PPL Study Guide Flashcards
(134 cards)
1
Q
What is the purpose of wing flaps?
A
To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
2
Q
One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to
A
Increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
3
Q
What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
A
To control the yaw.
4
Q
Which is not a primary flight control surface?
A
Flaps
5
Q
The elevator controls movement around which axis?
A
Lateral
6
Q
Which statement is true concerning primary flight controls?
A
The effectiveness of each control surface increases with speed because there is more airflow over them.
7
Q
Which of the following is true concerning flaps?
A
Flaps allow an increase in the angle of descent with out increasing airspeed.
8
Q
Which device is a secondary flight control?
A
Spoilers.
9
Q
Trim systems are designed to do what?
A
They relieve the pilot of the need to maintain constant pressure on the flight controls.
10
Q
The four forces acting on an airplane in the flight are
A
lift, weight, thrust and drag.
11
Q
When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
A
During unaccelerated level flight.
12
Q
What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?
A
Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
13
Q
Which statement relates to Bernoulli’s principle?
A
Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.
14
Q
(Refer to figure on page 33) The acute angle A is the angle of
A
attack.
15
Q
The term “angle of attack” is defined as the angle between the
A
chord line of the wing and the relative wind.
16
Q
The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of
A
attack.
17
Q
The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
A
remain the same regardless of gross weight.
18
Q
As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will
A
remain the same regardless of altitude.
19
Q
In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in in order to spin?
A
Stalled.
20
Q
During a spin to the left, which wing(s) are stalled?
A
Both wings are stalled.
21
Q
What is ground effect?
A
The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.
22
Q
Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at
A
less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.
23
Q
What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?
A
Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.
24
Q
An aircraft leaving ground effect during takeoff will
A
experience an increase in induced drag and a decrease in performance.
25
Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?
Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.
26
What force makes an airplane turn?
The horizontal component of lift.
27
What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
The location of the CG (center of gravity) with respect to the center of lift.
28
An airplane said to be inherently stable will
require less effort to control.
29
Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's
aerodynamic balance and controllablility.
30
An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One understandable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be
difficulty recovering from a stalled condition.
31
What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?
The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.
32
What is the effect of advancing the throttle during flight?
Both aircraft groundspeed and angel of attack will increase.
33
Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be
less stable at all speeds.
34
An airplane loaded with the Center of Gravity (CG) rear of the aft CG could
increase the likelihood of inadvertent overstress.
35
In what flight condition are torque effects more pronounced in a single-engine airplane?
Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
36
The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the
propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.
37
When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?
When at high angles of attack.
38
Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?
Turns.
39
(Refer to figure 2 below on page 39) If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30 degree banked turn while maintaining altitude?
3,900 pounds.
40
(Refer to figure 2 below on page 39) If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60 degree banked turn while maintaining altitude?
4,600 pounds.
41
(Refer to figure 2 below on page 39) If an airplane weighs 4,500 pounds airplane structure be required to support during a 45 degree banked turn while maintaining altitude?
6,750 pounds.
42
The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends on the
speed of the airplane.
43
During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to
stall at a higher speed.
44
Structural damage or failure is more likely to occur in smooth air speeds at above
Vne (Never exceed speed)
45
Limit load factor is the ratio
maximum sustainable load to the gross weight of the airplane.
46
(Refer to figure 72 below on page 41) A positive load factor of 2 at 80 mph would cause the airplane to
stall.
47
(Refer to figure 72 below on page 41) What load factor would be created if positive 15 feet per second gusts were encountered at 120 mph
2.0
48
(Refer to figure 72 below on page 41) The airspeed indicated by points A and J is
normal stall speed.
49
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if
an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
50
Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.
51
During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.
52
Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by
certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.
53
In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
correctly when on a north or south heading.
54
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if
a right turn is entered from a north heading.
55
In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when
the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.
56
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
57
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if
a left turn is entered from a north heading.
58
The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
Airspeed indicator.
59
Which instrument will become inoperative is the pitot tube becomes clogged?
Airspeed indicator.
60
If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
61
Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged.
Airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.
62
What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
Maneuvering speed.
63
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
Never-exceed speed.
64
(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) What is the caution range of the airplane?
165 to 208 kts. (yellow arc)
65
(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is
208 kts. (red radial line)
66
(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?
55 to 100 kts (white arc)
67
(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?
100 kts (upper limit of the white arc)
68
(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) Which marking identifies the never-exceed speed?
The red radial line (Vne)
69
(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?
Lower limit of the green arc.
70
(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?
The white arc.
71
(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?
Lower limit of the white arc.
72
(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?
165 kts (upper limit of the green arc)
73
(Refer to figure 3 on page 58) Altimeter 1 indicates
10,500 feet
74
(Refer to figure 3 on page 58) Altimeter 3 indicates
9,500 feet
75
(Refer to figure 3 on page 58) Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 10,000 feet
1 and 2 only.
76
(Refer to figure 3 on page 58) Altimeter 2 indicates
14.500 feet.
77
(Refer to figure 82 on page 59) Altimeter 3 indicates
9,500 feet
78
(Refer to figure 82 on page 59) Altimeter 1 indicates
500 feet (both small white needles are below the 1)
79
(Refer to figure 82 on page 59) Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 9,000 feet
3 only.
80
(Refer to figure 82 on page 60) Altimeter 2 indicates
1,500 feet
81
What is absolute altitude?
The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
82
What is true altitude?
The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
83
What is density altitude?
The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
84
What is pressure altitude?
The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
85
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
true altitude at field elevation.
86
Under which condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
When at sea level under standard conditions.
87
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
At standard temperature.
88
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
89
If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
77-foot increase in indicated altitude (1,000 feet for every 1 degree Hg)
90
If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96 what is the approximate change in indication?
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
91
If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
92
If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
93
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
Air temperature warmer than standard.
94
Under which condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
In colder than standard air temperature.
95
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
96
(Refer to figure 5 on page 64) A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes.
97
(Refer to figure 5 on page 64) To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be
periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.
98
(Refer to figure 7 on page 65) The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the
miniature airplane to the horizon bar.
99
(Refer to figure 7 on page 65) How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an altitude indicator such as the one illustrated?
By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).
100
What is a benefit of flying with a glass cockpit?
Situational awareness is increased.
101
What steps must be taken when flying with glass cockpits to ensure safe flight?
Regularly scan both inside and outside, use all appropriate checklists, and cross-check with other forms of information.
102
An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can
offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task.
103
You are flying an aircraft equipped with an electronic flight display and the air data computer fails. What instrument is affected?
Airspeed indicator.
104
An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
the oil level being too low.
105
Excessively high engine temperatures will
cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
106
Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will
cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
107
For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on
the circulation of lubricating oil.
108
If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
109
What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
110
What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
Enrich the full mixture.
111
How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
112
A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
113
What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
114
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
Improved engine performance.
115
If the ignition switch ground wire becomes disconnected, the magneto
may continue to fire.
116
The reason a 4-cylinder reciprocating engine continues to run after the ignition switch is positioned to OFF may be a
broken magneto ground wire.
117
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems are generally considered to be
more susceptible to icing.
118
Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
Temperature between 20 degrees F and 70 degrees F and high humidity.
119
The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as
high as 70 degrees F and the relative humidity is high.
120
If an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitched propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
loss of RPM.
121
The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the
difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the inlet air.
122
The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
123
Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to
decrease engine performance.
124
Applying carburetor heat will
enrich the fuel/air mixture.
125
What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?
The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
126
During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?
Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
127
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
128
When cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
129
Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the
weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder.
130
Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
the unburned change in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.
131
Detonation may occur at high-power settings when
the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
132
If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to
lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
133
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause
detonation.
134
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
pre-ignition.
