .

There are 4 main sub-types of __: ___, ___, ___ and ___

___ and ___ play primary roles in caffeine effects. They are mostly pre-synaptic receptors that limit neurotransmitter release

A

Caffeine will antagonize all 3 major types of ARs (adenosine receptors).

There are 4 main sub-types of AR: A1, A2a, A2b and A3

A1 and A2a play primary roles in caffeine effects. They are mostly pre-synaptic receptors that limit neurotransmitter release

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21
Q

A1 will inhibit ___ ___ and reduce cAMP levels. It will reduce ___ release, because of how neurons are wired that undergo these cellular effects it can lead to increase ___ release

A

A1 will inhibit adenylyl cyclase and reduce cAMP levels. It will reduce NT release, because of how neurons are wired that undergo these cellular effects it can lead to increase NT release

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22
Q

___ will exist as pairs at rest or after they are triggered by adenosine or some other endogenous ligand. They will come together to form an active receptor complex

A

AR (adenosine receptors) will exist as pairs at rest or after they are triggered by adenosine or some other endogenous ligand. They will come together to form an active receptor complex

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23
Q

Not only can AR pair with other AR but they can dock onto ___ ___ to form active signalling complexes e.g. 2A2a + 2D2

A

Not only can AR pair with other AR but they can dock onto dopamine receptors to form active signalling complexes e.g. 2A2a + 2D2

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24
Q

Effects of caffeine on brain

A
  • alertness, arousal, and focus
  • enhanced mood, confidence and sociability
  • high doses can cause anxiety
  • reduced blood flow to brain
  • sleep inhibited
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25
Q

Effects of caffeine on heart

A
  • low dose: decreased HR
  • high dose: increased HR and BP

dose dependent effects that are opposite

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26
Q

Effects of caffeine on lungs

A
  • increased respiratory rate
  • dilated bronchi
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27
Q

Effects of caffeine on skin

A
  • increased fat mobilizations, fatty acids, glycerol
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28
Q

Effects of caffeine on bladder

A
  • increased urination
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29
Q

In general caffeine’s acute effects fall under ___ category. They are similar but far milder compared to __ and __

A

In general caffeine’s acute effects fall under stimulant category. They are similar but far milder compared to cocaine and amphetamines

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30
Q

Caffeine increases ___, ___ and __ release

A

Caffeine increases NE, Glu and DA release

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31
Q

Long-term caffeine drinkers are less likely to experience ___ ___ ___/__

A

Long-term caffeine drinkers are less likely to experience elevated heart rates/BP

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32
Q

Caffeine drinkers will experience constriction in ___ ___, reducing pressure inside head, which can benefit __

A

Caffeine drinkers will experience constriction in cranial vessels, reducing pressure inside head, which can benefit headaches

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33
Q

At 300+mg caffeine will increase kidney __ ___ which will promote a higher volume of urine being produced (___) and ___ (urination), at the same time the kidneys won’t reabsorb as much salt and water tends to follow salt.

A

At 300+mg caffeine will increase kidney blood flow which will promote a higher volume of urine being produced (diuretic) and micturition (urination), at the same time the kidneys won’t reabsorb as much salt and water tends to follow salt.

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34
Q

Heart effects of caffeine are complicated- both ___ and __ mechanisms

___ drive from stimulant- type characteristics but also some contradictory effects in ___ tissues themselves

Some people are really sensitive to the ___ effects so they experience a bad time when they drink, so they don’t become coffee drinkers

A

Heart effects of caffeine are complicated- both peripheral and central mechanisms

Central drive from stimulant-type characteristics but also some contradictory effects in peripheral tissues themselves

Some people are really sensitive to the peripheral effects so they experience a bad time when they drink, so they don’t become coffee drinkers

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35
Q

Caffeine will inhibit __ enzymes which metabolize cAMP producing high __ levels, that has an effect on __ tissue to increase ___ rates and __

A

Caffeine will inhibit PDE enzymes which metabolize cAMP producing high cAMP levels, that has an effect on heart tissue to increase contraction rates and force

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36
Q

In certain blood vessels, caffeine will result in ___ of smooth muscle (__) but there is a sympathomimetic (___ effect) drive from the ___ nervous system that opposes that effect. What people actually experience is highly individual specific

A

In certain blood vessels, caffeine will result in relaxation of smooth muscle (vasodilation) but there is a sympathomimetic drive (vasoconstricting effect) from the central nervous system that opposes that effect. What people actually experience is highly individual specific

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37
Q

Caffeine increases intracellular concentration of ___ by increasing activation ___ channels

A

Caffeine increases intracellular concentration of calcium by increasing activation calcium channels

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38
Q

All together, caffeine is thought to increase __ capacity of ___

A

All together, caffeine is thought to increase work capacity of muscle

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39
Q

Caffeine has a good ___ release in the NAc. This is likely due to blocking pre-synaptic A1 on DA-ergic VTA projecting neurons

A1 has an ___ linkage (__ linked), blocking the ___effects in a pre-synaptic terminal that would otherwise reduce NT release. So by blocking that effect you increase __ release.

At the same time, this antagonism at A1 will lead to more ___ release in the NAc

A

Caffeine has a good dopamine release in the NAc. This is likely due to blocking pre-synaptic A1 on DA-ergic VTA projecting neurons

A1 has an inhibitory linkage (Gi/o linked), blocking the Gi effects in a pre-synaptic terminal that would otherwise reduce NT release. So by blocking that effect you increase DA release.

At the same time, this antagonism at A1 will lead to more Glu release in the NAc

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40
Q

Caffeine facilitates wakefulness by disrupting __.

Extracellular adenosine increases during waking until a point is reached that triggers sleep.

(1) Adenosine thought to come from metabolism of __ in neurons. As you are awake and getting through your day, you are burning more energy that leads to transient __ in adenosine outside of neurons
(2) Stimulation of __ receptors by adenosine in the hypothalamus triggers __ release
(3) __ release inhibits arousal systems
(4) Caffeine prevents adenosine binding to __ receptors (__ not released, arousal increases) = wakefulness

A

Caffeine facilitates wakefulness by disrupting adenosine.

Extracellular adenosine increases during waking until a point is reached that triggers sleep.

(1) Adenosine thought to come from metabolism of ATP in neurons. As you are awake and getting through your day, you are burning more energy that leads to transient increases in adenosine outside of neurons
(2) Stimulation of A2a receptors by adenosine in the hypothalamus triggers GABA release
(3) GABA release inhibits arousal systems
(4) Caffeine prevents adenosine binding to A2a receptors (GABA not released, arousal increases) = wakefulness

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41
Q

Coffee intake may reduce risk of __ disease. Strong inverse relationship between caffeine intake and __ disease

A

Coffee intake may reduce risk of Parkinson’s disease. Strong inverse relationship between caffeine intake and Parkinson’s disease

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42
Q

__ which performs the demethylation metabolic reaction of caffeine. Different polymorphisms confer fast and slow metabolism rates of caffeine.

If you have __ copies of *__ that is a fast metabolic rate for caffeine. If you have __ copy of the *__ allele that leads to a slow rate of metabolism.

Slow metabolizers show increased __-__ risk

A

CYP1A2 which performs the demethylation metabolic reaction of caffeine. Different polymorphisms confer fast and slow metabolism rates of caffeine.

If you have two copies of *1A that is a fast metabolic rate for caffeine. If you have at least one copy of the *1F allele that leads to a slow rate of metabolism.

Slow metabolizers show increased dose-dependent risk

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43
Q

Tolerance for caffeine develops ___. Tolerance to cardiovascular, respiratory, sleep effects but not effects on __.

A

Tolerance for caffeine develops quickly. Tolerance to cardiovascular, respiratory, sleep effects but not effects on mood

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44
Q

Withdrawal to caffeine effects

A

Headache, fatigue, decreased energy, irritability, thirst

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45
Q

Dependence to caffeine develops __

A

Quickly

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46
Q

A long term health risk of caffeine especially in women is __. It is due to increased calcium elimination and __ dietary Ca absorption.

A

A long term health risk of caffeine especially in women is osteoporosis. It is due to increased calcium elimination and reduced dietary Ca absorption.

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47
Q

Due to central sympathomimetic/ stimulant effects of caffeine, in particular the elevation of NE, there is also an increased risk of __ __

A

Due to central sympathomimetic/ stimulant effects of caffeine, in particular the elevation of NE, there is also an increased risk of panic attacks

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48
Q

Adenosine receptor antagonists may be effective __-__ due to regulating synaptic NT levels

A

Adenosine receptor antagonists may be effective anti-depressants due to regulating synaptic NT levels

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49
Q

Caffeine use during pregnancy

A
  • many women drink caffeine during pregnancy
  • effects on the fetus are inconclusive
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50
Q

What is a nootropic?

A

Cognitive enhancers

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51
Q

Does caffeine improve memory?

A

Yes, seems to positively affect learning and memory. Acute doses increase two neurotropic BDNF and TrNB activation in the hippocampus. BDNF is linked to LTP(increase synaptic strength). Remembering objects was better if learning while on caffeine

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52
Q

Taurine (type of __) is common in __ and __ __. Some of the effects of taurine are __, may be due to triggering glycine receptors, glycine is an inhibitory NT, so this will increase __ and reduce electrical activity. Decreased activity leads to less __.

A

Taurine (type of nootropic) is common in monster and red bull. Some of the effects of taurine are anxiolytic, may be due to triggering glycine receptors, glycine is an inhibitory NT, so this will increase IPSPs and reduce electrical activity. Decreased activity leads to less anxiety.

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53
Q

Other nootropics include __-__, herbs (__ herbs __ __ and __ __, __ herb __ __)

A

Other nootropics include L-theanine, herbs (TCM herbs Ginkgo biloba and Panax ginseng, Ayurvedic herb Bacopa monnieri)

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54
Q

Other nootropics that fall into category of cognitive enhancers

A

Nicotine, Amphetamines (Adderall), Ritalin, -afinil family (modafinil, adrafinil, armodafinil)

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55
Q

Critical physiological purpose of nootropic drugs

A

To reduce fatigue and improve memory

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56
Q

Caffeine is a non-selective ___ ___ antagonist and ___ antagonist (blocking cellular activity by taking up space on receptor site)

A

Caffeine is a non-selective adenosine receptor (AR) antagonist and phosphodiesterase (PDE) antagonist (blocking cellular activity by taking up space on receptor site)

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57
Q

Forms of tobacco product

A
  • cigarettes
  • e-cigarettes
  • cigars, cigarillos
  • shisha
  • smokeless e.g. chewing tobacco, snuff (dry powdered leaf or dip where you pack it into bottom lip)
  • patches- more on treatment side, far less absorption but still getting enough drug to stave off withdrawal
  • gum
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58
Q

Electronic cigarettes ___ e-juice containing nicotine; usually ___ or __-__

A

Electronic cigarettes vaporize e-juice containing nicotine; usually glycerin or PG-based

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59
Q

In electronic cigarettes there is no ___ of ___ ___, so no generation of many of the chemicals that are present in cigarette smoke like ___ . You are essentially extracting nicotine and putting it into a different medium

A

In electronic cigarettes there is no burning of plant material, so no generation of many of the chemicals that are present in cigarette smoke like tar . You are essentially extracting nicotine and putting it into a different medium

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60
Q

Major marketing angle of e-ciggs

A

cleaner smoke is healthier

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61
Q

Many e-ciggs contained flavours and additives that caused severe adverse effects…

E.g.
___- butter flavor, obliterates lung tissue (bronchiolitis obliterans), ‘popcorn’ lung in factory workers

___ - inducing allergic reactions

A

Many e-ciggs contained flavours and additives that caused severe adverse effects…

E.g.
Diacetyl- butter flavor, obliterates lung tissue (bronchiolitis obliterans), ‘popcorn’ lung in factory workers

Vitamin E acetate- inducing allergic reactions

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62
Q

Vapour damages immune system via ___ same as cigarettes, ___ infiltrate lung tissue over time which produces a pro inflammatory environment which leads directly to long-term cancer risks

A

Vapour damages immune system via ROS same as cigarettes, macrophages infiltrate lung tissue over time which produces a pro inflammatory environment which leads directly to long-term cancer risks

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63
Q

E-cigarettes cause a ‘__ ___’, similar to cigarettes

A

E-cigarettes cause a ‘throat catch’, similar to cigarettes

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64
Q

One of the big differences between cigarettes and e-cigarettes is the ___ of nicotine being __ __ ___. Much ___ in e-ciggs (5-8x __ than cigarettes), which is a problem because nicotine itself will cause irritation in epithelial cells

A

One of the big differences between cigarettes and e-cigarettes is the amount of nicotine being delivered per puff. Much higher in e-ciggs (5-8x more than cigarette), which is a problem because nicotine itself will cause irritation in epithelial cells

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65
Q

In hookahs water will ___ the smoke, making it ___ irritating, ___ particulates (because water will __ them out) but it is much longer sessions

A

In hookahs water will cool the smoke, making it less irritating, fewer particulates (because water will filter them out) but it is much longer sessions

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66
Q

___ is the most processed, flavoured tobacco form

A

Shisha is the most processed, flavoured tobacco form

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67
Q

In a hookah hot air vaporizes chemicals which produces 11x the ___ by weight compared to cigarettes. This is not good because __ robs the blood of oxygen. This will increase heart rate, ___ diseases and __/___ cancer risks

A

In a hookah hot air vaporizes chemicals which produces 11x the CO by weight compared to cigarettes. This is not good because CO robs the blood of oxygen. This will increase heart rate, lung diseases and oral/lung cancer risks

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68
Q

What is smoke?

A
  • particulates: nicotine, water, tar, PAHs, benzo[a]pyrene and metals
  • gases: nicotine, CO, Co2, NO (key mediator of lung damage because in the blood stream it is a vasodilator but outside that it is a reactive species, it will generate radicals that damage cells), nitrosamines, ammonia, nitrites, sulfur, alcohols (when you burn alcohols you generate things like acetylaldehyde), ketones, aldehyde, hydrocarbons
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69
Q

Particulate + gas =

A

aerosol

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70
Q

First-hand smoke

A

inhalation of smoke directly from burning tobacco

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71
Q

Second-hand smoke

A

smoke that has already been inhaled by others

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72
Q

Third-hand

A

1st and 2nd-hand fumes from fingers, clothes, fabric, etc.

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73
Q

Nicotine is an ___ which is the principle chemical that causes addiction. It is a competitive __ ___ (AChR) __. Both nitrogens in its structure are capable of picking up a ___ (proton) at __ pH. The uncharged form of nicotine is a ___ __.

A

Nicotine is an alkaloid which is the principle chemical that causes addiction. It is a competitive acetylcholine receptor (AChR) agonist. Both nitrogens in its structure are capable of picking up a hydrogen (proton) at low pH. The uncharged form of nicotine is a free base.

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74
Q

Why does tobacco plant produce nicotine?

A

because it protects the plant from pests

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75
Q

Nicotine absorption:
1. Inhalation
- controlling pH in cigarette smoke you optimize the amount of __ __ nicotine present encouraging absorption- __/__ __ molecules pass through membranes more easily
- burning generates up to ___ __ chemicals (that are not in the cig to begin with)
- 1 cigarette= contains about ___ mg nicotine, delivers __-__mg, __ mg is lethal (start causing muscle spasms)
- __, ___, __-__ __ lower bioavailability (lowering delivery of nicotine)
- art of dose: people deliver __-__ puffs/min, inhale for __ sec, delivers ___-__ micrograms nicotine/kg body weight (amount delivered to the brain), __ pack/day is optimal for brain stimulation

  1. Oral (smokeless forms)
    - __-__x greater nicotine absorption, __ under plasma vs time curve
    -much ___ rate of absorption- not as much of a rush
A

Nicotine absorption:
1. Inhalation
- controlling pH in cigarette smoke you optimize the amount of free base nicotine present encouraging absorption- uncharged/free base molecules pass through membranes more easily
- burning generates up to 4000 new chemicals (that are not in the cig to begin with)
- 1 cigarette= contains about 8 mg nicotine, delivers 0.5-2mg, 60 mg is lethal (start causing muscle spasms)
- pyrolysis, filter, side-stream smoke lower bioavailability (lowering delivery of nicotine)
- art of dose: people deliver 1-2 puffs/min, inhale for 2 sec, delivers 1-2 micrograms nicotine/kg body weight (amount delivered to the brain), one pack/day is optimal for brain stimulation

  1. Oral (smokeless forms)
    - 3-4x greater nicotine absorption, area under plasma vs time curve
    -much slower rate of absorption- not as much of a rush
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76
Q

Distribution of nicotine:
- Blood pH is 7.4, most nicotine (70%) is in a ___ state, some (30%) is ___
-<5% is bound to __ ___
- ___, ___, ___, ___ get largest amount
- ___ gets least amount

A

Distribution of nicotine:
- Blood pH is 7.4, most nicotine (70%) is in a monoprotonated state, some (30%) is unprotonated
-<5% is bound to plasma protein
- liver, kidney, spleen, lungs get largest amount
- adipose gets least amount

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77
Q

Metabolism of nicotine:
- half life = ___ hrs
- aldehyde oxidases CYP2A6 and ___ are main enzymes
- CYP2A6 mutation that slows metabolism (prolong half life) results in __ tobacco use because ___
- ___ process small amount

A

Metabolism of nicotine:
- half life = 2hrs
- aldehyde oxidases CYP2A6 and CYP2B6 are main enzymes
- CYP2A6 mutation that slows metabolism (prolong half life) results in lower tobacco use because they suffer from more of the adverse effects of nicotine intoxication instead of the euphoric effects leading to aversive responses as opposed to preferential responses
- monooxygenases process small amount

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78
Q

Excretion of nicotine

A

kidneys, breast milk

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79
Q

Every time ___ levels start to drop people ____.

Plasma nicotine concentration peaks in the __.

Receptors ____ over night.

___ cig is most pleasant

A

Every time plasma levels start to drop people feel the urge to go smoke again.

Plasma nicotine concentration peaks in the evening.

Receptors re-sensitize over night.

First daily cig is most pleasant

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80
Q

Acute effects of nicotine are mostly ___

A

Acute effects of nicotine are mostly sympathomimetic

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81
Q

NTs affected by nicotine in the brain: ___, ___, ___, ___.

When nicotine binds to ACh receptors it depolarizes cells via ___. Nicotine has a ___ affinity causing receptors to ___ (___ mechanism at high doses)

All of the effects of the NTs together: ___ heart rates/BP, __ GI movement, __ motor commands, __ and __

However, __ (from burning) can inhibit monoamine oxidases and boost NT levels- not just nicotine that is contributing to physiological effects

A

NTs affected by nicotine in the brain: ACh, DA, GABA, Glu.

When nicotine binds to ACh receptors it depolarizes cells via nAChR. Nicotine has a high affinity causing receptors to inactivate (biphasic mechanism at high doses)

All of the effects of the NTs together: elevated heart rates, BP, increase GI movement, increase motor commands, focus and mood

However, acetaldehyde (from burning) can inhibit monoamine oxidases and boost NT levels- not just nicotine that is contributing to physiological effects

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82
Q

CNS nAChR receptors are located in: __, ___, __

A

CNS nicotine receptors are located in: cortex, hippocampus, midbrain

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83
Q

pre-synaptic triggering of nAChR (nicotinic acetylcholine receptors) will…

A
  • increase glutamate release
  • increase GABA (inhibiting activity/release of DA) release but the mechanism on GABA release is quickly desensitized then shut off
  • increase DA release
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84
Q

“Safe” additives turn bad after ___

A

burning

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85
Q

Stimulation of the ___ ___ is common in first-time nicotine users

A

Stimulation of the vomiting centre is common in first-time nicotine users

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86
Q

Other acute adverse effects of nicotine

A

headaches, nausea, disrupted autonomic nervous system functioning, alternating tachycardia and bradycardia

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87
Q

Effects of severe intoxication of nicotine (approaching 60mg mark)

A

seizures, hypotension, respiratory depression

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88
Q

nAChR (nicotinic acetylcholine receptors) in brain

A

Are heteropentameric receptors, alpha and beta subunits.

They conduct cation (Na+, Ca2+) influx to depolarize neurons.

Both pre-synaptic and post-synaptic (located on terminals and on soma).

They trigger neuromuscular activity

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89
Q

Pre-synaptic nAChRs

A

increase NT release

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90
Q

Post-synaptic nAChRs

A

depolarize the cell

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91
Q

Eventually nAChRs inactivate if continuously exposed to ___ with __ affinity (binds and doesn’t let go)

A

Eventually nAChRs inactivate if continuously exposed to agonist with high affinity (binds and doesn’t let go)

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92
Q

nAChR __ ___ affects reinforcement and reward

A

nAChR subunit composition affects reinforcement and reward

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93
Q

alpha 6 containing nAChRs are involved with

A

modulating locomotor responses, not that important for releasing DA downstream

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94
Q

alpha 7 containing nAChRs are responsible for __. These sub-types govern ___ release and are not inactivated.

A

facilitating glutamate release, which will trigger DA-ergic projecting VTA –> NAc neurons

These sub-types govern Glu release and are not inactivated.

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95
Q

If beta 2 subunits (nAChRs) are knocked out in mice it…

A

prevents DA release and self-administration stops, plays a role in the addictive nature of nicotine

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96
Q

If you apply an alpha4 beta2 receptor antagonist (turns off receptor) you will __ ___.

A

block reward

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97
Q

___ nAChR are mainly expressed on DA-ergic terminals in NAc. They do not release ___ after systemic nicotine administration.

A

Alpha6-beta 2 nAChR are mainly expressed on DA-ergic terminals in NAc. They do not release DA after systemic nicotine administration.

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98
Q

____ are the main functional nAChRs on VTA DA-ergic soma. When you activate these receptors on the soma that is a direct depolarization event and you are triggering ___ release downstream and ___

A

alpha4beta2 are the main functional nAChRs on VTA DA-ergic soma. When you activate these receptors that is a direct depolarization event and you are triggering DA release downstream and reinforcement

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99
Q

alpha4beta2 sub-type govern ___ release and inactivate quickly (after 30-60 seconds) and for a long time (1 hour)

A

alpha4beta2 sub-type govern GABA release and inactivate quickly (after 30-60 seconds) and for a long time (1 hour)

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100
Q

A single dose of nicotine injected into NAc ___ DA levels for __ min

A

A single dose of nicotine injected into NAc elevates DA levels for 80 min

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101
Q

Tolerance to nicotine:
- first uses are ___ = brain regions/circuits (brainstem) for ___, ___, ___
- little or no decrease in ___ effects, ___ and ___ ___
- metabolic= ___ enzyme activity, first cig is the best
- cellular= receptor ___, affects ___
- behavioral= ___ stages experience, ___ of smoking e.g. social smoker
- nAChR expression ___, mostly ___ subtype, enhances sensitivity to nicotine effects

A

Tolerance to nicotine:
- first uses are unpleasant = brain regions/circuits (brainstem) for dizziness, nausea, sweat
- little or no decrease in heart effects, tremor and peripheral vasoconstriction
- metabolic= increased enzyme activity, first cig is the best
- cellular= receptor inactivation, affects reward
- behavioral= mindset stages experience, ritual of smoking e.g. social smoker
- nAChR expression increases, mostly alpha4beta2 subtype, enhances sensitivity to nicotine effects

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102
Q

Nicotine withdrawal

A
  • physiological symptoms: headache, drowsiness, insomnia, increased appetite and weight gain, GI upset
  • psychological: craving, mood changes, irritability, anxiety, restlessness, depression, difficulty concentrating, poor judgement and psychomotor performance
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103
Q

Nicotine dependence

A
  • if you must smoke within 30 minutes of waking up, chances are you are addicted
  • starts to occur within days of habit
  • both physical and psychological
  • quick metabolism leads to withdrawal, seek another dose to avoid symptoms
  • intensely cue-driven habit: after eating, while drinking, out with friends, after sex (strong aspect of routine and habit that drive nicotine dependence)
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104
Q

Long-term adverse effects of tobacco:
- cancer: lung, ___, ___
- ___ initiates cancer= intercalating agent (causing DNA damage)
-nicotine enhances ____, not ____
- inhibits apoptotic signalling by binding ___ nAChRs on ___, allow cells with damaged DNA to replicate (fail to kill themselves- nicotine helps them stay alive)

A

Long-term adverse effects of tobacco:
- cancer: lung, liver, colorectal
- benzo(a)pyrene initiates cancer= intercalating agent (causing DNA damage)
-nicotine enhances growth/metastasis, not initiation
- inhibits apoptotic signalling by binding alpha 7 nAChRs on mitochondria, can allow cells with damaged DNA to replicate (fail to kill themselves- nicotine helps them stay alive)

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105
Q

Nicotine injections/patches on mice injected with cancerous cells display ___

A

Nicotine injections/patches on mice injected with cancerous cells display enhanced cancer growth

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106
Q

Nicotine is NOT ____, it does not ___ cancer formation it ___ it

A

Nicotine is NOT carcinogenic, it does not initiate cancer formation it propagates it

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107
Q

Nicotine accelerates ___ ___ due to peripheral vasoconstriction (decreased blood flow, lower turn over of cells, lower oxygen supply)

A

Nicotine accelerates skin aging due to peripheral vasoconstriction (decreased blood flow, lower turn over of cells, lower oxygen supply)

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108
Q

Nicotine causes sexual dysfunction because of impaired ___ signaling which prevents ___

A

Nicotine causes sexual dysfunction because of impaired NO signaling which prevents erections

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109
Q

Nicotine causes an increased risk of type 2 diabetes because of stressed ___ that is insensitive to ___

A

Nicotine causes an increased risk of type 2 diabetes because of stressed vasculature that is insensitive to insulin

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110
Q

Other long-term adverse effects tobacco:

  • cataracts, macular degeneration
  • tooth ___, ___/inflamed gums (stressing microflora, proinflammatory) , ___, Crohn’s
  • ___ especially in lungs
  • rheumatoid arthritis, osteoporosis
  • cardiovascular diseases, like ___ ___ ___ (CHD), MI, ___ __ (because of impaired epithelial cell function)
  • COPD includes ___ ___ and ___ (caused by inflammation of airways covered in ___ and ash deposits, cilia function is impaired by ___ and ___ in smoke)
A

Other long-term adverse effects tobacco:

  • cataracts, macular degeneration
  • tooth decay, periodontitis/inflamed gums (stressing microflora, proinflammatory) , IBS, Crohn’s
  • infection especially in lungs
  • rheumatoid arthritis, osteoporosis
  • cardiovascular diseases, like coronary heart disease (CHD), MI, ischemic stroke (because of impaired epithelial cell function)
  • COPD includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema (caused by inflammation of airways covered in tar and ash deposits, cilia function is impaired by PAH and ketones in smoke)
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111
Q

‘Smokers cough’ (coughing up mucus) when quitting indicates..

A

recovery of cilial function

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112
Q

Second-hand smoke, non-smokers that live with smokers have ___ ___ of lung cancer, heart disease

A

Second-hand smoke, non-smokers that live with smokers have higher rates of lung cancer, heart disease

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113
Q

Pregnancy and smoking:
- constriction of ___ ___, reduced ___
- may affect ___ system leading to increased addiction risk
- higher risk of __, ___ or ___, __ __ __
- __ ___ and lip risk goes up

A

Pregnancy and smoking:
- constriction of umbilical arteries, reduced oxygen
- may affect reward system leading to increased addiction risk
- higher risk of stillbirth, premature or miscarriage, low birth weight
- cleft palate and lip risk goes up

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114
Q

Like safe injection sites, the goal is to provide safe nicotine to …

A

ease withdrawal and cravings

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115
Q

It is very difficult to stop smoking, __% of American smokers want to quit and __% make a serious attempt, with the success rate being __%

A

It is very difficult to stop smoking, 74% of American smokers want to quit and 78% make a serious attempt, with the success rate being 6%

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116
Q

3 day hump (first 3 days being the most hard to get through) correlates with nicotine ___

A

3 day hump (first 3 days being the most hard to get through) correlates with nicotine clearance

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117
Q

is it harder to quit smoking or smokeless forms?

A

smokeless, higher doses and longer lasting blood nicotine concentrations

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118
Q

Stopping cig smoke at 30 years old reduces the long-term health risks by __% at 45 years old reduce risk by __%, at 50 years old reduce risk by __%. Therefore, the earlier people stop, the better.

A

Stopping cig smoke at 30 years old reduces the long-term health risks by 90% at 45 years old reduce risk by 87%, at 50 years old reduce risk by 50%. Therefore, the earlier people stop, the better.

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119
Q

What happens when people stop smoking:
- within 8 hours: _____
- within a week: _____
- within 9 months: ____
- within 1 year: ____
- within 5-10 years: ____
- within 15 years: ____

A

What happens when people stop smoking:
- within 8 hours: blood CO levels normalize
- within a week: heart, BP, circulation, breathing improve
- within 9 months: respiratory cilia recover
- within 1 year: CHD risk drops by 50%
- within 5-10 years: risk of stroke matches non-smokers
- within 15 years: CHD risk matches non-smokers while lung cancer risk is 50% lower than smokers

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120
Q

Nicotine withdrawal must be overcome so cessation therapies offer nicotine without the ___ of ___

A

Nicotine withdrawal must be overcome so cessation therapies offer nicotine without the hazards of smoking

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121
Q

Different forms of cessation therapies (for nicotine)

A

patches, gums, nasal spray, inhalers, lozenges, and e-cigs

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122
Q

Gum used for nicotine cessation can cause __ __, __ __ and __ __. Patches/spray can cause __. E-cigs might be effective but the risk of __ might be high (have to do with dosages of nicotine- higher)

A

Gum used for nicotine cessation can cause bad taste, irritate throat and induce nausea. Patches/spray can cause irritation. E-cigs might be effective but the risk of reverting might be high (have to do with dosages of nicotine- higher)

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123
Q

Pharmacological cessation aids for nicotine

A
  • bupropion= antidepressant, nAChR antagonist, blocks the channel even when nicotine is present, DAT and NET inhibition, helps reduce cravings
  • varenicline= partial nAChR agonist, compete with nicotine, reduces reward and cravings

-vaccines= methoxsalen and NicVAX are in development

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124
Q

Behavioral and psychosocial cessation aids for nicotine

A
  • counselling, stress management (Cortisol levels go up when people smoke)
  • behavioral modification: identify and avoid risky situations e.g. don’t go to the bar that you always go to that you then smoke while drinking
  • combine with pharmacological treatments
  • large scale awareness campaigns
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125
Q

Sedatives

A

anxiolytic drugs (relieve anxiety), cause relaxation, mild CNS depressants

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126
Q

Hypnotics

A

cause drowsiness and sleep

127
Q

Drugs that have sedative- hypnotics type properties

A

Z-drugs (Ambien), orexin antagonists, melatonin agonists, anti-histamines

128
Q

Anxiety :
main chemicals that are used are ____, they are the ‘___’-___ e.g. Valium diazepam, Klonopin clonazepam

___-___:
Longer-acting drugs treat seizure disorder e.g. Phenobarbital

____:
short-acting drugs e.g. thiopental, midazolam, triazolam

A

Anxiety :
main chemicals that are used are benzos, they are the ‘aze’-pams e.g. Valium diazepam, Klonopin clonazepam

Anti-convulsants:
Longer-acting drugs treat seizure disorder e.g. Phenobarbital

Anesthesia:
short-acting drugs e.g. thiopental, midazolam, triazolam

129
Q

In general, sedatives are a more ___ class of drug that leads to ___ onset due to __ distribution.

A

In general, sedatives are a more lipophilic class of drug that leads to faster onset due to rapid distribution.

130
Q

Within the sedative class, barbiturates and benzos are categorized based on their ___ of action.

___-____ drugs are typically used as anticonvulsants, muscle relaxants, and anxiolytics

___-____ are used as pre-anesthetic sedatives or to treat insomnia

A

Within the sedative class, barbiturates and benzos are categorized based on their duration of action.

longer-acting drugs are typically used as anticonvulsants, muscle relaxants, and anxiolytics

shorter-acting are used as pre-anesthetic sedatives or to treat insomnia

131
Q

Presence of a triazole ring…

A

significantly enhances potency, because the ring allows them to bind to GABA with greater affinity. But it exposes those molecules to faster metabolic processing, causing a decrease in duration of action (short-acting).

132
Q

Longest acting to shortest acting: Alprazolam, Triazolam, Clonaezepam, Diazepam, Lorazepam

A

1) Diazepam- far fewer oxygens
2) Lorazepam
3) Clonazepam- has charged group ready for conjugation right away
4) Alprazolam- benzo
5) Triazolam

133
Q

Routes of administration for sedatives

A

oral, rectal, injection (more for clinical use)

134
Q

Absorption and distribution of sedatives

A

Benzos:
- less lipid soluble than barbiturates, absorbed more slowly, slower onset of action

barbiturates and benzos are highly bound to plasma proteins

Cross placenta

135
Q

Metabolism of sedatives:
- in the liver ___ system
- some produce ___ ___ prolonging duration of action e.g. chlordiazepoxide, diazepam
- takes ___-___ half-lives for elimination
-metabolism decreased in ___ (underdeveloped livers), __ __ (higher metabolic loads), those with liver disease, the elderly
-if drugs cross placenta it will impair electrical function in babies/ ___ ___ ___ in infants which causes the inability to ___ that can last for months= ___ ___ syndrome

A

Metabolism of sedatives:
- in the liver CYP450 system
- some produce active metabolites prolonging duration of action e.g. chlordiazepoxide, diazepam
- takes 4-5 half-lives for elimination
-metabolism decreased in infants (underdeveloped livers), pregnant women (higher metabolic loads), those with liver disease, the elderly
-if drugs cross placenta it will impair electrical function in babies/ reduced muscle tone in infants which causes the inability to nurse that can last for months= floppy infant syndrome

136
Q

GABA A receptor has __ subunits arranged around a __-conducting pore

(sedatives unit)

A

GABA A receptor has 5 subunits arranged around a chloride-conducting pore

137
Q

GABA binds between the ___ and __ subunits, Benzos bind between the __ and __ subunits

(sedatives unit)

A

GABA binds between the alpha and beta subunits, Benzos bind between the alpha and gamma subunits

138
Q

Benzos:
- bind to a site on the GABA A receptor, which increases the frequency of ___ ___ ___
- GABA receptors with benzo binding sites located in __ system, ___ ___ system and ___
- GABA receptors that control ___ do not have many benzo sites

A

Benzos:
- bind to a site on the GABA A receptor, which increases the frequency of chloride channel openings
- GABA receptors with benzo binding sites located in limbic system, reticular activating system and cortex
- GABA receptors that control respiration do not have many benzo sites

139
Q

Barbiturates:
- have a more ___ effect on GABA receptors
- when they bind, they enhance the __ of the receptor for GABA, which increases the duration of time that the ___ ___ is open, leading to neuronal ___ –> can do this even when GABA is ___ ___

A

Barbiturates:
- have a more general effect on GABA receptors
- when they bind, they enhance the affinity of the receptor for GABA, which increases the duration of time that the chloride channel is open, leading to neuronal inhibition –> can do this even when GABA is NOT present

140
Q

Benzos are ___ modulators, barbiturates are ___

A

Benzos are allosteric modulators (binds but doesn’t open the channel- they have a calming effect but not as a depressive effects as barbees), barbiturates are activators(bind and opens channel)

141
Q

Acute effects of sedatives:
- reduce ___ __, impair ___, and increase ___ and __
- reduce ___, ___, ___ and can cause ___, ___ behaviors

A

Acute effects of sedatives:
- reduce muscle tone, impair coordination, and increase sedation and sleep
- reduce anxiety, learning, memory and can cause bizarre, uninhibited behaviors

142
Q

Effect of sedatives on sleep

A
  • increase total sleep time
  • REM sleep and restorative deep sleep are reduced
143
Q

Common side effects of sedatives (effects they do not take sedatives for) are..

A
  • drowsiness
  • lethargy
  • dizziness
  • confusion
  • reduced libido
  • diminished concentration
  • incoordination
  • impairment of driving skills
  • prevent consolidation of short-term memories (unable to be stored as long-term memory), especially when alpha subunit-containing receptors are present, can last for months
  • combined with alcohol to faciliate assault
144
Q

Other dangers associated with sedatives: Effects on fetus

A
  • rapid entry, increased half life due to under-developed liver
  • potential increased risk of cleft palate, floppy infant syndrome, withdrawal
  • no risk of major malformations
  • must weigh risks of fetus against risks of the mother going off the drug
145
Q

Other dangers associated with sedatives: Drug interactions

A
  • synergistic with with other depressants such as alcohol,opioids
  • interact with other drugs metabolized by CYP450 system (compete for same metabolic enzyme) –> increases chances of adverse effects
146
Q

Other dangers associated with sedatives: Overdose, treated with flumazenil

A
  • overdoses are relatively rare for benzos by themselves
  • flumazenil is an antagonist at GABA receptors
  • Barbiturates very low therapeutic index (associated with overdoses that can be treated by flumazenil)
147
Q

Tolerance of sedatives

A
  • develops at different rates depending on receptor subunit shifts
  • develops for sedative, hypnotic effects in days to weeks
  • develops slower for anxiolytic effects (3-4 months)
  • does not develop for respiratory depression
  • users can require 40x original dose
148
Q

Barbiturates have both ___ and ___ mechanisms of tolerance

A

Barbiturates have both cellular and metabolic mechanisms of tolerance

149
Q

Chronic effects of sedatives

A
  • associated with daytime fatigue, accidents, depression, violence, and increased overall mortality
150
Q

Withdrawal for sedatives

A
  • worse with short-acting drugs (intermittent high dose schedule- e.g. take drug, effects go away, take drug again but amp up dose etc.)
  • should be medically supervised due to hyperexcitability
  • insomnia, anxiety, tremor, headache, confusion, and difficulty concentrating
151
Q

Dependence and addiction for sedatives

A
  • both physical and psychological dependence
  • benzos not as addictive as barbees
152
Q

The abuse potential for sedatives are much __ lower than other drugs. In progressive schedules, animals exert __ effort for sedatives compared to cocaine and opioid

A

The abuse potential for sedatives are much much lower than other drugs. In progressive schedules, animals exert less effort for sedatives compared to cocaine and opioid

153
Q

Another sedative that is use is GHB (Gamma-hydroxybutyric acid) - date-rape drug:

  • it is made from 2 commercially available chemicals: __-__ and ___ which are uncontrolled substances
  • it is a GABA __ receptor agonist: __/__ linked, inhibits __ channels, activates ___
  • both a __ (produced naturally in body) and an __ __
  • precursor of __, __ and __
  • dose-dependent effects
  • also effects __, ___, __, __
  • sensation of GHB is similar to __ __
  • high doses can lead to suppressed __, __, __ and ___
A

Another sedative that is use is GHB (Gamma-hydroxybutyric acid) - date-rape drug:

  • it is made from 2 commercially available chemicals: gamma-butyrylactone and 1,4-butanediol both which are uncontrolled substances
  • it is a GABA B receptor agonist: Gi/o linked, inhibits Ca channels, activates GIRK
  • both a neurotransmitter (produced naturally in body) and an illegal drug
  • precursor of GABA, Glu and Glycine
  • dose-dependent effects
  • also effects dopamine, acetylcholine, serotonin, opioids
  • sensation of GHB is similar to alcohol inebriation
  • high doses can lead to suppressed respiration, convulsions, coma and death
154
Q

Dose-dependent effects of GHB

A
  • low doses of GHB have a stimulatory effects (excitatory glutamate)
  • At higher doses, GHB binds to GABA receptors and can cause sedation
155
Q

Benzodiazepines exert rapid anxiolytic effects by increasing GABA (γ-aminobutyric acid)-mediated neurotransmission. However, their use in treating anxiety disorders is limited owing to the loss of control of consumption after prolonged use.

GABA A receptors containing the ___ subunit in the ventral tegmental area (VTA) underlies the addictive nature of benzodiazepines, as it activates these containing receptors and inactivates ___ release, increasing __ release

A

Benzodiazepines exert rapid anxiolytic effects by increasing GABA (γ-aminobutyric acid)-mediated neurotransmission. However, their use in treating anxiety disorders is limited owing to the loss of control of consumption after prolonged use.

GABA A receptors containing the α1 subunit in the ventral tegmental area (VTA) underlies the addictive nature of benzodiazepines, as it activates these containing receptors and inactivates GABA release, increasing DA release

156
Q

emergent view of cannabis

A

only one lineage, characterize plant by chemical profile it contains i.e. chemotypes e.g. THC and CBD (+others), the experience is chemical-dependent

157
Q

___, ___ etc. are synthesized in cannabis trichome heads

A

Phytocannabinoids, terpenes etc. are synthesized in cannabis trichome heads

158
Q

The goal of solvent or solvent-less extraction and super-critical extraction

A

high purity or a single isolated compound

159
Q

How to calculate THC % based on labelling:
E.g. pre-roll label
1 pre-roll,1g
THC 6mg/g (Total THC Per Unit: 173.0 mg/g)
CBD 0mg/g (Total CBD Per Unit: <0.7 mg/g)

A

Total THC Per Unit= 173.0 mg/g
173.0 mg/1000mg= 0.173 *100% = 17.3%

160
Q

___, __-_ and __ forms of cannabinoids are all available

A

Psychoactive, non-psychoactive and synthetic forms of cannabinoids are all available

161
Q

THC acid is the ___ form

A

psychoactive

162
Q

CBD acid is an…

A

anti-oxidant, anti-convulsant, anti-inflammatory, anti-anxiety, anti-psychotic and neuro-protective

163
Q

Personalized cultivar selection, tailor the therapeutic effect to the __ and __

A

Personalized cultivar selection, tailor the therapeutic effect to the disease and individual

164
Q

To optimize absorption of THC you…

A

decarboxylate THCA to THC by heat or pressure

165
Q

Routes of administration of cannabinoid

A

smoked- joints, pipes, bongs, vaporizers
ingested- slower onset of effect, less predictability of action, but more user control

166
Q

Cannabis vs Cigarette smoke:
- smoke is solid/liquid ___ and ___ created during combustion
- similar levels of ___, ___, ___, ___, ___, ___, ___, __
- poorer filtration of cannabis smoked, ___ irritation
- ___ and ___ when using cannabis –> because more unfiltered nature of cannabis
- Long-term effects:
= NOT __ ___ and ___
= increased risk of ___ ___ and ___

A

Cannabis vs Cigarette smoke:
- smoke is solid/liquid particulates and gases created during combustion
- similar levels of tar, CO, acetaldehyde, acetone, benzene, toulene, benzopyrene, HCN
- poorer filtration of cannabis smoked, more irritation
- toking and choking when using cannabis –> because more unfiltered nature of cannabis
- Long-term effects:
= NOT lung cancer and COPD (that is in cig smoking)
= increased risk of chronic cough and bronchitis

167
Q

Reason that cannabis does not have a link to lung cancer or COPD

A

water bongs, dabs may reduce harmful components and reduce irritation

168
Q

Terpene profiling has to do with the ___ ___

A

Terpene profiling has to do with the vape temperature e.g. CBD is associated with a vaping temperature of 180 degrees celsius, THC is associated with a temp of 157

169
Q

Absorption of cannabinoids

A

THC is very fat-soluble (lots of carbons not a lot of functional groups) and easily crosses the blood brain barrier

170
Q

Metabolism of cannabinoids

A
  • liver CYP450 system
  • metabolites can stay in body for days or even weeks
  • long half-lives
  • first-pass metabolite 11-hydroxy-delta9-THC- why ingested version is more potent than the smoked form
171
Q

Excretion of cannabinoids

A

kidneys

172
Q

The endogenous CBR(cannabinoid receptor) ligands that were identified in 1992 and 1995

A

arachidonoyl ethanolamide (AEA) and 2-arachidonoylglycerol (2-AG)

173
Q

CB1 (cannabinoid receptor 1) is expressed in the …

A

CNS (basal ganglia, cerebellum, hippocampus, cortex, amygdala), eye, pancreas, liver, skin, uterus and testes

174
Q

CB2 (cannabinoid receptor 2) is expressed in…

A

immune cells, spleen and tonsils

175
Q

THC mostly targets ___ explaining why it is the ___ compound

A

THC mostly targets CB1 explaining why it is the psychoactive compound

176
Q

CBD tends to target ___

A

CB2

177
Q

Acute effects of cannabis intoxication- Brain

A
  • affected appetite, sex, and sleep
  • inhibited memory encoding and retrieval
  • impaired coordination
  • enhanced sensory perception
  • time seems long and drawn out
  • analgesia (inability to feel pain)
178
Q

Acute effects of cannabis intoxication- Behavioral and psychological

A
  • euphoria
  • well-being
  • talkativeness
  • laughter
  • relaxation
  • lethargy
179
Q

Acute effects of cannabis intoxication- Immune system

A

immune function modulated/regulated

180
Q

The medicinal side of cannabis is looking mostly at __ mediated functions in the periphery things like the ___ system

A

The medicinal side of cannabis is looking mostly at CB2 mediated functions in the periphery things like the immune system

181
Q

The recreational cannabis user is going after the ___ mediated central nervous system effects

A

The recreational cannabis user is going after the CB1 mediated central nervous system effects

182
Q

Analgesia resulting from cannabis intoxication is via …

A

the CB1- mediated blockage of pain neurotransmission

183
Q

Stimulant effects of cannabis

A
  • dose-dependent heart rate increase
  • skin vessels dilate flushing warmth core temperature decreases
  • salivary gland vessels constrict drying mouth
  • eye vessels dilate leading to red, bloodshot eyes
184
Q

Energy metabolism, increased appetite and thirst via CB1/CB2 in hypothalamus, pancreas, liver

A

Energy metabolism, increased appetite and thirst via CB1 in hypothalamus, pancreas, liver

185
Q

CB1 in hypothalamus may influence…

A
  • sex drive
  • sperm production
  • fertilization
  • implantation
  • fetal development
    -suckling in newborns
  • modulates DA and 5-HT release
186
Q

Cellular mechanism of cannabinoid receptor signalling

A
  • retrograde signaling
  • cannabinoids modulate the release of other NTs because they are pre-synaptic receptors (CB1 mainly)
187
Q

Cannabinoids binds several receptors including

A
  • CB1/2
  • transient receptor potential cation channels e.g. TRPV1/2
  • 5HT2 sub-types
188
Q

CB1 and CB2 are linked to ___

A

Gi/o

189
Q

TRPV1 and TRPV2 are ___ channels

A

Na+/Ca2+, which are linked to depolarization type stimulating type signaling

190
Q

The summary of cannabinoid signalling is ___ , there are multiple downstream __ and effects

A

The summary of cannabinoid signalling is pleiotropic , there are multiple downstream targets and effects

191
Q

Tolerance of cannabis:
- regular use of marijuana will cause __, __, __ tolerance
- __ metabolism, __ CB1 receptor expression
- reduced ___, ___, ___, ___, ___ and immune effects

A

Tolerance of cannabis:
- regular use of marijuana will cause metabolic, cellular, behavioral tolerance
- faster metabolism, reduced CB1 receptor expression
- reduced high, hypothermic, cardiovascular, analgesic, locomotor and immune effects

192
Q

Withdrawal of cannabis:
- mild __-___ (i.e. lethargy, apathy), perhaps to certain cultivars
- if withdrawal symptoms occur, they are usually __ severe
- chronic users will retain __ levels of residual metabolites but that might actually ____

A

Withdrawal of cannabis:
- mild burn-out (i.e. lethargy, apathy), perhaps to certain cultivars
- if withdrawal symptoms occur, they are usually not severe
- chronic users will retain higher levels of residual metabolites but that might actually ease withdrawal symptoms

193
Q

Dependence of cannabis

A

limited, slight psychological (mood, apathy, lethargy). Less addictive than other drugs of abuse, but can be addictive to some

194
Q

Treatment for cannabis dependence typically involves …

A

psychological approaches

195
Q

Acute adverse effects of cannabis:
- __-___: vomiting, nausea, complicated __-__ signaling (has to do with efferent signals that are ___ in nature coming from the GI tract to the brainstem –> triggers vomitting reflexes)
- higher THC impairs __, ___, concentration via hippocampal effects, also inhibits ___
- psychosis- ___, delusions of control, ___
- anxious, paranoid
- heart rhythm ___ because of stimulant type nature
- ___ contamination- especially in black market sourced cannabis

A

Acute adverse effects of cannabis:
- green-out: vomiting, nausea, complicated 5-HT signaling (has to do with efferent signals that are serotonergic in nature coming from the GI tract to the brainstem –> triggers vomitting reflexes)
- higher THC impairs learning, memory, concentration via hippocampal effects, also inhibits LTP
- psychosis- hallucinations, delusions of control, grandiosity
anxious, paranoid
- heart rhythm complications because of stimulant type nature
- pesticide contamination- especially in black market sourced cannabis

196
Q

Can a person overdose from cannabis?

A

Short answer= No, not fatally

197
Q

Volcano administration results in __ THC delivery while __ CO delivery, indicating that there are fewer pyrolytic and oncogenic chemicals present when you vape

A

Volcano administration results in similar THC delivery while reducing CO delivery, indicating that there are fewer pyrolytic and oncogenic chemicals present when you vape

198
Q

Entourage effect

A

chemical interactions with receptors enhance each others effects

199
Q

Mechanism of reinforcement:
- Increases DA levels in rats by 100%
- 8 mg of THC ___ in humans raises DA levels by 136% 45-85 min post-administration
- However, 10 mg delivered ___ induced no measurable DA increase
- Likely through ___- mediated inhibition of __ release in the VTA i.e. disinhibition of DA-ergic VTA –> NAc Neurons
- Striatal DA release by THC may underlie link to ___

A

Mechanism of reinforcement:
- Increases DA levels in rats by 100%
- 8 mg of THC inhaled in humans raises DA levels by 136% 45-85 min post-administration
- However, 10 mg delivered orally induced no measurable DA increase
- Likely through CB1- mediated inhibition of GABA release in the VTA i.e. disinhibition of DA-ergic VTA –> NAc Neurons
- Striatal DA release by THC may underlie link to schizophrenia (DA is central to schizophrenia)

200
Q

How cannabis causes bloodshot eyes

A
  • noradrenaline (DA) causes narrowing of blood vessels
  • anandamide (AEA) relaxes those blood vessels
  • AEA is dependent on CB1 receptor and nitric oxide (NO)
  • CBD induces relaxation of arteries
201
Q

Munchies in cannabis

A

result from hunger signaling, increased smell, olfaction sensitivity, increased pleasure when eating (induces DA release)

202
Q

Hunger signaling

A
  • Glu-ergic inputs from cortex –> GABA-ergic internuerons in main olfactory bulb (MOB)
  • GABA interneurons –> mitral neuron soma
  • mitral cells –> olfactory receptor neurons
203
Q

Augmented olfaction by cannabinoids

A
  • endocannabinoids naturally reduce GABA-ergic interneuron firing leading to increased transmission through mitral cells
  • disinhibition of mitral neurons and increased afferent inputs to the brain hypersensitizes smell –> animals feed
204
Q

__ __ ___ and ___ __ form the centrifugal Glu-ergic inputs to the MOB

These feedback projections to the MOB is what regulates food intake via ___ signaling

A

Anterior olfactory nucleus and piriform cortex form the centrifugal Glu-ergic inputs to the MOB

These feedback projections to the MOB is what regulates food intake via CB1 signaling

205
Q

Summary of pro-appetite effects of Cannabis

A
  • increased olfactory sensitivity triggers feeding
  • users report greater pleasure from food
  • appetite- related hormones are modulated by cannabinoids
206
Q

Anti-emetic (medication aimed to reduce nausea) activity of cannabinoids

A
  • nausea and vomiting: primary signal is 5-HT3R-mediated in the medulla by afferent input from the gut
  • THC inhibits 5HT release in medulla via pre-synaptic CB1
  • THC binds and decreases activity of 5HT3 receptors
  • CBD is an agonist in 5HT1A auto-receptors, prevents 5HT release, also antagonizes 5HT3R
207
Q

Effect of cannabis on driving

A
  • mostly affects automated tasks (staying in lane) relative to attention tasks (reversing, distancing)
  • doubles risk of severe injury/death
  • synergistic effect when combined with alcohol, sub-effective doses create impairment
208
Q

Synthetic forms of cannabis

A

spice, K2

209
Q

Problem with synthetic forms of cannabis

A

contamination of toxins e.g. rat poisoin (brodifacoum), causes severe bleeding

210
Q

Cannabinoid detection and testing

A
  • colorimetric- ELISA or dipsticks (deeper/less color= more THC)
  • immunoassays, lateral flow e.g. COVID test type
  • Gas chromatography mass spectrometry (GC-MS) - each peak corresponds to one chemical in a sample
  • roadside screening tests are lateral flow assays, typically
211
Q

Sources of hallucinogens

A
  • fungi:
    Claviceps purpurea fungus that produces lysergic acid (LA) which is the precursor to synthesize LSD and is active on its own
    ~200 Psilocybe, Panaelous, Conocybe spp. that produce psilocybin
    Amanita muscaria (fly agaric) produces ibotenic acid and muscimol

-animal: colorado river toad that produces bufotenin

  • plants:
    ipomoea nil (morning glory) seeds that produce LA amide
    Lophophora williamsii (peyote) that produces mescaline
    Ayahuasca (made from Psychotria viridis and Banisteriopsis caapi vines) contains DMT, N,N-dimethyltryptamine, harmine, harmaline
    Anadenathera peregrine and virola trees that produce DMT and bufotenin
    Atropa belladonna, Datura, Henbane, Mandrake that produce atropine, scopolamine and hyoscyamine
    Tabernanthe iboga roots that produce ibogaine
    Myristica fragrans (nutmeg and mace) that produce myristicin and elemicin
212
Q

Chemical forms of hallucinogens

A
  • indoleamine nucleus (e.g. seretonin NT)
  • phenethylamine nucleus and catechol nucleus (e.g. precursor of catecholamines- DA, NE )
    nucleus helps predict which receptors it binds to
  • dissociatives and deliriants e.g. ketamine, phencyclidine, ibotenic acid, muscimol, scopolamine, hysocyamine and atropine
213
Q

3 categories that hallucinogens fall into

A

1) Psychedelic (aka phantastica)- vivid sensations, altered perceptions and reality, users still responsive, communicative
2) Deliriant- vivid, maybe confusing, fantasy
3) Dissociative- analgesia, amnesia, catalepsy (seizure/loss of sensation/muscle rigidity), detached reality

214
Q

Big 3 effects of hallucinogens

A

1) Hallucination
2) Illusion
3) Delusion

215
Q

Hallucination

A

an experience involving the perception of something that may not actually be present

216
Q

Illusion

A

altered and distorted perceptions, thoughts, feelings, insights, awareness

217
Q

Delusion

A

fixed belief e.g. I am King of France, unchanged by conflicting evidence

218
Q

Trips are dependent on ____ (expectation, experience and personality) and ___

A

Trips are dependent on mindset (expectation, experience and personality) and setting

219
Q

Lower EC 50 = ___ potency
LSD (___ potency, EC 50= 100 μg) and mescaline (___ potency, EC 50= 350 μg)

A

Lower EC 50 = higher potency
LSD (highest potency) and mescaline (lowest potency)

220
Q

Administration of LSD

A
  • ingested, injected, transdermal
  • 10-300 μg
  • blotting paper, sugar cube, gel caps, pressed tablets/microdots
    -microdosing: sub-psychedelic amounts (goal= subtly stimulate serotonergic activity in the brain)
221
Q

Distribution of LSD

A
  • onset 30-90 minutes
  • ~1% enters the brain
  • TI>1000 (relatively safe)
222
Q

Metabolism of LSD

A
  • liver
  • 110-175 minutes half-life
  • duration 5-12 hours (relates to high occupation time at 5HT2A receptors)
223
Q

Excretion of LSD

A
  • Kidneys
  • GI tract
  • 1st order elimination kinetics (exponential decrease)
224
Q

Stages of LSD trips

A

1) 0-30 minutes after initial onset: physiological changes outside the brain, sympathomimetic, dizziness, nausea, muscle tremors, numbness

2) 30-120 minutes after initial onset: alteration of perceptions, familiar objects take on new appearance, time is lengthened, intense colors, patterns/textured illusions, movement in stable objects, intense sounds, smell, tastes, synesthesia

3) 3-5 hr: illusions continue, perception of self as mind/body disconnect (picture self in 3rd person perspective), distorted body appearance, deeper sense of self

225
Q

Synesthesia

A

overlapping sensations, altered perception of sensory afferent information- due to how thalamus is reacting to 5HT2A receptor triggering, auditory information is being re-routed to occipital lobe and you start to see the sound

226
Q

Psychological effects of LSD

A

-visual hallucinations and illusions
- synesthesia
- time and physical distortions
-intense emotion
- mystical, spiritual encounters
- introspection, ego dissolution (reduced defensiveness, more open)
- cognitive: inability to concentrate/focus, preoccupation with trivial thoughts, impaired judgements, communicating with God or telepathy with other animals

227
Q

Animal studies of LSD show that animals do not ___ -___ and will actually evoke effort to ___ administrations.

This is because of signalling through ___-like pathways especially in the NAc (core region)

A

Animal studies of LSD show that animals do not self -administer and will actually evoke effort to STOP administrations.

This is because of signalling through D2-like pathways especially in the NAc (core region)

228
Q

LSD is ___ it will increase BP, cause vasoconstriction, sweating and dilated pupils

A

LSD is sympathomimetic it will increase BP, cause vasoconstriction, sweating and dilated pupils

229
Q

How the stimulation of 5HT2A receptors by LSD affects LC (locus coeruleus)

A

5HT2A in other regions e.g. mPFC will project to LC. It will transform regular events into extremely novel, seemingly new encounters- instead of having preconcieved notion of object/memory of object people do not remember that and it is as if they are seeing something for the first time

230
Q

LSD is an agonist at 5-HT1A/B, 2A/B/C, 6 and 7; primarily ___

5-HT2A:
- high pre-synaptic expression in ___- perception and information processing centres
- controls ___ ___ even after a single use
- presynaptic in mPFC: Governs neuroplastic changes via ___ signaling, complementary actions by other 5-HT receptors and DA receptors
- part of the reason that LSD is not classically addictive is because of its high affinity for ___-like receptors which are coupled to __/__ which reduces some of the DA signaling in NAc <– underlies ___ ___, ___ of self-administration

A

LSD is an agonist at 5-HT1A/B, 2A/B/C, 6 and 7; primarily 2A

5-HT2A:
- high pre-synaptic expression in cortex- perception and information processing centres
- controls transcriptional programming even after a single use
- presynaptic in mPFC: Governs neuroplastic changes via glutamate signaling, complementary actions by other 5-HT receptors and DA receptors
- part of the reason that LSD is not classically addictive is because of its high affinity for D2-like receptors which are coupled to Gi/o which reduces some of the DA signaling in NAc <– underlies aversive conditioning, lack of self-administration

231
Q

LSD is very low on the __ __ scale. One exception is ___ (i.e. muscarinics)

A

LSD is very low on the abuse potential scale. One exception is deliriants (i.e. muscarinics)

232
Q

Psilocybin (shrooms/magic mushrooms):
- ___ version of LSD
- no ___, no ___ ___
- metabolized to ___ (slightly less active component) in gut and liver
- 5HT2A ___
- sympathomimetic, altered ___ and ___, hallucinations, heightened ___
- not ___, ___ tolerance

A

Psilocybin (shrooms/magic mushrooms):
- milder version of LSD
- no flashbacks, no lethal cases
- metabolized to psilocin in gut and liver
- 5HT2A agonist
- sympathomimetic, altered time and perceptions, hallucinations, heightened emotions
- not addictive, rapid tolerance

233
Q

DMT:
- ___, smoke, __
- destroyed in the gut- might treat worms, parasites
- 5HT2A/C and 1A agonist, many other receptors
- ____ tolerance
- physiological effects similar to LSD, psilocybin
- psychological effects: ________

A

DMT:
- snort, smoke, inject
- destroyed in the gut- might treat worms, parasites
- 5HT2A/C and 1A agonist, many other receptors
- no tolerance
- physiological effects similar to LSD, psilocybin
- psychological effects: intense, vivid hallucinations, emotions, introspection, connection to surrounding

234
Q

Harmine and harmaline:
- beta-carboline chemicals
- selective and reversible ___ ___-_ inhibitors (__-___)- which would otherwise breakdown NTs
-acetylcholinesterase inhibitors: may be useful in __ disease
- stimulate striatal DA release at high doses: used to treat ___ patients

A

Harmine and harmaline:
- beta-carboline chemicals
- selective and reversible monoamine oxidase-A inhibitors (MAO-A)- which would otherwise breakdown NTs
-acetylcholinesterase inhibitors: may be useful in Alzheimer’s disease
- stimulate striatal DA release at high doses: used to treat Parkinson’s patients

235
Q

Ayahuasca (DMT + beta-carbolines):
- Reason for DMT+ betacarboline combination= ___
- activates ___ and ___ brain regions
- powerful visions, intense emotion, profound introspection
- adverse effects: ___, ___

A

Ayahuasca (DMT + beta-carbolines):
- Reason for DMT+ betacarboline combination= beta-carbolines protect DMT from degradation by MAO, it enhances distribution to the brain
- activates vision and memory brain regions
- powerful visions, intense emotion, profound introspection
- adverse effects: vomiting, diarrhea

236
Q

Bufotenin:
- close chemical similarity to ___
- Common effects include drooling, heart palpitations, elevated BP, oxygen depletion, cramped muscles, blurred vision, headache, toad breath
- hallucinations likely caused by decreased ___ to __ __
- toads produce toxic ___ that leads to dysrhythmias

A

Bufotenin:
- close chemical similarity to 5-HT
- Common effects include drooling, heart palpitations, elevated BP, oxygen depletion, cramped muscles, blurred vision, headache, toad breath
- hallucinations likely caused by decreased oxygen to optic nerve
- toads produce toxic glycosides that leads to dysrhythmias

237
Q

Ibogaine:
- may block ___ circuits
- elevates glial cell-line derived neurotrophic factor (___) in midbrain
- ___ release in VTA leads to reduction in craving and drug intake
- may damage ___, cause ___ ___ ___, increase risk of ___ ___ and ___

A

Ibogaine:
- may block addiction circuits
- elevates glial cell-line derived neurotrophic factor (GDNF) in midbrain
- GDNF release in VTA leads to reduction in craving and drug intake
- may damage cerebellum, cause severe motor tremors, increase risk of heart attack and seizure

238
Q

Mescaline:
-__, 4-12 hour duration, TI __-__ (relatively high)
- vivid hallucinations, similar to ___
- toxic effects evoke ___ and vomiting
- ___ due to convulsions and respiratory arrest

A

Mescaline:
-ingested, 4-12 hour duration, TI 7-30 (relatively high)
- vivid hallucinations, similar to LSD
- toxic effects evoke nausea and vomiting
- death due to convulsions and respiratory arrest

239
Q

Nutmeg and mace
- ingested, ___, ___
- lower doses (5g) cause very ___ hallucinations, ___, confusion, ___ of ___, euphoria
- higher doses (5-30g) cause hallucinations, ___ ___, dizziness, apprehension, nausea, vomiting, unreality can persist for ___

A

Nutmeg and mace
- ingested, inhaled, insufflated
- lower doses (5g) cause very mild hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, feelings of unreality, euphoria
- higher doses (5-30g) cause hallucinations, facial flushing, dizziness, apprehension, nausea, vomiting, unreality can persist for days

240
Q

5-HT underlies ‘complex’ cognitive and emotional functions in humans e.g. language, alturism, empathy

A

5-HT underlies ‘complex’ ___ and ___ functions in humans e.g. language, alturism, empathy

241
Q

5-HT2A expression in sub-cortical nuclei may alter ___ ___ that will support a re-routing of perception, allow you to access ___ and focus your ___ on re-writing those memories

A

5-HT2A expression in sub-cortical nuclei may alter functional connectivity that will support a re-routing of perception, allow you to access memories and focus your attention on re-writing those memories

242
Q

Plant-derived anti-cholinergics

A

Mandragora officinarum (mandrake), atropa belladonna (nightshade), datura stramonium (datura), hyoscyamus niger (henbane)

243
Q

Mandragora officinarum (mandrake):
- low doses:
-high doses:

A

Mandragora officinarum (mandrake):
- low doses: relieves anxiety, induces sleep
-high doses: causes hallucinations, amnesia, muscular paralysis

244
Q

All plant-derived anti-cholinergics contain

A

3 primary tropane alkaloids atropine, scopolamine and hyoscyamine

245
Q

Anti-cholinergics will block muscarinic AChRs (AChR is used in parasympathetic system) causing …

A

dilated pupils, increased heart rate, dry secretions (esp. mouth)

246
Q

Anti-cholinergics:
- produce hallucinations, but don’t remember it
- physiological effects: ______
- can be ___- rapid heart rate, hyperthermia, asphyxia
- it has parasympatholytic effects (i.e. reducing activity of parasympathetic system)
- usually no ___

A

Anti-cholinergics:
- produce hallucinations, but don’t remember it
- physiological effects: elevates heart rate, dry mouth, lack of perspiration, constipation, difficulty urinating
- can be fatal- rapid heart rate, hyperthermia, asphyxia
- usually no euphoria

247
Q

Dissociatives:
- ___ (phencyclidine) and ___ which are anaesthetics
- ___ ___, ___ ___
- completely removed from reality, ___
- produce reinforcement in animal models, unique amongst hallucinogens but _____

A

Dissociatives:
- PCP (phencyclidine) and ketamine which are anaesthetics
- Amanita muscaria, Saliva divinorum
- completely removed from reality, detached
- produce reinforcement in animal models, unique amongst hallucinogens but not due to augmented DA release in the NAc

248
Q

PCP (phencyclidine):
- inhaled, ___ a cigarette in ___-___ and smoke it
- ___, ___, or ___ (hardcore users)
- duration 4-8 hours, TI 10-15
- diverse effects dependent on ___
- blocks ___ in cortex and hippocampus
- increased synthesis and release of ___ causing agitation, stimulation, locomotor activity
- delirium, confusion, paranoia, impaired ___ may last for days or weeks (most likely due to cellular tolerance of NMDA receptors)

A

PCP (phencyclidine):
- inhaled, dip a cigarette in free-base and smoke it
- ingested, insufflated, or injected (hardcore users)
- duration 4-8 hours, TI 10-15
- diverse effects dependent on dose
- blocks NMDARs in cortex and hippocampus
- increased synthesis and release of DA causing agitation, stimulation, locomotor activity
- delirium, confusion, paranoia, impaired memory may last for days or weeks (most likely due to cellular tolerance of NMDA receptors)

249
Q

Dose dependent effects of PCP at 5mg, 10mg and >20mg

A

5mg:
- anaesthetic, analgesic, stimulant, depressant, convulsant, hallucinogen

10mg:
- muscle rigidity, loss of pain sensitivity, agitation, mood swings, combative (wanting to fight), sympathomimetic, visual/auditory hallucinations, detachment

> 20 mg: toxic dose
- convlusions, respiratory failure, coma, death

250
Q

Ketamine:
- ingested, ___, ___, ___
- 15-20 minute onset, 35-60 minute duration
- same effects as PCP, ___ acting
- Blocks ___ in cortex and hippocampus
- increase synthesis and release of ___ causing agitation, stimulation, locomotor activity

A

Ketamine:
- ingested, inhaled, insufflated, injected
- 15-20 minute onset, 35-60 minute duration
- same effects as PCP, shorter acting
- Blocks NMDARs in cortex and hippocampus
- increase synthesis and release of DA causing agitation, stimulation, locomotor activity

251
Q

What happens as a result of ketamine and PCP blocking NMDARs ion channels?

A

it will affect Glu, NE, DA, ACh and 5-HT NTs

252
Q

Dependence on PCP and Ketamine

A
  • moderate risk, mildly reinforcing but no DA increases in the NAc
  • PCP self-administration in animal models
  • mostly psychological, very slight physical dependence
  • Ketamine dependence is liked to access not neurochemistry e.g. someone in vet clinic steals ketamine
253
Q

Adverse effects of PCP and Ketamine (vitamine K)

A
  • psychosis and analgesia lead to damaging behaviors: attempting ‘superhuman’ feats
  • ketamine cystitis: arrest bladder cell growth, cause cell death, causes blood urine, pain, incontinence (leaking urine by accident)
  • long-term users experience memory loss, speech problems, delusional thinking
254
Q

Amanita muscaria:
- ingested, onset 30-90 minutes, duration up to ___ hours
- withdrawal ___, ___, ___ can last for days
- active chemical is excreted ___ in urine
- alter ___ ___, euphoria, dizziness, vivid hallucinations
- muscle twitches, sweat, salivation, constructed pupils, lowered BP
- Muscimol is ___ agonist responsible for most effects
- Ibotenic acid binds ___
- Fatal dose is around ___ mushroom caps

A

Amanita muscaria:
- ingested, onset 30-90 minutes, duration up to 12 hours
- withdrawal headaches, amnesia, sleepiness can last for days
- active chemical is excreted unchanged in urine
- alter body perception, euphoria, dizziness, vivid hallucinations
- muscle twitches, sweat, salivation, constructed pupils, lowered BP
- Muscimol is GABAA R agonist responsible for most effects
- Ibotenic acid binds NMDARs
- Fatal dose is around 15 mushroom caps

255
Q

Salvia divinorum:
- inhaled, ___; 15-120 minute duration
- mild alteration of ___ to __ ___ trip
- vivid visuals, sensory and time disturbances, detachment and ___ through time
- nausea, ___ ___, chills
- very high dose can cause ___ lesions

A

Salvia divinorum:
- inhaled, chewed; 15-120 minute duration
- mild alteration of consciousness to full psychedelic trip
- vivid visuals, sensory and time disturbances, detachment and floating through time
- nausea, slurred speech, chills
- very high dose can cause brain lesions

256
Q

New psychoactive substances (NPSes)

A

chemical alteration of existing hallucinogens

257
Q

2-C drugs:
- 5HT receptor agonists
- produce hallucinations, ___ effects
- adverse effects: ___, ___ ___, lethal (because designed drug it is more severe)

A

2-C drugs:
- 5HT receptor agonists
- produce hallucinations, stimulant effects
- adverse effects: seizure, extremity rigidity, lethal (because designed drug it is more severe)

258
Q

Bromo-dragonFLY:
- ___
- duration ___-___ ___
- binds 5-HT1 and __ receptors
- severe vasoconstriction via alpha adrenergic receptors
- similar effects to LSD
- ___ therapeutic window, several ___ ___ have been reported

A

Bromo-dragonFLY:
- benzodifuran
- duration 1-3 days
- binds 5-HT1 and 2A receptors
- severe vasoconstriction via alpha adrenergic receptors
- similar effects to LSD
- narrow therapeutic window, several overdose deaths have been reported

259
Q

N-benzyl-oxy-methyl (NBOM) drugs:
- several ‘N-bomb’ derivatives, __-__-__ is most common
-___ 5HT2A agonists

A

N-benzyl-oxy-methyl (NBOM) drugs:
- several ‘N-bomb’ derivatives, 2C-I-NBOM is most common
-potent 5HT2A agonists

260
Q

Designer drugs, include several evolving classes of ____. They resemble the ___ + ___ ring feature of MDMA

A

Designer drugs, include several evolving classes of stimulants. They resemble the amphetamine + methylene ring feature of MDMA

261
Q

___ ___, more commonly known as bath salts, are drugs that contain one or more human-made chemicals related to ___, a stimulant found in the ___ plant.

A

Synthetic cathinones, more commonly known as bath salts, are drugs that contain one or more human-made chemicals related to cathinone, a stimulant found in the khat plant

262
Q

Source of bath salts

A

khat plant

263
Q

Bath salts resemble __ ___ __

A

epsom salt crystals- why it is known as “bath salt”

264
Q

Bath salts are collectively known as __- ___ amphetamines. __ reduces lipophilicity, reduces transport across BBB.

The most common bath salt is 4-___

The nucleus present in cathinone = ___

A

Bath salts are collectively known as beta- ketonated amphetamines. Ketone reduces lipophilicity, reduces transport across BBB.

The most common bath salt is 4-methylmethcathinone

The nucleus present in cathinone = phenethylamine

265
Q

3M’s refers to…

A

the 3 synthetic cathinones (mephedrone, methylone, MDPV) that are active agents in bath salts

266
Q

Recreational effects of 3Ms/bath salts

A
  • sympathomimetic effects, high energy
  • euphoria
  • arousal
    -MDPV is stimulant at low doses, induces bizarre behaviors at high doses
267
Q

Physiological mechanisms of 3Ms:
- euphoria via elevated __ __
- increased ___ and __ in NAc of rats
- striatal __ elevations cause locomotor activity increases in mice and rats
- sympathomimetic (via __, ___, ___ increases): agitation, hyperthermia, tachypnea (rapid breathing), tachycardia (rapid heart rate), hypertension, cardiac arrest
- hyperthermia leads to ___ (muscles breaking down), ___ ___ (myoglobin that is supposed to be in muscle cells will get to kidney and shut them down)
-___, ___, __ ___ and ___ ___ are most common adverse effects

A

Physiological mechanisms of 3Ms:
- euphoria via elevated NAc DA
- increased DA and 5HT in NAc of rats
- striatal DA elevations cause locomotor activity increases in mice and rats
- sympathomimetic (via DA, NE, 5HT increases): agitation, hyperthermia, tachypnea (rapid breathing), tachycardia (rapid heart rate), hypertension, cardiac arrest
- hyperthermia leads to rhabdomyolysis (muscles breaking down), kidney failure (myoglobin that is supposed to be in muscle cells will get to kidney and shut them down)
-hyperthermia, hypertension, cardiac arrest and serotonin syndrome are most common adverse effects

268
Q

The cellular mechanism of the 3Ms withOUT pyrrolidine ring (i.e. mephedrone and methylone)

A

1) Bind DAT, SERT, NET
2) Enter terminals via SERT
3) Interact with TAAR
4) Leak cytoplasmic NT stores, reverse transporter, inhibit VMAT
5) Mephedrone and methylone stimulate non-exocytotic release of DA, 5HT, NE

269
Q

The cellular mechanism of the 3Ms WITH pyrrolidine ring i.e. MDPV

A

blocks transporters does not reverse transporters- does not enter terminals because of its size. It is a potent DAT/NET blocker, weaker SERT activity

270
Q

IC 50 represents…

A

concentration of drug required to block 50% of uptake

271
Q

A lower IC 50= more/less potent

A

more potent

272
Q

A DAT/SERT of 806 means that MDPV is 806x more potent at ___ compared to ___, predict MDPV to have high abuse potential

A

A DAT/SERT of 806 means that MDPV is 806x more potent at DATs compared to SERTs, predict MDPV to have high abuse potential

273
Q

Structure-activity relationship i.e. what kind of structure of 3Ms produce highest activity at DAT?

A

those with larger carbon tails and a pyrrolidine <– explains why MDPV has highest activity at DAT/able to block it and block its reuptake of DA releasing DA instead

274
Q

Mechanisms of 3M reinforcement:
- 3M bath salts bind ___
- ___ and ___ enter terminals, displace DA into synapse and ___ DAT
- ___ does not enter terminals

A

Mechanisms of 3M reinforcement:
- 3M bath salts bind DAT
- Mephedrone and methylone enter terminals, displace DA into synapse and reverse DAT
- MDPV does not enter terminals

275
Q

Adverse effects of bath salts on behavior at high doses

A
  • violence, homicidal combative behavior, self-mutilation, excited delirium syndrome (ExDS)
  • panic attacks, paranoia, suicidal thoughts, confusion, psychosis
276
Q

Cathinone fatal case reports:

Symptoms are related to surge in levels of dopamine, noradrenaline and serotonin in the periphery and include: ______

A

hyperthermia (indicated as primary problem in several deaths- many users take off clothes), leads to rhabdomyolysis, kidney failure, tachycardia (sometimes followed by bradychardia), hyperternsion, chest pain, panic attacks, paranoia, suicidal thoughts, confusion, psychosis

277
Q

Other adverse effects of 3Ms

A
  • water intoxication = hyponatremia
  • increased cranial pressure caused tonsillar herniation of cerebellum (cerebellum to be pushed through skull)
  • pressure on medulla lead to respiratory depression, cardiac arrest
278
Q

Tolerance, withdrawal and dependence of bath salts/3Ms:

  • Rhesus monkeys show ___ self-administration for __ with MDPV and alpha-PVP compared to cocaine and meth
    -rats display ___ drug-taking behavior when given free access to MDPV (rapid mechanisms of tolerance)
    -mephedrone causes ___ in mice and rats
  • altogether, bath salts appear to have a very ___ abuse potential
A

Tolerance, withdrawal and dependence of bath salts/3Ms:

  • Rhesus monkeys show higher self-administration for longer with MDPV and alpha-PVP compared to cocaine and meth (REALLY high abuse potential since cocaine and meth are on the top of the abuse spectrum)
    -rats display escalating drug-taking behavior when given free access to MDPV (rapid mechanisms of tolerance)
    -mephedrone causes CPP in mice and rats
  • altogether, bath salts appear to have a very high abuse potential
279
Q

Categories of PEDs (performance enhancing drugs)

A

anabolic/androgenic steroids (AAS) and hormones

280
Q

____ are the major PEDs (performance enhancing drugs). They are based off ___ ___ nucleus. They are altered to ___ ___ ___

A

AAS are the major PEDs (performance enhancing drugs). They are based off testosterone steroid nucleus. They are altered to enhance muscle building- increase muscles, mass and decrease fat

281
Q

Type 1 AAS (anabolic/androgenic steroids):
- ___
- ____ half-lives
- hydrolyzed to ____
- aromatized to ____ by aromatase

A

Type 1 AAS (anabolic/androgenic steroids):
- esters
- prolonged half-lives
- hydrolyzed to testosterone
- aromatized to estrogens by aromatase

282
Q

Type 2 AAS (anabolic/androgenic steroids):
- __-__-testosterone (nandrolone) derivatives
- ___ half-lives
- ___ androgenic effects
- 80% ___ aromatization compared to type 1

A

Type 2 AAS (anabolic/androgenic steroids):
- 19-nor-testosterone (nandrolone) derivatives
- prolonged half-lives
- reduced androgenic effects
- 80% less aromatization compared to type 1

283
Q

Type 3 AAS (anabolic/androgenic steroids):
- ___-___ derivatives
- greatly ____ liver metabolism- prolongs action
- ___ converted to estrogen
- ____ anabolic effects

A

Type 3 AAS (anabolic/androgenic steroids):
- 17alpha-alkyl derivatives
- greatly reduced liver metabolism- prolongs action
- not converted to estrogen
- increased anabolic effects

284
Q

Best type AAS for body builders?

A

type 3

285
Q

Administration of AAS:
- ____: increasing doses followed by decreasing dose
- ___: using multiple steroids
- ____: alternating periods of use, co-ordinated with training or testing schedules - why the best anti-doping policies are random
- certain users e.g. ____ may take 100-1000x therapeutic doses

A

Administration of AAS:
- pyramiding: increasing doses followed by decreasing dose
- stacking: using multiple steroids
- cycling: alternating periods of use, co-ordinated with training or testing schedules - why the best anti-doping policies are random
- certain users e.g. bodybuilders may take 100-1000x therapeutic doses

286
Q

Distribution of AAS

A
  • lipophilic because of ring structures
  • rapid
  • muscle
  • widespread
287
Q

Metabolism of AAS

A
  • liver
  • first-pass metabolites
  • low bioavailability (slowly absorbed)
288
Q

Absorption of AAS

A
  • injection intramuscular
  • ingestion
  • topical
289
Q

Excretion of AAS

A
  • kidney 90%
  • other 10% e.g. GI tract
290
Q

Mechanisms of AAS action

A
  • anabolic steroids bind androgen receptor
  • higher concentrations cause additional receptor binding e.g. estrogen receptors
  • drug-receptor complexes translocate to nucleus, bind specific DNA sequences
  • activates gene transcription mRNA production, make new protein e.g. to build muscle
  • steroids shift stem cells towards muscle cell differentiation, as opposed to adipose cell
291
Q

Mechanism(s) of reinforcement

A
  • many users report euphoria
  • may come from increased beta-endorphin levels which decrease GABA release onto VTA DA-ergic neurons
  • when steroids modulate GABA A receptors, DA-ergic mesolimbic neurons increase firing rate
292
Q

AAS produce massive weight ____, virtually all ___

A

AAS produce massive weight gains, virtually all muscle

293
Q

When treated with AAS animals showed..

A
  • increased number of myonuclei (drive maintenance of cells)
  • increased muscle fibre cross-sectional area (increase area=increase force)
294
Q

Cellular ‘____’ allows rapid muscle building after period of inactivity- mice with steroid treatment have quicker muscle recovery after taking a break

A

Cellular ‘memory’ allows rapid muscle building after period of inactivity

295
Q

Cellular mechanisms of action: Trenbolone (an androgen)
- ___-___ derivative of testosterone
- not a substrate for ___ ___-___(testosterone) nor ___ (estrogen)
- induces ____ effects without unwanted effects
- reverses expression of ____ (cause muscle to digest self) genes
- increases expression of ____ genes (helps with muscle growth)

A

Cellular mechanisms of action: Trenbolone (an androgen)
- 19-nor derivative of testosterone
- not a substrate for 5 alpha-reductase nor aromatase
- induces myotrophic effects without unwanted effects
- reverses expression of atrophic (cause muscle to digest self) genes
- increases expression of anabolic genes

296
Q

Tolerance of AAS

A
  • even after a single dose
  • presence of steroids inhibits their own production-negative feedback
297
Q

Withdrawal of AAS

A

depression, mood swings, fatigue, headache, insomnia, lack of energy, no appetite, body dissatisfaction

298
Q

Dependence of AAS

A
  • 30% of users become dependent
  • more likely at higher doses
  • mostly psychological due to cycle length
299
Q

Long-term health risks of AAS:
- steroid receptors are present in ___ ___ e.g. ___ and ___
- lack of knowledge of __ __ and ___ genes are turned on
- activation of other genes leads to ___, ___ side effects
- ___ blood pressure, cholesterol, and heart abnormalities
- “___” rage: increased aggression, anger, rage especially in dependent users, psychosis and depression also occur more frequently, __ __ and ___ and ___ receptors can bind endogenous neurosteroids

A

Long-term health risks of AAS:
- steroid receptors are present in multiple tissues e.g. muscle and brain
- lack of knowledge of how many and which genes are turned on
- activation of other genes leads to unwanted, dangerous side effects
- increased blood pressure, cholesterol, and heart abnormalities
- “roid” rage: increased aggression, anger, rage especially in dependent users, psychosis and depression also occur more frequently, GABA A and NMDA and 5HT receptors can bind endogenous neurosteroids

300
Q

AAS long-term effect on anterior hypothalamus (AH)

A
  • activation of D2 in AH results in aggression and violence in animal models
  • moderate doses in adolescence increases D2 expression in AH
  • arginine vasopressin is excitatory and potentiates aggression, while 5HT is inhibitory and decreases aggression
  • steroid exposure enhances vasopressin, reduces 5-HT effects
301
Q

AH (anterior hypothalamus)

A

aggression centre

302
Q

___ is a common effect reported by steroid abusers this is because abuse is linked to reduced ___-___ ___ ___ (___) which correlates with ___ behaviours. ___ also stimulates neuronal growth in hippocampus

A

Depression is a common effect reported by steroid abusers this is because abuse is linked to reduced brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) which correlates with depressed behaviours. BDNF also stimulates neuronal growth in hippocampus

303
Q

Clinical steroids are __ and ___ detected

A

Clinical steroids are safe and easily detected

304
Q

Designer steroids

A
  • modified by clandestine labs
  • undetectable
  • no one knows the mechanisms, long-term effects
305
Q

How are steroid samples tested?

A
  • usually urine, tested for known metabolites
  • can run HPLC, ELISA, GC-MS
306
Q

Cycle of addiction

A

1) Initial drug use: genetics (impulsivity), mood (depression), environment (early life trauma)

2)Acute drug experience (euphoria, analgesia, anxiolytic, antidepressant)

3) Drug withdrawal (opposite effects of acute drug use, unpleasant symptoms can drive craving and relapse)

4) chronic drug experience (neurological adaptations, tolerance to positive effects of drug and natural rewards, loss of prefrontal cortical control of drug behaviors- compulsive drug seeking)

307
Q

behavioral interventions for addiction

A

CBT (cognitive behavioral therapy), contingency management interventions/motivational incentives, counselling/therapeutic communities

308
Q

CBT (cognitive behavioral therapy)

A

a talk-based psychosocial intervention administered by a licensed psychologist. Aims to develop non-drug coping strategies to triggers

309
Q

Contingency management interventions/ motivational incentives

A

individuals are rewarded (money) for evidence of positive behavioral change e.g. clean urine drug screens

310
Q

Counselling/therapeutic communities

A

alcoholics anonymous, narcotics anonymous etc.

311
Q

Pros and cons to narcotics anonymous and alcohol anonymous

A

pros:
- connects people seeking treatment to a community of non-users
- de-stigmatizes drug use
- can connect users with medical interventions
- free (low barrier of access)

cons:
- no medical interventions
- religious undertones can be off-putting for some
- abstinence only

312
Q

2 pharmacological intervention drug classes

A
  1. block the positive effects of the drug: drug no longer rewarding, no longer desire/drive to continue using
  2. make withdrawal easier: try to restore hedonic balance, ability to feel pleasure in normal life things not related to drug
313
Q

Drug withdrawal

A
  • certain drugs induce lethal withdrawal symptoms e.g. alcohol
  • other drugs induce long-term withdrawal that are unpleasant and promote continued drug use e.g. nicotine, opioids
  • treatment of withdrawal symptoms can help maintain drug abstinence and may be a necessary step to safely and effectively stop drug use
  • treatment involves treatment with a drug that targets the same receptor as the drug of abuse, but with safer therapeutic profile
314
Q

NRT (nicotine replacement therapy)

A
  • provides nicotine by means other than tobacco (gum, patches, vaping)
  • alleviates side effects of nicotine withdrawal and reduces drug cravings
  • increases success of quitting by 55%
  • side effects similar to tobacco e.g. dry mouth, headaches
  • probably safe for long term use (better than tobacco), minimal studies done on long term effects