Post Test Flashcards
(110 cards)
1
Q
Redistribution of body fat with round moon face, dorsal “buffalo hump” and relatively thin extremities suggests:
a. Addison’s disease
b. Conn’s syndrome
c. Cushing’s syndrome
d. Sipple syndrome
e. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
A
c. Cushing’s syndrome
2
Q
Which of the following disorders is least likely to be included in the differential diagnosis of a patient with jaundice?
a. Hepatitis.
b. Hemolytic anemia.
c. Cholelithiasis.
d. Glomerulonephritis.
e. Carcinoma of the pancreas.
A
d. Glomerulonephritis.❌
3
Q
This antibody mediates the most common type of asthma called atopic asthma:
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
e. IgD
A
d. IgE
4
Q
The most common cause of bacterial meningitis in newborns is.
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Escherichia coli
d. Haemophilus influenzae
e. Listeria monocytogenes
A
c. Escherichia coli
5
Q
Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by inflammation of the ____
a. Articular capsule
b. Articular cartilage
c. Cortical bone
d. Perichondrium
e. Synovium
A
e. Synovium
6
Q
Which of the following etiologic agents commonly causes sialadenitis?
a. Rhabdovirus
b. Rubula
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. chikungunya
e. plasmodium falciparum
A
b. Rubula
7
Q
Necrosis of cardiac muscles following a coronary artery thrombosis is what type of necrosis?
a. fibrinoid
b. gangrenous
c. liquefactive
d. caseous
e. coagulation
A
e. coagulation
8
Q
Symptoms of a myocardial infarction include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
a. Angina.
b. Diaphoresis.
c. Fever.
d. Vomiting.
e. Dyspnea
A
c. Fever.❌
9
Q
Which of the following hepatitis virus is dependent on HBV for multiplication?
a. HAV
b. HCV
c. HDV
d. HIV
e. both b and c
A
c. HDV
10
Q
The usual site of latency for the Herpes simplex virus type 2 is:
a. The cranial sensory ganglia
b. The lumbar or sacral sensory ganglia
c. The cranial or thoracic sensory ganglia
d. T lymphocytes
A
b. The lumbar or sacral sensory ganglia
11
Q
Anemia in a newborn can result from:
a. excessive blood loss during delivery
b. excessive destruction of red blood cells
c. impaired production of red blood cells
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
A
d. all of the above
12
Q
A disease unlikely to be spread by the air-borne route is:
a. measles
b. diphtheria
c. tuberculosis
d. typhoid fever
e. whooping cough
A
d. typhoid fever- FECAL ORAL
13
Q
Each of the following with regard to von Willebrand disease is correct EXCEPT
a. it is a qualitative platelet defect.
b. vWF allows adhesion of platelets to collagen.
c. it affects both the platelet plug and coagulation cascade.
d. vWF functions independent of factor VIII.
e. it is an autosomal dominant disorder
A
d. vWF functions independent of factor VIII.❌
14
Q
Term used to describe exanthem in patients with Measles:
a. centrifugal rash
b. rose spots
c. Koplik spots
d. evanescence rash
e. morbilliform rash
A
e. morbilliform rash
NOTES:
Enanthem - Koplik Spots (grayish pecks)
Exanthem - morbilliform rash on the 3rd or 4th day affecting face, body and extremities
15
Q
This type of angina is occurring with progressively less exertion or even at rest
a. typical angina
b. stable angina
c. crescendo angina
d. prinzmetal angina
e. variant angina
A
c. crescendo angina
16
Q
This type of inflammation is characterized by watery, relatively protein-poor fluid that derives either from the plasma or from the secretions of mesothelial cells lining the peritoneal, pleural, and pericardial cavities.
a. serous
b. granulomatous
c. fibrinous
d. purulent
e. suppurative
A
a. serous
17
Q
Which of the following statements is not true about Peptic Ulcer Disease?
a. Peptic ulcer disease is most often associated with H. pylori infection or NSAID
b. Hematemesis is more common in Duodenal Ulcer than Gastric Ulcer
c. Peptic ulcers are chronic, recurring lesions that occur most often in middle-aged to older adults
d. Eating may worsen gastric ulcer but may relieve duodenal ulcer.
e. None of the above
A
b. Hematemesis is more common in Duodenal Ulcer than Gastric Ulcer❌
Hematemesis is more common in GASTRIC Ulcer than DUODENAL Ulcer
18
Q
In this stage of Syphilis, common manifestations include: generalized lymph node enlargement, mucocutaneous lesions, condylomata lata and skin lesions involving the palms of hands and soles of feet:
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Terminal
e. Recurrent
A
b. Secondary
19
Q
Which of the following coagulation factors is deficient in hemophilia B?
a. VI
b. VII
c. VIII
d. IX
A
d. IX
A=8
B=9
C=11
20
Q
This necrosis is diagnostic of acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis:
a. coagulative necrosis
b. gumma necrosis
c. enzymatic fat necrosis
d. traumatic fat necrosis
e. caseous necrosis
A
c. enzymatic fat necrosis
21
Q
Rubeola commonly produces an enanthem of the buccal mucosa designated as:
a. Negri bodies
b. Fordyce’s spots
c. Paschen bodies
d. Koplik’s spots
e. Guarnieri’s bodies
A
d. Koplik’s spots
22
Q
Common complication of Mumps in male:
a. Gynecomastia
b. Shock
c. Orchitis
d. Testicular abscess
e. bull neck
A
c. Orchitis- STERILITY
23
Q
Prevention of wound dehiscence and tensile strengthing a healing wound are closely related to:
a. formation of blood clot
b. collagen formation
c. suppuration
d. fibrin accumulation
e. hematopoietic activity
A
b. collagen formation
24
Q
Which of the following is the most common co-infection of Gonorrhea?
a. Chlamydia
b. Syphilis
c. Trichomoniasis
d. HIV
e. all of the above
A
a. Chlamydia
25
The clinical presentation of hemophilia B is indistinguishable from hemophilia A. Which of the following best describes the laboratory method needed to distinguish these two conditions?
a. Bleeding time.
b. Assay of coagulation factor levels.
c. Assay of von Willebrand’s factor
d. Blood smear.
e. Platelet count.
b. Assay of coagulation factor levels.
26
The most common cause of death in diabetic patients is
a. Peripheral neuropathy
b. Pancreatic cancer
c. Cardiovascular disease
d. Kidney failure
e. Opportunistic infections
c. Cardiovascular disease
27
All but one is included in the clinical manifestations for nephrotic syndrome:
a. proteinuria
b. anasarca
c. hyperalbuminemia
d. lipiduria
e. hyperlipidemia
c. hyperalbuminemia❌
28
Which of the following is considered to be normal hemoglobin?
a. Hemoglobin A
b. Hemoglobin C
c. Hemoglobin H
d. Hemoglobin S
a. Hemoglobin A
29
The most common cause of osteomyelitis is
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Lactobacillus casei
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e. Escherichia coli
b. Staphylococcus aureus
30
Which of the following describes cells that are abnormal in appearance and may become premalignant?
a. Aplasia.
b. Dysplasia.
c. Karyomegaly.
d. Pleomorphism.
e. Metaplasia.
b. Dysplasia.
31
Adrenal cortical insufficiency with clinical manifestation of extreme weakness, low blood pressure, irregular melanin pigmentation of the oral mucosa and lips, and bronzing of the skin is known as:
a. Cushing’s syndrome
b. adrenogenital syndrome
c. aldosteronism
d. Addison’s disease
e. hyperadrenocorticism
d. Addison’s disease
32
This is the most common side effect of chemotherapy for cancer patients.
a. body malaise
b. altered consciousness
c. alopecia
d. hematochexia
e. tumor enlargement
c. alopecia
33
Which of the following is not true about acute inflammation?
a. onset is rapid
b. prominent signs and symptoms
c. cellular inifltrates are mainly macrophages
d. self- limited
e. usually mild
c. cellular inifltrates are mainly macrophages❌
cellular inifltrates are mainly NEUTROPHIL
34
The mumps virus is transferred in humans by:
a. food
b. feces
c. flies
d. wound infection
e. droplets of saliva
e. droplets of saliva
35
In patients with Dengue, stool should be monitored for bleeding. Black "tarry" feces that are associated with upper gastrointestinal bleeding is called:
a. Melena
b. Hematochezia
c. Malaise
d. Trismus
e. none of the above
a. Melena
36
What type of vaccine is used for Clostridium tetani?
a. Capsular polysaccharides.
b. Toxoids.
c. Killed bacteria.
d. Immunoglobulins.
e. No vaccine is available.
b. Toxoids.
37
Kidney stones (renal calculi) are a common complication in a patient with which disorder listed below?
a. Diabetes Mellitus
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Hypoparathyroidism
e. Hypopituitarism
c. Hyperparathyroidism
38
All of the following statements concerning infective endocarditis are true, except:
a. it is a bacterial infection of the endocardium and the heart valves
b. it can come on suddenly and become life- threatening within days or it can develop gradually over a period of weeks to several months
c. It is characterized by accumulation of bacteria and blood clots on the valves which can break loose and travel to vital organ where they can block arterial blood flow
d. aortic valve is most commonly affected
d. aortic valve is most commonly affected❌
TRICUSPID valve is most commonly affected
39
Which of the following infectious diseases has symptoms associated by the increased release of acetylcholine in the neuromuscular junction?
a. Tetanus
b. Rabies
c. Cholera
d. Encephalitis
e. Measles
a. Tetanus
40
Which of the following laboratory results may indicate myocardial infarction?
a. inverted P wave in ECG
b. decreased troponin levels
c. elevated serum CK-MB
d. prolonged PTT
e. bradycardia
c. elevated serum CK-MB
41
Angina Pectoris can be relieved by:
a. Nitroglycerin
b. rest
c. aspirin
d. a and b only
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
42
Type of anemia in which multipotent myeloid stem cells are suppressed, leading to bone marrow failure and pancytopenia (low levels of RBC, WBC and platelets) :
a. iron-deficiency
b. polycythemia
c. aplastic anemia
d. thalassemia
e. hemolytic anemia
c. aplastic anemia
43
During cell injury, this ion causes activation of enzymes that damage cellular components and may also trigger apoptosis.
a. Nitric oxide
b. calcium
c. sodium
d. carbon monoxide
e. potassium
b. calcium
44
All of the following are characteristics of gout,except:
a. Most often affects the joint at the base of the big toe
b. Higher incidence in women
c. Hard lumps of urate crystals are deposited under the skin around the joints
d. An abnormally high uric acid level in the blood
e. none of the above
f. The aortic valve is the most commonly involved.
g. none of the above
b. Higher incidence in women❌
45
Which of the following is the most common cause of subacute endocarditis?
a. Staphylococcus aureus.
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
c. Streptococcus viridans.
d. Streptococcus pyogenes.
e. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C. Streptococcus viridans.
NOTES:
ACUTE- Staphylococcus aureus.
SUBACUTE- Streptococcus viridans.
46
Which of the following is not TRUE with regard to cellular dysplasia?
a. It is nonmalignant cellular growth.
b. It involves atypical cells with invasion.
c. It is disorganized and structureless maturation and spatial arrangement of cells.
d. It can be caused by chronic irritation.
e. There is increased mitosis and pleomorphism
b. It involves atypical cells with invasion.❌
47
Bronchogenic carcinoma is a complication most characteristic of which of the following conditions?
a. Silicosis.
b. Asbestosis.
c. Anthracosis.
d. Sarcoidosis.
e. Bronchiectasis.
b. Asbestosis.
48
Tinea pedis, which is commonly known as athlete’s foot, is a fungal infection that is caused by the following dermatophyte(s):
a. Microsporum
b. Trichophyton
c. Epidermophyton
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C
f. Both Epidermophyton and Trichophyton can causetinea pedis.
e. Both B and C
49
Each of the following endocrine disorders can contribute to secondary hypertension EXCEPT
a. Cushing syndrome.
b. diabetes.
c. pheochromocytoma.
d. hypoaldosteronism.
e. hyperthyroidism.
d. hypoaldosteronism.❌
↓ SALT
↓ WATER
↓ BLOOD VOLUME
50
All of the following conditions are commonly associated with a group A, b- hemolytic streptococci infection except one. Which one is the exception?
a. Scarlet fever.
b. Toxic shock syndrome.
c. Pharyngitis.
d. Endocarditis.
e. Impetigo.
d. Endocarditis.❌
51
Bacteria that can satisfy their energy requirements by oxidation of substances not containing carbon are called:
A. Photoheterotrophs
B. Mesophiles
C. Saprophytes
D. Autotrophs
E. Thermotrophs
D. Autotrophs
NOTES:
Mesophiles- normal temperature (20-40 degree celcius)
Psychrophiles- below normal
Thermotrophs- above 40 degree celcius
Saprophytes- decaying
52
The genus Clostridium is distinguished from the genus Bacillus primarily in the former is:
A. Aerobic
B. Anaerobic
C. Parasitic
D. A spore-former
E. A coccus
B. Anaerobic
53
The bacterial lag phase
i. is required for microbial adaptation to a new environment
ii.is dependent on the size of the inoculum, within limits
iii. is the phase in which the number of organisms actively dividing equals the number of organisms lysing
iv. may be prolonged by certain antibiotics
v.immediately follows the phase of exponential growth
A. i, ii, iv
B. ii, iii, iv
C. i, ii, v
D. ii, iv, v
E. i, iii, v
A. i, ii, iv
54
Obligate anaerobic bacteria
A. Require oxygen for growth
B. All contain catalase
C. Are killed in the presence of oxygen
D. Produce spores that cannot tolerate the presence of oxygen
C. Are killed in the presence of oxygen
55
The site of protein synthesis in a bacterium is (are) the
A. DNA
B. Mesosomes
C. Polyribosomes
D. Metachromatic granules
E. Desmosomes
C. Polyribosomes
56
In the logarithmic growth phase of a bacterial culture, rate of multiplication
A. Is zero
B. Equals death rate
C. Exceeds death rate
D. Is less than the death rate
C. Exceeds death rate
NOTES:
LAG: 0
LOG: GROWTH > DEATH
STATIONARY: GROWTH = DEATH
DEATH: GROWTH < DEATH
57
The presence of capsule on a bacterium is thought to inhibit:
A. Protein synthesis
B. Phagocytosis
C. Antibiotic activity
D. Penetration of ethylene oxide
E. Bacterial pathogenicity
B. Phagocytosis
58
Ethylene oxide is an agent that
A. Sanitizes
B. Is antiseptic
C. Cleanses
D. Sterilizes
E. Disinfects
D. Sterilizes
59
Glutaraldehydes are effective against:
A. Gram positive bacteria
B. Acid-fast bacilli
C. Spores
D. Gram-negative bacteria
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
60
The form of bacterial genetic transfer which is susceptible to DNase and does not require cell- to-cell contact
A. Cell attachment
B. Conjugation
C. Transformation
D. Transduction
C. Transformation
NOTES:
TransDUCTion- macrophage
61
The control of bubonic plague is related mainly to a decrease in the population of
A. Rats
B. Cows
C. Rabbits
D. Flies
E. None of the above
A. Rats
62
Which of the following do not contain both DNA and RNA?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Rickettsiae
D. Viruses
E. B and D
D. Viruses
63
Generally speaking, rickettsial infections are characterized by:
A. Fever
B. Headaches
C. Skin rash
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
D. All of the above
64
Considering nuclear structure which of the following microorganisms is most closely related to mammalian cells?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Rickettsiae
D. Viruses
B. Fungi
65
Scarlet fever is an acute disease caused by:
A. Toxin released by Viridans streptococci
B. Salmonella typhosa with endotoxin release
C. Group A streptococci releasing erythrogenic toxin
D. A mixture of streptococci and staphylococci with coagulase production
C. Group A streptococci releasing erythrogenic toxin
66
Typhus fevers are a result of infection with agents classified as
A. Fungi
B. Viruses
C. Bacteria
D. Protozoa
E. Rickettsiae
E. Rickettsiae
67
Varicella (chickenpox) virus belongs in which of the following groups?
A. Herpesvirus
B. Poxvirus
C. Papovavirus
D. Adenovirus
E. Coxsackievirs
A. Herpesvirus
68
Which of the following genera of fungus disease is not readily transmitted from human to human?
A. Epidermophyton
B. Microsporum
C. Histoplasma
D. Trichophyton
C. Histoplasma
69
Which of the following microorganisms is not involved in food-borne disease in man?
A. Candida albicans
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Salmonella enteritidis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Trichinella spiralis
A. Candida albicans
70
Bacteria classified as spirochetes include which of the following genera?
i. Borrelia
ii. Clostridium
iii. Leptospira
iv. Treponema
v. Fusobacterium
A. i, iii, iv
B. ii, iii, iv
C. ii, iv, v
D. i, ii, v
E. i, iv
A. i, iii, iv
71
Hairlike filaments extending from bacterial cells are called:
A. Pili
B. Fimbrae
C. Cilia
D. All of the above
E. Both a and b
A. Pili
NOTES:
Fimbrae- microvilli (brush-like)
Pili (hair-like)
72
Heat-sensitive materials such as plastic retractors and rubber base appliances may be sterilized by means of
A. Quaternary ammonium compounds
B. Ethylene oxide
C. Ethyl alcohol
D. Autoclaving
E. None of the above
B. Ethylene oxide
73
The efficiency of disinfectants depends upon
A. Concentration of microorganisms
B. Concentration of disinfectant
C. Length of exposure time
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
D. All of the above
74
The component of the bacterial cell that functions as an osmotic permeability barrier is the
A. Cytoplasmic membrane
B. Cell wall
C. Capsule
D. Lipopolysaccharide
E. Teichoic acid
A. Cytoplasmic membrane
75
Bacteria whose optimum temperature for growth is 15 to 20 degrees Celsius have been termed as
A. Autotrophs
B. Mesophiles
C. Chemotrophs
D. Psychrophiles
E. None of the above
D. Psychrophiles
NOTES:
Mesophiles- normal temperature (20-40 degree celcius)
Psychrophiles- below normal
Thermotrophs- above 40 degree celcius
Saprophytes- decaying
76
Capsules play important roles in all of the following diseases, except:
A. Haemophilus meningitis
B. Cryptococcoses
C. Gonorrhea
D. Pneumococcal pneumonia
E. Meningococcemia
C. Gonorrhea❌
77
Lactobacillus species are:
A. Gram-negative rods that tend to form clusters
B. Gram-negative cocci that tend to form clusters
C. Gram-positive cocci that tend to form chains
D. Gram-positive rods that tend to form chains
D. Gram-positive rods that tend to form chains
78
Most members of the herpesviruses have an affinity for __ cells.
A. Ectodermal
B. Endodermal
C. Mesodermal
D. Bony
E. Both b and d
A. Ectodermal
79
The biologic product that is commonly used for artificial active immunization against tetanus is
A. Tetanus toxoid
B. Tetanus exotoxin
C. Tetanus endotoxin
D. Tetanus antitoxin
E. Heat-killed Clostridium tetani
A. Tetanus toxoid
80
Enterotoxin responsible for food intoxication is most often produced by
A. Enterococci
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Diplococcus pneumoniae
D. B-hemolytic st
B. Staphylococcus aureus
81
The cellular organelles which may be characterized as being numerous during mitosis and serving as the cytoskeleton when present in intermitotic cells are:
A. the Golgi apparatus
B. microtubules
C. mitochondria
D. nucleoli
B. microtubules
82
What distinguishes cartilage from most other connective tissues?
A. Its extracellular matrix is rich in collagen.
B. Its predominant cell type is mesenchymal derivative.
C. Its predominant cell type secretes both fibers and proteoglycans.
D. It lacks blood vessels.
E. It functions in mechanical support
D. It lacks blood vessels.
83
Epithelial surface variations whose primary purpose is to increase functional surface area are:
A. cilia
B. flagella
C. microvilli
D. macrovilli
E. all of the above
C. microvilli
84
Neurons that have a single process extending from the cell body and divides into two branches:
A. Pseudo-unipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Multipolar
D. Monopolar
E. none of the above
A. Pseudo-unipolar
NOTES:
COUNT: # of projections or process from the body
85
The mitochondria, as cell organelles (are)
I. involved in cell respiration
II. constant in shape and size in different cells
III. more numerous in metabolically active cells
IV. active in producing protein for export from the cell
V. contain internal shelf-like cristae
A. i
B. i, ii, v
C. i, iii, v
D. ii, iv
E. iii, iv
C. i, iii, v
I. involved in cell respiration
III. more numerous in metabolically active cells
V. contain internal shelf-like cristae
86
Dense regular connective tissue typically involves which of the following features?
A. Contains mostly synthetically active fibroblasts
B. contains much ground substance
C. contains similar cell population as areolar connective tissue
D. predominantly tissue type in the stroma of most organs
E. predominantly located in tendons and ligaments
E. predominantly located in tendons and ligaments
87
Which of the following is a characteristic of the chromatophilic material called Nissl substance in neural tissue?
A. Found throughout neurons
B. site of mRNA translation for proteins of the axolemma
C. Most abundant in unipolar neurons
D. Becomes more abundant as an individual gets older
E. An example of intermediate filament protein
B. site of mRNA translation for proteins of the axolemma
88
The embryo develops specifically from the _____.
A. The entire blastocyst
B. The entire trophoblast
C. The embryonic disc
D. The extraembryonic coelem
E. The morula
C. The embryonic disc
89
The folding of the embryo during the fourth week is the result of the:
A. prominent growth of the neural tissues
B. development of umbilical arteries
C. development of the brachial arches
D. twisting of the developing heart
E. none of the above
A. prominent growth of the neural tissues (skin)
90
Which of the following types of tissue has a correct pair of its characteristic?
A. Nervous – has abundant amount of extracellular matrix
B. Epithelial – mainly for body movement
C. Muscle – aggregated contractile polyhedral cells
D. Connective – fixed and wandering cells
E. Skeletal – has small amount of extracellular matrix
D. Connective – fixed and wandering cells
NOTES:
Nervous – has SMALL amount of extracellular matrix
Epithelial- aggregated polyhedral cells
Muscle – aggregated contractile ELONGATED cells
Connective – fixed and wandering cells
Skeletal – has ABUNDANT amount of extracellular matrix
NEM Co
Least abundant to most abundant
91
The mucosal lining of the paranasal sinus is:
A. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
B. Stratified squamous epithelium
C. Columnar epithelium
D. Squamous epithelium
A. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
92
The cell component that is genetically continuous from one cell generation to the next is:
A. nuclear membrane
B. Golgi complex
C. central bodies
D. chromatin
D. chromatin
93
Epithelial tissue composed of multiple of cells that are cuboidal in the basal layer and progressively flattened toward surface.
A. Simple Cuboidal
B. Stratified Cuboidal
C. Stratified Squamous
D. Transitional
E. Pseudostratified Columnar
C. Stratified Squamous
94
Which of the following has a correct germ layer origin?
A. All bones – mesoderm
B. nephron – endoderm
C. neuron – ectoderm
D. tooth enamel – endoderm
E. liver – mesoderm
C. neuron – ectoderm
95
Embryologically, the spinal autonomic ganglia are derived from:
A. the neural crest
B. the neural tube
C. cranial placodes
D. all of the above
A. the neural crest
96
In the choroid plexus, water from capillaries is transported directly into the cerebrospinal fluid by what structures?
A. ependyma
B. astrocytes
C. cells of the arachnoid matter
D. lining of the central canal
E. microglial cells
A. ependyma
97
With a 5-year history of chronic respiratory infections, a 23-year-old, non-smoking man is referred to an otolaryngologist. A bronchial biopsy indicates altered structures in the epithelial cells. Which of the following if altered to reduce function, is most likely involved in this patient’s condition?
A. Hemidesmosomes
B. Cilia
C. Basolateral cell membrane folds
D. Microvilli
E. Tight junctions
B. Cilia
98
Which of the following statements does not apply to mitochondria?
A. contain lipid droplets
B. are found in ann nucleated cells
C. can be stained in living cells
D. show cristae in electron micrographs
A. contain lipid droplets❌
99
Thin myofilaments and thick myofilaments are observed in the masseter muscle in EM preparations. The thick filaments __.
A. consist of actin
B. are present in the I band
C. are crossed by the Z disk
D. are present only in the A band
E. consist of both actin and myosin
D. are present only in the A band
100
A 5-year old boy sustains a small tear in his gastrocnemius muscle when he is involved in a bicycle accident. Regeneration of the muscle will occur through which of the following mechanisms?
A. Dedifferentiation of muscle cells into myoblasts
B. Differentiation of muscle satellite cells
C. Fusion of damaged myofibers to form new myotubes
D. Hyperplasia of existing muscle fibers
E. Differentiation of fibroblasts to form myoblasts
B. Differentiation of muscle satellite cells (REGENERATION)
101
In endochondral ossification the weakened, midshaft of the cartilage model is
A. supported by new bone laid down on the spicules within the marrow cavity
B. supported by a bony collar laid down around the midshaft by the periosteum
C. compensated by proliferation of cartilage in the center of the cartilage model
D. strengthened by the strong periosteum investing the model
B. supported by a bony collar laid down around the midshaft by the periosteum
102
Using immunohistochemistry a population of cells is shown to be positive for the protein connexin. From this we can infer that the cells are connected by what type of junction?
A. Tight (occluding) junctions
B. Zonula adherens
C. Gap junctions
D. Hemidesmosomes
E. Desmosomes (Macula Adherens)
C. Gap junctions
103
Which of the following cellular features is used in naming types of epithelia?
A. shape of cells in the basal layer
B. number of cell layers
C. presence of a basal lamina
D. size of the nuclei
E. nature of the cell junctions that are present
B. number of cell layers
104
Cytoplasmic ribonucleic acid is localized in:
A. granular endoplasmic reticulum
B. the Golgi apparatus
C. mitochondria
D. lysosomes
A. granular endoplasmic reticulum
NOTES:
NUCLEOLUS- NUCLEAR RNA
ROUGH ER- Cytoplasmic RNA
105
Examples of types of dense collagenous connective tissues include:
I. tendon
II. Ligament
III. Aponeurosis
IV. Adipose tissue
V. Pigment tissue
A. i, ii, iii
B. i, ii, iii, v
C. i, ii, v
D. iii, iv
E. all of the above
A. i, ii, iii
I. tendon
II. Ligament
III. Aponeurosis
106
Which of the following are NOT derived from mesoderm? Select all that apply.
i. heart
ii. Vessels
iii. lung
iv. Bone
v. spleen
vi. Kidney
vii. Liver
viii. Dura mater
A. i, ii, v
B. iii, vi, vii
C. v, vii
D. iii, vii
E. iii, vi
D. iii, vii
iii. Lung (from ENDODERM)
vii. Liver (from ENDODERM)
107
A 35-year-old woman presents with weakness and spasticity in lower left extremity, visual impairment and throbbing in the left eye, difficulties with balance, fatigue and malaise. There is an increase in cerebrospinal fluid protein, elevated gamma globulin, and moderate pleocytosis. MRI confirms areas of demyelination in the anterior corpus callosum. Imaging identifies plaques which are hyperintense on T2-weighted and fluid attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) images, and hypointense on T1-wighter scans. Which of the following cells are specifically targeted in her condition?
A. Microglia
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Astrocytes
D. Schwann cells
E. Multipolar
B. Oligodendrocytes
108
The Golgi apparatus is vital to cell function because it is responsible for production of
A. RNA for the cell
B. protein for export from the cell
C. protein for cell maintenance
D. packaging for protein export from the cell
D. packaging for protein export from the cell
109
Ependymal cells constitute the tissue that _____.
A. lines the choroid plexus
B. lines the ventricles of the heart
C. forms a part of the peripheral neuroglia
D. covers nerve cell bodies in ganglion
E. all of the above
A. lines the choroid plexus
110
Urinary bladder differs from gallbladder in that urinary bladder:
A. is lined with transitional epithelium and gallbladder is lined with simple columnar epithelium
B. has a mucosal layer and gallbladder has no mucosal layer
C. can be stretched and gallbladder cannot be stretched
D. contains smooth muscle and gallbladder contains no smooth muscle
E. cannot be stretched and gallbladder can be stretche
A. is lined with transitional epithelium and gallbladder is lined with simple columnar epithelium
