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PPL Checkride Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the daytime VFR equipment requirements?

A

Reference FAR 91.205:
A - airspeed indicator
T - tachometer
O - oil pressure gauge
M - manifold pressure gauge
A - altimeter
T - temperature gauge (liquid cooled engine only)
O - oil temperature gauge
F - fuel gauge
L - landing gear position indicator
A - anti-collision lights
M - magnetic compass
E - ELT
S - safety belts

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2
Q

What are the nighttime VFR equipment requirements?

A

Reference FAR 91.205:
A - airspeed indicator
T - tachometer
O - oil pressure gauge
M - manifold pressure gauge
A - altimeter
T - temperature gauge (liquid cooled engine only)
O - oil temperature gauge
F - fuel gauge
L - landing gear position indicator
A - anti-collision lights (registered after 1996)
M - magnetic compass
E - ELT
S - safety belts

F - fuses (complete set, if a/c not equipped with circuit breakers)
L - landing light (if flying commercially)
A - anti-collision lights (registered after 1971)
P - position lights
S - source of electricity (alternator)

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3
Q

What is indicated altitude?

A

The altitude read directly from the altimeter.

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4
Q

What is true altitude?

A

The altitude above MSL.

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5
Q

What is absolute altitude?

A

The altitude AGL.

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6
Q

What is pressure altitude?

A

The altitude compensated for non-standard atmospheric pressure. Can be read off of altimeter by setting the barometric pressure scale to 29.92 inHg.

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7
Q

What is density altitude?

A

The pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature.

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8
Q

What are the VFR cruising altitudes?

A

Ref: 91.159
When 3000’ AGL to 18000’ MSL:
- odd thousands + 500’ on magnetic courses of 0-179
- even thousands + 500’ on magnetic courses of 180 - 359

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9
Q

Which instruments run off of the vacuum system?

A

Attitude indicator and heading indicator.

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10
Q

What is rigidity in space?

A

The spinning rotor of a gyroscope maintains a constant attitude in space.

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11
Q

What is precession?

A

The deflection of a spinning rotor when a force is applied to the rim.

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12
Q

How does the vacuum system work?

A

A vacuum pump draws air through a filter, and then through the cases of the attitude indicator and directional gyros. Small vanes on the gyroscope rotors cause the gyros to spin up as the air flows through. The air also passes through a suction gauge that indicates the pressure of the system before being vented overboard.

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13
Q

Which instruments are part of the static system?

A

(1) airspeed indicator
(2) altimeter
(3) vertical speed indicator

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14
Q

How does the airspeed indicator work?

A

The airspeed indicator uses the difference between dynamic pressure and static pressure to determine the airspeed. Static pressure is introduced to the ASI case, while dynamic pressure is introduced to the diaphragm. The diaphragm expands/contracts with the pressure difference, moving the needle on the face.

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15
Q

How does the altimeter work?

A

A stack of aneroid wafers are sealed with an internal pressure of 29.92 inHg. Static pressure is introduced to the case, allowing the wafers to expand and contract. Mechanical linkages connect the wafers to the needles on the face.

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16
Q

How does the Vertical Speed Indicator work?

A

The static line is connected to a diaphragm inside the VSI. The area outside the diaphragm is connected to the static line through a restricted orifice (calibrated leak). The pressure differential across the diaphragm causes the needle to move through a mechanical linkage.

A climb or descent immediately changes the pressure inside the diaphragm, while the pressure in the case changes slower due to the calibrated leak.

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17
Q

What flight instrument(s) are powered by the electrical system?

A

The turn coordinator gyros.

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18
Q

What are the three axes of an airplane?

A

The longitudinal axis (roll), lateral axis (pitch), and vertical axis (yaw).

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19
Q

What are the VFR weather minimums in Class A airspace?

A

VFR flight is prohibited in Class A.

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20
Q

What are the VFR weather minimums in Class B airspace?

A

3 statue miles viz
Clear of clouds

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21
Q

What are the VFR weather minimums in Class C airspace?

A

3 statute miles viz
1000’ above clouds
500’ below clouds
2000’ horizontally from clouds

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22
Q

What are the VFR weather minimums in Class D airspace?

A

3 statute miles viz
1000’ above clouds
500’ below clouds
2000’ horizontally from clouds

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23
Q

What are the VFR weather minimums in Class E airspace?

A

(1) 10,000’ - 18,000’ MSL:
5 statue miles viz
1000’ above clouds
1000’ below clouds
1 statue mile horizontally from clouds
(2) Below 10,000’
3 statute miles viz
1000’ above clouds
500’ below clouds
2000’ horizontally from clouds

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24
Q

What are the VFR weather minimums in Class G airspace?

A

(1) Below 1200’ AGL (Day): 1 statute mile, clear of clouds
(2) Below 1200’ AGL (Night): 3-152
(3) Between 1200’ AGL and 10,000’ MSL (Day): 1-152
(4) Between 1200’ AGL and 10,000’ MSL (Night): 3-152
(5) Above 1200’ AGL and 10,000’ MSL: 5-111

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25
What are the different types of Class E airspace?
S - surface E - extension T - terminal area V - Victor airways O - off shore D - domestic en-route A - above 14,500' MSL
26
What documents must be in your possession to exercise the privileges of PIC?
(1) Pilot Certificate (2) Photo ID (3) Medical Certificate Ref: FAR 61.3
27
What are the different types of medical certificates, and how long are they valid?
1st Class: required for ATP operations. Valid for 6 months (40 or older at time of exam), 12 months (younger than 40) 2nd Class: required for commercial operations. Valid for 24 months (40 or older), 60 months (younger than 40) 3rd Class: required for private pilot operations. Valid for 24 months (40 or older), 60 months (younger than 40) Ref: FAR 61.23
28
When is a type rating required?
When serving as PIC in an aircraft that is: (1) over 12,500 lbs, or (2) a turbojet
29
What is a high-performance aircraft?
An aircraft with greater than 200 horsepower.
30
What is a complex aircraft?
An aircraft that has: (1) retractable gear (2) flaps (3) controllable pitch propellers
31
What are the currency requirements for a PPL?
You must complete a flight review ever 24 months including: (1) 1 hour of ground training (2) 1 hour of flight training Ref: FAR 61.56
32
What are the requirements for recent flight experience?
To act as PIC when carrying passengers, within the preceding 90 days you must: (1) [day] perform 3 t/o's and landings in the same category, class, and type (if required) of aircraft that you will carry passengers in (can be touch/go's) (2) [night] perform 3 t/o's and landings to a full stop in the same category, class, and type of aircraft. For nighttime recency, these must be done between 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise.
33
What are the privileges of a private pilot certificate?
(1) can share the expenses of a flight with passengers (must pay the equivalent amount as passengers (2) can carry passengers making a donation to a charity organization (3) can tow gliders (4) can operate an aircraft connected with a business if it is incidental to the business operations
34
What are the limitations of a private pilot certificate?
(1) cannot carry passengers or property for hire (2) cannot pay less than your pro rata share of operating costs
35
What are the privileges and limitations of BasicMed?
With a basic med certificate, you can act as PIC of an airplane without a medical certificate under the following limitations: (1) airplane must have 6 or fewer seats (2) cannot have more than 6 onboard including pilot (3) gross weight must be less than 6000 lbs (4) remain below 250 KIAS (5) remain below 18,000' MSL (6) cannot fly for compensation or hire
36
What are the required inspections for the airplane?
(1) Annual: every 12 months the airplane must be inspected by an A&P with an Inspection Authorization (IA) (2) 100 hour: if operated for hire or flight training purposes (3) transponder: every 24 months (4) ELT: every 12 months (5) static system, altimeter, and Mode C (altitude encoding) capability: every 24 months
37
When is a Mode C transponder required?
(1) Class A (2) Class B (3) Class C (4) Overflying Class B and C up to 10,000’ (5) Mode C veil (30 nmi. radius around class B airport) (6) All airspace above 10,000’, excluding airspace below 2500’ AGL
38
Where is ADS-B out required?
Everywhere a Mode C transponder is required: (1) Class A (2) Class B (3) Class C (4) Overflying Class B and C airspace below 10,000’ MSL (4) Mode C veil (30 nmi. radius around class B airport) (5) Above 10,000' MSL (not below 2,500' AGL)
39
When can you fly with inoperative equipment?
Provided the equipment is not required via: (1) 91.205 (2) airworthiness directives (3) MEL (not applicable for us) (4) KOEL (5) Type Certificate Data Sheet Inoperative equipment must be deactivated or removed, and placarded as "inoperative" and the owner or lessee notified of the discrepancy.
40
What is an AIRMET?
Advises of potentially hazardous weather phenomena, particularly for light aircraft: (1) AIRMET SIERRA: IFR conditions (2) AIRMET TANGO: moderate turbulence/30kt surface winds (3) AIRMET ZULU: moderate icing
41
What is a SIGMET?
Advises of hazardous weather to all aircraft: (1) severe icing, (2) turbulence, (3) dust/sand storms, (4) volcanic ash
42
What is a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?
Advises of hazardous convective activity including: (1) line of thunderstorms (2) area of thunderstorms (3) embedded thunderstorms (4) tornado (5) hail larger than 3/4" (6) 50 kt sustained surface winds (7) severe turbulence and low level wind shear (8) severe icing
43
What is the general weather outlook associated with high pressure areas?
High pressure areas are characterized by sinking air, which implies little to no cloud formation. Typically have sunny days and good weather.
44
What is the general weather outlook associated with low pressure areas?
Rising air is cooled until reaching the dewpoint and forming clouds and rain. Low pressure is generally rainy, cloudy, and poor weather.
45
What is the general weather outlook associated with cold fronts?
A cold front is a mass of cooler, denser air that forces warm air aloft like a wedge. Warmer air has a higher moisture content, and the lifting action coupled with moisture can cause clouds and thunderstorms to develop.
46
What is the general weather outlook associated with warm fronts?
Light rain or snow with stratus type clouds.
47
What causes wind?
Air flows from areas of high pressure to areas of lower pressure.
48
What are the different types of fog?
(1) Radiation Fog: heat absorbed by surface during the day is radiated at night. This cools the layer of air near the ground to the dewpoint. (2) Advection Fog: horizontal movement of warm moist air over a cool surface. (3) Upslope Fog: light winds push warm, moist air up a hill/mountain until it cools off and condenses. (4) Steam Fog: cold air moves over warm water and mixes with moist air. (5) Ice Fog: temperature is below freezing and water vapor condenses directly into ice crystals
49
What causes fog?
The temperature of air near the ground is cooled to the dew point, causing water to condense near the surface.
50
What are the characteristics of stable air?
Poor visibility, steady precipitation, smooth air
51
What are the characteristics of unstable air?
Good visibility, showery precipitation, turbulence
52
What is the difference between an airmass and a front?
A front is the boundary where two air masses meet. An air mass is a large volume of air with similar characteristics (e.g. temperature and moisture).
53
What causes turbulence?
Uneven heating of the air, friction between the air and the ground, and a combination of the two can lead to convective currents and turbulence.
54
What are the different types of icing?
(1) Clear: forms glossy sheets, very heavy (2) Rime: forms rough/bumpy surface that destroys lift (3) Mixed: combination
55
What conditions are required for a thunderstorm to form?
(1) Moisture (2) Lifting action (3) Unstable atmosphere
56
What are the stages of a thunderstorm?
(1) cumulus stage: updrafts (2) mature stage: rain beings to fall (3) disappating stage: large downdrafts and heavy rain
57
What are the types of special use airspace?
(1) Military Operations Area: can fly through at any time (2) Controlled Firing Area: can fly through at any time (3) Prohibited: cannot fly through (4) Restricted: can fly through when cold or with permission; info on sectional chart (5) Alert area: alerts to high volume of training traffic, can fly through at any time (6) Warning area: off-shore in international waters, but contains unusual military activity. Can fly through at any time (7) National Security Area: can fly through at any time, but requested to avoid if able (8) Sanctuaries: requested to stay above 2000' AGL (8) TFRs: cannot fly through
58
What is stability as it relates to aerodynamics?
The tendency for an aircraft to return to a state of equilibrium following a disturbance.
59
What causes the pitch down tendency when power is reduced?
A decrease in thrust causes a reduction in the airspeed and airflow over the horizontal stabilizer, which causes a reduction in the downward force it produces.
60
What is a stall?
Rapid reduction in lift due to the wing reaching the critical angle of attack, at which point the airflow separates.
61
Why is an aircraft more stable at high speeds and low angle of attack?
Lowering the AOA causes the center of pressure to move aft. Larger separation between the cg and cp increases the stability. Additionally, there will be a greater downward force on the horizontal stabilizer, which further increases longitudinal stability.
62
How does cg affect stability?
A forward cg is more stable than an aft cg because it increases the separation between the cg and cp. Stall and spin recovery is easier with a forward cg than an aft one.
63
What is adverse yaw?
When turning, the downward deflected aileron (outside of turn) has greater lift and drag than the upward deflected aileron. This causes a yawing motion to the outside of the turn which is referred to as adverse yaw.
64
Why is back pressure needed during a turn?
When turning the lift is divided among the horizontal and vertical components. The vertical component is decreased when compared to that of straight and level flight, necessitating an increase in lift. Additionally, it is done to oppose centrifugal force.
65
Why do turns increase the load factor?
Greater lift is required to oppose both weight and centrifugal force.
66
How does load factor affect the stall speed?
The higher the load factor, the higher the stall speed.
67
What causes left turning tendency?
(1) the propwash spirals around the airframe and contacts the vertical stabilizer on the left side (2) asymmetrical propeller loading (pulls harder on the right) (p-factor) (3) gyroscopic precession of the propeller (4) torque effect: reaction to propeller turning is an equal/opposite torque
68
How does a forward cg affect cruising performance?
- airplane is “nose heavy” - requires pitch up trim which increases load on horizontal stabilizer - requires more lift from the wing, which means an increased AoA - byproduct of this lift is drag which causes a slower cruise speed - higher stall speed due to increased wing loading
69
How does an aft cg affect cruising performance.
- airplane is “tail heavy” - requires nose down trim, decreasing the load on the horizontal stabilizer - less lift is required to maintain altitude, so drag is reduced - higher cruise speed - lower stall speed due to reduced wing loading
70
Describe the electrical system.
The electrical system is a 28 Volt system comprised of a 24 volt battery and 60 amp alternator. The electrical loads are connected to a primary bus that powers all lights, instruments, and aircraft systems. A second bus, called the avionics bus, powers the radios, navigation system, and GPS unit. Circuit breakers are provided to isolate loads from the system.
71
Describe the ignition system.
The ignition system is comprised of dual magnetos with two spark plugs in each cylinder. Each cylinder is connected to both magnetos. The primer is used to pump fuel directly into the cylinders. Once engaged, the starter cranks the engine and lights the fuel/air in the cylinders.
72
What are the five hazardous attitudes and antidotes?
(1) Antiauthority (follow the rules) (2) Impulsivity (slow down and think) (3) Macho (don't be foolish) (4) Resignation (I can make a difference) (5) Invulnerability (it could happen to me)
73
What is hypoxia?
A lack of sufficient oxygen in the body.
74
What are some symptoms of hypoxia?
(1) Cyanosis (bluing of fingertips and lips) (2) Light-headed (3) Dizzy (4) Headache (5) Euphoria
75
What are the types of hypoxia and causes?
(1) Hypoxic: lack of oxygen available (high altitude) (2) Hypemic: oxygen deficiency in the blood (CO poisoning) (3) Stagnant: oxygenated blood in lungs not transported properly (reduced circulation from cold) (4) Histotoxic: cells don't properly use oxygenated blood (alcohol, drugs)
76
What is hyperventilation?
Excessive loss of CO2 due to rapid breathing.
77
How can you mitigate hyperventilation?
(1) Consciously reduce breathing rate (2) Speak out loud (3) Breathe into a bag
78
What is spatial disorientation?
State of confusion due to misleading information from your senses. Typically induced by a loss of visual reference to the horizon.
79
What are some types of spatial disorientation?
(1) Coriolis illusion: erroneous sensation that the airplane is turning. Can be caused by quick head movements. (2) The leans: sensation that you are banked when in level flight. Caused by abrupt correction of banked attitude.
80
What is Vx for N488BA?
59 KTS
81
What is Vy for N488BA?
73 KTS
82
What is Vg for N488BA?
65 KTS
83
What is the no-flap landing speed for N488BA?
60 - 70 KTS
84
What is the short (soft) field approach speed for N488BA?
59 KTS, Flaps at 40 deg
85
What is the climb speed for short field takeoff in N488BA?
53 KTS with flaps at 10 until clear obstacles
86
What is Va?
Design maneuvering speed. The maximum speed at which the airplane can be stalled safely. Also the maximum speed that full deflection of the controls in one direction may be made in smooth air without risk of damage to the aircraft.
87
What is the Va speed for N488BA?
97 kts (2300 lbs) 89 kts (1950 lbs)
88
Can you overfly an annual? A 100 hr?
Only with a special flight permit issued by your local FSDO. For the 100 hr you can overfly by 10 hrs if enroute to the inspection.
89
When must the ELT battery be replaced?
1. After 12 months 2. After 50% of its life has been used. 3. After 1 hour of operation.
90
What is magnetic variation?
Magnetic north and true north are not aligned. For the purposes of flight planning, the magnetic hearing is determined by compensating the true heading for the local magnetic variation.
91
What is magnetic deviation?
Magnetic fields are created by the aircraft systems, causing interference with the magnetic compass reading. This is corrected via a compass card.

PPL (2 decks)

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