Post Test Flashcards by Jobelle Claire Cinco

From the list of classifications of impacted teeth below, which one(s) must always involve both bone removal and sectioning during the surgical procedure?

a. Mesioangular impaction
b. Horizontal impaction
c. Vertical impaction
d. A and B only
e. A, B, and C

b. Horizontal impaction

NOTES:

Mesioangular impaction & Vertical impaction will depend on the ramus relationship.

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Which of the following does not represent a possible finding of severe infection?

a. Trismus
b. Drooling
c. Difficult or painful swallowing
d. Swelling and induration with elevation of the tongue
e. A temperature of 99 deg F

e. A temperature of 99 deg F

NOTES:
99 deg F = 37.2 deg celsius= NORMAL
101 deg F = 38 deg celsius= FEVER

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Dental elevators are used for which of the following purposes?

a. To retract the gingival crest tissue
b. To reflect a full mucoperiosteal flap
c. To engage the tooth apical to the cementoenamel junction
d. To engage the tooth coronal to the cementoenamel junction

c. To engage the tooth apical to the cementoenamel junction

NOTES:
To retract the gingival crest tissue- MPE (Pointed)
To reflect a full mucoperiosteal flap-MPE (Broad rounded)

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Which of the following is NOT a relative contraindication for routine, elective oral surgery?

a. Unstable cardiac angina
b. History of head and neck radiation
c. Chronic sinusitis
d. Hemophilia

c. Chronic sinusitis❌

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All of the following are contraindications to tooth extraction EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. Acute pericoronitis
b. Acute apical abscess
c. End-stage renal disease
d. Acute infectious stomatitis

b. Acute apical abscess

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On a panoramic radiograph of a 13-year-old patient, there is evidence of crown formation of third molars but no root formation yet. These teeth fall into the category of impacted teeth.

a. True
b. False

b. False

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Which of the following is not an appropriate treatment for an odontogenic abscess?

a. Placing the patient on antibiotics and having them return when the swelling resolves
b. Surgical removal of the source of the infection as early as possible
c. Drainage of the abscess with placement of surgical drains
d. Close observance of the patient during resolution of the infection
e. Medical management of the patient to correct any compromised states that might exist

a. Placing the patient on antibiotics and having them return when the swelling resolves

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Before the exploration of any intrabony pathologic lesion, which type of biopsy must always be done?

a. Cytologic smear
b. Incisional biopsy
c. Excisional biopsy
d. Aspiration biopsy

d. Aspiration biopsy

NOTES:
Cytologic smear- used as screening or adjuncts to assist in clinical decision making
Incisional biopsy- removes only a small portion of the lesions
Excisional biopsy- removal of a lesion in its entirety
Aspiration biopsy- by penetrating a suspicious lesion and aspirating its content

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The most common mandibular surgical osteotomy to advance the mandible is

a. A Le Fort I osteotomy
b. A segmental maxillary osteotomy
c. A bilateral sagittal split osteotomy
d. An intraoral vertical ramus osteotomy

c. A bilateral sagittal split osteotomy

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Which third of the root has the poorest prognosis when it comes to horizontal root fractures?

a. Cervical 3rd
b. Middle 3rd
c. Apical 3rd

a. Cervical 3rd

NOTES-
Cervical 3rd: POOREST PROGNOSIS
Middle 3rd: STABLE
Apical 3rd: BEST PROGNOSIS

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Your patient is a 23-year-old college student whom you suspect may have sustained a mandible fracture during an altercation. Which of the following is false?

a. At least two x-rays should be obtained
b. The most common x-ray obtained would be a panoramic radiograph
c. The most likely area for this patient’s mandible to be fractured is the mandibular dental alveolus
d. Point tenderness, changes in occlusion, step deformities, and gingival lacerations should all be noted on physical exam

C. The most likely area for this patient’s mandible to be fractured is the mandibular dental alveolus.❌
The most likely area for this patient’s mandible to be fractured is the mandibular CONDYLE.

CAS BARC
Condyle= 29.1%
Angle= 24.5%
Symphysis= 22%
Body =16%
Alveolar process= 3.1%
Ramus= 1.7%
Coronoid process= 1.3%

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Which of the following is true regarding the possibilities for reconstruction of an atrophic edentulous ridge prior to denture construction?

a. Dental implants are used only as a last resort after bone grafting attempts have failed
b. Distraction osteogenesis is too new a technique to be applied to a ridge augmentation
c. Potential bone graft harvest sites for ridge reconstruction include rib, hip, and chin
d. The need for ridge augmentation is more common in the maxilla than in the mandible

c. Potential bone graft harvest sites for ridge reconstruction include rib, hip, and chin

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You are evaluating a patient 5 days after extraction of tooth #17. The patient complains of a severe throbbing pain that started yesterday, 4 days after extraction. The patient most likely has which of the following conditions?

a. Dry socket
b. Subperiosteal abscess
c. Periapical periodontitis in tooth #18
d. Neuropathic pain

a. Dry socket

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How long should one wait before obtaining a biopsy of an oral ulcer?

a. 4 days
b. 7 days
c. 14 days
d. 30 days

c. 14 days

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Before removing a palatal torus:

a. An intraoral picture should be taken
b. A mandibular torus, if present should be removed
c. A stent should be fabricated
d. A biopsy should be taken

c. A stent should be fabricated

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Which of the following is true regarding possible complications resulting from dental extractions?

a. Patients with numbness lasting more than 4 weeks should be referred for microneurosurgical evaluation
b. Infections are common, even in healthy patients
c. Dry socket occurs in 10% of third molar patients
d. Teeth lost into the oropharynx are usually swallowed, and thus do not require further intervention

a. Patients with numbness lasting more than 4 weeks should be referred for microneurosurgical evaluation

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The ideal time to remove impacted third molars is:

a. When the root is fully formed
b. When the root is approximately two-thirds formed
c. Makes no difference how much of the root is formed
d. When the root is approximately one-third formed

b. When the root is approximately two-thirds formed

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When a biopsy is being performed, the incisions should be?

a. Oriented perpendicular to lines of muscle tension
b. Oriented parallel to lines of muscle tension
c. As deep as possible into muscle fibers beneath the lesion
d. At a 45-degree angle to the long axis of any muscle fibers beneath the lesion

b. Oriented parallel to lines of muscle tension

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Which of the following is not a classification of mandible fractures?

a. Anatomic location
b. Description of the condition of the bone
c. Angulation of the fracture and muscle pull
d. Le Fort level

d. Le Fort level❌

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A 45/M patient came to the clinic due to facial swelling resulting from an infection from his upper right canine. Which fascial space is most likely affected?

a. Palatal space
b. Infraorbital space
c. Infratemporal space
d. Maxillary sinus

b. Infraorbital space

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An incisional biopsy is indicated for which of the following lesions?

a. 3x3mm well-encapsulated fibroma
b. Necrotizing sialometaplasia of the hard palate
c. 2x2mm papilloma of left commissure of the lips
d. 3x2mm melanotic macule

b. Necrotizing sialometaplasia of the hard palate

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All of the following are ways of eliminating dead space EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. Close the wound in layers to minimize the postoperative void
b. Apply pressure dressings
c. Use drains to remove any bleeding that accumulates
d. Allow the void to fill with blood so that a that a blood clot will form

d. Allow the void to fill with blood so that a that a blood clot will form

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During extraction of a maxillary third molar, you realize the tuberosity has also been extracted. What is the proper treatment in this case?

a. Remove the tuberosity from the tooth and reimplant the tuberosity
b. Smooth the sharp edges of the remaining bone and suture the remaining soft tissue
c. No special treatment is necessary
d. None of the above

b. Smooth the sharp edges of the remaining bone and suture the remaining soft tissue

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The most commonly impacted teeth are the mandibular third molars, maxillary third molars, and the:

a. Maxillary canines
b. Maxillary lateral incisors
c. Mandibular first molars
d. Mandibular premolars

a. Maxillary canines

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All of the following are cardinal signs of localized osteitis (dry socket) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Throbbing pain b. Bilateral lymphadenopathy c. Fetid odor d. Bad taste e. Poorly healed extraction site

b. Bilateral lymphadenopathy

If a subcondylar fracture occurs, which of the following muscles will displace the condyle both anteriorly and medially? a. Digastric muscle b. Temporalis muscle c. Lateral pterygoid muscle d. Medial pterygoid muscle

c. Lateral pterygoid muscle

Closed reduction is best used in the treatment of: a. Favorable, non-displaced fractures b. Displaced and unstable fractures, with associated midface fractures, and when MMF is contraindicated c. Either of the above d. None of the above

a. Favorable, non-displaced fractures

The most common pathognomonic sign of a mandibular fracture is: a. Nasal bleeding b. Exophthalmos c. Malocclusion d. Numbness in the infraorbital nerve distribution

c. Malocclusion

The following conditions would require preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis for the prevention of bacterial endocarditis, except? a. Prosthetic heart valve b. Complex cyanotic congenital heart disease c. Prior coronary artery bypass graft d. Surgically constructed systemic pulmonary shunts or conduits e. Mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation and/or thickened leaflets

e. Mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation and/or thickened leaflets

Why is a conventional handpiece that expels forced air contraindicated when performing dentoalveolar surgery? a. Too much bone will be removed b. These handpieces can cause tissue emphysema or an air embolus, which can be fatal c. These handpieces are not high-powered enough to remove bone d. All of the above

b. These handpieces can cause tissue emphysema or an air embolus, which can be fatal

Introduced the “hot cathode” X-ray tube in 1913 A. Wilhelm C. Roentgen B. William J. Morton C. William H. Rollins D. William D. Coolidge

D. William D. Coolidge NOTES: Wilhelm C. Roentgen- discovered X-rays William J. Morton- First radiograph (skull) William H. Rollins- First paper on dangers of X-radiation William D. Coolidge- First X-ray tube

What kind of radiation has a wavelength longer than visible light? A. Ultraviolet B. Infrared C. Roentgen rays D. Gamma rays

B. Infrared NOTES ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM "Rich Man In Vegas Use Xpensive Gadget" (LONGEST TO SHORTEST WAVELENGTH) (LOWEST- HIGHEST ENERGY) 1. Radiowaves 2. Microwaves 3. Infrared rays 4. Visible light 5. Ultraviolet rays 6. Xrays 7. Gamma rays

Which statement is not true regarding the properties of X-rays? A. It is a form of electromagnetic radiation having wavelengths shorter than visible light. B. It can cause certain substances to fluoresce or emit radiation. C. It carries a high amount of energy due to its electric charge. D. It always diverges from a point. E. It can cause biologic changes in living things.

C. It carries a high amount of energy due to its electric charge.

The penetrability of an x-ray photon is affected by all of the following except: A. mass of the photon B. frequency of the photon C. wavelength of the photon D. energy of the photon

A. mass of the photon

Which are the primary components of an X-ray machine? A. Cathode and anode B. Tube head and filters C. Control panel and collimator D. X-ray tube and power supply

D. X-ray tube and power supply

All are characteristics of ideal target material except one. Which one is the exception? A. High melting point B. High vapor pressure C. High atomic number D. High thermal conductivity

B. High vapor pressure

Which x-ray machine control regulates the filament temperature? A. On/off switch B. Exposure time C. Milliamperage (mA) D. Kilovoltage peak (kVp)

C. Milliamperage (mA)

Which statement is correct regarding the generation of X-rays: A. 60 to 100V is needed to create a difference in potential between the cathode & anode in an X-ray tube. B. Only about 1% of the energy produced in the tube is in the form of X-radiation. C. The step-up transformer is necessary to heat the filament in the cathode D. The copper stem in the cathode is needed to conduct heat away from the target because heat is increased once it is targeted.

B. Only about 1% of the energy produced in the tube is in the form of X-radiation.

Majority of the x-rays produced in an x-ray tube are the result of: A. a rapid deceleration of projectile electrons as they pass through the target material B. a rapid deceleration of projectile neutrons as they pass through the target material C. a rapid acceleration of projectile electrons as they pass through the target material D. a rapid acceleration of projectile positrons as they pass through the target material

A. a rapid deceleration of projectile electrons as they pass through the target material

The following statements are correct, except: A. In photoelectric absorption, a photon collides with a bound electron in one of the inner shells. B. Coherent scattering occurs with high energy photons passing near electrons at the outer shell of an atom. C. Compton scattering happens 62% of the time. D. X-ray photons are either absorbed or scattered out of the beam.

B. Coherent scattering occurs with high energy photons passing near electrons at the outer shell of an atom.❌

Which of the following is false? A. Tungsten target is set in a copper block B. Dental X-ray tube is self-rectified C. Filtration reduces the exposure time D. Grid reduces the secondary radiation reaching the film

C. Filtration reduces the exposure time❌

SI unit of exposure A. Roentgen (R) B. Roentgen equivalent in man (rem) C. Curie (Ci) D. Coulomb/kg (C/kg)

D. Coulomb/kg (C/kg) NOTES: Traditional: Roentgen (R) SI unit: Coulomb/kg (C/kg)

What is defined as one whose probability rather than severity, is a function of radiation dose without threshold? A. Rebound effect B. Deterministic effect C. Stochastic effect D. Interpolating effect

C. Stochastic effect NOTES: Deterministic effect- will definitely develop; effects appear if the dose threshold is reached Stochastic effect- with possibility to develop; not dose dependent, without threshold

The following radiation effects may happen to the oral tissues, except: A. Xerostomia B. Mucositis C. Candidiasis D. None of the above E. All of the above

D. None of the above❌

All of the following decreases radiation exposure to the patient, except: A. Use of a short PID instead of a long one B. F speed film instead of D speed film C. Thyroid collar D. Collimator

A. Use of a short PID instead of a long one❌

Radiation effect to the whole body when exposed to 2-7 Gy A. Gastrointestinal Syndrome B. Hematopoietic Syndrome C. Cardiovascular Syndrome D. Central Nervous System Syndrome

B. Hematopoietic Syndrome NOTES: Acute Radiation Syndrome- exposure 1.5 Gy Hematopoietic Syndrome- exposure to 2-7 Gy Gastrointestinal Syndrome- exposure to 7-15 Gy Cardiovascular & Central Nervous System Syndrome- exposure to about 30-50 Gy and above

Recommended amount of total aluminum filtration for equipment at 70 kVp setting A. 1.5-2.0 mm B. 0.5-1.0 mm C. 3.0-3.5 mm D. 4.5-5.0 mm

A. 1.5-2.0 mm

Of the following, which are characteristic of an aluminum filtered primary x-ray diagnostic beam? I. The filtered beam contains a greater number of shorter wavelength x-ray photons than a nonfiltered beam. II. The filtered beam contains a lesser number of longer wavelength x-ray photons than a nonfiltered beam. III. The filtered beam is comprised of fewer x-ray photons that are less penetrating than is the nonfiltered primary beam. IV. The filtered beam has a higher half- value layer than the nonfiltered beam. A. II, III, and IV B. I, II, and III C. I, II, and IV D. I, III, and IV E. All of the above

A. II, III, and IV NOTES: - The filtered beam contains a lesser number of longer wavelength x-ray photons than a nonfiltered beam. - The filtered beam is comprised of fewer x-ray photons that are less penetrating than is the nonfiltered primary beam. - The filtered beam has a higher half- value layer than the nonfiltered beam.

Density of a radiograph is affected by all except: A. mA B. kVp C. cone angulation D. thickness of the object

C. cone angulation

Use of an angled target in the X-ray tube: A. Increases the penetrating power of X- rays B. Reduces penetrating power of X-rays C. Increases image sharpness D. Reduces image sharpness

C. Increases image sharpness

An ideal radiograph produces an image in which size and shape of the object is reproduced exactly on the film, without distortion or magnification. To produce an image as close to this, which of the following principles must not be applied? A. The distance between the tube and object should be as little as possible B. The beam should be as near to perpendicular to the tooth as possible C. The distance between the tube and film should be as little as possible D. The film should lie as near to parallel the tooth as possible

A. The distance between the tube and object should be as little as possible

Suppose that in a periapical examination of the mandibular incisor region, an exposure time of 1/4 second and focus-film distance of 8 inches were used. If you increase the focus-film distance to 16 inches, what would be the new exposure time required to produce the same density in the radiograph? A. 1/2 second B. 1 second C. 2 seconds D. 4 seconds

B. 1 second

Radiographs which appear darker have high film contrast. Images with low contrast are useful for the detection of dental caries. A. Both statements are true. B. Both statements are false. C. First statement is true, second statement is false. D. First statement is false, second statement is true.

B. Both statements are false. NOTES: Contrast- the difference in density or the degree of grayness between areas of the radiographic image HIGH: lighter, gray LOW: darker, black

Which of the following is the function of the fixing solution? A. Reduces all silver ions in the exposed crystals of silver bromide into black metallic B. Dilutes the developer C. Removes the alkali activator D. Removes the undeveloped silver halide crystals from the emulsion

D. Removes the undeveloped silver halide crystals from the emulsion NOTES: DEVELOPER- reduces all silver ions in the exposed crystals of silver bromide into black metallic FIXER- removes the undeveloped silver halide crystals from the emulsion

X-ray fixer contains all of the following except: A. A clearing agent B. An antioxidant preservative C. An accelerator D. An acidifier E. A hardener

C. An accelerator NOTES: FIXER: 1. Clearing agent: Sodium thiosulfate; Ammonium thiosulfate 2. Acidifier: Acetic acid 3. Preservative: Ammonium sulfite 4. Hardener: Aluminum sulfate, Chromium potassium sulfate 5. Solvent: Water

Sensory neuron fibers responsible for conducting acute pain impulses A. C-fibers B. A-delta C. A-beta D. A&B E. None of the above

B. A-delta NOTES: A-delta fibers: ACUTE PAIN, MYELINATED C fibers: CHRONIC PAIN, UNMYELINATED

The ascending modulatory pathway of pain can be explained by this theory of pain A. Specific Theory B. Pattern C. Gate-control D. Hydrodynamic E. All

C. Gate-control NOTES: Specific Theory: nerve endings called "nociceptors" Pattern: summation of sensory output Gate-control: "gate" in the spinal cord (synaptic region located in Substantia Gelatinosa) ASCENDING MODULATORY PATHWAY Hydrodynamic: nerve endings near the pulp are stimulated due to the movement of dentinal fluids present in dentinal tubules

Which of the following is an INDIRECT mode of action of Opioid Analgesics? A. Spinal action B. Peripheral C. Supraspinal D. All E. None

A. Spinal action NOTES: Opioid Analgesics - have a Spinal mode of action which is considered Indirect. - cause activation of the Descending Modulatory Pathway

The primary mode of action of anaesthetic agents is A. Decreasing rate of Repolarization B. Prolonging Rate of Depolarization C. Altering the depolarization Threshold D. A &B E. None

B. Prolonging Rate of Depolarization

Action potential is an all or none phenomenon with a depolarization threshold of A. -70mv B. -85mv C. -55mv D. +40mv E. None

C. -55mv

The initial, slow depolarization of membrane is followed by a rapid secondary depolarization characterized by rapid influx of sodium ions from outside into the membrane. This rapid influx is due to the opening of A. Mechanical gated Channels B. Ligand- gated Channels C. Voltage-gated Channels D. Na-K Pump

C. Voltage-gated Channels

Prostaglandins and other mediators of inflammation place the neurons at a state of “hypersensitivity” by A. Lowering Depolarization Threshold B. Deceasing Rate of Repolarization C. Opening Sodium Channels D. None of the above

A. Lowering Depolarization Threshold

Part of the brain responsible for localization of pain A. Thalamus B. Nuclei C. Pons D. Cortex E. None

D. Cortex NOTES: Cortex= Pain localization center

Local anaesthetic agents control pain by A. Cortical Depression B. Raising the patient’s pain threshold C. Activating the descending modulatory pathway D. Causing a conduction blockade E. All of the above

D. Causing a conduction blockade NOTES: COMPONENTS OF LOCAL ANETHETIC SOLUTION (1) L.A. Agent- Blockade of nerve conduction (2) Sodium chloride- Isotonocity of solution (3) Sterile water- Volume (4) Vasoconstricotor- vasoconstriction (Increase depth and duration, decreases absorption, haemostasis) (5) Sodium bisulifite- Antioxidant (6) Mehtylparaben- Bacteriostatic, cannot be found in dental anesthetic solution

The speed of impulse propagation is determined by the following except A. Diameter of the nerve fiber B. Absence/presence of myelin sheath C. Depolarization Threshold D. None of the above

C. Depolarization Threshold❌

Following nerves form the internal alveolar plexus of nerves except A. Greater palatine B. Lesser Palatine C. Nasopalatine D. A &C E. B & C

B. Lesser Palatine❌

Prior to RCT of tooth # 34, which of the following nerves need to be anesthetised? A. Lingual B. Incisive C. Mental D. B& C E. A &B

B. Incisive

Nerves that need to be anesthetized prior to the extraction of tooth 42 A. IAN, Lingual B. Mental, Lingual C. Incisive, Mental D. IAN, Mental E. ASAN, Lingual

A. IAN, Lingual

All of the ff. nerves are motor branches of the trigeminal nerve except A. N. to masseter muscle B. Deep temporal nerve C. Nerve to buccinators muscle D. Nerve to lateral pterygoid muscle E. None of the above

C. Nerve to buccinators muscle- SENSORY

Trigeminal nuclei that receives sensory information about pain A. Mesencephalic B. Trigeminal ganglion C. Principal D. Spinal

D. Spinal

Which of the following muscles receive motor fibers from the trigeminal nuclei? A. Depressor labial oris B. Levator angular oris C. Caninus D. N. to Buccinator muscle E. None of the above

E. None of the above

In the absence of MSAN, maxillary premolars are innervated by A. PSAN B. ASAN C. MSAN D. Nasopalatine E. Anterior palatine

B. ASAN

After a successful IAN block the patient still complains of pain during extraction. Which of the ff. nerves still needs to anesthetised for extraction of tooth # 44 A. Mental B. Incisive C. Lingual D. Nasopalatine E. Long Buccal

C. Lingual

The incisive foramen serves as point of exit for this dentoalveolar nerve A. Mental B. Incisive C. IAN D. Nasopalatine E. Long Buccal

D. Nasopalatine NOTES: Mental nerve= Mental foramen Inferior alveloar nerve= Mental foramen Nasopalatine nerve= Incisive foramen

Which of the following branches of the maxillary nerve is given off within the peterygopalatine fossae A. Zygomatic B. ASAN C. MSAN D. Dural Branch E. None

A. Zygomatic

Which of the following branches of the maxillary nerve is not a terminal branch A. ASAN B. Superior labial n. C. Inferior palpebral D. B&C E. None

A. ASAN

The maxillary nerve enters the orbital cavity thru A. Superior orbital Fissure B. Foramen Rotundum C. Foramen Ovale D. Inferior orbital Fissure E. Infraorbital Foramen

D. Inferior orbital Fissure

This is the largest branch of the smallest branch of the trigeminal nerve A. Frontal B. Zygomatic C. IAN D. Lacrimal E. None

A. Frontal NOTES: V1 (Opthalmic)- smallest branch V2 (Maxillary) V3 (Mandibular)

This is the only sensory nerve that branch off from the anterior trunk of the trigeminal nerve A. Lingual B. N. to buccinators C. Mylohyoid n. D. N. to Lateral Pterygoid E. None

B. N. to buccinators NOTES: ANTERIOR TRUNK (MOSTLY MOTOR, 1 SENSORY) -MOTOR: Nerves of the muscles of mastication ❌Medial Pterygoid -Deep temporal N.: TEMPORALIS MUSCLE -Masseteric N.: MASSETER -N. to Lateral Prerygoid: LAT. PTERYGOID MUSCLE -SENSORY: Buccal N. POSTERIOR TRUNK (MOSTLY SENSORY, 1 MOTOR) -SENSORY: - Auriculotemporal N. - Lingual N. - IAN N. (Three branches) (1) N. Mylohyoid- MOTOR (2) Incisive N. (3) Mental N.

The palatal root of tooth # 16 is innervated by A. ASAN B. MSAN C. PSAN D. Ant. Palatine E. Post. palatine

C. PSAN ASAN=CI, LI, C MSAN=C- MB root of M1 PSAN= MB root of M1- M3

Which of the ff. nerves can be anesthetised by the use of a jet-injector A. ASAN B. Lingual C. Lesser Palatine D. Nasopalatine E. None, Jet injector is for topical anesthesia only

C. Lesser Palatine NOTES: Jet injector (“needle-less” syringe) - for Lesser Palatine and Greater Palatine only

Pain upon withdrawal of needle from the syringe is due to A. Fast withdrawal B. Fast Injection C. Hooked Needle D. All of the above E. None

D. All of the above

This is considered the weakest point of a dental anaesthetic needle A. Tip B. Cartridge end C. Middle of the Needle D. Close to the hub E. All part of the needle has the same strength against breakage

C. Middle of the Needle

Recommended gauge of the needle for use in dental practice A. Gauge 25 B. Gauge 27 Long C. Gauge 30 Short D. B &C E. None of the above

A. Gauge 25

Which of the following cannot be found in a dental anaesthetic cartridge? A. Sodium Bisulfite B. Epinephrine C. Sodium Chloride D. Methylparaben E. None

D. Methylparaben COMPONENTS OF LOCAL ANETHETIC SOLUTION (1) L.A. Agent- Blockade of nerve conduction (2) Sodium chloride- Isotonocity of solution (3) Sterile water- Volume (4) Vasoconstricotor- vasoconstriction (Increase depth and duration, decreases absorption, haemostasis) (5) Sodium bisulifite- Antioxidant (6) Mehtylparaben- Bacteriostatic, cannot be found in dental anesthetic solution

The first synthetic anaesthetic agent A. Cocaine B. Procaine C. Lidocaine D. Ethyl alcohol E. None

B. Procaine NOTES: Cocaine - 1st discovered - Only natural - Only vasoconstrictor Prociane - 1st synthetic - 1st injectable - Longest used in practice - Baseline for comparison Lidocaine - Most Commonly used LA agent Tetracaine - Most toxic - Longest elimination time Prilocaine - Can lead to Methemoglobinemia due to its metabolite Toluidine

The anaesthetic agent with longest duration of action A. Lidocaine B. Procaine C. Mepivacaine D. Prilocaine E. Bupivacaine

E. Bupivacaine NOTES: Lidocaine- 7.8 pka; shortest half life Prilocaine- 7.8 pka Mepivacaine- 7.7 pka Bupivacaine- 8.1 pka (highest pKa); most hydrophobic (long duration of action); highest degree of protein binding

Which of the following is NOT a function of the vasoconstrictor inside the anaesthetic cartridge? A. Increase the duration of anesthesia B. Increase Potency of anesthesia C. Increase depth of anesthesia D. Decrease absorption of anesthetic agent E. Hemostasis

B. Increase Potency of anesthesia❌

Upon skin testing with 2% Lidocaine with 1:100000 epinephrine, the patient exhibits an allergic reaction. Which of the following would be the next choice for anaesthetic solution. A. Bupivacaine with 1:20,000 Epinephrine B. Mepivacaine with 1:50,000 Epinephrine C. 2% Lidocaine D. Diphenhydramine E. None of the above

C. 2% Lidocaine

Which of the following injection techniques leads to bilateral maxillary anesthesia? A. ASAN Block B. Infraorbital Block C. Maxillary N. Block D. Nasopalatine Block

D. Nasopalatine Block

Proptosis is a possible complication following this type of injection technique A. Gow-gates B. Vazirani C. High-Tuberosity Approach Maxillary N. Block D. Palatal Approach Maxillary N. Block E. A &B

D. Palatal Approach Maxillary N. Block

Following an IAN block, the patient cannot close her lower eyelid. Which of the following mistakes was most probably committed by the dentist A. Tip of the needle is located too posteriorly B. Tip of the needle is located too anteriorly C. Anesthetic solution was deposited too quickly D. Too much anesthetic solution was injected

A. Tip of the needle is located too posteriorly

Following a right IAN block , the patient complains of Pain during restoration of tooth #41. Upon further testing, teeth #44 and 43 are completely anesthetised. Her pain on #41 can be explained due to A. Supplementary innervation from lingual nerve B. Too little anesthetic solution was injected C. Supplementary innervation from contralateral IAN D. Wrong IAN block

C. Supplementary innervation from contralateral IAN

Which of the following injection techniques is sufficient for RCT of tooth #34 A. Mental Block B. Incisive Block C. MSAN block D. Lingual & mental Block

B. Incisive Block

Which of the following is NOT a true mandibular nerve block A. Gow Gates B. Akinosi C. Vazirani D. Classic Mandibular block E. None

D. Classic Mandibular block❌

After a classic mandibular nerve block, patient complains of trismus this is due to A. Tip of the needle is located too posteriorly B. Tip of the needle is located too anteriorly C. Anesthetic solution was deposited too quickly D. Too much anesthetic solution was injecteed

C. Anesthetic solution was deposited too quickly

During an IAN nerve block the tip of the needle is ideally located at A. Mandibular foramen B. Mandibular notch C. 6mm above mandibular occlusal plane D. Midpoint of pterygomandibular raphe E. all of the above

A. Mandibular foramen

Following a left IAN nerve block the patient reports of numbness of the left side of lower lip but upon cavity preparation on tooth #37 the patient complains of pain. Which of the following is a possible explanation for the pain A. Supplemental innervation from lingual nerve B. Bifid IAN C. Too little anesthetic solution was deposited D. Anesthetic solution did not penetrate the deep fibers of IAN E. All of the above

E. All of the above

This is the only injection technique in dentistry that when done properly can produce both pharmacological and pressure anesthesia A. IAN block B. Intraligamentary Injection C. Intraosseous D. Intrapulpal

D. Intrapulpal

Minimum volume of anaesthetic solution per root to be deposited for a successful intraligamentary injection. A. 1.8ml B. 1ml C. 0.2ml D. 0.6ml E. 0.4ml

C. 0.2ml

How much anesthetic agent is there in a dental cartridge with 2% Lidocaine and 1:100000 Epinephrine? A. 36mg B. 18mg C. 0.018mg D. 2g E. 2mg

A. 36mg

What is the maximum amount of epinephrine that can be injected to a patient with hyperthyroidism? A. 0.04mg B. 0.2mg C. 0 mg D. 1mg E. 0.4mg

C. 0 mg

What is the maximum number of cartridges that can be given to a normal and healthy adult if the anesthetic solution to be used is 2% lidocaine with 1:100000 epinephrine? A. 11.1 B. 7.6 C. 8 D. 8.1 E. 2

A. 11.1

Which of the following injection techniques provides hemostasis at the site of operation? A. Local Infiltration B. Field Block C. Nerve Block D. all E. None

A. Local Infiltration NOTES: Local Infiltration Nerves anesthetized: Small terminal nerve endings Area of treatment: same as injection area Field Block NA: Larger terminal nerve branches AT: an area away from the site of injection Nerve Block NA: Main nerve Trunk AT: Distant from the site of injection

The least common nerve block in dentistry A. IAN block B. Gow-gates C. ASAN block D. MSAN block E. Lingual n. Block

D. MSAN block