Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

72-600 > Power Plant > Flashcards

Power Plant Flashcards

(77 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Aircraft fitted with:

A

– two Pratt & Whitney PW 127 M

– two, six blades propellers (Hamilton)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

LOW PRESSURE and HIGH PRESSURE COMPRESSORS are the … type

A

Centrifugal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

LOW PRESSURE and HIGH PRESSURE TURBINES are the … type

A

Axial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

FF is electronically controlled by a stepper motor located on the … and is managed by the …

A
  • HMU/ EEC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

REDUCTION GEAR BOX

These equipments are fitted on the RGB:

A
  • the ACW generator
  • the Propeller Valve Module (PVM) controlled by the PEC
  • the propeller pump (HP) and overspeed
    governor
  • the auxiliary feathering pump
  • the propeller brake (on RH engine only)
  • FCOC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ACCESSORY GEAR BOX (located at the top of the engine) driven by the HP spool, drives the:

A
  • the DC starter/generator
  • the HP fuel pump
  • the engine oil pumps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The COMBUSTION CHAMBER is the … type

A

ANNULAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

RTO (Reserve Take Off) (maximum power), used in case of an engine flame out during take off (up trim) or in case of go-around (ramp)

A

2750 SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MCT (Maximum continuous)

A

2500 SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

TO (Take Off 0,9 RTO)

A

2475 SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Climb

A

2192 SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cruise

A

2132 SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Power (PWR) =

A

Torque (TQ) x NP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Power setting is characterized by constant …

A

Power lever (PL) and condition lever (CL) positions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The EEC (Engine Electronic Control) controls the …

A

Fuel flow to the engine, with input coming from the PWR MGT and the position of the PL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PL’s to the WALL, TQ up to …

A

115%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PL’s to the RAMP, TQ up to …

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The PEC (Propeller Engine Control) controls the … using input from …

A

NP (propeller speed) by changing the blades angle / the PWR MGT and the position of the CL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CL on 100% OVRD the NP is at …

A

100%, regardless of the PWR MGT position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

With the CL’s in the AUTO position …

A
  • Blade angle governing mode. The NP is regulated by the PEC (Blade angle change).
  • PWR MGT in:
    TO → NP = 100%
    MCT → NP = 100%
    CLB → NP = 82%
    CRZ → NP = 82%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

On FTR (Feather position) the fuel governing mode is …

A

cancelled (No ACW generator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

TQ values:

  • RTO
  • TO
  • MCT
A
  • RTO = 100%
  • TO = 90%
  • MCT = 90.9%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

TORQUE ind. (DC EMER)

A

2 probes located on the reduction gear box shafts
sends signal to the AFU (Auto Feathering Unit) and to
the EEC (Engine Electronic Control) which supply the
torque indicator.
The AFU controls the pointer and the EEC controls the
digital display.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

NP ind.

A

DC ESS from 0 to 120%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
ITT ind.
``` (DC ESS) from 0 to 1200°C Red point: 20’’ max Red point + S: 5’’max on start H: limite for hotel mode operation ```
26
ITT ind. ALERT
ALERT When ITT > 800°C or 715°C in hotel mode Lt CAP
27
OIL LOW PRESS Lt
40 PSI
28
CRANK means ...
dry motoring (no ignition)
29
STARTER - ON
Starter engaged. At 45% NH, light goes off and the starter is disconnected
30
STARTER - FAULT
``` Illuminates when: - remains ON with NH >45% or - GCU failure during start or - starter failure or - ENG 2 only: ENG START selector on start position + PROP BRK ON + GUST lock not engaged ```
31
MAN IGN ON
``` Continuous ignition (both A and B exciters). Memo panel light. ```
32
PROP BREAK READY
engagement or disengagement conditions are met: – A/C on ground – gust lock engaged – CL on FTR or FUEL S/O – blue hyd press available on the prop brake input >2100psi – Fire handle not pulled
33
PROP BRAKE UNLOCK
``` PROP BRAKE not fully locked or not fully released. Alarm after 15 sec. Also used to check lock/unlock time: – 5 sec. to unlock – 10 sec. to lock ```
34
START A OR B
- On ground, only exciter A or B is supllied (except for the position A and B) - In flight regardless of start selection (A, B or A+B) both exciters are energized
35
ATPCS
– ARM on ground = uptrim + auto FTR (2.15’’ delay) | – ARM in flight (In case of go around) = auto FTR only
36
LO PITCH ..
< 8 deg blade angle
37
UP TRIM
signal sent to respective eng during ATPCS sequence. | Eng power = RTO
38
ATPCS TRIGGER
- one TQ below 18% | Cancel: PWR MGT out of TO or ATPCS pb OFF or at least one PL retarded below 49° or both TQ
39
EEC FAULT flashing
EEC failure. The fuel flow is frozen to maintain the power - FAULT steady: EEC failure, HMU base law = reversion - FAULT flashing, never deselect the EEC. Retard first, the PL in the green sector (FAULT become steady: PL
40
PEC SGL CH illuminates when ...
one channel is lost (2’’ for self test when advancing CL from FTR to AUTO)
41
PEC FAULT illuminates when ...
both PEC channels are lost. CAP
42
PEC OFF
PEC is deactivated and NP is limited at 102,5% if power is sufficient
43
IDLE GATE FAIL light illuminates amber
does not engage automatically in flight or does not retract at landing
44
The propeller pitch is controlled by the ...
- PVM (Propeller Valve Module) | - Overspeed Governor
45
PLs control the ... through the ...
FF / HMU
46
CLs control the ...
HMU HP fuel shut-off valve and propeller rotation speed
47
ATPCS ...
Automatic Take-off Power Control System
48
In case of engine flame-out at TO, the ATPCS ...
Uptrims the live engine by 10%, and autofeathers the dead one (the system is fully available at TO)
49
In landing the ATPCS is partially available ... , provided that ...
- Autofeather only | - PWR MGT is set on TO
50
BOOST function ...
Provides a power increase by increasing the engine thermal limit in TO and MCTsince mechanical limit remains the same
51
The power increase from the BOOST function is ... in TO and ... in MCT
- 4.5% up to 4000 FT and 4% above 4000 FT | - 4%
52
Besides the additional power delivered, the BOOST function can also ...
Increase the Drift Down performance when en-route obstacles exist
53
Number of fuel nozzles ...
14
54
The speed reduction in the RGB is obtained in ... stages
2
55
EEC regulates a given ... , by contolling the stepper motor, to obtain a predicted TQ as a function of ...
- PLs - PWR MGT selection - Flight conditions - Position of the Bleed Valves
56
EEC ensures ...
Minimum propeller speed, on ground and at low power
57
In case of an engine flame-out at TO, the EEC delivers .... by responding to the signal generated by the ...
- Up-trim on the live engine | - AFU (Auto-Feather Unit) on the failed engine
58
It controls the opening of the ... so as to ensure correct LP compressor operation
HBV (Handling Bleed Valve)
59
HMU has 2 functions :
- Meter the FF delivered to the engine | - Supply the Engine Feed Jet Pump
60
FCOC (Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler) provides cooling of the ...
RGB lubricating oil, by using fuel as a cooling source
61
Oil tank capacity ...
14.4 L
62
Pressure and temperature probes for the oil are located on the ...
AGB
63
The igniter plugs are situated at ... o'clock in the combustion chamber
4 and 8
64
In-flight start uses (exciters) ...
Bot A+B, regardless of the selection
65
In case of NH drop below 60% ...
Both exciters A+B are automatically activated, except when : - NH < 30% - EEC is OFF - CL is on FTR or FSO - on the failed engine in case of the ATPCS sequence
66
PVM is ... and does ...
- Propeller Valve Module | - Blade angle and speed governing controls
67
PEC is ... and does ...
- Propeller Engine Control | - Dual channel electronic box which provides close loop control over the propeller pitch change system
68
Propeller speed is calculated by the PEC via ...
The EEC (altitude/airspeed) and NP sensors
69
TO INHIB activates when the PL are at or above ... and inhibits ...
- Notch | - All Oil and Smoke alerts
70
PIU ...
Propeller Interface Unit | Is located in the cockpit and is the interface between the cockpit and the PEC
71
At start, on the ITT indicator a red ... appears, meaning ... DEG
- "S" (ITT upper limit) | - 950 DEG
72
In Hotel Mode, on the ITT indicator a red ... appears, meaning ... DEG
- "H" | - 715 DEG
73
Maximum propeller RPM ...
1200
74
Maximum HP compressor RPM (NH) ...
3300
75
During start, when NH reaches ... % the DC starter disconnects. Between ... % and ... % there is a cooling period. After ... % the DC generator starts
- 45% - 45-61.5% - 61.5%
76
During a cross-start, the active DC GEN assists between ... % and ... %
- 10-45%
77
ERIU ...
Engine Rating Interface Unit

72-600 (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions