Power Transmission & Lubrication Flashcards

(78 cards)

1
Q

Single phasing occurs in a motor when:
A. Two wires are reversed
B. A motor is shut off
C. A motor is turned on
D. A motor starts up

A

A. Two wires are reversed

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2
Q
  1. Balancing has greatest effect on:
    A. Lubrication
    B. Conduction
    C. Temperature
    D. Vibration
A

Answer: D. Vibration

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3
Q
A

Answer: C

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4
Q

If gear X has 5 teeth and is powered by a motor in which it rotates at 100 rpm, idler gear Y has 10 teeth, and output gear Z has 20 teeth — what is the rpm of gear Z?
A. 400 rpm
B. 100 rpm
C. 50 rpm
D. 25 rpm

A

Answer: D. 25 rpm

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5
Q

What should be done 24 hours after installation of a V-belt?
A. Loosen slightly
B. Tighten as much as possible
C. Nothing
D. Re-tension.

A

D. Re-tension

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6
Q

Three types of roller bearings are ___________.
A. Staggard, tapered, cylindrical.
B. Tapered, cylindrical, barrel
C. Long , needle, ball
D. Slip, tapered, needle

A

B. Tapered, cylindrical, barrel

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7
Q

Infrared analysis is commonly used to detect ___________ in mechanical devices.
A. Gasses
B. Temperatures.
C. Sizes
D. Pressures

A

B. Temperatures

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8
Q

Which is a self-lubricating sleave bushing?
A. Slip
B. Greased
C. Oil
D. Sintered bronze.

A

D. Sintered bronze

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9
Q

Uneven wear in gears is most commonly caused by ____________.
A. Contaminated lubrication.
B. Misalignment
C. Improper lubricant

A

B. Misalignment

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10
Q

Bearing life is most affected by __________.
A. Weight
B. Temperature.
C. Size
D. Type

A

B. Temperature

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11
Q

Purpose of thrust bearing is ____________.
A. Axial load .
B. Radial load
C. Cylinder load
D. Weight load

A

A. Axial load

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12
Q

Which type of bearing is designed primarily to support radial loads?
A) Thrust bearing
B) Needle bearing
C) Ball bearing
D) Tapered roller bearing

A

C) Ball bearing

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13
Q

A worn bearing is most likely to cause which of the following symptoms?
A) Low voltage
B) Shaft misalignment
C) Excess lubrication
D) Circuit overload

A

B) Shaft misalignment

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14
Q

What is the primary function of a bearing?
A) Convert electrical signals to mechanical movement
B) Support rotating parts and reduce friction
C) Measure pressure in hydraulic systems
D) Prevent electrical shorts

A

B) Support rotating parts and reduce friction

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15
Q

Which of the following bearings is best suited for high-speed applications?
A) Plain sleeve bearing
B) Tapered roller bearing
C) Deep groove ball bearing
D) Thrust bearing

A

C) Deep groove ball bearing

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16
Q

Which bearing type uses rolling elements between inner and outer races to reduce friction?
A) Bushing
B) Ball bearing
C) Plain bearing
D) Linear guide

A

B) Ball bearing

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17
Q

What is the likely result of over-lubricating a bearing?
A) Extended lifespan
B) Increased heat buildup and failure
C) Reduced vibration
D) No effect

A

B) Increased heat buildup and failure

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18
Q

What tool is commonly used to install or remove a bearing without causing damage?
A) Crescent wrench
B) Slide hammer
C) Bearing puller
D) Pipe cutter

A

C) Bearing puller

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19
Q

What is the term for the space between a bearing and its housing?
A) Backlash
B) Clearance
C) Tolerance
D) Seat gap

A

B) Clearance

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20
Q
A

Answer: A. 25 kg

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21
Q

Gear X driven by a chain with 20 teeth runs at 10 rpm, what rate does gear Y rotate at if gear Y has 10 teeth?
A. 100 rpm
B. 20 rpm
C. 10 rpm
D. 5 rpm

A

Answer: B. 20 rpm

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22
Q

In a diesel engine, fuel oil is injected into the cylinder at the end of:
A.) The intake stroke
B.) The compression stroke
C.) The power stroke
D.) The exhaust stroke

A

B.) The compression stroke

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23
Q

In an internal combustion engine, which efficiency measures the airflow in the engine?
A.) Volumetric
B.) Thermal
C.) Mechanical
D.) Electrical

A

A.) Volumetric

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24
Q

A diesel engine ignites the air/fuel mixture from:
A.) The heat of compression
B.) A spark plug
C.) The fuel injection
D.) Exhaust from the prior cylinder burn

A

A.) The heat of compression

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25
The object that is the foundation of the internal combustion engine and the point to which all other parts are attached is called the: A.) Piston B.) Crankshaft C.) Cylinders D.) Cylinder Block
D.) Cylinder Block
26
In threading a rod, the proper tool to use is: A.) A Reamer B.) A Bit C.) A Tap D.) A Die
D.) A Die
27
In threading a hole, the proper tool to use is: A.) A Reamer B.) A Bit C.) A Tap D.) A Die
C.) A Tap
28
Which device controls the pressure of the oil directly from the Oil Pump? A.) Oil Relief Valve B.) Oil Regulator Valve C.) Oil By-Pass Valve D.) Oil Pump Control Valve
A.) Oil Relief Valve
29
The additive put into oil to help polish moving parts is called a/an ________________ additive. A.) Anti-Scuff B.) Anti-Dispersant C.) Anti-Wear D.) Anti-Oxidation
C.) Anti-Wear
30
An SAE 90 Gear Oil is: A.) Less viscous than SAE 50 Motor Oil B.) More viscous than SAE 50 Motor Oil C.) More viscous than SAE 140 Gear Oil D.) Less viscous than SAE 30 Motor Oil
B.) More viscous than SAE 50 Motor Oil
31
What lubricant should be used to service Wheel Bearings? A.) Regular Chassis Grease B.) 90 Weight Gear Oil C.) Silicon Grease D.) None of the above
A.) Regular Chassis Grease
32
When hydrocarbons combine with oxygen in the oil, the process is called _________________ . A.) Oil Oxidation B.) Organic Acid Oxidation C.) Oxidation Inhibitor D.) None
A.) Oil Oxidation
33
Extreme Pressure, or Hypoid Gear Oils are compounded with additives: A.) To increase viscosity B.) To provide anti-score protection C.) To make them water repellant D.) To provide lubrication
B.) To provide anti-score protection
34
When installing a Thermostat into an Engine’s Cooling System, the Temperature-Sensitive Valve on a Thermostat should always be placed toward the _______________ side of the Engine. A.) Hot side B.) Right Side C.) Left Side D.) Cold side
A.) Hot side
35
Which two deposits build up inside the Engine’s Cooling System? A.) Calcium and water B.) Silicate and rust C.) Calcium and silicate D.) Water and rust
C.) Calcium and silicate
36
In an Internal Combustion Lift Truck that uses an Alternator to charge the Battery, if when connecting the Battery the Technician reverses the Polarity of the Battery Cables: A.) The Engine won’t Crank to Start B.) The Engine will kick back on Start Up C.) The Rectifier Diodes will be irreparably damaged D.) The Engine will Stall at High Speeds
C.) The Rectifier Diodes will be irreparably damaged
37
Which one of the following is the most important requirement of a bearing? A. Reduce noise B. Increase friction C. Support loads D. Resist fatigue Answer: C. Support loads
C. Support loads
38
An anti-friction bearing uses ______ friction. A. Rolling B. Dynamic C. Static D. Sliding
A. Rolling B. Dynamic C. Static D. Sliding
39
What is the usual cause of overheating in high-speed, grease-lubricated antifriction bearings? A) Excessive grease quantity B) Faulty mounting practices C) Low ambient temperature D) Over-speed operation
A) Excessive grease quantity
40
How can too much wear in gears be reduced? A) Changing direction frequently B) Increasing shaft diameter C) Using thicker oil D) Proper meshing
D) Proper meshing
41
Why are timing belts made with teeth? A) For tension regulation B) To increase flexibility C) To avoid slipping D) For easier removal
C) To avoid slipping
42
The insert, or spider, used in flexible jaw couplings is meant to: A) Dampen noise only B) Lubricate the coupling C) Transmit torque and accept misalignment D) Stop backlash completely
C) Transmit torque and accept misalignment
43
Clutches on machinery provide for disengaging and may also: A) Increase speed automatically B) Change motor frequency C) Interrupt the power supply D) Prevent shaft misalignment
C) Interrupt the power supply
44
What determines the selection of gear reducer size? A) Mounting location and enclosure B) Torque and speed C) Type of gear oil D) Temperature range
B) Torque and speed
45
Why do metal parts seize when there is a lack of lubrication? A) Electrostatic discharge buildup B) Thermal expansion mismatch C) Metal-to-metal contact D) Fatigue wear
C) Metal-to-metal contact
46
What causes lubrication oil to become milky? A) Incorrect viscosity rating B) Oil overheating C) Mixing incompatible oils or contamination D) Air bubbles
C) Mixing incompatible oils or contamination
47
Why are heavy oils used in machinery? A) Reduce cooling demand B) Prevent cavitation C) Reduce friction from heat and wear D) Increase rotation speed
C) Reduce friction from heat and wear
48
What is viscosity? A) Amount of heat transferred B) Resistance of a liquid to flow C) Amount of air dissolved in fluid D) Rate of evaporation of lubricant
B) Resistance of a liquid to flow
49
When installing a new conveyor belt, what should you always check before tensioning? A) The belt color B) The manufacturer's logo is visible C) The belt is properly aligned and centered D) The conveyor motor is off
C) The belt is properly aligned and centered
50
What is the primary purpose of using take-up pulleys in a conveyor system? A) To reduce noise B) To tighten and adjust belt tension C) To guide the belt D) To increase belt speed
B) To tighten and adjust belt tension
51
Before splicing a conveyor belt, what is the most critical step? A) Coating the splice with grease B) Cleaning and preparing the ends of the belt C) Measuring the belt’s thickness D) Removing all rollers
B) Cleaning and preparing the ends of the belt
52
Which method is commonly used to join conveyor belts during installation? A) Plastic welding B) Vulcanizing C) Threading D) Brazing
B) Vulcanizing
53
When should you check for belt tracking during conveyor installation? A) After 100 hours of run time B) Before installing rollers C) While the belt is running under load D) During the first few test runs
D) During the first few test runs
54
What happens if a conveyor belt is over-tensioned during installation? A) It will run faster B) It will create excess vibration C) It may stretch and wear prematurely D) It will improve tracking
C) It may stretch and wear prematurely
55
Which tool is commonly used to ensure the conveyor belt is straight and square during installation? A) Vernier caliper B) Level C) Steel square D) Torque wrench
C) Steel square
56
A conveyor belt that consistently drifts to one side may indicate: A) Low voltage to the motor B) Uneven pulley alignment or frame distortion C) The belt is too new D) The rollers are spinning too fast
B) Uneven pulley alignment or frame distortion
57
How much slack should typically be left in a conveyor belt before tensioning it? A) 1 inch B) 10% of belt length C) Just enough to connect both ends D) Enough to slip off the pulley
C) Just enough to connect both ends
58
Why should you allow a conveyor belt to run for 15–30 minutes after initial installation? A) To warm up the rollers B) To let it stretch before final tensioning C) To increase motor RPM D) To heat-cure the splice
B) To let it stretch before final tensioning
59
What is the first step when removing an old conveyor belt? A) Release all belt tension B) Remove the drive pulley C) Cut the belt in half D) Turn off the conveyor light
A) Release all belt tension
60
Which tool is commonly used to disconnect a mechanical belt fastener? A) Screwdriver B) Torque wrench C) Belt lacing tool or splicing pliers D) Pipe wrench
C) Belt lacing tool or splicing pliers
61
Before cutting and removing a belt, what safety precaution must be taken? A) Ensure the belt is wet B) Lockout/tagout the system C) Check the motor RPM D) Release the counterweights
B) Lockout/tagout the system
62
How should a used conveyor belt be disposed of? A) Leave it on the ground B) Burn it C) Follow facility disposal or recycling protocol D) Throw it in regular trash
C) Follow facility disposal or recycling protocol
63
During belt installation, how should the new belt be fed into position? A) By pulling it over the frame B) By wrapping it over the drive roller only C) By rotating the drive pulley manually D) By pulling it through with the old belt or manual force
D) By pulling it through with the old belt or manual force
64
Which method is best for aligning the new belt before tensioning? A) Use a chalk line or centerline markers B) Push it by hand from side to side C) Twist the belt slightly D) Check the temperature
A) Use a chalk line or centerline markers
65
When securing a new conveyor belt with mechanical fasteners, what’s important? A) Use as few fasteners as possible B) Leave a gap between belt ends C) Align both belt ends squarely and evenly D) Soak the belt in oil first
C) Align both belt ends squarely and evenly
66
After installing a new belt, why should the system be run without load initially? A) To avoid overheating the motor B) To check for proper tracking and stretching C) To calibrate the timer D) To let the oil settle
B) To check for proper tracking and stretching
67
Which of the following can cause premature wear on a newly installed conveyor belt? A) Proper tension B) Misaligned rollers C) No load D) Flat pulley lagging
B) Misaligned rollers
68
If a new conveyor belt is too short to install easily, what should you do? A) Stretch it forcibly B) Remove the head pulley C) Adjust the take-up pulley or tensioners to their minimum position D) Soak it in hot water
C) Adjust the take-up pulley or tensioners to their minimum position
69
Which of the following can be directly controlled by a VFD to achieve smooth motor starting? A) Motor voltage B) Motor current C) Motor speed and torque D) Motor resistance
C) Motor speed and torque
70
What happens if a VFD is set to a frequency higher than the motor’s rated frequency? A) The motor speed will decrease B) The motor will run at a constant speed C) The motor will run faster than its rated speed D) The motor will stop
C) The motor will run faster than its rated speed
71
Which of the following protective features is commonly included in a VFD? A) Protection against mechanical shock B) Overvoltage and undervoltage protection C) Fuel efficiency monitoring D) Vibration isolation
B) Overvoltage and undervoltage protection
72
What is the role of the inverter section in a VFD? A) To convert AC to DC B) To filter the DC voltage C) To convert DC back to a variable-frequency AC D) To store energy for backup power
C) To convert DC back to a variable-frequency AC
73
When using a VFD, what is the impact of reducing the frequency on an AC motor? A) The motor will maintain its torque at all speeds B) The motor will slow down and produce less torque C) The motor speed remains constant D) The motor will produce more heat
B) The motor will slow down and produce less torque
74
Which parameter is commonly adjusted in a VFD to control the acceleration rate of a motor? A) Voltage scaling B) Ramp time C) Duty cycle D) Power factor
B) Ramp time
75
Why is it important to match the VFD’s rated capacity with the motor’s rated power? A) To avoid energy loss in the motor B) To prevent the motor from overheating C) To ensure proper speed control and motor protection D) To increase the motor’s lifespan
C) To ensure proper speed control and motor protection
76
Which of the following motors cannot be efficiently controlled by a VFD? A) Squirrel cage induction motor B) Permanent magnet synchronous motor C) Single-phase motor D) Three-phase induction motor
C) Single-phase motor
77
What is the purpose of the dynamic braking feature in a VFD? A) To stop the motor quickly by dissipating energy B) To prevent the motor from starting in reverse C) To maintain a constant speed D) To protect the motor from thermal overload
A) To stop the motor quickly by dissipating energy
78
How does a VFD contribute to energy savings in industrial motor applications? A) By allowing motors to run at full speed regardless of load B) By reducing voltage to the motor during peak demand C) By matching motor speed to load requirements, minimizing excess energy use D) By increasing the current supplied to the motor
C) By matching motor speed to load requirements, minimizing excess energy use