PPVK Flashcards

(409 cards)

1
Q

the ability to detect a stimulus

A

Sensation

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2
Q

the act of giving meaning to a detected sensation

A

Perception

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3
Q

any of the very large set of selective processes in the brain

A

Attention

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4
Q

the form of attention involved when processing is restricted
to a subset of the possible stimuli

A

Selective attention

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5
Q

decision-based scene analyses that combine prior knowledge with retinal input to generate representations

A

Visual cognition

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6
Q

minimum amount of stimulation necessary for a person to detect a stimulus 50% of the time

A

Absolute threshold

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7
Q

the smallest detectable difference between two stimuli, or the minimum change in a stimulus that can be correctly judged as different from a reference stimulus

A

Just noticeable difference

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8
Q

“the magnitude of subjective sensation increases proportionally to the logarithm of the stimulus intensity”

A

Fechner’s law

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9
Q

observers’ ability to perceive a signal

A

sensitivity

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10
Q

observers’ willingness to report a signal

A

criterion

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11
Q

12 pairs of nerves (one for each side of the body) that originate in the brain stem and reach sense organs and muscles

A

Cranial nerves

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12
Q

Parts of neuron (added explanation for clarification)

A

Dendrites – Branch-like structures that receive signals from other neurons and transmit them to the cell body.
Cell Body (Soma) – The main part of the neuron containing the nucleus, which processes incoming signals.
Axon – A long, tube-like structure that carries electrical impulses away from the cell body toward other neurons or muscles.
Myelin Sheath – A fatty layer that covers the axon, insulating it and speeding up signal transmission.
Nodes of Ranvier – Gaps in the myelin sheath that help speed up the transmission of nerve impulses.
Axon Terminals (Synaptic Terminals) – The ends of the axon that release neurotransmitters to communicate with other neurons or target cells.
Schwann cells - support neurons, especially in forming the myelin sheath around axons

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13
Q

A technique that measures electrical activity from populations of many neurons in the brain

A

Electroencephalography (EEG)

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14
Q

A measure of electrical activity from a subpopulation of neurons in response to particular stimuli that requires averaging many EEG recordings

A

Event-related potential (ERP)

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15
Q

brain imaging technology that measures changes in magnetic activity across populations of many neurons in the brain; it has the same high temporal resolution as EEG, but better spatial resolution

A

Magnetoencephalography (MEG)

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16
Q

Brain imaging technology that uses the responses of atoms to strong magnetic fields to measure localized patterns of brain activity
(activated neurons provoke increased blood flow, which can
be quantified by measuring changes of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to strong magnetic fields)

A

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

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17
Q

Name of signal measured for fMRI

A

blood oxygen level-dependent (BOLD) signal

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18
Q

brain imaging technology that measures the metabolism of brain cells using safe radioactive isotopes

A

Positron emission tomography (PET)

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19
Q

models that discover structure in sensory input to efficiently encode the world

A

Efficient coding models

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20
Q

models that make predictions (predictive coding) based on prior knowledge about the world

A

Bayesian models

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21
Q

models that simulate biological neurons with layers of input units massively interconnected with output units that can excite or inhibit each other

A

Artificial neural networks

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22
Q

artificial neural networks with a very large number of layers of nodes with millions of connections between the input and output layers

A

Deep neural nets (DNNs)

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23
Q

involuntary capture of attention

A

Exogenous attention (bottom-up, stimulus-driven)

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24
Q

ability to shift attention in a voluntary manner, based on our top-down goals, such that we can seek out a particular target in a cluttered environment or maintain attention on an object in the face of distraction

A

Endogenous attention (top-down)

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25
occurs when a person directly gazes at the object of interest
Overt attention
26
refers to attending to an object in the periphery, without moving the eyes or directly gazing at the attended item
Covert attention
27
splitting attention between two different stimuli
Divided attention
28
continuously monitoring some stimulus
Sustained attention
29
measure of the time from the onset of a stimulus to a response
Reaction time (RT)
30
a stimulus that might indicate where (or what) a subsequent stimulus will be [valid (correct information), invalid (incorrect), or neutral (uninformative)]
Cue
31
The time between the onset of one stimulus and the onset of another
Stimulus onset asynchrony (SOA)
32
2 (most prominent) theories of attention
“Spotlight” model and “Zoom lens” model
33
the goal of a visual search
target
34
any stimulus other than the target
distractor
35
the number of items in a visual search display
set size
36
the vividness of a stimulus relative to its neighbors
salience
37
the challenge of tying different attributes of visual stimuli, which are handled by different brain circuits, to the appropriate object so we perceive a unified object.
The binding problem
38
the difficulty in perceiving and responding to the second of two target stimuli amid a RSVP stream of distracting stimuli. (the second target is often missed if it appears within 200 to 500 ms of the first target)
Attentional blink
39
Two pathways to visual experience (i.e., scene perception)
selective and nonselective pathway
40
a narrow band of electromagnetic radiation that can be conceptualized as a wave or a stream of photons
light
41
a quantum of visible light (or other form of electromagnetic radiation) demonstrating both particle and wave properties
photon
42
the transparent “window” into the eyeball
Cornea
43
upthe watery fluid in the anterior chamber
Aqueous humor
44
the lens inside the eye, which focuses light onto the back of the eye
Crystalline lens
45
the dark circular opening at the center of the iris in the eye, where light enters the eye
Pupil
46
the colored part of the eye; a muscle that regulates the amount of light entering the eye by expanding and contracting the pupil
Iris
47
the transparent fluid that fills the large chamber in the posterior part of the eye is called ____________. It comprises ___% of the internal volume of the eye
Vitreous humor 80%
48
Part of the eye where seeing really begins is called _____1_____ where light energy is turned into electrical neural signals (transduction); a light-sensitive membrane in the back of the eye that contains ____2_____ and _____3______; the lens focuses an image on the retina then sends signals to the brain through the _____4______; motion, color, edges, and shape are all processed by specialized groups of cells in the retina
1) retina 2/3) rods and cones 4) optic nerve (cranial nerve 2)
49
process of focusing light rays onto the retina accomplished by the lens
Refraction
50
the process in which the lens changes its shape, thus altering its refractive power; change in focus
accommodation
51
the age-related loss of accommodation (difficult to focus on near objects)
presbyopia (“old sight”)
52
Problem of refraction when light is focused in front of the retina and distant objects cannot be seen sharply
Myopia (nearsightedness)
53
Problems of refraction when light is focused behind the retina and near objects cannot be seen sharply
Hyperopia (farsightedness)
54
unequal curving of one or more of the refractive surfaces of the eye, usually the cornea.
Astigmatism
55
Cells in the retina that transduce light energy into neural energy
Photoreceptors (rods and cones)
56
photoreceptors specialized for night vision; respond well in low luminance conditions; do not process color
Rods (~90 million)
57
photoreceptors specialized for daytime vision, fine visual acuity, and color; they respond best in high luminance conditions
Cones (~5 million)
58
Light passes through several layers of cells before reaching rods and cones. ____1____ have axons that leave the retina through the optic disc (blind spot). ____2____ cells are connected to them and amacrine cells. Light activates a photoreceptor, which signals the ____2____ and ____3_____ cells that synapse with it.
1) Ganglion cells 2) Bipolar 3) Horizontal
59
The standard way to measure retinal size is in terms of _________________________
degrees of visual angle (The visual angle of an object is a function of both its actual size and distance from the observer)
60
A small, central pit composed of closely packed cones in the eye. It is located in the center of the macula lutea of the retina.
Fovea (centralis)
61
pigments that undergo a chemical change when they absorb light
photopigments (after a photopigment molecule is used to detect a photon (bleached), the molecule must be regenerated before it can be used again to absorb another photon)
62
light hitting a photoreceptor; chemical changes that start a cascade of neural events ending in a visual sensation.
photoactivation
63
In photoreceptors, ____1______ stores visual pigments, ______2______ manufactures visual pigments and _____3______ serves as connection to other cells
1) outer segment 2) inner segment 3) synaptic terminal
64
Visual pigment consists of a _____1______ that captures photons and a protein, called ____2____ which determines the wavelength of light to which the photoreceptor responds
1) chromophore 2) opsin
65
Opsin in rods is named _____1______ and cones have three different opsins, which respond to long ____2____, medium ____3____ or short ____4____ wavelengths
1) rhodopsin 2) L-, red 3) M-, green 4) S-, blue
66
A photpigment that can monitor ambient light levels and influence our sleep/wake cycle (contained in retinal ganglion cells)
Melanopsin
67
Cones work best in _______________ situations
photopic (high-illumination)
68
Rods work best in ________________ situations
scotopic (low-illumination)
69
cells that run perpendicular to the photoreceptors and contact both photoreceptors and bipolar cells; responsible for lateral inhibition, which creates the center-surround receptive field structure of retinal ganglion cells.
Horizontal cells
70
cells that run horizontally between bipolar cells and retinal ganglion cells; have been implicated in contrast enhancement and temporal sensitivity (detecting light patterns that change over time)
Amacrine cells
71
Name types of cells in retina’s horizontal and vertical pathways.
horizontal pathway: horizontal and amacrine cells vertical pathway: photoreceptors, bipolar cells, and ganglion cells
72
connected with one or more rods or cones and with horizontal cells; passes the signals to ganglion cells
bipolar cells
73
____1_____ bipolar cell receives input from multiple photoreceptors (convergence), while ____2____ bipolar cell receives input from a single cone
1) Diffuse [decreases acuity but increases light sensitivity] 2) Midget (divergence - ON and OFF bipolar cells provide information about whether the retinal illumination increased or decreased)
74
___1___ ganglion cells (~70% of all ganglion cells in retina) receive input from midget bipolar cells ___2___ ganglion cells (~10% of all ganglion cells in retina) receive input from diffuse bipolar cells
1) P (connect to the parvocellular pathway of LGN) 2) M (connect to the magnocellular pathway of LGN)
75
________________ pathway is involved in fine visual acuity, color, and shape processing; poor temporal resolution but good spatial resolution;
parvocellular („small cell”)
76
________________ pathway is involved in motion processing; excellent temporal resolution but poor spatial resolution
magnocellular (“large cell”)
77
A bipolar cell that depolarizes in response to an increase in light captured by the cones.
ON bipolar cell
78
A bipolar cell that hyperpolarizes in response to an increase in light captured by the cones.
OFF bipolar cell
79
The smallest spatial detail that can be resolved (at 100% contrast)
Acuity ( The Snellen E test)
80
Peripheral cones respond to light ______ than foveal cones
faster
81
The visual system breaks down images into a vast number of components, each is a sine wave grating with a particular spatial frequency. (name of this mathematical procedure?)
Fourier analysis
82
A structure in the thalamus, part of the midbrain, that receives input from the retinal ganglion cells and has input and output connections to the visual cortex
lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)
83
The left LGN receives projections from the ___1____ side of the retina in both eyes (___2___ visual field)
1) left (same) 2) right (opposite)
84
Cell types in LGN a) _____1_____ →large cells, bottom two layers →receive input from ___1a___ ganglion cells →respond best to large, fast-moving objects b) _____2_____ →smaller cells, top four layers →receive input from ___2a___ ganglion cells →respond best to fine spatial details of stationary objects c) _____3_____ →very small cells in between the _____1_____ and _____2_____sections →we are still not entirely sure what these cells do
1) Magnocellular (M) 2) Parvocellular (P) 3) oniocellular
85
Two important features of ____________ 1) Topographical mapping 2) Cortical magnification
Striate cortex
86
Proportionally much more Striate cortex devoted to processing the fovea than to processing the periphery, so visual acuity declines with __________
eccentricity (i.e., distance from the fovea)
87
the deleterious effect of clutter on peripheral object detection; stimuli that can be seen in isolation in peripheral vision become hard to discern when other stimuli are nearby; (a major bottleneck for visual processing)
Visual crowding
88
Cells in striate cortex respond best to bars of light. ___1___ cells have preference for light OR dark bars and ___2___ cells have preference for BOTH light AND dark bars
1) simple 2) complex
89
neurons in striate cortex respond most to bars of certain ___________
orientations (Orientation selectivity) [response rate falls off with angular difference of bar from preferred orientation]
90
The ___1____ receptive fields in the LGN is transformed into the ___2___ receptive fields in striate cortex {shapes}
1) circular 2) elongated (orientated bar)
91
The property of the receptive fields of striate cortex neurons by which they demonstrate a preference, responding somewhat more rapidly when a stimulus is presented in one eye than when it is presented in the other
ocular dominance [by the time information gets to primary visual cortex, inputs from both eyes have been combined]
92
___1___ cells are cortical neurons whose receptive fields have clearly defined excitatory and inhibitory regions. They are further divided into two flavors: ____2____ and ____3____
1) Simple 2) an edge detector 3) a stripe detector
93
The process by which a cell in the cortex increases its firing rate as the length of a bar increases until the bar fills up its receptive field, and then it decreases its firing rate as the bar is lengthened further.
End stopping
94
_____1____ is a vertical arrangement of neurons. Neurons within a single _____1____ tend to have similar receptive fields and similar orientation preferences.
column
95
A 1-millimeter block of striate cortex containing two sets of columns, each covering every possible orientation (0–180 degrees), with one set preferring input from the left eye and one set preferring input from the right eye
Hypercolumn
96
a reduction in response caused by continuing stimulation
Adaptation
97
A pattern analyzer, implemented by an ensemble of cortical neurons, in which each set of neurons is tuned to a limited range of spatial frequencies.
Spatial-frequency channel
98
The region of cortex bordering the primary visual cortex and containing multiple areas involved in visual processing.
Extrastriate cortex (contains V2, V3, V4, inferotemporal cortex...)
99
At higher levels of the visual pathway, neurons have _______ receptive fields
larger
100
Pogressive increase in receptive field size is accompanied by an increase in ___________________________________
neuronal tuning complexity (NT - hypothesized property of brain cells by which they selectively represent a particular type of sensory, association, motor, or cognitive information)
101
V2 neurons would differentiate between the edge of a black square on gray background and the edge of a gray square on a black background: phenomenon termed ________________
border ownership
102
Name the two main pathways from the extrastriate regions of the occipital lobe (and what question they try to give answer to).
Dorsal pathway (where?) and ventral pathway (what?)
103
Dorsal pathway heads up into the _________ lobe → important for representing objects in space (location); actions; deployment of attention
parietal
104
ventral pathway heads up into the ________ lobe → important for object recognition
temporal
105
____1_____ is failure to recognize objects in spite of the ability to see them, and can be caused by damage to ____2_____ cortex
1) agnosia 2) Inferotemporal (IT)
106
A process that carries out a computation (e.g., object recognition) one neural step after another, without need for feedback from a later stage to an earlier stage.
feed-forward process
107
A theory that fast, feed-forward processes can give you crude information about objects and scenes based on activity in high-level parts of the visual cortex. You become aware of details when activity flows back down the hierarchy of visual areas to lower-level areas where the detailed information is preserved.
reverse-hierarchy theory
108
Mid-level vision performs perception of ___1___ and ___1___ and groups regions of an image into ___2____
1) edges and surfaces 2) objects
109
a contour that is perceived even though nothing changes from one side of the contour to the other
Illusory contour
110
a set of organizing principles that describe the visual system’s interpretation of the raw retinal image
Gestalt grouping rules
111
a Gestalt grouping rule stating that two elements will tend to group together if they lie on the same contour
Good continuation
112
a Gestalt principle that holds that a closed contour is preferred to an open contour
Closure
113
carving an image into regions of common texture properties
Texture segmentation (texture grouping)
114
a visual stimulus that gives rise to two or more interpretations of its identity or structure
Ambiguous figures
115
A Gestalt grouping rule stating that the tendency of two features to group together will increase as the similarity between them increases
similarity
116
A Gestalt grouping rule stating that the tendency of two features to group together will increase as the distance between them decreases.
proximity
117
A rule for figure-ground assignment stating that parallel contours are likely to belong to the same figure.
parallelism
118
A rule for figure-ground assignment stating that symmetrical regions are more likely to be seen as figure
symmetry
119
a viewing position that produces some regularity in the visual image that is not present in the world.
Accidental viewpoint
120
the process of determining that some regions of an image belong to a foreground object (figure) and other regions are part of the background (ground)
Figure-ground assignment
121
the degree to which two line segments appear to be part of the same contour (in case of occlusions)
Relatability
122
The properties of the global image take precedence over local
Global superiority effect
123
comparing activity with and without the mental process of interest (in functional imaging)
subtraction method
124
determining the nature of a stimulus from the pattern of responses measured in the brain (in functional imaging)
neural decoding
125
Color is not a physical property but a ___________ property.
psychophysical
126
Changes in position over time
Motion
127
the illusion of motion of a stationary object that occurs after prolonged exposure to a moving object
Motion aftereffect (MAE)
128
Light with many wavelengths is called ___1___ and light with only one wavelength is called ___2___
1) heterochromatic 2) monochromatic
129
Three steps to color perception: ___1___ → wavelengths of light must be detected in the first place ___2___ → we must be able to tell the difference between one wavelength (or mixture of wavelengths) and another ___3___ → we want to assign perceived colors to lights and surfaces in the world and have those perceived colors be stable over time, regardless of different lighting conditions
1) Detection 2) Discrimination 3) Appearance
130
An infinite set of different wavelength-intensity combinations can elicit exactly the same response, so the output of a single photoreceptor cannot by itself tell us anything about the wavelengths stimulating it. This constraint is known as the __________________________
principle of univariance
131
Rods are sensitive to _____1____ light levels; all rods contain the same photopigment molecule (____2_____)
1) scoptic (Referring to light intensities that are bright enough to stimulate the rod receptors but too dim to stimulate the cone receptors) aka low 2) rhodopsin
132
Under __________ conditions, the S-, M-, and L-cones are all active
photopic
133
The theory that the color of any light is defined in our visual system by the relationships of three numbers, the outputs of three receptor types now known to be the three cones.
Trichromacy or trichromatic theory of color vision (also known as the Young-Helmholtz theory)
134
different mixtures of wavelengths that look identical (any pair of stimuli that are perceived as identical in spite of physical differences)
Metamers
135
a neuron whose output is based on a difference between sets of cones
Cone-opponent cell
136
Several types of color-blind/color-anamolous people; dichromacy: ____1____ - dueto absence of M-cones ____2____ - dueto absence of L-cones ____3____ - dueto absence of S-cones
1) deuteranope 2) protanope 3) tritanope
137
True color blindness does occur but it is very unusual. It is possible to be a _____1_____, with only one type of cone in the retina. Cone monochromats (who also have rods) live in a one-dimensional color space, seeing the world only in shades of gray. Even more visually impaired are _____2_____, who are missing cones altogether. Because the rods work well only in dim light and are generally absent in the fovea, these individuals not only fail to discriminate colors, but also have very poor acuity and serious difficulties seeing under normal daylight conditions
1) cone monochromat 2) rod monochromats
138
when one stimulus evokes the experience of another stimulus that is not present
Synesthesia
139
a color perception effect in which the color of one region induces the opponent color in a neighboring region
Color contrast
140
a color perception effect in which two colors bleed into each other, each taking on some of the chromatic quality of the other
Color assimilation
141
a visual image seen after a stimulus has been removed
afterimage
142
an afterimage whose polarity is the opposite of the original stimulus (light stimuli produce dark afterimages, colors are complementary)
Negative afterimage
143
the tendency of a surface to appear the same color under a fairly wide range of illuminants
Color constancy
144
the light that illuminates a surface
illuminant
145
the combination of signals from both eyes in ways that make performance on many tasks better than with either eye alone is called ________________________
binocular summation
146
the differences between the two retinal images of the same scene is called _________________
Binocular disparity
147
binocular perception of depth
stereopsis (special, but not a necessary condition for depth perception)
148
information about the third dimension in visual space is called _____1______. We divide them into ________2_________
1) depth cue 2) monocular and binocular (depth cues)
149
A monocular cue to relative depth order in which, for example, one object partially obstructs the view of another object
Occlusion (nonmetrical depth cue)
150
a depth cue that provides information about the depth order (relative depth) but not depth magnitude.
nonmetrical depth cue (category of depth cues, not the specific one)
151
a depth cues comparison of size between items without knowing the absolute size of either one
relative size
152
a depth cue based on the geometric fact that items of the same size form smaller, closer spaced images the farther away they get (combination of the cues of relative size and relative height)
Texture gradient
153
the observation that objects at different distances from the viewer on the ground plane will form images at different heights in the retinal image (objects farther away will be seen as higher in the image)
Relative height
154
a cue based on knowledge of the typical size of objects (when you know the typical size of an object, you can guess how far away it is based on how small or large it appears)
Familiar size (often works in conjunction with the cue of relative size)
155
a depth cue that could specify that object A is twice as far away as object B without providing information about the absolute distance to either A or B
relative metrical depth cue
156
a depth cue that provides quantifiable information about distance in the third dimension
absolute metrical depth cue
157
a depth cue based on the implicit understanding that light is scattered by the atmosphere (more light is scattered when we look through more atmosphere -> more distant objects appear fainter, bluer, and less distinct)
Aerial perspective
158
a depth cue based on the fact that lines that are parallel in the 3D world will appear to converge in a 2D image
Linear perspective
159
the apparent point at which parallel lines receding in depth converge
vanishing point
160
images closer to the observer move faster across the visual field than images farther away; the brain uses this information to calculate the distances of objects in the environment (motion cue)
Motion parallax
161
the process by which the eye changes its focus; lens gets fatter as gaze is directed toward nearer objects
accommodation
162
the ability of the two eyes to turn inward, often used to focus on nearer objects
convergence
163
the ability of the two eyes to turn outward, often used to focus on farther objects
divergence
164
a geometric concept stating that points on the retina of each eye where the monocular retinal images of a single object are formed are at the same distance from the fovea in each eye
corresponding retinal points
165
The location of objects whose images lie on corresponding points. The surface of zero disparity.
Horopter ( Vieth–Müller circle*) *not exactly the same thing but they are as far as we are concerned
166
the region of space, in front of and behind the horopter, within which binocular single vision is possible
Panum’s fusional area
167
the sign of disparity created by objects in front of the plane of the horopter
Crossed disparity (images in front of the horopter are displaced to the left in the right eye and to the right in the left eye)
168
the sign of disparity created by objects behind the plane of the horopter
Uncrossed disparity (images behind the horopter are displaced to the right in the right eye and to the left in the left eye)
169
an inability to make use of binocular disparity as a depth cue
Stereoblindness (most people who are stereoblind do not even realize it 3–5% of the population)
170
in binocular vision, the problem of figuring out which bit of the image in the left eye should be matched with which bit in the right eye
Correspondence problem
171
In reference to stereopsis, the observation that a feature in the world is represented exactly once in each retinal image. This constraint simplifies the correspondence problem.
Uniqueness constraint
172
In reference to stereopsis, the observation that, except at the edges of objects, neighboring points in the world lie at similar distances from the viewer.
Continuity constraint
173
The competition between the two eyes for control of visual perception, which is evident when completely different stimuli are presented to the two eyes.
binocular rivalry
174
MAE must occur in neurons that respond to both eyes. T/F
True (MAE = motion aftereffect)
175
Input from both eyes is combined in area V1, so MAE must be in V1 or later. T/F
True (MT/V5)
176
The illusory impression of smooth motion resulting from the rapid alternation of objects that appear in different locations in rapid succession
Apparent motion (motion detector circuit does not need real motion in order to fire - The Reichardt detector/model)
177
the problem faced by the motion detection system of knowing which feature in frame 2 corresponds to which feature in frame 1
Correspondence problem (motion)
178
the fact that when a moving object is viewed through an aperture (or a receptive field), the direction of motion of a local feature or part of an object may be ambiguous
Aperture problem
179
Motion information from several receptive fields (local apertures → local motion) is combined to determine the ____________
global motion
180
Lesions in ____1____ layers of ____2____ impair perception of large, rapidly moving objects. _______3_______ also plays an important role in motion perception
1) magnocellular 2) LGN 3) Middle temporal area (MT)
181
the motion of an object that is defined by changes in luminance
First-order motion
182
an object that is delineated by differences in reflected light
luminance-defined object
183
the motion of an object that is defined by changes in contrast or texture, but not by luminance is called _____1_____. It is invisible to _____2_____ and ______3_______.
1) Second-order motion 2) Reichardt detectors 3) Fourier-based mechanisms
184
an object that is defined by changes in contrast or texture, but not by luminance
texture-defined (contrast-defined) object
185
Our sensitivity to second-order motion is considerably stronger than our ability to perceive first-order motion. T/F
False ( sensitivity to second-order motion is considerably weaker)
186
According to Lu and Sperling (1995) _______________ is motion system that responds to moving modulations of feature types (stimuli in which the expected luminance is the same everywhere but an area of higher contrast or of flicker moves)
second-order system
187
According to Lu and Sperling (1995) _______________ is motion system that responds to moving luminance patterns
first-order system
188
According to Lu and Sperling (1995) _______________ is motion systems that computes the motion of marked locations in a “salience map”, that is, a neural representation of visual space in which the locations of important visual features (“figure”) are marked and “ground” is unmarked
third-order system
189
Motion Induced Blindness (MIB) - motion can make you temporarily „blind” - no clear explanation - related to the ________________
Troxler’s effect/fading
190
the collection of light rays that interact with objects in the world in front of a viewer
Optic array
191
the changing angular position of points in a perspective image that we experience as we move through the world
Optic flow
192
the point in the center of the horizon from which, when we are in motion, all points in the perspective image seem to emanate. It tells the observer which way they are heading
focus of expansion (FOE)
193
______________ of an approaching object is calculated as distance/rate => 10m / 50m/s = 0.2s
time to collision (TTC)
194
the ratio of the retinal image size at any moment to the rate at which the image is expanding is _________. (information in the optic flow that could signal TTC without the necessity of estimating either absolute distances or rates)
tau (𝜏)
195
TTC is proportional to tau. T/F
True
196
Successful perception of object motion requires the estimation of both _____________ and ____________ which together define object velocity
direction and speed
197
a type of voluntary eye movement in which the eyes move smoothly to follow a moving object
Smooth pursuit
198
a type of eye movement, made both voluntarily and involuntarily, in which the eyes rapidly change fixation from one object or location to another
Saccade
199
involuntary eye drifts and small jerks
Microsaccades
200
___ muscles are attached to each eye and are arranged in ______ and controlled by an extensive network of structures in the brain. {numbers} {bonus points if you name them}
6, 3 pairs - Superior oblique, Inferior oblique, Superior rectus, Lateral rectus, Medial rectus, Inferior rectus
201
_____1_____ is a type of eye movement, both voluntary and involuntary, in which the two eyes move in opposite directions; _____2_____ eye movements turn the eyes inward and _____3______ eye movements turn the eyes outward
1) Vergence 2) convergent 3) divergent
202
automatic and involuntary eye movements
Reflexive
203
a structure in the midbrain (i.e., mesencephalon) that is important in initiating and guiding eye movements; when this structure is electrically stimulated, eye movements result
Superior colliculus
204
a structure in the frontal cortex that is responsible for saccadic eye movements and for pursuit eye movements
Frontal eye fields (FEF) [together with the supplementary eye fields (SEF), the intraparietal sulcus (IPS) and the superior colliculus (SC) one of the most important brain areas involved in the generation and control of eye movements]
205
the reduction of visual sensitivity that occurs when we make saccadic eye movements; partially eliminates the smear from retinal image motion during an eye movement
Saccadic suppression (no suppression takes place when we execute smooth-pursuit eye movements)
206
_______1________ is the phenomenon in which outgoing (efferent) signals from the motor cortex are copied as they exit the brain and are rerouted to other areas in the sensory cortices. Goes to an area of the visual system that has been dubbed the _____2_____.
1. Efference copy (or corollary discharge signal) 2. comparator
207
Dynamic remapping of receptive fields: →______1______ is planned but not yet executed →some neurons in ____2_____ cortex remap their receptive fields relative to upcoming fixation location →____1____ is executed →receptive fields are already processing information from new location before eye lands there (3)T/F →receptive fields of neurons in the ____4____ also transiently shift inward towards the new point of fixation
1) a saccade 2) parietal 3) True 4) frontal eye fields
208
Physical definition: _________ is pressure changes in the air or other medium Perceptual definition: _________ is the experience we have when we hear
sound
209
____1____ is the magnitude of displacement (increase or decrease) of a sound pressure wave; measured in ____2____ which is the ratio between two sound pressures. It is perceived as ____3_____
1) Amplitude or Intensity 2) decibel (dB) 3) loudness
210
_____1_____ for sound is the number of times per second that a pattern of pressure change repeats. It is measured in _____2_____ calculated as cycle/second. It is perceived as _____3______
1) Frequency 2) hertz (Hz) 3) pitch
211
One of the simplest kinds of sounds are _________ waves, or pure tone: the waveform for which variation as a function of time is a ________ function
sine
212
All sound waves can be described as some combination of sine waves. A mathematical procedure by which any signal can be separated into component sine waves at different frequencies is called _____________.
Fourier Analysis (It produces a spectrum that displays how much energy is present in each of the frequencies in the sound.)
213
the spectrum of a complex sound in which energy is at integer multiples of the fundamental frequency
Harmonic spectrum
214
the lowest-frequency component of a complex periodic sound
fundamental frequency
215
the psychological sensation by which a listener can judge that two sounds with the same loudness and pitch are dissimilar
timbre (boja zvuka)
216
Sounds are first collected from the environment by the _____1_____ which funnels sounds into the _____2______. It's length and shape enhances certain sound frequencies and protects the structure at it's end, called ______3_______: a thin sheet of skin that vibrates in response to sound. _____3______ marks the border between ______4______ and ______5______ ear.
1) pinnae 2) ear canal 3) tympanic membrane (the eardrum) 4) outer 5) middle
217
Three tiny bones that amplify and transmit sounds to the inner ear are called ____1____. ____2____ receives vibrations from the tympanic membrane and is attached to the ____3____ (the middle bone) . ____4____ is connected to the ____3____ on one end and the oval window of the cochlea on the other .
1) ossicles 2) malleus (čekić) 3) incus (nakovanj) 4) stapes (stremen)
218
___________ is border between middle and inner ear
oval window
219
_____1_____ and _____1_____ are two muscles in the middle ear that decrease ossicle vibrations when tensed (muffle loud sounds and protect the inner ear) That function is called _____2_____ and it follows onset of loud sounds by 200 ms
1) Tensor tympani ( attached to the malleus) and stapedius (attached to the stapes) 2) acoustic reflex
220
Hollow cavity in the temporal bone of the skull, and the structures within this cavity: the cochlea and the semicircular canals of the vestibular system, is called ______1______. There, fine changes in sound pressure are transduced into ____2____ signals. (function is roughly analogous to that of the retina)
1) inner ear 2) neural
221
____1____ is spiral structure of the inner ear containing the organ of Corti. It is filled with _____2______ (watery fluids) in three parallel canals: ________3________ (name them all)
1) cochlea 2) endolymph 3) the tympanic canal (or scala tympani), the vestibular canal (or scala vestibuli) and the middle canal (or scala media or cochlear duct)
222
a small opening connecting the tympanic and vestibular canals
helicotrema
223
between the vestibular canal and the middle canal there is _______1_______, and between the middle canal and the tympanic canal we can find ______2_______
1) Reissner’s membrane 2) basilar membrane
224
the combined basilar membrane, tectorial membrane, and organ of Corti, which are together responsible for the transduction of sound waves into neural signals
cochlear partition
225
a structure in the middle canal of the cochlea that is composed of hair cells and dendrites of auditory nerve fibers
organ of Corti
226
cells that support the stereocilia, which transduce mechanical movement in the cochlea into neural activity sent to the brain stem
hair cells
227
The cochlear hair cells in humans consist of _______ row of inner hair cells and ______ rows of outer hair cells. {numbers}
1 inner and 3 outer
228
The __________ are the actual sensory receptors, and 95% of the fibers of the auditory nerve that project to the brain arise from this subpopulation
inner hair cells
229
The terminations on the outer hair cells are almost all from ____________ that arise from cells in the brain
efferent* axons * conducting outwards or away from something (inner cells input to brain, outer cells output from brain)
230
a collection of neurons that convey information from hair cells in the cochlea to the brain stem (afferent neurons) and from the brain stem to the hair cells (efferent neurons)
auditory nerve
231
any of the hairlike extensions on the tips of hair cells in the cochlea that, when flexed, initiate the release of neurotransmitters
stereocilium
232
a gelatinous structure, attached on one end, that extends into the middle canal of the cochlea, floating above inner hair cells and touching outer hair cells
tectorial membrane
233
hair cells in the ___________ organs also report head movements to the brain
vestibular
234
deflection of a hair cell’s -> a change in _____1_____ potential -> initiates the release of _____2_____ -> encourages firing by auditory nerve fibers that have ____3_____ synapses on hair cells
1) voltage 2) neurotransmitters 3) dendritic
235
If the amplitude of a sound wave is increased: (T/Fs) 1) the tympanic membrane and oval window move farther in and out with each pressure fluctuation 2) the bulge in the vestibular canal becomes smaller 3) the cochlear partition moves farther up and down 4) the tectorial membrane shears across the organ of Corti more forcefully 5) the hair cells pivot farther back and forth 6) more neurotransmitters are absorbed 7) the auditory nerve fibers fire action potentials more quickly
1) True 2) False (becomes bigger) 3) True 4) True 5) True 6) False (released not absorbed) 7) True
236
Tuning of different parts of the cochlea to different frequencies, in which information about the particular frequency of an incoming sound wave is coded by the place along the cochlear partition that has the greatest mechanical displacement.
place code
237
responses of individual auditory nerve fibers to different frequencies are related to their place along the ______________
cochlear partition
238
frequency selectivity is clearest when sounds are very loud (T/F)
False (frequency selectivity is clearest when sounds are very faint)
239
A graph plotting the thresholds of a neuron in response to sine waves with varying frequencies at the lowest intensity that will give rise to a response.
threshold tuning curve
240
A decrease in the firing rate of one auditory nerve fiber due to one tone, when a second tone is presented at the same time.
two-tone suppression
241
the point at which a nerve fiber is firing as rapidly as possible and further stimulation is incapable of increasing the firing rate.
rate saturation
242
a graph plotting the firing rate of an auditory nerve fiber in response to a sound of constant frequency at increasing intensities
rate-intensity function
243
the first brainstem nucleus at which afferent auditory nerve fibers synapse
cochlear nucleus
244
an early brain stem region in the auditory pathway where inputs from both ears converge
superior olive
245
a midbrain nucleus in the auditory pathway
inferior colliculus
246
the part of the thalamus that relays auditory signals to the temporal cortex and receives input from the auditory cortex
medial geniculate nucleus
247
The first area within the temporal lobes of the brain responsible for processing acoustic organization
primary auditory cortex (A1)
248
a region of cortex, directly adjacent to the primary auditory cortex (A1), with inputs from A1, where neurons respond to more complex characteristics of sounds
belt area
249
a region of cortex, lateral and adjacent to the belt area, where neurons respond to more complex characteristics of sounds, as well as to input from other senses
parabelt area
250
an arrangement in which neurons that respond to different frequencies are organized anatomically in order of frequency
tonotopic organization
251
the branch of psychophysics that studies the psychological correlates of the physical dimensions of acoustics in order to understand how the auditory system operates
psychoacoustics
252
The lowest sound pressure level that can be reliably detected at a given frequency
audibility threshold
253
a graph plotting sound pressure level (dB SPL) against the frequency for which a listener perceives constant loudness
equal-loudness curve
254
the process by which a sound at a constant level is perceived as being louder when it is of greater duration (the term also applies to perceived brightness, which depends on the duration of the light)
temporal integration
255
using a second sound, frequently noise, to make the detection of another sound more difficult
masking
256
noise consisting of all audible frequencies in equal amounts
white noise (analogous to white light in vision, for which all wavelengths are present)
257
the range of frequencies conveyed within a channel in the auditory system
critical bandwidth
258
Sound localization is based on _________ and ________ differences.
timing and loudness
259
the difference in time between a sound arriving at one ear versus the other
interaural time differences (ITD)
260
____1____ is the angle of a sound source on the horizontal plane relative to a point in the center of the head between the ears. Measured in ____2____ , with 0 being straight ahead and then increasing clockwise
1) Azimuth 2) degrees (360)
261
a relay station in the brainstem where inputs from both ears contribute to detection of ITDs
medial superior olive (MSO)
262
ITD detectors form connections from inputs coming from two ears during the first few years of life (T/F)
False (months)
263
_______1______ is the difference in level (intensity) between a sound arriving at one ear versus the other. It is largest at __2__ and __2__ degrees; nonexistent for __3__ and __3__ degrees
1) interaural level difference (ILD) 2) 90 and -90 3) 0 and 180
264
______1______ is a relay station in the brainstem where inputs from both ears contribute to detection of the ILDs. _____2_____ connections come from ipsilateral ear; ____3____ connections to LSO come from contralateral ear
1) lateral superior olive (LSO) 2) excitatory 3) inhibitory
265
a region of positions in space where all sounds produce the same ITDs and ILDs
cone of confusion ( turning the head can disambiguate ILD/ITD similarity)
266
a measure that describes how the pinna, ear canal, head, and torso change the intensity of sounds with different frequencies that arrive at each ear from different locations in space (azimuth and elevation)
directional transfer function (DTF)
267
simplest cue for auditory distance perception is ___________ of sound → inverse-square law: decrease in __________ is equal to the distance squared
relative intensity
268
higher frequencies decrease in energy more than lower frequencies as sound waves travel from source to one ear
spectral composition of sounds
269
When people lose their vision, their hearing improves * One reason is that visual cortex gets recruited to process auditory input when visual inputs are no longer available * Some blind people can navigate by making clicks with their mouths and listening to the echoes * fMRI studies show activation in visual cortex in response to auditory clicks for blind people who can navigate through echolocation => this is phenomenon of improved ____________________
Sound localization
270
part of a sound during which amplitude increases (onset) is called _____1_____ and part of a sound during which amplitude decreases (offset) is called _____2_____
1) attack 2) decay
271
processing an auditory scene consisting of multiple sound sources into separate sound images is called _______1_______. Some trategies to segregate sound sources: - __________2__________ - __________3__________
1) auditory scene analysis 2) spatial separation between sounds 3) separation based on sounds’ spectral or temporal qualities
272
the perceptual organization of a complex acoustic signal into separate auditory events for which each stream is heard as a separate event
auditory stream segregation
273
separation of tones that have increasing and decreasing frequencies, or tones that deviate from a rising/falling pattern “pop out” of the sequence
grouping by timbre
274
when sounds begin at the same time, or nearly the same time, they appear to be coming from the same sound source, a phenomenon called ______1_______ →this helps group different harmonics into a single complex tone →consistent with the Gestalt law of ______2_______
1) grouping by onset 2) common fate
275
Experiments using a signal detection task suggest that missing sounds are restored and encoded in the brain as if they were actually present. (in spite of interruptions, one can still “hear” a sound)
principle of good continuation
276
restoration of complex sounds (e.g., music, speech): (T/F) 1) listeners use “higher-order” sources of information, not just auditory information, to restore missing segments 2) gaps in a sound stream are more detrimental if filled with noise rather than with silence 3) with noisy gaps, listeners can reliably specify where the gaps were
1) True 2) False (less detrimental if filled with noise rather than with silence) 3) False (listeners can’t even reliably specify where the gaps were)
277
sensations evoked by solutions in the mouth that contact the receptors on the tongue and the roof of the mouth that then connect to axons in cranial nerves VII, IX, and X
taste
278
the sensation of an odor that is perceived when chewing and swallowing force an odorant in the mouth up behind the palate into the nose; such odor sensations are perceived as originating from the mouth, even though the actual contact of odorant and receptor occurs at the olfactory mucosa
retronasal olfactory sensation
279
The combination of true taste (sweet, salty, sour, bitter) and retronasal olfaction
flavor
280
The branch of cranial nerve VII (the facial nerve) that carries taste information from the anterior, mobile tongue
chorda tympani
281
brain imaging studies show that brain processes odors differently, depending on whether they come from nose or mouth (T/F)
True
282
Two options to enhance flavor: 1. add ________ to intensify sensation of fruit - known to food industry since 1950s 2. add _________ to intensify retronasal olfaction - very recently discovered
1. sugar 2. “volatile” molecules
283
________1_______ is globular cluster of cells that has the function of creating neural signals conveyed to the brain by the taste nerves. They are embedded in structures - _______2_______ and contain taste receptor cells.
1) taste buds 2) papillae (bumps on tongue)
284
Papillae give the tongue its bumpy appearance and come in four major varieties. Which of them contain taste buds? (select all that contain) a) fungiform b) foliate c) filiform d) circumvallate
a) fungiform b) foliate d) circumvallate (only filiform papillae don't contain taste buds)
285
small structures on the tongue that provide most of the bumpy appearance
filiform papillae
286
mushroom-shaped structures distributed most densely on edges of tongue, especially the tip are called ____1____. The average of ____ taste buds per papilla are buried in the surface. {number}
1) fungiform papillae 6
287
folds of tissue containing taste buds, located on the rear of the tongue lateral to the circumvallate papillae
foliate papillae
288
circular structures that form an inverted V on the rear of the tongue (three to five on each side); moundlike structures surrounded by a trench - much larger than fungiform papillae
circumvallate papillae
289
each taste bud can detect multiple kinds of tastants T/F
True coding depends on concentration of different receptors (tongue taste map is a myth)
290
Each taste bud is a ______ of ______________
cluster of elongated cells
291
slender projections on the tips of some taste bud cells that extend into the taste pore; contain the sites that bind to taste substances
microvilli
292
taste bud cells fall into three different groups with different functions: * Type ___ cells → appear to mediate sour taste * Type ___ cells → primarily have housekeeping functions * Type ___ cells → respond to sweet, bitter, or amino acid stimuli
* Type I cells → primarily have housekeeping functions * Type II cells → respond to sweet, bitter, or amino acid stimuli * Type III cells → appear to mediate sour taste
293
we do not yet know which taste receptor cells mediate salty and how they do it (T/F)
True
294
How long is taste receptor's life span?
Couple of days. Replaced by new cells. (This renewal enables the taste system to recover damage, and it explains why our taste systems remain robust even into old age)
295
Extraoral locations for taste receptors - mainly ___________1______________ that mediate sweet and bitter sensations have been found outside the mouth and gut; - in the ____2____, bitter compounds can cause cilia to beat and clear bacteria from airways - in the ____3____, bitter compounds can slow absorption of toxins that are not successfully rejected at the mouth
1) G protein–coupled receptors (GPCRs) 2) upper airways 3) stomach
296
gustatory system pathway: taste buds → cranial nerves → _____________ → (insular) cortex
medulla and thalamus
297
primary cortical processing area for taste; the part of the cortex that first receives taste information
insular cortex
298
secondary taste cortex, also critical for assigning affective value to stimuli, i.e., determining hedonic meaning
orbitofrontal cortex
299
Name for any of the four taste qualities that are generally agreed to describe human taste experience : ______1_______ Name them: ____________2_______________ →our liking (or disliking) for them is hardwired in the brain
1) basic taste 2) sweet, salty, sour, bitter
300
→taste stimuli can be divided into two major groups: 1) salty and sour, mediated by _________________ 2) bitter and sweet, mediated by _________________
1) ion channels (small openings in the membranes of the microvilli) 2) protein receptors (which we now know to be GPCRs in the membranes of the microvilli)
301
candidate for fifth basic taste; the taste sensation produced by monosodium glutamate* (MSG) *important neurotransmitter
umami (controversial: not perceptible in many foods; not a “basic taste” because not everyone reacts in the same way)
302
______ molecules evoke tactile sensations like oily, viscous, creamy, etc. - rats have ______ty acid receptors on their tongues and humans may, too - digesting _______ in the gut produces conditioned preferences for the sensory properties of the food containing ________ (all same word)
fat
303
Survival value of taste: ____1____ - might signal poisons ____2____ - configured to detect acidic solutions that might harm the body ____3____ - our bodies need sodium and sugar to survive
1) bitter 2) sour 3) sweet and salty
304
infants do not show preferences for certain tastes (T/F)
False (infants’ behavior and facial expressions reveal innate preferences for certain foods)
305
theory of taste coding in which each taste fiber carries a particular taste quality (major source of controversy in literature)
labeled lines
306
constant application of certain stimulus temporarily weakens subsequent perception (ex: _________ to salt in saliva affects our ability to taste salt)
adaptation
307
when the taste of one food affects the taste of another (ex: a sour beverage tastes too sour after eating a sweet substance)
cross-adaptation
308
causes the burn; detected by pain receptors (not taste buds!) repeated exposure leads to desensitization of pain receptors, increased ability to tolerate spicy foods
capsaicin (variety of theories why we like it: preservative? signal certain nutrients? endorphin release?) fun fact: no known instances of wild animals enjoying capsaicin
309
collective term for sensory signals from the body (skin, muscles, tendons, joints, and internal receptors)
somatosensation
310
tactile sense, temperature, pain, itch, tickle, pleasant touch
cutaneous senses
311
perception of the position and movement of our limbs in space
kinesthesia
312
perception of the body in space (kinesthesia & vestibular senses)
proprioception
313
touch receptors are connected to ____________ composed of an axon and (optionally) a myelin sheath
“nerve fibers”
314
_____1______ →wide-diameter, myelinated sensory nerve fibers that transmit signals from proprioceptive receptors in muscles and tendons. _____2______ →wide-diameter, myelinated sensory nerve fibers that transmit signals from mechanical stimulation (mechanoreceptor) _____3______→intermediate-sized, myelinated sensory nerve fibers that transmit pain and temperature signals _____4______→narrow-diameter, unmyelinated sensory nerve fibers that transmit pain and temperature signals
1) A-alpha fibers 2) A-beta fibers 3) A-delta fibers 4) C fibers
315
tactile receptors: (T/F) 1) embedded in outer layer (epidermis) and underlying layer (dermis) of skin 2) a tactile receptor consists of a “nerve fiber” and an associated expanded ending 3) all tactile nerve fibers fall into a myelinated class called A-beta fibers
1) True 2) True 3) True
316
The four types of mechanoreceptors can be independently classified according to two attributes describing how they function 1._______________ → the extent of the body area that elicits a receptor response 2._______________ → fast (bursts of action potentials) versus slow
1) size of the receptive field 2) rate of adaptation
317
4 types of tactile receptors: → _____1_____ — fast adaptation, small receptive field (FA I) → _____2_____ — slow adaptation, small receptive field (SA I) → _____3_____ — fast adaptation, large receptive field (FA II) → _____4_____ — slow adaptation, large receptive field (SA II)
1) Meissner corpuscle 2) Merkel disc 3) Pacinian corpuscle 4) Ruffini ending
318
Primary perceptual functions of mechanoreceptor types: 1) Coarse texture and pattern 2) Low-frequency vibration; grasp stability 3) Finger position 4) High-frequency vibration; fine texture
1) SA I (Merkel) 2) FA I (Meissner) 3) SA II (Ruffini) 4) FA II (Pacinian)
319
a sensory receptor located in a muscle that senses its tension →receptors in tendons signal tension in muscles attached to tendons →receptors in joints react when joint is bent to an extreme angle
muscle spindle
320
sensory receptors that signal information about changes in skin temperature are called _____1_____. There are 2 distinct types: _______________2________________
1) Thermoreceptors 2) warmth fibers and cold fibers (thermoreceptors respond when you make contact with an object warmer or colder than your skin)
321
sensory receptors that transmit information about noxious stimulation that causes damage or potential damage to skin are called _______1________. There are two groups of nociceptors: 1) _____2______ - intermediate-sized, myelinated sensory nerve fibers that transmit pain and temperature signals 2) _____3______ - narrow-diameter, unmyelinated sensory nerve fibers that transmit pain and temperature signals
1) nociceptors 2) A-delta fibers 3) C fibers painful events have two stages—quick sharp pain (A-delta fibers) followed by throbbing sensation (C fibers) →difference in speeds is due to myelination
322
Nociceptive neurons detect the ___________ and ___________ stimulation that produces pain
thermal and chemical
323
thermoTRP channel is thermally sensitive __________________ ion channel found in sensory neurons
Transient Receptor Potential
324
classic categories of discriminative touch (4): _______1________ → newly uncovered fifth component of touch: ______2______
1) tactile, thermal, pain, and itch 2) pleasant touch
325
Pleasant touch is mediated by unmyelinated peripheral C fibers known as ________1_________. They respond best to slowly moving, lightly applied forces (e.g., petting) →processed in _____2_____ rather than S1 or S2
1) “C tactile afferents” (CT afferents) - not related to pain or itch 2) orbitofrontal cortex
326
Touch sensations travel as far as 2 meters from skin and muscles of feet to the brain, and information must pass through _____________.
spinal cord
327
Axons of various tactile receptors combine into single _____1_____. →_____2_____ - a theory of sensory coding in which each nerve fiber carries a particular stimulus quality; they become interconnected in _____3_____, allowing complex patterns to emerge
1) nerve trunks 2) labeled lines 3) spinal cord
328
Axons from touch fibers enter the spinal cord in the _____1_____. It is organized into multiple layers called _____2_____
1) dorsal horn (every skin mechanoreceptor projects into the dorsal horn) 2) laminae
329
Inputs to spinal cord are organized ______1______ —adjacent areas of the skin project to adjacent areas in the spinal cord. Complex calculations that enrich touch sensations occur in the _____2_____.
1) somatotopically 2) dorsal horn
330
There are two major pathways from spinal cord to brain: ______1______ carries most of the information about skin temperature and pain (slower) ______2______ carries signals from skin, muscles, tendons, and joints
1) spinothalamic pathway 2) dorsal column-medial lemniscal (DCML) pathway
331
Touch sensations are represented somatotopically in the brain in _________________ and _________________.
primary somatosensory cortex called S1and secondary somatosensory cortex called S2 (brain contains several sensory maps of body in different areas of S1 and also in S2)
332
Pain is generally a subjective experience with two components: _____________________________________
sensation of the painful stimulus and the emotional response to it (Areas S1 and S2 are responsible for sensory aspects of pain)
333
Researchers have identified areas of brain that correspond to more cognitive aspects of painful experiences: _____1_____ - a region of the brain associated with the perceived unpleasantness of pain sensations _____2_____ - a region of the brain concerned with cognition and executive control; may contribute to pain sensitization
1) anterior cingulate 2) prefrontal cortex
334
_____1_____ is a description of the system that transmits pain that incorporates modulating signals from the brain. Bottom-up pain signals from _____2_____ can be blocked via a circuit located in the spinal cord. Neurons in the _____3_____ actively inhibit pain transmission
1) gate control theory 2) nociceptors 3) dorsal horn
335
decreasing pain sensation during conscious experience
analgesia
336
chemicals released in body to block release or uptake of neurotransmitters transmitting pain sensation to brain
endogenous opiates
337
Hairs or monofilaments of varying diameters are pressed against the skin to see if the pressure can be sensed → traditionally measured with ___________ → the smaller the diameter of the monofilament, the less force applied to the skin before it buckles
von Frey hairs
338
Sensitivity to mechanical pressure varies over the body → _____1_____ is most sensitive → _____2_____ next most sensitive → _____3_____ less sensitive
1) face 2) trunk and upper extremities (arms and fingers) 3) lower extremities (thigh, calf, and foot)
339
what is the smallest raised element that can be felt on an otherwise smooth surface?
people can detect a dot only 10 nanometers high!
340
People are also sensitive to changes in pressure over time / tactile vibration T/F
True
341
The minimum distance at which two stimuli are just perceptible as separate is called _____1______. Spatial acuity varies across the body; _____2_____ show the highest acuity
1) two-point threshold 2) extremities (fingertips, face, and toes)
342
For sighted people, tactile sensitivity declines with age (T/F) For blind people, tactile sensitivity increases into older age (T/F)
1) True 2) False, it remains high (= and not >) this implies that people who lose sight later in life may not be able to read Braille because their sensitivity has declined too much
343
brain predicts and attenuates the perception of the self-generated input
sensory attenuation
344
a tactile illusion that is created when the eyes are closed, two fingers of one hand are crossed, and a small object such as an acorn is pressed (especially by another person) into the cleft between the tips of the crossed fingers; brain fails to account for crossing of body parts
Aristotle's illusion
345
a tactile illusion that points appear closer together if presented rapidly in time
rabbit illusion (like “rabbit hopping up the arm”)
346
Name 4 tactile illusions.
body-swapping illusion, rubber hand illusion, rabbit illusion, Aristotle's illusion
347
the sense of smell
olfaction
348
the sense of taste
gustation
349
sniffing in and perceiving odors through our nostrils, which occurs when we are smelling something that is in the air
orthonasal olfaction
350
perceiving odors through the mouth while breathing and chewing (this is what gives us the experience of flavor)
retronasal olfaction
351
the translation of a chemical stimulus into a smell sensation
odor
352
a molecule that is defined by its physiochemical characteristics, which are capable of being translated by the nervous system into the perception of smell
odorant
353
To be smelled, odorants must be: ____________________________. (3)
→ volatile (able to float through the air) → small → hydrophobic (repellent to water)
354
a narrow space at the back of the nose into which air flows, where the main olfactory epithelium is located
olfactory cleft
355
a secretory mucous membrane in the human nose whose primary function is to detect odorants in inhaled air (the “retina” of the nose)
olfactory epithelium
356
olfactory epithelium contains 3 types of cells: 1) __________________ → the main cell type in the olfactory epithelium; they are small neurons located beneath a watery mucous layer in the epithelium 2) __________________ → precursor cells to 1 3) __________________ → provide metabolic and physical support for 1
1) olfactory sensory neurons (OSNs) 2) basal cells 3) supporting cells
357
any of the hairlike protrusions on the dendrites of OSNs; contain receptor sites for odorant molecules; are the first structures involved in olfactory signal transduction
cilium (pl. cilia)
358
_____1_____ is the region on the cilia of OSNs where odorant molecules bind. The mucosa contains ___2___ types of ORs and about ___3___ of each type (numbers)
1) olfactory receptor (OR) 2) 400 [our genes code for about 1000 ORs (~600 are nonfunctional)] 3) 10 000 extra info: it takes seven or eight odor molecules binding to a receptor to initiate an action potential; it takes about 40 nerve impulses for a smell sensation to be reported
359
an extension of the brain just above the nose, where olfactory information is first processed
olfactory bulb
360
a bony structure riddled with tiny holes that separates the nose from the brain at the level of the eyebrows
cribriform plate
361
The first pair of cranial nerves; the axons of the OSNs bundle together after passing through the cribriform plate to form it
olfactory nerves
362
any of the spherical conglomerates containing the incoming axons of the olfactory sensory neurons; each OSN converges onto two of them (one medial, one lateral)
glomerulus (pl. glomeruli)
363
the bundle of axons of the mitral and tufted cells within the olfactory bulb that sends odor information to the primary olfactory cortex
olfactory tract
364
the neural area where olfactory information is first processed, which includes the amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus, and interconnected areas, and also entorhinal cortex
primary olfactory cortex
365
primary olfactory cortex includes ___________, __________________, and interconnected areas, and also ___________________
amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus, and interconnected areas, and also entorhinal cortex
366
a phylogenetically old cortical region that provides the major sensory association input into the hippocampus; receives direct projections from olfactory regions
entorhinal cortex
367
the group of neural structures that includes the olfactory cortex, the amygdala, the hippocampus, the piriform cortex, and the entorhinal cortex (olfaction is unique among the senses for its direct and intimate connection to)
limbic system (Olfaction’s unique connection to the limbic system explains why scents tend to have such strong emotional associations)
368
Odorants can stimulate somatosensory system through ________1________ (touch, pain, temperature receptors). These sensations are mediated by the ________2_______.
1) polymodal nociceptors 2) trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V)
369
It is possible to distinguish between sensations traveling up cranial nerve I from olfactory receptors and those traveling up cranial nerve V from somatosensory receptors. (T/F)
False (It is impossible to distinguish between them)
370
______1_____ is the current dominant biochemical theory for how chemicals come to be perceived as specific odors. →contends that different scents- as a function of odorant-shape to OR-shape fit- activate different arrays of olfactory receptors in the _____2_____. →these various arrays produce specific firing patterns of neurons in the ____3____, which then determine the particular scent we perceive
1) Shape-pattern theory 2) olfactory epithelium 3) olfactory bulb
371
the ability to remember whether or not we’ve smelled an odor before
recognition (discrimination ≠ recognition!) discrimination - tell the difference between
372
psychophysical method for determining the concentration of a stimulus required for detection at a threshold level. →stimulus is presented in increasing concentrations until detection is indicated →then, concentration is decreased until detection ceases →ascending and descending sequence is repeated several times and concentrations at which reversals occur are averaged to determine threshold detection level
staircase method
373
discrimination test in which participant is given three odors to smell, two of which are the same and one that is different →participant must identify the odd odor →the order of the three odors is varied and tested several times to increase accuracy
triangle test
374
2 different metrics: 1) _____________ of an odor from a list of verbal descriptors 2) _____________ - free recall of the correct name for the odor (tip-of-the-nose phenomenon)
1) recognition 2) identification
375
Sense of smell and language may be so disconnected because: (T/F) * olfactory information is not integrated in thalamus prior to processing in cortex * majority of olfactory processing occurs in right side of brain, while language processing occurs in left side of brain
1) True 2) True (both hypothesis)
376
the total inability to smell, most often resulting from sinus illness or head trauma
anosmia (age: by 85, 50% of population is effectively anosmic)
377
Olfactory detection thresholds depend on several factors: (T/F) 1) genetic variability accounts for differences in perception among people with a “normal” sense of smell and those with a specific anosmia 2) women generally have lower thresholds than men (higher detection), especially during the ovulatory period of menstrual cycles. Sensitivity is also heightened during pregnancy. 3) professional perfumers and wine tasters can distinguish up to 20,000 odors
1) True 2) False (women generally have lower thresholds than men, especially during the ovulatory period of menstrual cycles, but sensitivity is *not* heightened during pregnancy) 3) False (they can distinguish up to 100,000 odors)
378
the biochemical phenomenon that occurs after continuous exposure to an odorant, whereby the receptors stop responding to the odorant and detection ceases
receptor adaptation (sense of smell is essentially a change detector)
379
the psychological process by which, after long-term exposure to an odorant, one is no longer able to detect that odorant or has very diminished detection ability (when we live with an odor, we cognitively habituate to it and no longer react to it, or we show a very diminished response to it)
cognitive (olfactory) habituation (unlike receptor adaptation, which can be undone in a few minutes, cognitive habituation requires weeks to reverse, even for pungent trigeminal stimulants)
380
We cannot smell while we are asleep. (T/F)
True (attention increases our ability to detect odors and it is cut off during sleep, so is our ability to respond to odors)
381
the liking dimension of odor perception, typically measured with scales pertaining to an odorant’s perceived pleasantness, familiarity, and intensity
Olfactory hedonics
382
Olfactory hedonics: 1) ___________ - we tend to like odors we have smelled many times before 2) ________ has a more complicated relationship with odor liking: either inverted U-shape function or linearly decreasing function
1) familiarity 2) intensity
383
Are odors really the best cues to memory? (T/F) 1) other modalities can elicit memory as well (e.g., vision, touch, taste) 2) memories triggered by odor cues are distinctive in their emotionality 3) emotion and evocativeness of odor-elicited memories make them especially accurate
1) True 2) True 3) False (emotion and evocativeness of odor-elicited memories *lead to false impression* that such memories are especially accurate)
384
autobiographical memories activated by the senses, particularly smell and taste, can be among the most potent and influential: _________1_________ 1) the ____2____ by which certain odors are encountered- rendering minimal interference from multiple associations 2) very strong ____3____ in olfaction- the first association you acquire to an odor is extremely hard to undo, and subsequent associations are very hard to make
1) the Proust effect 2) low frequency 3) proactive interference effects
385
olfaction is processed in ______1______, which is also the cortical area for assigning affective value (i.e., hedonic judgment)
1) orbitofrontal cortex (these two factors help explain the increased emotionality of smells as opposed to other senses)
386
In animals that rely on smell for survival, the olfactory system consists of two subdivisions: ________1________ and _______2_______. In order for the ________2________ to be activated, a structure called the ______3______ needs to be engaged. In animals that possess it, its primary function is to detect _____4______ (chemicals capable of acting like hormones outside the body of the secreting individual; not odors; chemicals that may or may not have a smell)
1) the main olfactory bulb (MOB) 2) the accessory olfactory bulb (AOB) 3) vomeronasal organ (VNO; sometimes also referred to as Jacobson’s organ) 4) pheromones
387
a more theory-neutral word than “pheromone” should be used when discussing humans. ___________ is any of various chemicals emitted by humans that are detected by the olfactory system and that may have some effect on the mood, behavior, hormonal status, and/or sexual arousal of other humans.
chemosignal
388
The perceptual attribute of colors that enables them to be classed as similar to red, green or blue, or some thing in between
Hue
389
The distance between the lens (or mirror) and the viewed object, in meters.
focal distance
390
A unit of measurement of the optical power of a lens. It is equal to the reciprocal of the focal length, in meters. A 2-________ lens will bring parallel rays of light into focus at ½ meter (50 cm).
diopter
391
An opacity of the crystalline lens.
cataract
392
The condition in which there is no refractive error, because the refractive power of the eye is perfectly matched to the length of the eyeball.
emmetropia
393
The back layer of the retina is called _____1____ what the eye doctor sees through an _______2_______ (device)
1) fundus 2) ophthalmoscope
394
Four primary ways in which the visual system adjusts to changes in illumination:
pupil size, photopigment regeneration, the duplex retina, and neural circuitry
395
scientific theory of the relationship between mind and matter
Psychophysics
396
__________________________ relates physical quantity to the probability of detecting it
psychometric function
397
_______1_________ is cloud of moving dots where some of the dots move coherently in a specific direction and others move randomly. _______2_______ the proportion of dots that move in a consistent and specified direction
1) Random dot kinematogram (RDK) 2) coherence
398
A graphical plot that illustrates the performance of a binary classifier model at varying threshold values
ROC curve (Receiver-Operating-Charachteristic)
399
a way of representing information about a feature through the simultaneous activity of a large set (population) of neurons sensitive to the feature
Population coding
400
The efficient coding hypothesis
neurons maximize the amount of information that they encode about sensory inputs, subject to some constraints, such as metabolic cost, dynamic range, or internal noise
401
the property of being directionally dependent
Anisotropy (e.g. Oblique effect)
402
a formal, mathematical system that combines information about the current stimulus with prior knowledge about the world
The Bayesian observer
403
The universal law of generalization
the probability that an organism perceives two stimuli as similar typically declines exponentially with the difference on the perceptual scale
404
the internal representation of the pre-saccadic scene available after the eye movement
Transsaccadic memory
405
reflects the memory of coarse peripheral information giving a “head-start” to object identification and perceptual decision-making
Transsaccadic preview effect (TPE)
406
averaging of feature information extracted before and after the saccade
Transsaccadic integration
407
when an eye movement fails to bring gaze to the desired saccade target, it is often followed by a fast and automatic second eye movement, which typically brings gaze closer to the intended goal
Corrective Saccades
408
perceptual reports are negatively correlated with previous stimuli and responses (serial dependence)
Contrastive effects
409
perceptual reports are positively correlated with previous stimuli and responses (serial dependence)
Assimilation