Which statement is false? - The generator determines the capacity of the x-ray machine - Greater capacity allows shorter exposure time - Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion sharpness - The most common reason for motion unsharpness is panting

- Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion sharpness

Which statement is false - The kVp describes the strength (penetrating power) of the x-ray beam - The mA describes the number of x-ray photons - To maintain the same exposure, if increasing the mAs you have to elevate the kVp too - The same mAs can be created from different time components

- To maintain the same exposure, if increasing the mAs you have to elevate the kVp too

Which statement is false? - The x-ray radiation is electromagnetic radiation - X-ray beam cannot be deflected by a magnetic field - Particles with higher energy have a higher penetrating power - The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron

- The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron

Which statement is true? - Some digital technologies use x-ray films - Fluoroscopy can be digital or analog - DR systems can be digital or analog - The picture of CR systems can be static or dynamic

- Fluoroscopy can be digital or analog

Which statement is true - Fluoroscopy causes very low radiation exposure - Fluoroscopy is mainly used for static examination - During fluoroscopy the x-ray tube is generally above the animal - Fluoroscope is also called C-arm

- Fluoroscope is also called C-arm

Which of the following statements is true - X-ray can be deflected by magnetic fields - X-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate further than rays with shorter wavelengths - Electromagnetic radiation with higher frequency has more penetrating power through space and matter - Gamma rays are required for the production of a radiograph

- X-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate further than rays with shorter wavelengths

Electrons travel - Toward the cathode in an x-ray tube - Away from the anode in an x-ray tube - Toward the anode in an x-ray tube - None of them are true

- Toward the anode in an x-ray tube

X-ray photons travel - Toward the cathode in an x-ray tube - Away from the anode in an x-ray tube - Toward the anode in an x-ray tube - None of them are true

- None of them are true (out of the x-ray tube --> created when e- drop an orbital)

Increasing the film-object distance - The resulting image will be larger - The resulting image will be sharper - The resulting image will be distorted - Both A and B is correct

- The resulting image will be larger

Which is a characteristic of x-rays? - Their total number produced is determined by kV - Longer wavelengths have more penetrating power - Their intensity increases as SID (source-image distance) decreases - They diverge from a light source

- Their intensity increases as SID (source-image distance) decreases

PQ SAM Flashcards by Silje Terland

Which statement is false?

The generator determines the capacity of the x-ray machine
Greater capacity allows shorter exposure time
Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion sharpness
The most common reason for motion unsharpness is panting

Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion sharpness

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What is the role of the collimator?

Filtration of the scattered beams
Setting the size of the x-ray beam
Setting the strength of the x-ray beam
Reduction of x-ray radiation

Reduction of x-ray radiation

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Which on is not an exposure factor?

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Which statement is false

The kVp describes the strength (penetrating power) of the x-ray beam
The mA describes the number of x-ray photons
To maintain the same exposure, if increasing the mAs you have to elevate the kVp too
The same mAs can be created from different time components

To maintain the same exposure, if increasing the mAs you have to elevate the kVp too

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What is the normal range of tube voltage in small animal radiography?

0,1-2 kVp
1000-2000 kVp
40-100 kVp
4-10 kVp

40-100 kVp

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Which of the above x-ray tubes contains rotating anode?

A (upper)
B (lower)
Both
None

B (lower)

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Which statement is true? The use of the grid

Reduces the radiation exposure
Improves the image contrast
Improves the image sharpness
Reduces the exposure time

Improves the image contrast

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What is not a normal component of an indirect digital system (CR)?

X-ray tube
x-ray film
collimator
PSP plate

x-ray film

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Which statement is false?

The x-ray radiation is electromagnetic radiation
X-ray beam cannot be deflected by a magnetic field
Particles with higher energy have a higher penetrating power
The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron

The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron

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Which part of the x-ray machine is marked in the picture (green box at beginning)?

Generator
Collimator
X-ray tube
Control panel/computer

Generator

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Which statement is true?

Some digital technologies use x-ray films
Fluoroscopy can be digital or analog
DR systems can be digital or analog
The picture of CR systems can be static or dynamic

Fluoroscopy can be digital or analog

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Which statement is true

Fluoroscopy causes very low radiation exposure
Fluoroscopy is mainly used for static examination
During fluoroscopy the x-ray tube is generally above the animal
Fluoroscope is also called C-arm

Fluoroscope is also called C-arm

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The negatively charged particles of an atom is the

Proton
Neutron
Electron
Nucleus

Electron

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As x-rays pass through materials, they have the ability to

Cause some substances to fluoresce (emit visible light)
Completely remove an electron from an atom, leaving the atom positively charged
Cause chemical changes that can kill cells
All of the above

All of the above

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Which of the following statements is true

X-ray can be deflected by magnetic fields
X-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate further than rays with shorter wavelengths
Electromagnetic radiation with higher frequency has more penetrating power through space and matter
Gamma rays are required for the production of a radiograph

X-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate further than rays with shorter wavelengths

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Electrons travel

Toward the cathode in an x-ray tube
Away from the anode in an x-ray tube
Toward the anode in an x-ray tube
None of them are true

Toward the anode in an x-ray tube

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X-ray photons travel

Toward the cathode in an x-ray tube
Away from the anode in an x-ray tube
Toward the anode in an x-ray tube
None of them are true

None of them are true (out of the x-ray tube –> created when e- drop an orbital)

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Ways to increase penetrating power of x-rays include

increasing kVp
Increasing the time setting
Increasing thermionic emission
Increasing mAs

increasing kVp

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The millamperage-second (mAs) for 100 mA and 1/10 sec is

10 mAs
10000 mAs
100 mAs
1 mAs

10 mAs

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According to Santes’ rule, if a cats abdomen measures 8 cm, FFD is 100 cm, kVp is

56 (100 cm = 39,4 inches, (8*2)+39,4 =55,4)

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Increasing the film-object distance

The resulting image will be larger
The resulting image will be sharper
The resulting image will be distorted
Both A and B is correct

The resulting image will be larger

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One percent of the energy produced at the anode is in the form of

heat
X-ray
Light
None of the above

X-ray

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The temperature of the filament within the cathode is controlled by

Time setting
The source-image distance
kVp setting
mA setting

mA setting

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Which is a characteristic of x-rays?

Their total number produced is determined by kV
Longer wavelengths have more penetrating power
Their intensity increases as SID (source-image distance) decreases
They diverge from a light source

Their intensity increases as SID (source-image distance) decreases

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The potential difference between the anode and cathode is measured in - Kilovolts - Kilowatts - Miliamperes - Centimeters

- Kilovolts

Higher kVp settings allows for a ____ mAs and ____ exposure time - higher, higher - higher, lower - lower, lower - lower, higher

- lower, lower

Which of the following increases radiographic density - Thinner body parts - Increased mAs - Increased density of the bodypart being radiographed - Decreased kVp

- Increased mAs

Which of the following radiographs should have the shortest scale of contrast - Abdomen - Thorax - Femur - All are approximately equal

- Femur

The primary exposure factor that controls scatter radiation is - kVp - mAs - Increased exposure time - The collimator setting

- kVp

What do grids contain that controls scatter radiation - Molybdenum - Aluminium - Silver - Lead

- Lead

Where is a grid located - Between the patient and the cassette - Between the patient and the x-ray tube - Above the x-ray tube - Under the cassette

- Between the patient and the cassette

To prevent magnification and distortion of the object being radiographed, the patient must - Be as parallel to the film as possible - Be as close to the film as possible - Be as close to the x-ray tube as possible - Both A and B are correct

- Both A and B are correct

When viewing a radiograph over laterally positioned animal - The head should be at the top of the view box/display - The head should face the viewer's left with this spine at the top - They had shoot face with the viewer's right with the spine at the top - The head should face the viewer's left with the spine at the bottom

- The head should face the viewer's left with this spine at the top

Any body part exceeding this measurement requires the use of a grid to reduce fog producing scatter radiation - 20 cm - 10 cm - 2,5 cm - 30 cm

- 10 cm

Which statement is false - The use of grid is recommended over 10 cm object diameter - Using a grid, the dose of the radiation should be reduced - The grid filters the scatter radiation - The grid contains small lead strips standing vertically or in an angle facing toward the x-ray tube

- Using a grid, the dose of the radiation should be reduced

Which statement is false? The scattered beam - Is negligible concerning radiation safety of the staff - Originates mostly from the patient's body - Is disadvantageous concerning the quality of the radiograph - Is less intense than the primary beam

- Is negligible concerning radiation safety of the staff

Which statement is false? The x-rat beam is - Invisible - Makes chemical changes in photoemulsions - Produces light flash in fluorescent materials - Penetrates bodies without losing energy

- Penetrates bodies without losing energy

Which one does not belong to the basic radiographic opacities - Metal - Wood - Stone - Gas

- Wood

With the use of a grid we can - Reduce the radiation exposure - Improve the image contrast - Improve the image sharpness - Reduce the exposure time

- Improve the image contrast

Which statement is incorrect? The x-ray (is) - ionizing radiation - Electromagnetic radiation - Travels at the speed of light - Consists of charged particles

- Consists of charged particles

What is not a normal component in the digital radiographic technology? - x-ray tube - Intensifying screen - Grid - Collimator

- Intensifying screen

The attenuation of the x-ray beam does not depend on which parameter? - Atomic number - Object thickness - Physical density - Optical density

- Optical density

Which components are different in conventional and digital radiography - x-ray tube - Generator - Grid - Detector

- Detector

What is the main source of the radiation exposure of the personnel? - Leaking radiation from the x-ray tube - The primary beam - The secondary beam originating from the patient - None of them

- The secondary beam originating from the patient

Which statement is false? - Bones are more radiolucent than metals - Fat is more radiopaque than fluids - Gas is more radiolucent than fat - Fluids and soft tissues have the same opacity

- Fat is more radiopaque than fluids

The cause of an unsharp x-ray image cannot be: - Motion - Increased distance between the object and the detector - Low kV - High mAs

- Low kV

Which statement is true regarding the radiographic image? - The distortion is less on the periphery - Distortion can be prevented by centralization - Objects look smaller on radiograph then their real size - Unsharpness may come only from motion

- Distortion can be prevented by centralization

Which statement is true - Image acquisition is faster in CR, than in DR systems - CR systems are cheaper, than DR systems - In the DR systems the cassette contains a PSP plate - A reader or scanner is a normal component of a DR system

- CR systems are cheaper, than DR systems

Which exposure feature could be used in small animal radiography - 8 mAs - 100 mAs - 0,8 mAs - 800 mAs

- 8 mAs

Which statement is false - The mAs describes the number of x-ray photons - Higher capacity generators are required to produce longer exposure time - The contrast of the image is mainly based on the mAs - Scatter radiation is mainly based on mAs

- Higher capacity generators are required to produce longer exposure time

Which statement is false? In case of chest radiography - Longer exposure time is recommended - Smaller exposure values are needed compared to an abdominal radiograph of the same diameter - The contrast will be higher compared to the abdomen - Motion unsharpness is a common problem

- Longer exposure time is recommended

Which exposure factors cause same blackening on the detector than 60kV/8mAs - 70kV/16mAs - 50kV/20mAs - 80kV/2mAs - 40kV/10mAs

- 80kV/2mAs

Which of the following is not an image parameter? - Density - Sharpness - Magnification - Contrast

- Magnification

Which statement is true - The overexposed digital image will be too bright - The overexposed analogue image will be too dark - The underexposed analogue image will be too dark - The underexposed digital image will be too bright

- The overexposed analogue image will be too dark

Which statement is false? - In case of wrong exposure factors the digital image will be mottled - The S-value informs you about the exposure - The image can be mottled both in over- and underexposed cases - Digital systems require much higher doses than analogue systems

- Digital systems require much higher doses than analogue systems

Which statement is true - You don't have to use grid for the chest - You don't have to use grid above 10 cm object thickness - The use of the grid is often not required in digital systems - The create improves the image sharpness

- The create improves the image sharpness (badly translated? Did they mean Grid and Contrast?)

The opacity of which organ differs from the others? - Urinary bladder - Gallbladder - Trachea - Heart

- Trachea

One of the following is NOT a form of protection against ionizing radiation - Distance - Shielding - Dose equivalent - Time

- Dose equivalent

A personal dose meter is - Worn on the outer side of protective clothing - Is obligatory for everybody - Indicates overexposure with light and sound signals - Records the effective dose

- Records the effective dose

The x-ray beam does not - Cause radioactivity - Ionize matter - Travel at the speed of light - Require electric current to generate

- Cause radioactivity

In veterinary diagnostic radiology adverse may include - Stochastic effect - Deterministic effects - Radiation sickness - None

- Stochastic effect

An especially sensitive tissue type for ionizing radiation is - The skin - The bone marrow - The nervous system - None

- The bone marrow

In case of deterministic effects - Severity is proportionate to dose - There is no threshold - The typical unit of measure is Sievert - The most common result is a malignant tumour

- Severity is proportionate to dose

It is officially safe to put a hand in the primary x-ray beam with - Lead gloves on - With nothing on - With a double layer of protective lead on - None of the above

- None of the above

Radon - Is incorporated after inhalation - Is released from industrial fallout - Is generated by x-ray - Is absent in Europe

- Is incorporated after inhalation

X-ray photons in the body normally are not - Absorbed - Reflected - Scattered - Transmitted

- Transmitted

Why can be a structure more radiopaque than the others? - It has the same diameter, but it consists of elements of lower atomical numbers - It has the same material, but thinner - It consists of elements of higher atomic number and has the same diameter - It consists of elements with smaller atomic number and is thinner

- It consists of elements of higher atomic number and has the same diameter

Which statement is false? - The canine tooth is located rostral to the tympanic bulla - The patella is located cranial to the fabella - The sternum is located ventral to the heart - The olecranon is located dorsal to the carpus

- The olecranon is located dorsal to the carpus

What if the object is not in the centre of the detector plate? - The resulting image will be enlarged - The resulting image will be distorted - The resulting image will be unsharp - The resulting image will be overexposed

- The resulting image will be distorted

Which statement is true? - You can't reach into the primary beam even with lead gloves on - The land club protects from the primary beam - If you don't see the bones of your gloved hand on the radiograph, then no radiation was exposed to your hand - Only pregnant women can't reach into the primary beam

- You can't reach into the primary beam even with lead gloves on

What does "Acquisition" mean in digital imaging? - The clouding of electrons around the cathode spiral - The scatter of primary beams around the animal's body - The creating of picture from the electric sign - The equilibrium of exposure factors to optimize the image quality

- The creating of picture from the electric sign

What is not true for DICOM files? - They can be inspected with commercial image vier programs - Contains images of TIFF format - The x-ray images have a size of 10-30 megabytes - They contain metadata besides the image

- Contains images of TIFF format (dcm format, TIFF image)

Which statement is incorrect- Compared to the JPEG image is the DICOM files are - Less appropriate for diagnostics - Bigger - Preferred more by the owner - Cannot be inspected with a medical image viewer program

- Preferred more by the owner

A rarely performed contrast study in small animal radiology - Thoracic cavity infusion - Lacrimal duct contrast study - Laryngeal contrast instillation - None of the above

- Lacrimal duct contrast study

Myelography is primarily used to diagnose - Spinal cord bleeding - Spinal cord compression - Spinal cord necrosis - Brain circulatory disorders

- Spinal cord compression

In myelography, a contrast agent is injected into the following space - Epidural - Subdural - Subarachnoid - Spinal

- Subarachnoid

In the study of megaesophagus one of the following methods is not used - Survey radiographs - Barium sulfate paste swallow - Carbon-dioxine inflation - Feeding barium sulfate mixed with pet food

- Carbon-dioxine inflation

When is liquid barium sulfate entirely emptied from the stomach following per os administration in a healthy dog? - After 1 hour - After 4 hours - After 12 hours - After 24 hours

- After 4 hours

Which of the following retrograde contrast studies is not performed in dogs? - Positive contrast cystography - Negative contrast cystography - Positive contrast urethrography - Negative contrast urethrography

- Negative contrast urethrography

Which statement is false regarding the radiography of the intestinal obstruction - The obturating object and the distended proximal intestinal loops may be seen on the radiograph at the same time - The obturating object may be seen without secondary X-ray signs of the radiograph - In certain cases the radiographic finding may be unremarkable - Contrast study is used in every case to make the diagnosis of intestinal obstruction

- Contrast study is used in every case to make the diagnosis of intestinal obstruction

Which statement is not true? In carnivores the homogenous abdomen - May suggest abdominal effusion - Is normal in young animals - Is normal in cachectic animals - Is normal in obese patients

- Is normal in obese patients

What contrast medium would you choose for double contrast cystography? - Iodinated contrast and barium sulfate - Air and barium sulfate - Iodinated contrast and air - Air only

- Iodinated contrast and air

Which statement is true? In case of an intestinal obstruction - The use of barium sulfate is contraindicated - Unevenly the standard intestinal looks are always visible - The radiograph can be completely normal - The gas filled stomach is pathognostic

- The radiograph can be completely normal

Which contrast can be used to examine the urethra? - Liquid BaSO4 - Powder BaSO4 - Organic iodine compound - Inorganic iodine compound

- Organic iodine compound

Which of the above organs can be generally seen on a survey radiograph - Pancreas - Ovaries - Adrenal glands - Aorta

- Aorta

The best method to detect the rupture of the ureters is - Double contrast cystography - Excretory urography - Excretory urethrography - Retrograde urethrography

- Excretory urethrography

Which statement is true? In small animals - Every uroliths are visible on the survey radiograph - Urethrography is recommended to confirm cystolithiasis - Ectopic ureters can be detected by intravenous cystolithiasis - The best method to confirm urinary bladder rupture is negative contrast cystography

- Ectopic ureters can be detected by intravenous cystolithiasis

Negative bronchogram is typical in which pulmonary pattern? - Nodular pattern - Alveolar pattern - Bronchial pattern - Interstitial pattern

- Alveolar pattern

Which contrast medium can be used in case of a suspected eosophageal perforation - Liquid BaSO4 - Liquid BaSO4 and canned food - Organic iodine compound - Inorganic iodine compound.

- Inorganic iodine compound.

In case of a tracheal hypoplasia the diameter of the trachea is less than - The 1/3 of the length of the third rib - The 20% of the thoracic inlet - The double of the length of the second lumbar vertebrae - One intercostal space

- The 20% of the thoracic inlet

Which of the following is typical for tracheal hypoplasia - The entire trachea is narrower than normal - The trachea is narrowed in the thoracic inlet - The respiratory phase has an influence on the diameter of the trachea - The narrow portion is generally located inside the chest

- The entire trachea is narrower than normal

In which condition can we see the tracheal wall separated from the neighboring tissues - Pneumothorax - Pleural effusion - Pneumomediastinum - Negative bronchogram

- Pneumomediastinum

Which statement is true for the feline esophagus? - The caudal 1/3 on the survey radiograph shows herring bone pattern - The cranial 1/3 on the contrast radiograph shows herring bone pattern - The cranial 1/3 on the survey radiograph shows herring bone pattern - The caudal 1/3 on the contrast radiograph shows herring bone pattern

- The caudal 1/3 on the contrast radiograph shows herring bone pattern

What is the basic structure of the pulmonary pattern - Bronchi - Pulmonary vessels - Alveoli - None of them

- Pulmonary vessels

A vertebral heart scale - Describes the length of the vertebrae - Describes the size of the heart - Can be measured on the VD thoracic radiograph - Can be measured on the LL lumbar spine radiograph

- Describes the size of the heart

Which statement is not true for the tracheal collapse? - Its radiographic appearance is influenced by the respiratory phase - The entire trachea is affected - Its cause is the softening of the tracheal C-cartilage - Toy breeds are affected

- The entire trachea is affected

Which statement is true? On the lateral chest radiograph - The left ventricle is located cranioventrally - The left atrium is located caudodorsally - The right ventricle is located craniodorsally - The right atrium is located caudoventrally

- The left atrium is located caudodorsally

Which statement is false? In case of thoracic effusion - The opacity of the thorax is increased - The outline of the organs gets sharper - Diaphragmatic hernia sometimes cannot be ruled out - Type of the fluid cannot be determined

- The outline of the organs gets sharper

What contrast medium would you use to determine vascular strangulation of the esophagus - Barium-sulfate - Inorganic iodine compound - Air - The use of contrast medium is contraindicated

- Barium-sulfate

Which one is not a pulmonary pattern - Alveolar - Fibrous - Interstitial - Bronchial

- Fibrous

The tracheal hypoplasia is common in which breed? - Dachshund - English bulldog - German shepherd - Irish setter

- English bulldog

Which contrast medium can be used for the non-perforating esophagus - Barium sulfate suspension - Organic iodine - Both - None of them

- Both

Which statement is false? When obtaining radiographs of fractures, it is important - To take orthogonal projection - To have neighboring joints in the picture too - In case of uncertainty take x-ray of the contralateral limb too - Always take radiograph of the thorax too

- Always take radiograph of the thorax too

Which statement is correct? In mature healthy carnivores - The cortical layer of the long bones is radiolucent - The growth plate is radiolucent - The periosteum is not visible in the radiograph - The endosteum is visible on the radiograph

- The endosteum is visible on the radiograph (I think)

What is the normal anatomy of the long bone? - Epiphysis - Metaphysis - Diaphysis - Metaphysis - Epiphysis - Metaphysis - Diaphysis - Epiphysis - Diaphysis - Metaphysis - Diaphysis - Epiphysis - Metaphysis - Epiphysis - Diaphysis - Metaphysis - Epiphysis - Diaphysis - Epiphysis -Metaphysis

- Epiphysis - Metaphysis - Diaphysis - Metaphysis - Epiphysis

Which part of long bones is radiolucent - Cortex - Subchondral bone - Growth plate in young animals - Growth plate in adults

- Growth plate in young animals

Sunburst-like periosteal reaction is typical for which disorder? - Malignant bone tumour - Bone cyst - Osteochondrosis dissecans - Benign bone tumor

- Malignant bone tumour

Which statement is true? - The joint capsule is visible in the radiograph - The subchondral bone is not visible in the radiograph - The joint cartilage is not visible in the radiograph - Joint ligaments are visible in the radiograph

- The joint cartilage is not visible in the radiograph

Which anatomical structure is demonstrated by myelography? - Epidural space - Subdural space - Subarachnoid space - Periarachnoideal space

- Subarachnoid space

Which abnormality can be connected to clinical signs - Spondylosis - Hemivertebrae - Calcified nucleus pulposus - SH-2 epiphyseosis

- SH-2 epiphyseosis

The number of vertebrae in dogs? - 6 cervical, 13 thoracic, 6 lumbar - 7 cervical, 13 thoracic, 7 lumbar - 7 cervical, 12 throacic, 7 lumbar - 6 cervical, 12 thoracic, 6 lumbar

- 7 cervical, 13 thoracic, 7 lumbar

Which answer is true? The radiographic signs of a Wobbler syndrome can be - Deformed cervical vertebrae - Deformed thoracic vertebrae - Deformed lumbar vertebrae - Deformed sacrum

- Deformed cervical vertebrae

Hansen type 1 discus hernia - Is called protrusion in Latin - Is generally acute clinical process - Generally affects large breed dogs - The fibrotic change of the nucleus pulposus in the background

- Is generally acute clinical process

Which radiographic change is not connected generally to clinical signs - Spondylosis deformans - Discospondylitis - Extradural compression of the myelogram - Vertebral fracture

- Spondylosis deformans

Which statement is false regarding discospondylitis - It is characterized by osteolytic changes - It is an aseptic process - The end plates of the vertebrae are affected - It generally goes with pain and pyrexia

- It is an aseptic process

Premedication - Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthesia - Pharmacological intervention prior to recovery of general anesthesia - Pharmacological intervention after induction of general anesthesia - Pharmacological intervention after recovery of general anesthesia

- Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthesia

Calming - Analgesia - Anxiolysis - Sedation - Anesthesia

- Sedation

Reduction of fear - Analgesia - Anxiolysis - Sedation - Anesthesia

- Anxiolysis

Pain relief - Analgesia - Anxiolysis - Sedation - Anesthesia

- Analgesia

Catalepsy may be caused by - Ketamine - Propofol - Fentanyl - Xylazine

- Ketamine

Neuroleptnalgesia. Pick the false answer - Superficial "sleeping" - Analgesia - Caused by phenothiazine + opioid combination - Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination

- Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination

Anesthesia types. Pick the false answer - Local - Regional - Subtotal - General

- Subtotal

General anesthesia criteria. Pick the false answer - Inhalation - Hypnosis - Analgesia - Muscle relaxation

- Inhalation

Balanced anesthesia. Pick the false answer - Achievable with a single "monoanesthetic" drug - Consciousness may be steered with anesthetics - Pain may be controlled by analgesics - Muscle relaxation may be altered via muscle relaxants

- Achievable with a single "monoanesthetic" drug

Dissociative anesthesia. Pick the false answer - Thalamocortical dissociation - Limbic depression - Peripheral analgesia - Alteration of consciousness

- Limbic depression

Phenothiazines may cause life threatening hypotension in - Dobermanns - Boxers - Staffordshire terriers - Greyhounds

- Boxers

Brachycephalic breeds need.. Pick the false answer - Preoxigenation - Short induction - Fast intubation - Early extubation

- Early extubation

MDR-1 gene defect is detected in... Pick the false answer - Australian shepherd - English shepherd - German shepherd - Pug

- Pug

Preanesthetic circulatory examination. Pick the false answer - Mucous membranes - Capillary refill time - Spleen size - Pulse frequency and quality

- Spleen size

Preanesthetic heart function examination. Pick the false answer - Auscultation - Electrocardiography - Ultrasonography - Heart muscle biopsy

- Heart muscle biopsy

Preanesthetic minimal laboratory exam Pick the false answer - Parasitological examination of faeces - White blood cell count and hematocritt - Total plasma protein - Urea, Crea and ALT

- Parasitological examination of faeces

ASA 1. Pick the false answer - Healthy state - Symptom-free state - Low anesthesia risk - Age: 0 day - 8 years

- Age: 0 day - 8 years (6 weeks to 5 years are ASA 1)

ASA 2. Pick the false answer - Mild systemic disease - No apparent functional disorders - Low anesthesia risk - Age: 6 weeks - 5 years

- Age: 6 weeks - 5 years (3 days - 6 weeks & 5-8 years)

ASA 3. Pick the false answer - Severe systemic disease - Visible functional impairment - Age: 6 weeks - 5 years - Not life threatening status

- Age: 6 weeks - 5 years (8-10 years)

ASA 4. Pick the false answer - Severe systemic disease - Constant threat to life - Age: 0-3 days or over 10 years - Age: 6-16 years

- Age: 6-16 years

CEPOD classification. Pick the false answer - I: Immediate, life-saving intervention - II: Urgent intervention - III: Planned for near future - IV: No time for classification

- IV: No time for classification

Preanesthetic fasting. Pick the false answer - Usually 6 hours - Less than 6 hours in very young patients - More than 6 hours in brachycephalic dogs - Only 2 hours in emergency patients

- Only 2 hours in emergency patients

Advantages of premedication. Pick the false answer - Decreases stress, fear and aggression - Lowers anesthetic demand - Decreases drug expenditure and costs - Increases the excitation phase

- Increases the excitation phase

Step of general anesthesia. Pick the false answer - Premedication - Induction - Stadium analgesia - Recovery

- Stadium analgesia

Effects of premedication. Pick the false answer - Decreases pain, stress, fear, aggression - Increases O2-demand - Decreases anesthetic dosage, side effects, costs - Eliminates excitation stage.

- Increases O2-demand

Reasons of vein cannulation. Pick the false answer - Drug administration - Fluid therapy - Emergency access - Monitoring core temperature

- Monitoring core temperature

Preferred drugs for induction. Pick the false answer - Anesthetics with moderate (or NO) side effects - Rapid onset of action - Long duration - Short duration or counteractable

- Long duration

Maintenance of general anesthesia. Pick the false answer - Intramuscular - Intravenous - Inhalation - Epidural

- Epidural

Role of the anesthesiologist. Pick the false answer - Control the depth of anesthesia - Patient monitoring - Reduce surgical time - Maintain homeostasis

- Reduce surgical time

Stages of nacrosis (I-IV). Pick the false answer - Stadium analgesia = induction phase - Stadium excitationis = excitatory phase - Stadium tolerantiae = surgical narcosis - Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis

- Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis

Characteristics of general anesthesia. Pick the false answer. - Unconsciousness - Lack of perception - Analgesia - Muscle rigidity

- Muscle rigidity

Atropine is used for treatment... Pick the false answer - Bradycardia caused by opioids - Reflex-bradycardia caused by alpha2-agonists (hig BP) - AV- and SA blocks - Increased gland-secretion and bronchospasm

- Reflex-bradycardia caused by alpha2-agonists (hig BP)

ACP effects. Pick the false answer - Calming - Vasodilation - Depression of thermoregulation - Emetic

- Emetic (ANTIemetic)

ACP effect. Pick the false answer - Decreases BP - Antihistaminic - Depression of platelet function - Analgesic

- Analgesic

Diazepam and midazolam. Pick the false answer - For old animals with poor general condition - Can be antagonized by atipamezole - Decrease anxiety, relax muscles - High dose causes respiratory depression.

- Can be antagonized by atipamezole

Alpha-2 agonists. Pick the false answer - Alphazalone and alphadolone - Detomidine - Metomidine and dexmedetomidine - Xylazine

- Alphazalone and alphadolone

Alpha2-agonists. Pick the false answer - Sedative - Analgesic - Emetic - Not antagonizable

- Not antagonizable

Medetomidine, xylazine. Pick the false answer . Using a general dose, phases of sedation, induction and maintenance can not be separated - Can be antagonized by flumazenil - Not recommended for old and cardiac and diabetic patients - Cause circulatory and respiratory depression

- Can be antagonized by flumazenil

Opioid drugs. Pick the false answer - Morphine and fentanyl - Buprenorphine and butorphanol - Tramadol and thiopental - Naloxone

- Tramadol and thiopental

Opioid receptors. Pick the false answer - mu - kappa - omicron - delta

- omicron

Fentanyl. Pick the false answer - Full agonist opioid drug - 15-30 minutes duration of effect - Do not combine with propofol - May be redosed

- Do not combine with propofol

Morphine. Pick the false answer - Full agonist opioid drug - 4-6 hours duration of effect - Use high dose IV in mastocytoma patients - May be redosed

- Use high dose IV in mastocytoma patients

Opioids. Pick the false answer - Despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect - Major analgesics - Side effects are bradycardia and respiratory depression - Can be antagonized by naloxone

- Despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect

Full opioid agonist - Morphine - Buprenorphine - Butorphanol - Tremadol

- Morphine

Full opioid agonist - Naloxon - Buprenorphine - Butorphanol - Fentanyl

- Fentanyl

Short duration of action - Morphine - Buprenorphine - Fentanyl - Fentanyl patch

- Fentanyl

Partial mu-agonist - Morphine - Buprenorphine - Butorphanol - Fentanyl

- Buprenorphine

Partial mu-antagonist and kappa-agonist - Morphine - Buprenorphine - Butorphanol - Fentanyl

- Butorphanol

Weak mu-agonist - Morphine - Buprenorphine - Butorphanol - Tremadol

- Tremadol

Propofol. Pick the false answer - Can be used in almost all patient groups - Hypnotic, muscle relaxant and analgesic - Short duration of action, can be redosed - High dose and rapid application lead to respiratory depression

- Hypnotic, muscle relaxant and analgesic

Application of propofol. Pick the false answer - Only in combination with muscle relaxants - Slowly - IV - To effect ???

- Only in combination with muscle relaxants

Ketamine. Pick the false answer - Moderate analgesic effect - Benzodiazepine can help avoid catalepsy - Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients - Eyes remain open, thus the cornea may desiccate

- Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients

Safe inhalat anesthetics. Pick the false answer - Ether - Isoflurane - Sevoflurane - Desflurane

- Ether

Inhalant anesthetics- Pick the false answer - 1 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 50% of cases - 2 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 100% of cases - Hypnotic, muscle relaxant, strong analgesic effect - Short induction and recovery

- Hypnotic, muscle relaxant, strong analgesic effect

Inhalat anesthetics- Pick the false answer - Hypnotic - Muscle relaxant - No analgesic effect - Sedative

- Sedative

Local anesthetics- Pick the false answer - Block nerve cells - Local anesthesia types: terminal, conductive, paravertebral, epidural, spinal - Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anesthetics - Possible side-effects: cardiovascular and CNS signs, cell toxicity

- Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anesthetics

LA side effects. Pick the false answers - Cardiovascular - CNS - Cell toxicity - Respiratory

- Respiratory

Pancuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, rocuronium - Central muscle relaxants - Peripheral non depolarising muscle relaxants - Peripheral depolarising muscle relaxants - Local anesthetics

- Peripheral non depolarising muscle relaxants

Pain. Pick the false answers - Complex, multidimensional negative experience - There is no linear correlation between degree of pathological changes and intensity of pain - Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress - Simultaneous nociceptive effets add up

- Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress

Characteristics of pain. Pick the false answer - Function: physiological or pathological - Origin: organic or psychogenic - Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional - Duration: Acute or chronic

- Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional

Pathological pain. Pick the false answer - Hyperalgesia: mild noxious stimuli result in intense pain sensation - Allodynia: tactile (non-painful) stimuli result in pain sensation - Pain impulse may be inhibited by pain-killers - Never combine pain-killers

- Never combine pain-killers

Ascending pathway of the nociception - Transmission, transduction, modulation, projection and perception - Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection and preception - Transduction, modulation, transmission, projection and perception - Modulation, tranduction, transmission, projection and perception

- Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection and preception

Modern concept of pain management. Pick the false answer - Young animals do not need analgesics - Preemptive (prophylactic) analgesia - Multimodal (multiple approach) analgesia - No gap should appear

- Young animals do not need analgesics

Intraoperative analgesic effect- Pick the false answer - Ketamine CRI - Lidocaine + fentanyl CRI - Local anesthetics + opioids - Inhalation alone

- Inhalation alone

Purpose of anesthesia machines. Pick the false answer - Administer appropriate flow of oxygen - Administer appropriate concentration of inhalants - Administer constant rate infusions - Elimination of exhaled CO2

- Administer constant rate infusions

Mixing part of anesthesia machine. Pick the false answer - Gas source - Flowmeter - Vaporizer - One-way valves

- One-way valves

Breathing circuit of anesthesia machine- Pick the false answer - Y-piece - Reservoir bag - Oxygen bypass button - CO2 absorbent canister

- Oxygen bypass button

Mixing system: - 1 - 1+2 - 3 - 7

- 1+2

High-pressure part of the mixing system - 1 - 2 - 1+2 - 5

- 1

Low-pressure part of the mixing system - 1 - 2 - 1+3 - 3

- 2

Breathing circuit - 2+3 - 3 - 12+14 - 9

- 3

Gas source - 7 - 4 - 6 - 13

- 4

Pressure regulator - 5 - 6 - 7 - 8

- 5

Oxygen bypass - 5 - 6 - 7 - 15

- 6

Flowmeter - 5 - 6 - 7 - 8

- 7

Vaporizer - 5 - 6 - 7 - 8

- 8

Reservoir bag - 8 - 9 - 10 - 11

- 9

Absorpent canister - 6 - 8 - 10 - 15

- 10

Inspiratory one-way valve - 5 - 15 - 12 - 14

- 12

Expiratory one-way valve - 5 - 15 - 12 - 14

- 14

Pop-off (Adjustable pressure limiting) valve - 5 - 15 - 6 - 12+14

- 15

Constant secondary pressure is provided by - 5 - 6 - 7 - 15

- 5

FLow rate of source gas is set by - 5 - 7 - 8 - 15

- 7

Anesthetic concentration is set by - 5 - 7 - 8 - 10

- 8 (vaporiser)

Balances volume changes during inspiration and expiration - 7 - 12 - 14 - 9

- 9 (reservoir bag)

Absorbs exhaled CO2 - 10 - 15 - 8 - 13

- 10 (absorbent canister)

Maintains unidirectional flow in inspiratory ribbed tube - 6 - 12 - 14 - 15

- 12 (insp. one way valve)

Maintains unidirectional flow in expiratory ribbed tube - 6 - 12 - 14 - 15

- 14 (exp- one way valve)

Prevents excessive pressure in the circuit and lungs - 5 - 6 - 9 - 15

- 15 (pop-off valve)

Dead space in the system - 4 - 8 - 9 - 13

- 13 (breathing tubes)

Oxygen-bypass- Pick the false answer - Emergency option - Concentration of inhalational anesthetic in the circuit can be quickly reduced - Pure O2 can directly enter the circuit - The bypass rate is controlled by the flowmeter

- The bypass rate is controlled by the flowmeter

Optional breathing tubes are... Pick the false answer - Ribbed - Short - Wide - Blue

- Blue

Optional size of the reservoir bag is - The respiratory volume - 2 times the respiratory volume - 5 times the respiratory volume - 10 times the respiratory volume

- 5 times the respiratory volume

The absorbent canister is part of the... pick the false answer - Open system - Semi-open system - Semi-open and semi-closed systems - Semi-closed and closed systems

- Semi-closed and closed system

CO2 absorption. Pick the false answer - The absorbent canister contains absorbing soda - The absorbing soda granules have rough surface - The absorbing sode granules consist of Mg-hydroxide - Exhaution of the soda is indicated by discoloration

- The absorbing sode granules consist of Mg-hydroxide

The pop-off valve (Adjustable pressure liming value)... Pick the false answer - Prevents excessive pressure in the circuit and lungs - Is open during spontaneous breathing - Is set to 20 cmH20 during manual or mechanical ventilation - Is set to 40 cmH2O in case of compromised lung

- Is set to 40 cmH2O in case of compromised lung

Advantages of semi-open narcosis systems. Pick the false answer - Low resistance - Small mechanical dead space - Anesthetic concentration can be quickly modified - Large anesthetic consumption

- Large anesthetic consumption

Advantages of closed narcosis systems. Pick the false answer - Low source gas consumption - Low inhalation anesthetic consumption - Cheap - Easily controllable depth of anesthesia

- Easily controllable depth of anesthesia

Narcosis systems. Pick the false answer - Open circuit - Semi-open system - Semi-closed circuit - Closed circuit

- Open circuit

Indications for mechanical ventilation. Pick the false answer - Open thorax - Neuromuscular blockade - Hypoventilation caused by severe hypothermia - Decreased etCO2 level

- Decreased etCO2 level

IPPV (Intermittent Positive Pressure Ventilation). Pick the false answer - Commonly used type of mechanical ventilation - Airway pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure during inspiration - Airway pressure falls to atmospheric pressure during passive expiration - Can not be used in large dogs

- Can not be used in large dogs

Physiological dead space means - Anatomical dead space - Anatomical + alveolar dead space - Alveolar dead space - Anatomical + apparatus dead space

- Anatomical + alveolar dead space

Inspiration. Pick the false answer - Spontaneous inspiration is caused by decreasing interpleural pressure - IPPV inspiration is caused by increasing interpleural pressure - Expiration is spontaneous in both cases - IPPV expiration is caused by negative interpleural pressure

- IPPV expiration is caused by negative interpleural pressure

CNS effects of IPPV. Pick the false answer - Controlled hyperventilation reduces CO2 level in the blood - Reduced CO2 level causes arterial vasoconstriction - Arterial vasoconstriction decreases intracranial pressure - Severely decreased intracranial pressure supports cerebral oxygenation

- Severely decreased intracranial pressure supports cerebral oxygenation

Volume-controlled time-cycle mechanical ventilation. Pick the false answer - Common in veterinary anesthesia - Constant flow during inspiration - Inspiratory pressure decreases during inspiration to maintain constant airflow - Inspiratory phase ends after preset inspiratory time

- Inspiratory pressure decreases during inspiration to maintain constant airflow

Triggering type (initiation of inspiratory phase). Pick the false answer - Time - Pressure - Flow - Concentration

- Concentration

Parameters of ventilation. Pick the false answer - Tidal volume: 10-15 ml/bwkg - Respiratory rate: 80-100/min - Inhalation/exhalation time ratio: 1:2-1:3 - Target values: 35-45 mmHg etCO2 and 100% SpO2

- Respiratory rate: 80-100/min

Blood pressure measuring methods- Pick the false answer - Femoral pulse quality evaluation - Invasive direct - Noninvasive doppler - Noninvasive oscillometric

- Femoral pulse quality evaluation

Blood pressure measurement at right atrial height - Measure lower, the value will be higher - Measure higher, the value will be lower - 10 cm height difference results in a deviation of 7,36 mmHg - 10 cm height difference results in a deviation of 73,6 mmHg

- 10 cm height difference results in a deviation of 7,36 mmHg

Cuff size for BP measuring. Pick the false answer - Patients of different sizes require different sizes of cuffs - Optimal cuff's with is 40% of leg's circumference - Optimal cuff's with is 140% of leg's circumference - Wider cuff produces lower BP value and vica versa

- Optimal cuff's with is 140% of leg's circumference

The MAP (Mean Arterial Pressure) is - Average of the systolic and diastolic values - Rarely lower than diastolic pressure - Closer to diastolic pressure than to systolic pressure - Closer to systolic pressure than diastolic pressure

- Average of the systolic and diastolic values

Urine production during general anesthesia - 0,1-0,2 ml/bwkg/h - 1-2 ml/bwkg/h - 10-20 ml/bwkg/h - 100-200 ml/bwkg/h

- 1-2 ml/bwkg/h

Pulse oximetry. Pick the false answer - Noninvasive method - Continuous measurements - Measurement of O2 saturation of Hb (%) - The target value is 89%

- The target value is 89%

Pulse oximetry. Pick the false answer - Physiological range of oxygen saturation: 35-45 mmHg - Sensor can be placed on tongue, ear etc. - In case of transmission-type sensors one side emits, while the other detects light - Absorption depends on oxyHb/desoxyHb ratio

- Physiological range of oxygen saturation: 35-45 mmHg

Most pulse oximeters display - Signal strength - Saturation and pulse frequency - Plethysmogram - Ratio of abnormal/normal hemoglobin types

- Ratio of abnormal/normal hemoglobin types

Correlation between paO2 and SpO2 - Positive correlation - Negative correlation - Can be shown with sigmoid curve - Small changes in SpO2 are caused by large changes of paO2 (in the physiological range)

- Can be shown with sigmoid curve

Causes of malfunction of pulse oximeter. Pick the false answer - Strong pulse - Total light absorption - Improper contact - Interference with electrosurgical devices

- Strong pulse

Capnometry. Pick the false answer - Physiological range of etCO2: 35-45 mmHg - Capnogram may be divided into 4 phases - In case of hypoventilation etCO2 decreases - Exhausted CO2 absorbent soda lime increases inhaled CO2 level

- In case of hypoventilation etCO2 decreases

Correlation of paCO2 and etCO2. Pick the false answer - Positive correlation - Negative correlation - PaCO2>etCO2 - The difference in small animals is 2-5 mmHg

- Negative correlation

Capnograph types - Side-flow and main-flow measuring - Left-sided and right-sided measuring - Low-flow and high-flow measuring - Mono-flow and multi-flow measuring

- Side-flow and main-flow measuring

Capnogram phases - Phase 1 (inhalation), Phase 2 (exhalation begins), Phase 3 (exhalation ends), Phase 4 (inhalation begins) - Phase 1 (exhalation begins), Phase 2 (exhalation ends), Phase 3 (inhalation begins), Phase 4 (inhalation) - Phase 1 (exhalation ends), Phase 2 (inhalation begins), Phase 3 (inhalation), Phase 4 (exhalation begins) - Phase 1 (inhalation begins), Phase 2 (inhalation), Phase 3 (exhalation begins), Phase 4 (exhalation ends)

- Phase 1 (inhalation), Phase 2 (exhalation begins), Phase 3 (exhalation ends), Phase 4 (inhalation begins)

Causes of decreasing etCO2- Pick the false answer - Acute respiratory distress (e.g. hyperventilation) - Acute respiratory distress (e.g. hypoventilation) - Acute circulatory distress (e.g. decreased heart minute volume) - Acute metabolic distress

- Acute respiratory distress (e.g. hypoventilation)

Causes of zero etCO2 on the capnograph's display. Pick the false answer - Capnograph performs calibration (calibration message is displayed) - Cardiac arrest, respiratory arrest - Tube malposition, disconnection - Capnoperitoneum (endoscope)

- Capnoperitoneum (endoscope)

Causes of rebreathed CO2- Pick the false answer - High flow in semi-open nonrebreathing system - Exhausted soda lime - Stucked one-way valves - Large dead space

- High flow in semi-open nonrebreathing system

Core-temperature can be measured with... Pick the false answer - Pharingeal probes - Esophageal probes - Rectal probes - Thermocamera

- Thermocamera

Warming hypothermic patient- Pick the false answer - Heating pads - Infrared lamps - Covers and heat mirrors - Hot IV infusion

- Hot IV infusion

Close control of blood glucose level is needed in... Pick the false answer - Very small or young patients - Acute trauma and shock patients - Cachectic or weak patients - Diabetic or insulinoma patients

- Acute trauma and shock patients

Monitoring of anesthetized patients involves assessment of... Pick the false answer - The stage of narcosis - Pain markers - Patient's parameters - Owner's consent

- Owner's consent

Which is NOT the part of the status presens - Nationale - Basic clinical values - General impression - Examination of the genitals

- Nationale

Which are most specific symptoms to heart disease/heat failure? - Respiratory arrhythmia, cough - Porcelain white mucous membranes, dyspnoe - Murmur, arrhythmia, dyspnea - Ascites, subcutaneous eodema

- Murmur, arrhythmia, dyspnea

Which is NOT additional examination - Biopsy - Cystocentesis - Percussion - Fine needle aspiration

- Percussion

What is the normal pulse (/min) in cats at the clinic - 60-70 - 120-130 - 140-180 - 220-250

- 140-180

The bronchial respiratory sounds can be heard under normal (physiological) conditions - Only above the lungs - Above the larynx and trachea - Only above the larynx - Only above the trachea

- Above the larynx and trachea

Which sentence is NOT correct? In dogs - The cough originated in the larynx is retching/gagging like, has a tendency to vomit - The cough is tracheitis is loud, explosive, barking like - The cough in trachea collapse in goose honking like - The cough in chronic bronchitis, emphysema is high, intensive, explosive, barking like

- The cough in chronic bronchitis, emphysema is high, intensive, explosive, barking like

Which sentence is NOT true? - Held inspiration can be due to narrowed upper airway's - Held inspiration can be due to increased abdominal pressure - Help expiration can be due to decreased lung elasticity - The narrowed upper airways cause mostly held expiration

- The narrowed upper airways cause mostly held expiration

Which statement is false - Regurgitation is passive and consequence of disorder of oesophagus or pharynx - Vomiting is characterized by active abdominal movement and preceded by nausea - The vomited content is always digested and the pH is always acidic - The pH of the regurgitated content is usually alkalic

- The vomited content is always digested and the pH is always acidic

Which examination methods can be used for the examination of the bone marrow? Please mark the Incorrect answer - Complete blood count - Abdominal ultrasonography - Bone marrow core biopsy - Bone marrow aspiration cytology

- Abdominal ultrasonography

What is ataxia - Incoordinated movement - Abnormal proprioception - Muscle weakness - Loss of vestibular function

- Incoordinated movement

Method of the hepatojugular reflux test? - Compress the epigastrium and observe the v. jugularis - Compress the jugular vein and observe refilling - Compress the v. jugularis on one side and observe the other side - Compare the jugular vein to the vena cava

- Compress the epigastrium and observe the v. jugularis

Part of brain responsible for mental status is - Medulla oblongata - Thalamocortex - Chiazma - Limbic system

- Thalamocortex

Which is not a mark? - Whorl - Chestnut - Tattoo - Blaze

- Tattoo

Which corticosteroid is recommended in treatment of shock - Dexamethasone - Hydrocortisone - Prednisone - Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

- Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

When can a horizontal dullness occur during thoracic percussion? - Pneumothorax - Thoracic fluid accumulation (pleural effusion) - Foreign body in the thorax - None of the above

- Thoracic fluid accumulation (pleural effusion) | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

What changes do you expect to find in case of severe PDA? - Left ventricular dilation - Right ventricular dilation - Left arterial dilation - Right arterial dilation

- Left ventricular dilation | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

In which alteration is the dislocation of the cardiac dullness can be characteristic? - Pneumothorax - Space occupying lesion within the thoracic cavity - Both - None of the above

- Space occupying lesion within the thoracic cavity (Original text said; space occupying ass within the thoracic cavity) (I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad)

What changes do you expect to find in case of dilated cardiomyopathy DCM? - Left ventricular dilation - Right ventricular dilation - Left arterial dilation - Right arterial dilation

- Left ventricular dilation | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which can be a congenital pericardial disease - Pericarditis - Pericardiac tympany - PPHD - Pericardiac constriction

- PPHD | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which answer is not good? The hemodynamic parameters that determine heart rate include -I don't have any alternatives

- The relative ratio of the amount of blood pumped by the two sides of the heart (The primary haemodynamic parameters are: Heart rate, Blood pressure, stroke volume and cardiac output)

What is NOT characteristic of feline hypertrophy cardiomyopathy HCM - Causes left sided heart dilation - Causes right sided heart dilation - Thromboembolism may occur - Pulmonary edema may occur

- Causes right sided heart dilation | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Not typical clinical sign in cats in case of so-called riding thrombus - Hindlimb paralysis - Cold feet - Dyspnoe - Painful hindlimb

- Dyspnoe | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

What is not typical of the surgery of PRAA? - Left lateral thoracotomy in the 4th intercostal space - Ligature and transection of Botallo ligament - Dissection and balloon dilation of the strangulated esophagus - Circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest

- Circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which of the following is the main shock organ of the horse and dog? - Liver - Heart - GI tract - Lungs

- GI tract | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

In which clinical category can hemoglobinuria occur during canine heartworm disease? - During category 1 - During category 2 - During category 3 - During category 4

- During category 4 | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which part of the stomach usually dislocates in paraoesophageal (rolling) hiatal hernia - Fundus - Cardia - Liver - Pylorus

- Fundus | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which of the following diagnostic tools is the next to be chosen in case of uncertain finding in suspected diaphragmatic hernia - CT - AST & ALKP - Ultrasonography - Radiology

- Ultrasonography | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

The most common heart disease in dogs? - HCM - DCM - Mitral endocardiosis - Heart arrhythmias

- Mitral endocardiosis | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

How can you distinguish between a ventricular extrasystole and a supraventricular arrhythmia on the ECG? - I don't know what to put..

- Ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause

Which of the following is the main shock organ of the horse and cat - Liver - Heart - GI tract - Lungs

- Lungs

Which part of the stomach usually dislocated in case of sliding (axial) hiatal hernia - Fundus - Cardia - Liver - Pylorus

- Cardia

Classification of Pimobendane? - Ca channel sensitizer - Phosphodiesterase inhibitor - Both A & B - None of the above

- Ca channel sensitizer and phosphodiesterase inhibitor | I split them up, but they may be together in the exam

What are the three major components of the complex treatment of canine heartworm disease - Doxycycline, melarsomine & febantel - Doxycycline, melasomine & fenbendazole - Doxycycline, moxidectin & melasomine - Doxycycline, moxidectin & fenbendazole

- Doxycycline, moxidectin & melasomine | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which of the following organs is the source of the MDF release in shock - Liver - Pancreas - Kidney - GI-tract

- Pancreas | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which statement is true regarding the antigen test result in canine heartworm disease - Strength of reaction does not matter regarding the number of worms within the affected animals - Strength of reaction does matter regarding the number of worms within the affected animals

- Strength of reaction does not matter regarding the number of worms within the affected animals

What is NOT needed to a standard echocardiographic examination - Sector transducer - Convex transducer - Linear transducer

- Linear transducer | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

The most recommended drug combination for the chronic treatment of congestive heart failure - ACE inhibitors Spironolactone - Angiotensin-2 receptor blockers Telmisartan - Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists Spironolactone - Beta blockers Carvedilol

- ACE inhibitors Spironolactone | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which of the following types of shock SIRS is rated in - Hyperoxic - Hypercapnic - Hypoxic - Hypocapnic

- Hypoxic | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Ventricular extrasystoles are - Caused by ventricular disease - Caused by atrial disease - Caused by pericardial disease - Caused by extracardiac disease

- Caused by atrial disease | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which statement is incorrect concerning congenital diaphragmatic hernias - The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited - The peritoneopericardial hernia is not inherited - The peritoneopericardial hernia is a defect of the septum transversum - Clinical signs of peritoneopericardial hernia is non-specific

- The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which macrocyclic lactone is used in our university clinic as part of the complex treatment of heartworm disease - Avermectins - Milbemycin - Moxidectin - Ivermectin

- Moxidectin

Suture type. Pick the false answer

- Regardless of the suture type, the knots need to be placed on the suture line

Which is the first compensation during heart failure? - Heart rate increase - Heart rate decrease - Pale mucous membranes - Dyspnea

- Heart rate increase | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which solution of the mostly potentially alkalizing effect in the treatment of metabolic acidosis - KHCO3 - H2CO3 - NaHCO3 - CaCO3

- NaHCO3 | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which of the following parameters decreased in DIC - D-dimer - Fibrinogen - PT - PPT

- Fibrinogen | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

What is the typical physical finding during the FIP coinciding with fluid accumulation - Water like serous fluid during puncture - Yellowish-green exudate during puncture - Yellowish-brown exudate during puncture - Honey like viscous exudate during puncture

- Honey like viscous exudate during puncture | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

An ECG is most appropriate (indicated) if - When the heart rate of a dog arrived at the clinic is at 120 bpm - When the heart rate of a dog arrived for vaccination is 200 bpm - When the heart rate of a cat arrived at the clinic is at 220 bpm - When the heart rate of a cat arrived for vaccination is 200 bpm

- When the heart rate of a dog arrived for vaccination is 200 bpm (I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad)

Typical clinical findings in case of dog haemopericardium - Distorted heart sounds - Distant heart sounds - Decreased rhythm of the heart - Increased resonance of the heart

- Distant heart sounds | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

What is the most reliable diagnostic method in pneumothorax - Thoracocentesis - Radiography - Ultrasound - CT

- Radiography | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which pulmonary vessels can be altered on the thoracic xray during canine heartworm disease - Pulmonary arteries - Pulmonary veins - Both - None of the above

- Pulmonary arteries | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which type of perineal hernia is the most common one in bitches? - Sciatic perineal hernia - Dorsal perineal hernia - Ventral perineal hernia - Perineal hernia does not happen in bitches

- Perineal hernia does not happen in bitches

Which of the following abdominal organ does usually not dislocated in PPDH - Liver - Kidney - Spleen - GI-tract

- Spleen | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Consequence of the left heart failure - Enlarged liver - Distention of V. jugularis - Pulmonary edema - Abdominal distention

- Pulmonary edema

Which is the wrong answer? Supraventricular arrhythmias are - Fibrosis of the AV node - Fibrosis of the supraventricular node - Distention of the AV node - Distention of the supraventricular node

- Fibrosis of the AV node | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which does not belong to the abnormal remodeling process of the heart? - Change in the number of myocardial cells - Changes in the myocardial cell connection - Changes in the size of the myocardial cells - None of the answers above

- Changes in the myocardial cell connection | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which has the highest microbial number at the beginning of the surgery - Surgical gloves - Surgical scalpel - The skin of the patient - Surgical scissors

- The skin of the patient

Pacemaker implantation is justified? - For treatment of 1st degree AV block - For treatment of 2nd degree AV block - For treatment of 3rd degree AV block - Only for treatment of 4th degree AV block

- For treatment of 3rd degree AV block | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of an animal with ventricular arrhythmia

Digoxin administration | C Troponin I measurement

Explanation of cardiovascular failure - Caused by congenital heart disease only - Caused by acquired heart disease only - Caused by primary heart disease or secondary heart changes - Clinical signs are pathognomic

- Caused by primary heart disease or secondary heart changes

Which answer is true - The efficiency of the surgical scrubbing depends primarily on how hard you rub in - The efficiency of the surgical scrubbing depends primarily on the exposure time and not how hard you rub in - During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile - None of the above

- The efficiency of the surgical scrubbing depends primarily on the exposure time and not how hard you rub in

Which answer is false - The efficiency of the surgical scrubbing depends primarily on the exposure time and not how hard you rub in - During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile - During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface cannot be made completely sterile - None of the above

- During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile

Which step is not recommended when treating animals with refractory heart failure

Parenteral administration of an ACE inhibitor

Which parameter is the most specific for DIC - Fibrinogen - Liver enzymes - FDP - Azotaemia

- FDP | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Electrosurgery, Choose the incorrect statement

- The efficiency and safety of monopolar system is better

What can we conclude from the speed of flow during doppler echography

- The pressure difference between the heart chambers

What lesion is expected in severe dilated cardiomyopathy - Left heart distention - Right heart distention - Eccentric hypertrophy - Concentric hypertrophy

- Left heart distention | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

What lesion is expected in severe pulmonary stenosis - Left arterial hypertrophy - Right arterial hypertrophy - Left ventricular hypertrophy - Right ventricular hypertrophy

- Right ventricular hypertrophy | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

What lesions are expected in severe aortic stenosis? - Left arterial hypertrophy - Right arterial hypertrophy - Left ventricular hypertrophy - Right ventricular hypertrophy

- Left ventricular hypertrophy | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

What treatment should be given to a dog with B2 level mitral endocardiosis? - Spirolactone - Pimobendan - Carvedilol - Telmisartan

- Pimobendan | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

# Choose the incorrect answer - During sterilisation all pathogen microbes are destroyed, but non-pathogenic microbes remain on the surface of instruments - During autoclave all pathogen microbes are destroyed, but non-pathogenic microbes remain on the surface of instruments - During autoclave all pathogen and non-pathogenic microbes are destroyed - Autoclave uses at least 121 C for 30-60 minutes

- During autoclave all pathogen microbes are destroyed, but non-pathogenic microbes remain on the surface of instruments

What kind of diagnostic tests are needed during the screening examination of canine heartworm disease - PCR only - Drip test only - Modified Knott test only - Serological antigen test only

- Modified Knott test only

Which of the following approaches is mostly recommended in case of diaphragmatic hernia repair

- Laparotomy

What modality is used to two-dimensional real-time imaging of cardiac structures - S-mode - K-mode - M-mode - A-mode

- M-mode

Why can we boldly reduce preload in heart failure?

- Because the afterload will offset the reduction of the preload anyway

Lidocaine and mexitil may be used...

- For the treatment of ventricular tachycardia

Typical echocardiographic findings in dogs in case of DCM

- Both of them

PDA means..

Patency of the botallo duct

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding incisional hernia

Iatrogenic complication

Which is the wrong answer? May play a role in the progression of heart failure

Cardiac acetylcholine receptor numbers and function altered (down regulation)

For which disease is "heart palpation" obtusio cordis changes specific?

Space consuming the chest

After physical and auxiliary examinations, we diagnose mitral endocardiosis, but the typical symptoms are not present yet. Which stage can we put the patient in?

AHA-B

Basic therapy for endocardiosis with typical symptoms present

Furosemide, potassium, pimobendan

Which congenital heart disease has a specific continuous machinery heart murmur as a symptom

PDA

The herniation/strangulation of which organ cause acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia

Bladder

The most common color code meaning in color doppler echocardiography

Red: blood flow towards the transducer, blue: blood flow away from the transducer

Typical for PRAA

Abnormal development of the aortic arch

Which congenital heart disease is more common in female dogs?

PDA

In which stage of heartworm disease can ascites happen in dogs? - 1 - 2 - 3 - 4

- 3

Which is the wrong answer= If we increase the preload

We can induce stagnancy

Which mode can be used for real-time 2 d visualization of the structure of the myocardium

M mode

What drug should be given for a B1 stage mitral endocardosis canine patient - Furosemide - Pimobendan - Carvedilol - Telmisartan

- Furosemide | I'm just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

What CANNOT be determined by color Doppler ultrasound

The character of blood flow (laminar or turbulent)

An ECG is most appropriate (indicated) if

When a cat that arrived from flea prevention has 120 bpm heart rate

Suture material, choose the incorrect answer

The size of the suture material is given in either metric unit (e-g- 1- European Pharmacopoeia) or in USP unit (5-0 United States Pharmacopoeia)

Knot tying technique- Choose the wrong answer

In case of systhetic monofilament suture material less knots (3-4), in case of multifilament more knots (5-6) are needed for a safe tie

Which of the following drugs has no afterload decreasing effect

Digoxin

The most common heart disease in cat is

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

Which drug does not have a significant diuretic effect in small animals

Spirolactone

Can diaphragmatic hernia be diagnosed by ultrasound - Yes - No - Need xray as well - Need CT as well

- Yes

How can you distinguish between a ventricular and a supraventricular arrhythmia on the ECG

The QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrythmias

Which anal zone involves circumanal hepatoid gland - Zone cutanea - Linea anorectalis - Zona intermedia - Zone colimnaris

- Zone cutanea (I think)

Which of the following procedures is most frequently used for cholecystolith removal - Cholecystotomy - Cholecystectomy - Cholecystoenterostomy - Choledochostomy

- Cholecystectomy (I think, it is used for Cholelithiasis)

Which type of small intestinal obstruction has usually the poorest prognosis - Linear foreign body idegentest - Obturation - Ileus - Mesenteric torsion

- Mesenteric torsion

Cyanotic mucous membranes

Gastric dilation and volvulus (GDV), shock (depends on what alternatives are given)

Recommended treatment in weighty FORL (feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions)

(Depends on stage, 4 different stages) usually tooth extraction and crown amputation

Which BAOS surgery technique causes less wide soft palate - FFPP (folded flap palatoplasty) - Soft palate resection - Tonsillectomy - Sacculectomy

- FFPP (folded flap palatoplasty)

Which disease is associated with ascites in cats

Lymphocytic cholangitis (LC)

Give antibiotics in case of diarrhoea

Only in case of sepsis

An additional test is recommended for mild acute small bowel diarrhoea

Fecal parasitical examination

Which is false, Eosinophilic granuloma complex

Only diagnosable with RTG (x-ray)

Which is true for gastric disease

Stomach ulcers are often caused/exacerbated by NSAIDs

What sickness cause portal hypertension

Connected to heaptic arterio-venosus fistula (also hepatic venous outflow obstruction)

Which statement is true, Feline ALP

Feline ALP isoenzymes: liver, bone

Which statement is false?

Increased lipoprotein synthesis, therefore decreased triglyceride levels in the liver

It is not used for surgical resolution of cleft palate

True: Rotational flap, advancement flap

``` This is NOT true for perianal adenoma uncommon in females common in males malignant originates from the anal sac in females in males it starts mainly from the perianal sinuses ```

same Q- different answers: In males it starts/originates mainly form the perianal sinuses malignant originates from anal sac in females

Which statement is true

Excessive inflation of the stomach may interfere with gastroscopic examination of the antrum and pylorus

An indication for lobectomy may be one of the following - EHBO - abscess (if liver)

Acute, extrahepatic biliary obstruction (EHBO) | or abscess

What is NOT true for perianal adenoma

In males it mainly originates from the paranasal sinuses

Cyanotic mucous membranes

Shock signs

Which statement is false= Hepatic lipidosis in cats

Increased lipoprotein synthesis due to starvation, resulting in decreased triglyceride levels in the liver

Which statement is false? Hepatic lipidosis in cats

Increased lipoprotein synthesis due to starvation, resulting in decreased triglyceride levels in the liver

Where is it advisable to infiltrate the area of the tonsils before tonsillectomy performed under anesthesia

(Epinephrine-infiltration topically = adrenalin) --> vasoconstriction and reduce bleeding

Characteristic of lympgangiectasia

Ascites, hydrothorax, weight loss, emaciation

Which is false? EOGC ((fe) eosinophilic granuloma complex) - Eosinophilia could be in the blood - Allergy has a role in the pathogenesis - It could be diagnosed just with RTG (Xray) - Cyclosporin possible therapy method

- It could be diagnosed just with RTG (Xray)

Which is true for stomach disease

The non-steroid anti-inflammatory, metabolic disorders, glucocorticoides are predisposing for stomach ulcers

Which disease cause portal hypertension

Arterio protal/Arteriovenous AVF- fistula

Recommended treatment in weighty FORL (feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions)

(Depends on stage, 4 different stages) usually tooth extraction or crown amputation of all affected teeth

Which disease cause portal hypertension

Arterio portal/Arteriovenous AVF

Which is true?

Cat ALP (isoenzyme: liver, bone) (Not steroids in cats!)

The EPI exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, not true

The satiety and returning colon origin diarrhoea

Which is the clinical symptoms of stomach disease

Vomiting hematemesis anorexia

Which BAOS surgery technique could make your soft palate more thin?/ "less wide" in other PQ - FFPP (folded flap palatoplasty) - Soft palate resection - Tonsillectomy - Sacculectomy

Folded flap palatoplasty

Which one is false in Primer Cu storage disease

Cholestasis causes Cu accumulation

What is gastropexy?

Surgical procedure where the stomach is sutured to abdominal wall OR diaphragm (so it cannot twist anymore)

Which is false? Cats with hepatic lipidosis

Increased lipoprotein synthesis due to starvation, therefore decreased triglyceride levels in the liver

Which disease is associated with ascites in cats

What are clinical symptoms of gastric disease

Anorexia, hematemesis, vomiting

Indication for lobectomy

Abscess

Which statement is true for esophageal diseases

Appetite

Infiltrating tonsillectomy during anesthesia

Adrenaline

Which statement is true for stomach "ailments" (symptoms)

NSAIDs

Which is false for primary copper storage disease

Cholestasis

Which is not true for perianal adenoma

Malignancy

Which is not true for perianal adenoma

Malignancy

Characteristic of lymphangiectasia

Ascites, emaciation

Characteristic of lymphangiectasia

Ascites, emaciation

Which statement is false in hepatic lipidosis in cats

Decreased TG

Why not use multifilament for stomach and intestine surgeries - Expensive - The risk of septic complication is higher, the risk of yarn drainage is (miatt) - Poor tensile strength - The knot tolerance is not good

- The risk of septic complication is higher, the risk of yarn drainage is (miatt)

suturing of an enterotomy - Monofilament, absorbent suture, with knotted seams, in 2 coats - Monofilament, absorbent suture with knotted seams only, 2 coats - Monofilament, absorbent suture, single knot running seam in 1 layer (seromuscular) - Monofilament, absorbent suture, single knot running seam in 1 layer (full overcoat)

-Monofilament, absorbent suture, single knot/simple interrupted or continous suture pattern in 1 layer (seromuscular)

Difference in rabies and Aujeszky's disease symptoms in dog and cat - Paresthesia is common in Aujeszky's disease, offensive behaviour is common in rabies - Strabismus and ascending limb paralysis is common in Aujeszky's disease. paresthesia is common in rabies - Swallowing disorders does not occur in Aujeszky's disease only in rabies. The aquifer is typical of Aujeszky's disease - Rabies in cats does not occur, only Aujeszky's disease

- Paresthesia is common in Aujeszky's disease, offensive behaviour is common in rabies

Which of the following is regenerative anemia? - Anemia caused by erythropoietin - Iron deficiency anemic - Hemolytic anemia - Aplastic anemia

- Hemolytic anemia

Which medicine can be used to relieve seizures? - Diazepam - Propofol - Both - None

- Both

Medication for treatment of immune mediated hemolytic anemia - Azathioprine, prednisolone, hepcidine, cyclosporine - Azathioprine, prednisolone, heparin, cyclosporine - Albendazole, prednisolone, heparin, cyclosporine - Azathioprine, prednisolone, heparin, lokivetmab

- Azathioprine, prednisolone, heparin, cyclosporine

Discrepancies in DIC - Thrombocytopenia, schistocytosis, ACT (inc), D-dimer+ - Thrombocytosis, schistocytosis, ACTI, D-dimer+ - Thrombocytosis, sphaerocytosis, ACTO, D-dimer+ - Thrombocytopenia, schistocytosis, ACT (decr), D-dimer+

- Thrombocytopenia, schistocytosis, ACT (inc), D-dimer+

What is the most likely cause of a seizure in a young adult dog? - Congenital heart disease - Primary epilepsy - Portosystemic shunt - Brain tumour

- Portosystemic shunt

Differences in thrombocytopenia - Haemoperitoneum, epistaxis, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (inc) - Petechia, haemothorax, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (decr) - Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (decr) - Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time (decr), platelet count (decr)

- Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (decr)

Lurking of rabies(if they mean incubation) - It is usually 2-3 months, but can be shorter or longer, depending on the location of the infection - Symptoms of OA rabies develop within 3-7 days after infection - OA rabies incubation period is very short, symptoms occur within 1-2 days after infection - Usually 1-2 weeks, but can be shorter if the ... has hit the first limb

- It is usually 2-3 months, but can be shorter or longer, depending on the location of the infection

Which statement is true for congenital hydrocephalus - A hydrocephalus is common in flatal (less than 1 year) individual of large dogs - Ventriculoperitoneal shunt implantation in dogs may be used for palliative symptomatic treatment - Glucocorticoid and diuretic therapy is contraindicated in individuals with high intracranial pressure - Hydrocephalus is very rare in flatal (less than 1 year) individuals of small dogs

- Ventriculoperitoneal shunt implantation in dogs may be used for palliative symptomatic treatment ?

The modified glasgow? Coma scale affected the condition of the brain injury based on the following - Pupil size, motor activity, state of consciousness - Pupillary reaction, motor activity, brainstem reflexes - Brainstem reflex, motor activity, state/level of consciousness - Pupillary size, brainstem reflexes, state of consciousness

- Brainstem reflex, motor activity, state/level of consciousness

Which can not cause secondary immunohemolytic anemia - Microsporum - Mycoplasma - Babesia - Haemangiosarcoma

- Microsporum ?

This is not true for acute abdominal disasters - The differentiation of the exact organ involvement is necessary for the surgical indication - For the indication of surgery, the diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient - They require emergency care - Caused by morphological or functional changes in abdominal organs

- The differentiation of the exact organ involvement is necessary for the surgical indication

The owner of a 3 year old labrador has experienced 2 seizures in the last 2 months. Apart from this, he did not notice anything abnormal in his dog. What is the most likely diagnosis - Idiopathic epilepsy, breed predisposition - Structural epilepsy, presumably due to a congenial brain disorder - Exercise induced collapse (idiopathic epilepsy) - Reactive epileptic seizure due to compulsive eating in labradors - Portosystemic shunt

- Exercise induced collapse (idiopathic epilepsy)

How can we diagnose deep pain? - To tighten/pinch patient's finger - The patient squeezed his finger, stretching out the limb of the opposite side - After pinching/squeezing a patient's finger, he pulls out, turn his head, vocalises, tries to bite - After painful stimulation, the M. cutaneous trunci contracts

- After pinching/squeezing a patient's finger, he pulls out, turn his head, vocalises, tries to bite

Which surgical technique is the best choice for Hansen I type disc herniation?

Hemilaminectomy

Which drug can cause bone marrow damage - Phenobarbital - Paracetamol - Levetiracetam - Gabapentin

- Levetiracetam

Which symptom is not common in acute abdominal disasters - Abdominal pain - DIC - Vomiting - One of the phases of shock?

- DIC

What situation does taken CSF sample help diagnosis

Meningitis

Why are cats sensitive to pyrethrins

Hepatic glucuronidase activity is low --> decreased metabolism --> toxicosis (seizures/tremors)

Which statement is true - In case of haemolytic anemia, plasma is clear - In pancytopenia, platelet counts increased - In acute blood loss, microcytic hypochromic anemia develops few hours afterwards - Babesia and Mycoplasma causes non-regenerative anemia

- Babesia and Mycoplasma causes non-regenerative anemia

Which of the following diseases with non-regenerative anemia has the best prognosis? - Chronic lymphocytic leukemia - Addison's disease - Sertol cellular testicular tumor with hyperestrogenization - .... tynphoblastos leukemia

- Addison's disease

Which instrumental addition test is best for diagnosing fibrocartilago embolism - Xray - CT - MRI - Liqour cytology

- MRI

What means cervical malformation & malarticulation - Wobbler disease - Cauda equina syndrome - Perthes disease - Sever's disease

- Wobbler disease

In which case can a serological examination of cerebrospinal fluid be helpful? - Hansen as type of discopathy - Witriet syndrome - ? - ?

- Hansen as type of discopathy ??

Which of the following statements is not true for splenic hemangiosarcoma - Tumor splenectomy can only be assessed as palliative surgery - Chemotherapy does not significantly increase survival time - The ruptured nature of the tumour does not significantly impair the prognosis - It does not form a metastasis in the heart

- The ruptured nature of the tumour does not significantly impair the prognosis

Which cannot be a symptom of transverse myelopathy - Partiality - Lameness - Ataxia - Hyperreflexia - Proprioceptive disorder

- Ataxia

Which cannot be a symptom of transverse myelopathy - Partiality - Lameness - Ataxia - Hyper-reflexia - Proprioceptive disorder

- Ataxia

If a cat has enlarged kidneys, which diagnosis is NOT probable - PKD (polycystic kidney disease) - Hydronephrosis - Lymphoma of the kidneys - Renal fibrosis

- Renal fibrosis

The most common lower urinary tract disease of dogs - Prostate diseases - Sterile cystitis - Urolithiasis - Bacterial cystitis

- Bacterial cystitis

# Choose the correct answer! High-dose maintenance fluid therapy (>100 ml/kg/day) for acute kidney injury - It increases diuresis, thus "flushes" the kidney faster - May cause interstitial edema in the kidney, that decreases GFR and renal blood flow - Ensures adequate daily fluid intake in anorexic animals - In anuria, it ensures that renal function and urine production is restored quickly

- May cause interstitial edema in the kidney, that decreases GFR and renal blood flow

Hypercholesterolemia is typically associated with the following kidney disease - Glomerulopathies of dogs - Chronic kidney disease of cats - Acute kidney injury of dogs - Fanconi syndrome

- Glomerulopathies of dogs

Causes of acute nephrosis... Which answer is wrong? - Immune complex deposition - Renal ischemia - Nephrotoxic materials - Hemoglobin, myoglobin

- Immune complex deposition

Renal amyloidosis typically found in which cat breed - Persian - Siamese - Abyssinian - Bengal

- Abyssinian

What is the main & initiating cause of calcium-phosphorus imbalance in chronic renal failure? - Inadequate vitamin D production - Poor absorption of calcium from the gastro-intestinal tract - Retention of phosphorus - Nephrocalcinosis

- Retention of phosphorus

Typically laboratory alteration in CKD is - Low serum phorphorus levels - Active urine sediment - The urine protein/creatinine level is below 0,2 - Inappropriately concentrated urine

- Inappropriately concentrated urine

Typically laboratory alteration in CKD is - Low serum phorphorus levels - Active urine sediment - The urine protein/creatinine level is below 0,2 - Inappropriately concentrated urine

- Inappropriately concentrated urine

Which statement is false? - In glomerular proteinuria, large proteins are excreted in the urine - In tubular proteinuria, the urinary protein/creatinine ratio (UPC) is very high - Borderline proteinuria means UPC is between 0,2 and 0,4/0,5 (Cats/Dogs) - Proteinuria of glomerular or tubular origin can be differentiated by renal biopsy

- In tubular proteinuria, the urinary protein/creatinine ratio (UPC) is very high

The creatinine level of dogs and cats with IRIS stage 1 chronic kidney disease is - Normal < 140 umol/l - 240 umol/l - 340 umol/l - 440 umol/l

- Normal < 140 umol/l

# Choose the right answer: if a dog is azotaemic then - The ammonia level is increased in its blood - 50% of its nephrons have been destroyed in their kidneys - It may have been dehydrated - It has urethral obstruction

- The ammonia level is increased in its blood

Which statement is true about animals with renal dysplasia - Kidneys are typically enlarged on ultrasound with a thick cortex - In such cases, there are usually no changes in the urine, only in the blood - Common symptoms are polyuria and polydipsia - On physical examination the kidneys are usually painful

- Common symptoms are polyuria and polydipsia ?

The application of this drug is NOT recommended to improve the appetite of cats with chronic kidney disease - Mirtazapine - Vitamine B preparations - Maropitant - Pantoprazole

- Pantoprazole

Which treatment is NOT recommended in feline interstitial cystitis (FIC) - Increased water intake - Facial phermones - Urine acidification - Adding toys, scratching posts, climbing-hiding places, additional litters

- Urine acidification

Renal amyloidosis is typically NOT caused by - Chronic inflammatory process - Neoplastic process - Chronic liver disease - Genetic (familiar) causes

- Chronic liver disease (more people say this one is correct)

What is NOT true for feline interstitial cystitis (FIC) - Antibiotics are useless - Affected cats mostly fed by dry food - Affected cats are mostly outdoor animals - Affected cats are mostly neutered animals

- Affected cats are mostly outdoor animals

Polydipsia definition in dog and cat - Dog & cat: water intake more than 50 ml/bwkg/day - Dog: water intake more than 800-100 ml/bwkg/day, Cat: water intake more than 50 ml/bwkg/day - Dog & cat: water intake more than 100 ml/bwkg/day - Dog: water intake more than 50 ml/bwkg/day, Cat: water intake more than 100 ml/bwkg/day

- Dog: water intake more than 800-100 ml/bwkg/day, Cat: water intake more than 50 ml/bwkg/day

Which statement is true about the progression of CKD - Hypertension and proteinuria can increase the hyperfiltration of the nephrones - Renal fibrosis is primarily caused by the excessive production of parathormone - The progression of CKD is generally reversible with specific therapy - The loss of functional nephrons lead to an increase in the glomerular filtration rate

- Hypertension and proteinuria can increase the hyperfiltration of the nephrones

Which is the wrong answer: Postrenal azotaemia - May be due to urethral obstruction - May cause kidney damage without treatment - May be due to severe dehydration - May be due to ureter rupture

- May be due to severe dehydration

The suspicious of antifreez poisoning is supported by.. which answer is wrong? - The demonstration of calcium-dihydrate crystals in the urine sediment - The detection of ethylene-glycol in blood - Detection of ethylene-glycol in urine - The observation of marked halo signs in the kidney during ultrasonography

- The demonstration of calcium-dihydrate crystals in the urine sediment

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding nephrolithiasis - It can occur bilaterally - It can lead to ureterolithiasis - It can be caused by congenital disorder - Dalmations always form urate uroliths

- Dalmations always form urate uroliths ?

Which of the following findings indication the diagnosis of urinary bladder rupture? - If the cystourethral catheterization cannot harvest urine in a traumatized patients - If the urine is bloody obtained via cystourethral catheterization in a traumatised patient - If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive anterograde cystography - If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

- If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

Which of the following is the most informative one for diagnosing ectopic urether? - Cystoscopy - Double contrast cystography - Intravenous urography pneumocystography - Urinary scintigraphy (Tc04)

- Cystoscopy

Which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureter? - It may cause dysuria - In acquired form, the incontinence is recurring - The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes - The urinary incontinence is always constant

- The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes

Which of the following conditions does not cause hydronephrosis - Ureteral stricture associated with previous surgery - Ureteral torsion - Ureteral tumor - Ureterolithiasis

- Ureteral torsion

Typical symptoms of renal tubular acidosis - Metabolic acidosis - Incontinence - Polyuria, polydipsia - Bone development disorders

- Metabolic acidosis

Faniconi syndrome in dogs: which answer is wrong? - Glucosuria - Metabokuc acidosis - Aminoaciduria - Ketonuria

- Ketonuria

In case of elevated blood creatinine concentration - The animal is uremic - The animals has kidney disease - The animal has azotaemia - The animal was fed with too much protein

- The animal has azotaemia

Which one of the following uroliths appears usually in case of dogs bacterial cystitis? - Urate - Calcium-oxalate monohydrate - Cystine - Struvite

- Struvite

Which of the following is true in case of tubular proteinuria - Small sized proteins appears in the urine - UPC > 2 - UPC > 0,2 - Ketonuria

- Small sized proteins appears in the urine

What is the most common cause of struvite urolithiasis in dogs? - Neutering in bitches - Chronic bacterial urinary tract infection - Dietary anomaly - Inadequate response to stressors

- Chronic bacterial urinary tract infection

The antibiotic is NOT excreted with urine thus is NOT a proper treatment for urinary tract - Amoxicillin - Cefalosporin - Rifampicin - Trimetoprim-szulfonamid

- Rifampicin

Cases of glomerular disease in small animals. Which answer is NOT correct - Adhesions of immune complexes to the basement membrane - Ischemia, nephrotoxic materials - Amyloidosis - Congenital/Acquired basement membrane/podocyte injury

- Ischemia, nephrotoxic materials

Recommended concomitant therapy with erythropoietin/Darbepoetin - Subcutaneous infusion, because the side effect of treatment is often dehydrated - Gastric protection, because the side effect of treatment is often ulcer formation - Mirtazapine because the side effect of treatment is often anorexia - Iron and vitamin B12

- Iron and vitamin B12

Which urinary stone type can NOT be dissolved medically? - Struvite - Cystine - Purine - Calcium-oxalate

- Calcium-oxalate

The most common lower urinary tract disesae in cats - Prostate diseases - Idiopathic cystitis - Urolithiasis - Bacterial cystitis

- Idiopathic cystitis

Which statement is true about the treatment of pyelonephritis - 1-2 weeks of antibiotic therapy is required - Aspiration of pus and rinsing of the renal pelvis accelerated healing - Treatment of anemia should be started as soon as possible - Conservative treatment is usually unsuccessful, thus unilateral nephrectomy is the solution

- 1-2 weeks of antibiotic therapy is required

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe? - The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication - The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication - It is caused by morphological and/or functional disorders of abdominal organ(s)

- The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication

What is the advantage of scrotal urethrostomy - Castration can prevent urinary incontinence - The perineal urethrostomy can be avoided - Easily dissectable urethral section, wider and safer stroma - The cystotomy can be avoided

- Easily dissectable urethral section, wider and safer stroma

Which statement is correct? During nephrotomy - The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery and vein - Renal vein is to be occluded so that the arterial supply remains intact - Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact - The ureter is also occluded

- Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact

Which of the following conditions does not cause hydronephrosis - Ureteral stricture associated with previous surgery - Ureteral torsion - Ureteral tumour - Ureterolithiasis

- Ureteral torsion

Which of the following factors does not effect the success of feline perineal urethrostomy? - Mucocutaneous approximation of the stoma - Transection of bulbospongious muscle - Transection of ischiocavernous muscle - Type of the suture material

- Transection of bulbospongious muscle

IRIS stage 1 chronic renal failure is associated with - Azotaemia - Anaemia, metabolic acidosis - Uremia - Decreased specific gravity of urine

- Decreased specific gravity of urine (?)

Abnormalities that are typical for chronic renal disease...which answer is wrong?

Hypophosphatemia

The progression of renal diseases caused by... which is NOT correct - Proteinuria - Isosthenuria - Hyperparathyroidism - Glomerular hypertension

- Isosthenuria

It prolongs the survival of dogs and cats with Chronic kidney disease - Increased phosphorus intake - Medical reduction of proteinuria - Urinary diet - ABC are all true

- Urinary diet

Which of the following is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis - Partial nephrectomy - Unilateral nephroureterectomy - Kidney drainage - Euthenasia

- Unilateral nephroureterectomy

Which of the following suture materials is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure - PDS - Polyglyconate - Glycomer - Poliglecaprone

- Poliglecaprone

Which one of the following is NOT typical in case of acute kidney injury - Cachexia - Vomitus - Metabolic acidosis - Uremic ulcers

- Cachexia or Uraemic ulcer (depends on the options)

Which of the following protocols is to be followed in case of acute obstruction form of Feline Lower Urinary Tract disease - Stabilisation perineal urethrostomy - Stabilisation cystocentesis - Stabilisation urinary bladder expression - Stabilisation urethral catheterisation

- Stabilisation urethral catheterisation

Which one of the following is not typical in case of babesiosis - Myoglobinuria - Icterus - Vomitus - Acute kidney injury

- Myoglobinuria

Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral obturation in the male dogs? - Urethral hydropropulsion - Prescrotal urethrostomy - Scrotal urethrostomy - Perineal urethrostomy

- Urethral hydropropulsion

Which of the following is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis - Partial nephrectomy - Unilateral nephroureteroectomy - Kidney drainage - Euthenasia

- Unilateral nephroureteroectomy

Which circumstances may cause nephrosis/acute kidney injury? Which answer is WRONG - Hypotension, dehydration - Overhydration with crystalloid infusions - Hypothermia, NSAID therapy - Antibiotics, chemotherapeutics

- Overhydration with crystalloid infusions

Oligouria definition in dogs - Urine output less than 50 ml/ttkg/day - Urine output less than 100 ml/ttkg/day - Urine output less than 30 ml/ttkg/day - Urine output less than 6-10 ml/ttkg/day

- Urine output less than 6-10 ml/ttkg/day | Less than 1 ml per hour is definition so, this is the one that makes most sense

Treatment of nephritis - ACE-inhibitors, omega-3 fatty acids - Puncture and flushing of the renal pelvis - Systemic antibiotics - Fluid therapy

- Fluid therapy

Which is the least important to establish the diagnosis of kidney disease - Blood urea creatinine measurement - Measurement of blood phosphorus, calcium and potassium levels - Urine sediment evaluation and urine specific gravity measurement - Detection of proteinuria

- Measurement of blood phosphorus, calcium and potassium levels

Which one of the following uroliths appears in case of ethylene-glycol toxicosis? - Struvite - Calcium-oxalate dihydrate - Calcium-oxalate monohydrate - Purine

- Calcium-oxalate monohydrate

Symptoms of lower urinary tract disease in small animals? Which answer is wrong? - Hematuria, pollakiuria - Stranguria, dysuria - Polyuria, azotemia - Periuria, incontinence

- Polyuria, azotemia

The most important aspect of struvite urolithiasis treatment in dogs - Diet - AB - Urine acidification - All 3

- All 3

The most important aspect of struvite urolithiasis treatment in dogs - Diet - AB - Urine acidification - All 3

- All 3

Renal cysts - Are always congenital - Are always bilateral - Are mainly incidental findings - Generally cause renal failure

- Are mainly incidental findings

Which therapy is NOT recommended for the treatment of dehydration in chronic kidney disease? - Administration of intravenous infusion - Administration of subcutaneous infusion - Increase of water consumption - Dialysis treatment

- Dialysis treatment

What is NOT true about renal glycosuria? - It is caused by glomerular disease - Plasma glucose levels are normal - Can have genetic causes - May be a part of Fanconi syndrome

- It is caused by glomerular disease

How would you treat a diagnosed cat with intersitital cystitis? - Antibiotics - Urine acidifying diet - Catheterization, flusihing the bladder with isotonic saline - Increase water

- Increase water

Which statement is true about animals with renal dysplasia? - Kidneys are typically enlarged on US with a thick cortex - In such cases, there are usually no changes in the urine, only the blood - Common symptoms are polyuria and polydipsia - On a physical examination the kidneys are usually painful

- Common symptoms are polyuria and polydipsia

Which therapeutic measure decreases blood potassium level during the treatment of hyperkalemia? Choose the wrong answer - IV calcium - Potassium free infusion and furosemide - Glucose containing infusions - Rapid acting insulin applications

- IV calcium

In dogs, which type of urolithiasis can be affected by housing conditions, lifestyle and body condition? - Struvite - Calcium oxalate - Purine - Cystine

- Calcium oxalate

The following is NOT true about polycystic kidney disease - Is often asymptomatic - Renal abscesses may develop in case of bacterial infection of the cyst - Ultrasound examination is required to make a diagnosis - Treatment is often surgical

- Treatment is often surgical

The most effective gastric protectant for dogs with chronic kidney disease is - Pantoprazole - Famotidine - Sucralfate - Benazepril

- Pantoprazole

It typically causes acute on chronic kidney disease: pre-existing chronic kidney disease, plus - Polypoid cystitis - Hemodynamic disturbance - Hyperthyroidism - Hepatopathy

- Hemodynamic disturbance

Possible causes of hydronephrosis, which is the WRONG answer? - Ureter stone - Granuloma formation following neutralization - Ascending infection - Transitional cell carcinoma in the bladder

- Ascending infection

Until what level is it recommended to increase the hematocrit(Ht) with erythropoietin/darbepoetin therapy in chronic kidney disease? - Until Ht is 22-25% - Until Ht is around 30% - To normal range - The success of the treatment does not depend on the Ht value

- Until Ht is around 30%

Renal amyloidosis typically is found in ... which dog breed - Basenji - Shar-pei - Hungarian vizsla - Poodle

- Shar-pei

Oliguria in the dog/etiology - Chronic renal disease, nephrosis/nephritis, pyometra - Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis - Dehydration, renal insufficiency, chronic liver disease - Endocrine disorders, hepatopathies

- Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis

What statement is true about immune-complex glomerulonephritis - Diagnosis can be made based on the typical US image of the kidneys - Urine protein/creatinine ratio is typically high - An important element of therapy is broad-spectrum AB treatment - Serum albumin level is increased

- Urine protein/creatinine ratio is typically high

Which treatment does NOT affect the PTH level in chronic renal cases - Feeding real diet - Adding phosphorous binders to the diet - ACE inhibitor therapy - Vitamin D administration

- ACE inhibitor therapy

What statement is correct? In case of renal traumatic bleeding - The abdominocentesis is always positive (blood) - The plain abdominal radiography is usually pathognomic - Retroperitoneal blood loss may even lead to exsanguination - Retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually does not lead to life threatening circulatory changes

- Retroperitoneal blood loss may even lead to exsanguination

Which statement is incorrect concerning prostate ultrasonography

It can differentiate cyst from abscess

If a cat has enlarged kidneys, which diagnosis is NOT probable - PKD - Hydronephrosis - Lymphoma of the kidneys - Renal fibrosis

- Renal fibrosis

Which is the most important test for diagnosing glomerulonephropathies - Determination of the blood creatinine and urea values - Determination of the urine specific gravity by a refractometer - Detection of severe proteinuria - Examination of the urine sediment

- Detection of severe proteinuria

Not a typical laboratory alteration in CDK - Hypokalemia - Anemia - Hyperphosphatemia - Metabolic alkalosis

- Metabolic alkalosis

What is your diagnosis in flucosuria appears in cause of euglycemia - Cushing's disease - Addisons' disease

- Addisons' disease

Causes of anemia in chronic kidney patients. Which answer is not correct? - Lack of erythropoietin - GI bleeding/ulcers - Decreased survival of RBC - Hemolysis

- Hemolysis

Causes of anemia in chronic kidney patients. Which answer is not correct? - Lack of erythropoietin - GI bleeding/ulcers - Decreased survival of RBC - Hemolysis

- Hemolysis

Which of the following tools/findings is of lowest diagnostic value in the diagnosis of urinary bladder tumours? - Double contrast cystography - Ultrasonography - Urine sediment analysis/cytology - Therapy-irresponsive hematuria

- Therapy-irresponsive hematuria (?)

Which statement is TRUE for pyelonephritis - The bacteria usually reach the renal pelvis from the systemic circulation - We can get a sample for diagnostic tests by aspirating the renal pelvis - On US we find shrunken kidneys - Usually the urinary sediment is unchanged because the inflammation in limited to the renal pelvis

- We can get a sample for diagnostic tests by aspirating the renal pelvis

Which of the following uroliths is surely radiodense

Ca-oxalate ??

Which is TRUE; subclinical bacteriuria - Asymptomatic - Only mild lower UTI symptoms - Pyelonephritis may be suspected - Bacteria in urine as usually multidrug resistant

- Asymptomatic

Causes of acute interstitial nephritis in small animals - E. coli/proteus - Antifreeze - Leptospirosis - Ureter stone

- Leptospirosis

NOT true about polycystic kidney disease - painful kidneys - Hematuria - Do not have >1 year to live - Inherited

- Do not have >1 year to live

Most common causes of lower urinary tract diseases in dogs - Bladder tumour, prostate alteration - Anatomical disorders, foreign bodies - Bacterial infection, urolithiasis - Interstitial cystitis, mycoplasma

- Bacterial infection, urolithiasis

True about urohydropropulsion - Requires good surgical skills - No sedation is required - Renal pelvis is connected to the bladder with special shunt - May be suitable for removing small stones from the bladder

- May be suitable for removing small stones from the bladder

Which statement is FALSE - In glomerular proteinuria large proteins are excreted - Tubular proteinuria, urinary protein/creatinine ratio is very high - Borderline proteinuria means UPC between 0,2 and 0,4 or 0,5 - Proteinuria of glomerular or tubular origin can be differentiated by renal biopsy

- Tubular proteinuria, urinary protein/creatinine ratio is very high

Fanconi syndrome is NOT characterized by

- Central diabetes insipidus

Not recommended for cystotomy wound closure - Double layer continuous lambert - Double layer penetrating lambert - Single layer seromuscular continuous - Double layer interrupted lambert

- Double layer penetrating lambert

IRIS classification of CKD. Wrong answer - 4 stages determined by serum creatinine levels - Stage 1 the creatinine is only mildly elevated - Substages based on presence of proteinuria - Substaged based on degree of hypertension

- Stage 1 the creatinine is only mildly elevated

When should you think of leptospirosis in a dog

Elevated liver enzymes and creatinine levels

Antidote of ethylene-glycol toxicosis

Etil alcohol | Fomepizole

Not typical of IRIS stage 1 CKD

Acute blindness because of hypertension

Which statement is correct about glomerulopathies - 75% of glomerulopathies is amyloidosis - 50% of glomerulopathies is amyloidosis - 15% of glomerulopathies is of immune complex origin - 50% of glomerulopathies is of immune complex origin

- 50% of glomerulopathies is of immune complex origin

Most likely diagnosis in cats in case of haematuria - FIC - Urolithasis - Neoplasia - Bacterial cystitis

- FIC

To determine the urine concentrating ability of the kidney we use - Blood urea levels - Urinary total protein/creatinine ratio (UPC) - Urine specific gravity with a refractometer - Blood creatinine and SDMA levels

- Urine specific gravity with a refractometer

Monitoring blood pressure is particularly important - In young animals - In FIC - In kidney disease - In case of heart failure

- In kidney disease (?)

What is the cause of urine urolithiasis - Hyperuricosuria - PSS shunt - Chronic liver disease - All 3

- All 3

You can diagnose pyelonephritis by.. which answer is wrong? - Hemoculture in case of azotemia - The histological examination of a renal biopsy specimen - Visualizing pelvis dilation with imaging methods and performing urine culture - The microbiological examination of a renal pelvis puncture

- Hemoculture in case of azotemia

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe? (peritonitis) - The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunction is necessary for surgical indication - The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication - It definitely requires emergency care - It is caused by morphological and/or functional disorders of abdominal organs

- The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunction is necessary for surgical indication

Persistent, prerenal proteinuria - Is a typical characteristic of urinary tract infections - Occurs after heavy physical activity - Bence-jones proteins are typical examples for it - Is a typical characteristic of leptospirosis

- Bence-jones proteins are typical examples for it

The second most common lower urinary tract disease of dogs - Prostate diseases - Sterile cystitis - Urolithiasis - Bacterial cystitis

- Urolithiasis

Treatment of CKD patients include... which answer is NOT correct - Renal diet, phosphate binders - ACE-inhibitors, antihypertensive drugs - Erythropoietin inj., potassium supplementation - Diuretics PO

- Diuretics PO

Which statement is FALSE? In case of subclinical bacteriuria - Usually a predisposing factor for UTI is present - AB therapy (amoxicillin) will be prescribed - The urine sediment can be active - Microbiological examination of urine is positive

- AB therapy (amoxicillin) will be prescribed

Which of the following means urination not at the proper place? - Stranguria - Pollakiuria - Dysuria - Periuria

- Periuria

What type of proteins are detected with sulfosalicyclic acid test - Albumin and globulin - Albumin - Globulin - None

- Albumin and globulin

Recommended concomitant with erythropoietin/darbepoetin - Subcutaneous infusion, because the side effect of treatment is often dehydration - Gastric protection, because the side effect of treatment is often ulcer formation - Mirtazapine because the SE of treatment is often anorexia - Iron and B12

- Iron and B12

This feline lower urinary tract disease can be accompanied by crystalluria - Idiopathic cystitis - Urolithiasis - Bacterial cystitis - All 3

- All 3

Which is NOT a contributing factor concerning lower UTI? - Incontinence - Corticosteroid therapy - FIC - Fanconi syndrome

- FIC

Which is NOT an indication for dialysis treatment - Anuric acute kidney injury - Polyuric acute kidney injury unresponsive to fluid therapy - Chronic renal failure, renal fibrosis - Removal of toxins in case of acute toxicosis

- Chronic renal failure, renal fibrosis

When is it recommended to start erythropoetin/Darbepoetin therapy in chronic kidney disease? - If cyanosis is already occurring due to hypoxia - When the hematocrit level drops to 18-20% - Only when clinical signs of hypoxia are already present, not earlier - If the systolic blood pressure is >180 mmHg

- When the hematocrit level drops to 18-20%

Treatment of pyelonephritis; which answer is WRONG - ACE-inhibitors, omega 3 fatty acids - Puncture and flushing of the renal pelvis - Systemic AB - Fluid therapy

- ACE-inhibitors, omega 3 fatty acids ?

What is not typical for acute kidney failure? - Azotaemia - Hypokalamia - Oligouria, anuria - Metabolic acidosis

- Hypokalamia

Which of the following procedures is not recommended for surgical resolution of prostatic cysts - Marsupialisation - Omentalisation - Drainage - Puncture

- Marsupialisation

Which of the following breeds is usually NOT affected by ectopic ureter - Labrador - Husky - Germen shepherd - West highland white terrier

- Germen shepherd

Ectomic ureter.. which answer is wrong - Are usually causing constant urine dripping - Are occurring only in females - Can be diagnosed by xray or ct-exam - Can be diagnosed with cystoscopy

- Are occurring only in females

Which is NOT typically a "target organ" that is damaged by hypertension - Lungs - Brain - Kidney - Eyes

- Lungs

Which statement is true about the treatment of pyelonephritis - 1-2 weeks of AB therapy is required - Aspiration of pus and rinsing of the renal pelvis accelerated healing - Treatment if anemia should be started as soon as possible - Conservative treatment is usually unsuccessful, thus unilateral nephrectomy is the solution

- Aspiration of pus and rinsing of the renal pelvis accelerated healing

What is the cause of purine urolithiasis - Hyperuricosuria - Portosystemic shunt - Chronic liver disease - All 3

- All 3

Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis in dogs in case of haematuria - Urolithiasis - Benignus prostate gland hypertrophy - Bacterial cystitis - Neoplasma

- Bacterial cystitis

Renal proteinuria can be decreased by - Renal diet - Antihypertensive drugs - ACE-inhibitors - All 3

- All 3

Renal proteinuria can be decreased by - Renal diet - Antihypertensive drugs - ACE-inhibitors - All 3

- All 3

Diabetes insipidus: which is correct? - Clinical manifestation: PU/PD, hypersthenuria - The most effective drug in the central form is desmopressin - The ADH production of the kidneys is insufficient in the nephrogenic form - Diagnosis: modified water deprivation test, ADH stimulation test

- Diagnosis: modified water deprivation test, ADH stimulation test (?)

Hyperthyroidism of cats: therapeutic options - Thyroidectomy, radiotherapy, methimazole, low iodine diet - Parathyroidectomy 131 I IV, methimazole, low iodine diet - Thyroidectomy 00 Tc IV, methimazole, low sodium diet - Parathyroidectomy 131 I IV, fenbendazole, low iodine diet

- Thyroidectomy, radiotherapy, methimazole, low iodine diet

Acromegaly: causes - Dog: pituitary tumor cat: estrogen treatment, mammary gland tumor, ovarian cyst - Acquired GH deficiency - Congenital GH excess - Dog: progestagen treatment Cat: pituitary tumor

- Dog: progestagen treatment Cat: pituitary tumor

Which breed is predisposed for cushing disease? - Greyhound - Cocker spaniel - English bulldog - Karelian beardog - Dachshund

- Dachshund

Hypoadrenocorticism of dogs: therapy - Crisis: 0,9% saline, hydrocortisone Later: Fludrocortisone, DOCP, prednisolone, salt - Crisis: 0,9% saline, DOCP hydrocortisone Later: Fludrocortisone, prednisolone - Crisis: 0,9% saline, hydrocortisone Later: DOCP prednisolone - Crisis: 0,9% saline, fludrocortisone Later: hydrocorticone, DOCP, prednisolone, salt

- Crisis: 0,9% saline, hydrocortisone Later: Fludrocortisone, DOCP, prednisolone, salt

3 most common causes of PU/PD in dogs - Pyometra, bacterial cystitis, diabetes mellitus - Chronic kidney disease, cushing syndrome, diabetes mellitus - Cushing syndrome, diabetes mellitus, pyometra - Bacterial cystitis, cushing syndrome, diabetes mellitus

- Chronic kidney disease, cushing syndrome, diabetes mellitus

What is "V-Y" plasty - The correction of Y-U plasty - The type of Z plasty - The modified type of W plasty - Tension relieving plastic procedure

- Tension relieving plastic procedure

What is "V-Y" plasty - The correction of Y-U plasty - The type of Z plasty - The modified type of W plasty - Tension relieving plastic procedure

- Tension relieving plastic procedure

What does W-plasty mean - The correction of Y-U plasty - The modified type of Y-U plasty - The modified type Z plasty - Scar correcting plastic procedure

- Scar correcting plastic procedure

Which of the following has got the widest indication area - Plastic surgery - Cosmetic surgery - Esthetic surgery - Reconstructive surgery

- Plastic surgery

What is the pathognomic symptoms of cushing's syndrome - Collarette - Hyperhidrosis - Angioedema - Keratin plugs - Calcinosis cutis

- Calcinosis cutis

What may cause hyperglycemia in the diabetic patient treated - Liver failure - Concurrent Addisions disease - Insulin resistance - Xylitol-toxicosis - Neutering the bitch after 2-5 days

- Insulin resistance

Which statement is correct - Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenoma is common in cats - Hypothyroidism caused by thyroid adenoma is common in cats - Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenocarcinoma is common in cats - Hypothyroidism caused by thyroid adenocarcinoma is common in cats

- Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenoma is common in cats

Addison's disease in dogs: diagnosis - Na/K > 27, Cl- decrease, ACTH stimulation test - Na/K < 27, Cl- decrease, ACTH stimulation test - Na/K < 27, Cl- decrease, LDDST - Na/K > 27, Cl- decrease, LDDST

- Na/K < 27, Cl- decrease, ACTH stimulation test

What may cause hypoglycemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin? - Progestagen treatment, insulin antagonist - Concurrent diabetes insipidus - Castration of male dog/cat - Neutering the bitch after 2-5 days - Stress - Glucocorticoid therapy

- Glucocorticoid therapy ??

What is the target blood glucose level in the diabetic patient at maximum effect of insulin - 3-6 mmol/l - 3-6 umol/l - 4-9 umol/l - 4-9 mmol/l

- 4-9 mmol/l

Which is not a possible consequence of obesity - Hypertension - Type 2 diabetes mellitus - Hypokalemia - Hyperlipidemia

- Hypokalemia

Calcium features of congenital hyposomatotropism - Yorkshire terrier, pituitary tumor, liver failure, alopecia - German shepherd, proportionate dwarfism, alopecia - Great dane, enzyme deficiency, kidney failure - Beagle, IGF-1 decrease, disproportionate

- German shepherd, proportionate dwarfism, alopecia

Cause of insulin resistance - Progesterone, hypercorticolism, hypersomatotropism - Hypocalcemia, glucocorticoids, acromegaly - Cushing's syndrome, enalapril, progestagens - Acromegaly, xilitol, cushing's syndrome - MPA, DOCP, GH

- Progesterone, hypercorticolism, hypersomatotropism

Which statement is true? In monogastric animals the energy content of dietary.. - Proteins is utilized most efficiently - Carbohydrates is utilized most efficiently - Fibers is utilized most efficiently - Fats is utilized most efficiently

- Fats is utilized most efficiently

Which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate one in canine otitis externa and media - Hinz-procedure - Zepp-procedure - TECA LBO - Ventral Bulla Osteotomy

- TECA LBO

Which of the following techniques is the most tension relieving one - Simple interrupted, horizontal/vertical/mattress, far-near-near-far, far-far-near-near, x-mattress - Cruciate suture - Continuous locked suture - Tubed/stent suture

- Simple interrupted, horizontal/vertical/mattress, far-near-near-far, far-far-near-near, x-mattress

Which of the following nerves is mostly prone to iatrogenic injury during ventral bulla osteotomy (VBO) procedure - Maxillary N - Auriculotemporal branch of facial N - Auriculopalpebral branch of facial N - Hypoglossal N

- Hypoglossal N ?

In which endocrine disorder there is no polydipsia/polyuria - Diabetes mellitus - Diabetes insipidus - Alopecia X - Cushings - Hyperthyroidism

- Alopecia X

Hypothyroidism of dogs: symptoms - Activity decrease, obesity, PD/PU, alopecia, tachycardia, fertility decrease - Activity increase, obesity, alopecia, thin skin, bradycardia, PP - Activity decrease, obesity, alopecia, thin skin, bradycardia, fertility decreased - Activity decrease, weight gain, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, fertility decreased

- Activity decrease, weight gain, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, fertility decreased

Which statement is true regarding diabetes insipidus - Partial or complete ADH deficiency - Failure of renal tubules to react to ADH - Very common disorder - In case of water deprivation these patients are able to concentrate their urine

- Partial or complete ADH deficiency

Which statement is correct - Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenoma is common in dogs - Thyroid adenocarcinoma without hormonal alteration is common in dogs - Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenocarcinoma is common in dogs - Thyroid adenoma without hormonal alteration is common in dogs

- Thyroid adenocarcinoma without hormonal alteration is common in dogs

Hypothyroidism in dogs: diagnosis - Thyroxine decrease and TSH increase, free thyroixine increase, TGAA- , TRH stimulation test - Thyroxine decrease and TSH increase, free thyroxine decrease, TGAA, TSH-stimulation test - Thyroxine decrease and TSH increase, free thyroxine decrease, TGAA and ACTH stimulation test - Thyroxine increase and TSH decrease, free thyroxine decrease, TGAA, ACTH stimulation test

-Thyroxine decrease and TSH increase, free thyroxine decrease, TGAA, TSH-stimulation test

Hypoadrenocorticism of dogs: clinical manifestations - Dehydration, K increase, Ca decrease --> weakness tremors and shock - Dehydration, Na increase, K decrease --> Abdominal pain, PU/PD - Dehydration, K increase, Cl decrease --> shock, bradycardia - Vomiting/Diarrhoea, K decrease, Ca decrease --> shock, tetany

- Dehydration, K increase, Cl decrease --> shock, bradycardia

Which breed is not predisposed for obesity - Labrador retriever - Borzoi - Dachshound - Beagle

- Borzoi

What may cause hypoglycaemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin - Progestagen treatment - Concurrent diabetes insipidus - Castration of male dog/cat - Neutering a bitch after 2-5 days - Stress - Glucocorticoid therapy

- Glucocorticoid therapy (Long term therapy can cause hypo)

Which is the "classic" indication of adrenalectomy - Unilateral adrenal cortical adenoma caused by peripheral cushings - Unilateral adrenal cortical adenoma caused by central cushings - Unilateral adrenal medullar adenoma caused by peripheral cushings - Unilateral adrenal medullar adenoma caused by central cushings

- Unilateral adrenal cortical adenoma caused by peripheral cushings

Hypothyroidism of dogs; symptoms - Activity decrease, PU/PD, alopecia, tachycardia, fertility decrease - Activity increase, obesity, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, PP - Activity decrease, obesity, alopecia, thin skin, bradycardia, fertility decrease - Activity decrease, weight gain, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, fertility decrease

- Activity decrease, weight gain, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, fertility decrease

Which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate one in feline otitis media? - Hinz-procedure - Zepp-procedure - TECA-LBO - Ventral Bulla osteotomy

- Ventral Bulla osteotomy

Which factor plays, crucial role in the preoverative determination of the surgical prognosis of adrenalectomy - Tumourous involvement of pancreativoduodenal artery and vein - Tumourous involvement of phrenicoabdominal artery and vein - Tumourous involvement of caudal vena cava - Tumourous involvement of the adrenal cortex and medulla

- Tumourous involvement of caudal vena cava

Which disorder does NOT cause osmotic diuresis - Renal glucouria - Postobstructive diuresis - Pyometra - Diabetes mellitus

- Postobstructive diuresis

Hyperthyroidism of cats - Consequence of thyroiditis, goiter, dyspnoe, dilated cardiomyopathy - Consequence of thyroid gland tumour, goiter, myxedema, anorexia/cachexia - Consequence of thyroiditis, aggressivity, panting, sudden blindness due to hypotension - Thyroid adenoma or hyperplasia, polyphagia, weight loss, myocardial hypertropy

- Thyroid adenoma or hyperplasia, polyphagia, weight loss, myocardial hypertropy

``` The most important nutritive vessel of ventral abdominal skin is - Caud. supf. epigastric a. and v. - Cran. supf. epigastric a. and v. Deep iliac circumflexa a. and v. Supf. iliac circumflexa a. and v ```

- Caud. supf. epigastric a. and v.

Addison's disease in dogs: causes pathogenesis - The primary disease is due to autoimmune inflammation of the adrenals - Primary: cortisol increase, aldosterone decrease, Secondary: cortisol decrease, aldosterone increase - The primary disease is due to incorrect glucocorticoid therapy - Primary: cortisol decrease, aldosterone decrease, Secondary: cortisol normal, aldosterone decrease

- The primary disease is due to autoimmune inflammation of the adrenals

Diabetes insipidus: which is correct - Clinical manifestations: PD/PU, hypersthenuria - The most effective during in the central form is desmopressin - The ADH production of the kidneys is insufficient in the nephrogenic form - Diagnosis: modified water deprivation test, ADH-stimulation test

- The most effective during in the central form is desmopressin

Which statement is false? Following neutering - A basic metabolic rate is reduced - The appetite may increase - The physical activity may decrease - The production of the anabolic hormone, melatonin is increased

- The production of the anabolic hormone, melatonin is increased

Which statement is TRUE regarding diabetes insipidus - Partial or complete ADH deficiency - Failure of the renal tubules to react to ADH - Very common disorder - In case of water deprivation test these patients are able to concentrate their urine

- Partial or complete ADH deficiency

Which of the following nerves is mostly prone to iatrogneic injury during TECA LBO procedure - Maxillary n - Auriculotemporal branch of the facial n - Auriculopalpabral branch of facial n - Hypoglossal n

- Auriculopalpabral branch of facial n (Was mentioned during the lecture) ?

Which of the following nerves is mostly prone to iatrogenic injury during ventral bulla osteotomy (VBO) - Maxillary n - Auriculotemporal branch of the facial n - Auriculopalpabral branch of facial n - Hypoglossal n

- Hypoglossal n

Breed predisposed for Addison's disease - French bulldog - Irish setter - Poodle - Dachshund - Beagle

- Poodle

According to Vasanjee et al Vet Surg paper (2006) which of the following liver biopsy techniques caused remarkable collateral tissue damage? - Ligature biopsy - Laparoscopic "pinch" biopsy - Needle biopsy - None of them

- Laparoscopic "pinch" biopsy

Which clinical signs are characteristic for the following oesophageal diseases? - Oesophagitis: odynophagia, regurgitation, salivation, food refusal - Oesophageal foreign body: regurgitation, salivation, sometimes distended abdomen - Spirocercosis: regurgitation, vomiting, weight loss, coughing, dyspnea, rarely sudden death - All statements are true

- All statements are true

In which of the following breeds is the congenital cleft palate common? - German shepherd - Hungarian vizsla - Yorkshire terrier - French bulldog

- French bulldog

Which additional laboratory parameter should be measured in case of an old cachectic cat with diarrhoea? - crp - T4 level - Ca level - ALT level

- T4 level

The most common indication of subtotal colectomy in cats is - Congenital megacolon - Primary idiopathic megacolon - Secondary idiopathic megacolon - Tertiary idiopathic megacolon

- Primary idiopathic megacolon

Which of the following is not typical for vomitus? - Preceded by nausea - Active muscle contractions - Presence of gastric chyme - Eating the content

- Eating the content

Which of the following procedures has a modification called "Roux-en-Y" technique? - Choledochotomy - Cholecystectomy - Cholecystoduodenostomy - Cholecystojejunostomy

- Cholecystojejunostomy

Which of the following can not cause hepatic icterus? - Hepatic cirrhosis - Cholelithiasis - Cholangiohepatitis - Liver tumor

- Liver tumor

Which of the following is not typical for regurgitation - Develops spontaneously - Preceded by nausea - Undigested food - Passive backflow

- Preceded by nausea

In case of intestinal obstruction - Acute vomiting is the most characteristic symptom - Urgent gastric lavage is required - Profuse, bloody diarrhoea is the most characteristic symptom - Most of the cases can be managed with conservative therapy

- Acute vomiting is the most characteristic symptom

Extracardiac murmur typically - Have punctum maximum - Have no punctum maximum - Are due to valvular insufficiency - Are alway systolic

- Have no punctum maximum

Which statement is not correct about canine PSS - The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs in large breed dogs - The symptoms of the portosystemic shunt can worsen after the feeding of protein-rich food (meat) - The postpradial bile avid level of the blood is higher than normal in portosystemic shunts - In congenital portosystemic shunts, the nervous symptoms are usually episodic

- The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs in large breed dogs

Which breed is not predisoposed for primer Cu accumulation? - Bedlington terrier - German shepherd - Labrador retriever - Dalmation

- German shepherd

Which component is responsible for the closure of PSS in case of Ameroid ring constrictor? - Celophane - Silk - Kazein - Nylon

- Kazein

Which is the major difference between midline and incisional gastropexy - Midline gastropexy uses seromuscular pattern, whilst the incisional operates with penetrating sutures - The techniques fix different areas of the stomach - In the framework of incisional gastropexy scarification of the stomach serosa is done unlike midline gastropexy - Incisional gastropexy has just temporary efficacy

- The techniques fix different areas of the stomach

Which of the statements is correct for the clinical signs of the oesophageal diseases in general - Appetite is always decreased - Appetite is always increased - Appetite is never changed - Appetite can be decreased or increased

- Appetite can be decreased or increased

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in case og obstructive ileus - Maropitant - Metroclopramide - Pantoprazole - Tramadol

- Metroclopramide

In which of the following diseases does megaoesophagus not occur - Cushing's disease - Myasthena gravis - Addison's disease - Hypothyreosis

- Cushing's disease

Which is the first layer you have to close if you have a median laparotomy wound? - Rectus sheet - Subcutis - Ligamentum falciforme - Peritoneum

- Peritoneum

Granulomatous colitis is caused by - Campylobacter coli - Enteropathogenic E coli (EPEC) - Adherent-invasive E coli (AIEC) - Clostridium perfringens

- Adherent-invasive E coli (AIEC)

Which statement is correct? - ALP has the following isoenzymes in the cat: liver, bone, steroid-induced - The bile acid, bilirubin, ALP, GGT levels are elevated in cholestasis - The bilirubinuria is alway pathologic in the dog, associated with hyperbilirubinaemia - ALT and AST are cholestatic enzymes

- The bile acid, bilirubin, ALP, GGT levels are elevated in cholestasis

Which belong to the core vaccines in dogs? o parvoviral enteritis, distemper, Rubarths disease o panleukopenia, parvoviral enteritis, Rubarths-disease o panleukopenia, distemper ruburths-disease o leptospirosis, parvoviral enteritis, distemper, Rubarth's- disease

o leptospirosis, parvoviral enteritis, distemper, Rubarth's- disease

``` Which muscle/muscles can be used for intramuscular drug application o M femoralis o M. gastrocnemius o M. semitendinosus / semimembranosus o Tibialis cranialis muscle ```

o M. semitendinosus / semimembranosus

``` To perform a complete blood count examination you need o heparinized blood sampling tube. o EDTA blood sampling tube. o citrated blood sampling tube. o NaF blood sampling tube. ```

o EDTA blood sampling tube.

In case of acute epistaxis/nasal bleeding o Immediate X-Ray examination is required o immediate rhinoscopy is required o as soon as possible hemostasis and coagulation profile laboratory tests are required o Nasal foreign body and fungal rhinitis cannot be presumed in the background

o as soon as possible hemostasis and coagulation profile laboratory tests are required

The point of maintenance infusion therapy is

Treat dehydration

Characteristic of feline herpes viral rhinitis

Bilateral mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge

``` The concept of moist wound therapy does not include o surgical debridement o autolytic debridement o a wet-to-dry dressing o a hydrocolloid dressing ```

A wet to dry dressing ?? or Surgical debridement?

What does "3-metric" mean on a suture material pack?

The suture material is 0,3 mm of diameter

According to Shamit et al (JSAP 2002) which of the following features is incorrect concerning the typical canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma

Bodyweight < 10 kg

Characteristic of canine chronic bronchitis o it is more common in old, large breed dogs o it is more common in young, small breed dogs o inspiratory type dyspnoea o crackles and wheezes with auscultation

o crackles and wheezes with auscultation

Characteristic of aspiration pneumonia - Can be caused by megaoesophagus and laryngeal dysfunction - Its prognosis can be influenced by the pH, volume and quality of aspirated volume - Glucocorticoid and furosemide are not recommended for treatment - All above mentioned are correct

- All above mentioned are correct

Which of the followung reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2 < 60 mmHg) - Dyspnea - Cyanosis - Hyperventilation - Labial breathing

- Cyanosis

Characteristic of canine/feline pneumonia - Usually, a primary disease - Good general condition, cough - Its background is usually viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration - Normal body temperature, good general condition, good appetite

- Its background is usually viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration

Which statement is incorrect regarding cervical tracheal resection/anastomosis? - Ventral cervical approach is usually applied - In adults even the 50% of the tracheal length can be resected - In immature dogs even the 25% of the tracheal length can be resected - Either interrupted or continuous stitches are applicable for anastomosis

- Either interrupted or continuous stitches are applicable for anastomosis

Which of the following categories is correct according to the approximation of the wound edge - Skin - intradermal - subcutaneous - muscular - fascial - Interrrupted vs continuous - Appositional - inverting - tension-releiving - Simple - mattress - criciate ligament

- Skin - intradermal - subcutaneous - muscular - fascial

Which is the following prognostic factors had no impact on the disease free interval (DFI) in a retrospective study by McNeil al (JAVMA, 1997) analyzing cases with primary lung tumor removed pulmonary lobectomy? o the histopathologic grade of the lung tumor o clinical signs o regional lymph node metastases o / - chemotherapy

o / - chemotherapy

Characteristic of "reverse sneezing": o Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background o indicates a serious, life- threatening illness o usually caused by irritation of the anterior third of the nasal cavity o indicates a laryngeal lesion

o Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background

Which of the following clinical findings is not a member of the diagnostic triad defining the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma? o Status of the thoracic wall o Skin defect on the thoracic wall o Positive radiological finding of lung contusion o ARD

o Skin defect on the thoracic wall

In which of the following conditions is the rhinotomy not the primarily indicated therapy? o nasal foreign body abscess o nasopharyngeal polyp o chronic, conservative therapy-resistant rhinitis o nasal adenocarcinoma

o nasal adenocarcinoma

Which of the following statement is incorrect? An active drain ... o ... is not recommended as flushing drain o ... can be open suction-drain o ... can be closed suction-drain o ... is used as flushing drain

o ... is not recommended as flushing drain

``` Which of the following statement is incorrect? Radon drain ... o ... is a tube drain o ... is made of latex o ... can be used as passive drain o ... is mostly used as active drain ```

o ... is made of latex

Primary Survey. Mark the incorrect answer! o Determine all organic disorders o Reveal direct life-threatening conditions o Check and stabilize circulation and respiration o Check and stabilize CNS

o Determine all organic disorders

``` Which of the following sterilization methods operates at the highest temperature? o Autoclave (steam) o Gamma-beam radiation o Ethylene-dioxide sterilization o Dry heat sterilization ```

o Dry heat sterilization

``` Which of the following USP numbers indicates the thickest suture material? o 0 o 2-0 o 2 o 3-0 ```

o 2

``` according to Poncet classification system for BAOS which is the most defining clinical condition of the grade III category? o severity of stridor / stertor o syncope o duration of clinical signs o grade III laryngeal collapse ```

o syncope

which finding is incorrect about pneumonectomy cases in the ??pective multicenter study by Wavreille et al (Vet Surg 201 o primary lung tumors were represented in 52% of the indications o 76% of dogs and 80% of cats had postoperative respiratory complications o the acute perioperative (< 24h) mortality was around 10% o subacute (<2 weeks) postoperative mortality affected 1 dog and 2 cats

o the acute perioperative (< 24h) mortality was around 10%

Which statement is Incorrect regarding midline sternotomy o it causes significantly bigger postoperative pain compared to lateral thoracotomy o oscillating saw or osteotome is necessary for the approach o Finachietto rib retractor or Gelpi retractor is applicable o it is indicated by mediastinal and/or bilateral thoracic conditions

o it causes significantly bigger postoperative pain compared to lateral thoracotomy

Characteristics of critical care. Mark the incorrect answer! o The order of examination and therapeutical methods are different than in non-emergency cases o Diagnostics and therapy overlap each other in order to gain time o The examination consists of two phases. primary and secondary survey o All emergency patients require intensive ward care

o All emergency patients require intensive ward care

Choose the correct answer. Colloid infusions o contain small molecular weight compounds o in a dosage less than 20ml / kg/day they may induce coagulopathy o are used to treat dehydration o are used in hypovolemia combined with crystalloids

o are used in hypovolemia combined with crystalloids

Delayed primary closure o is normally performed on the first day post-trauma o may be indicated in deep infected puncture wounds o is usually performed 2 to 5 days after injury o involves the complete excision of granulation tissue

o is usually performed 2 to 5 days after injury

``` What does 'atypical' operation mean? o one sort of ide-saving surgeries o One sort of tumor removal procedures o Specific plastic surgical intervention o An individual procedure using the whole knowledge, experience and intuition of the surgeon ```

o An individual procedure using the whole knowledge, experience and intuition of the surgeon

``` In case of hypovolemia, the first choice of infusion is: o 5% glucose o HAES infusion o Lactated Ringer Solution o 10% NaCI infusion ```

o Lactated Ringer Solution

``` which of the following breeds is the congenital laryngeal paralysis common? o Hungarian vizsla o Husky o Greyhound o Pointer ```

o Husky

``` What is the most frequent complication of CricoArytenoid Lateralization? o laryngeal collapse o recurrence o aspiration o none of them ```

o aspiration

``` which of the following features makes polyprolylene the most popular cardiovascular suture material? o Monofilament feature o Good tensile strength o Good knot security o Unique thrombophobic feature ```

o Monofilament feature

``` Which approach is recommended for nasal opening in brachycephalic breeds? o Dorsal rhinotomy o Ventral rhinotomy o Dorsal rhinotomy sinus trephination o Ventral rhinotomy sinus trephination ```

o Ventral rhinotomy

``` which of the following brachycephalic disorders is not surgically curable? o Stenotic nares o Elongated soft palate o Laryngeal collapse o Tracheal hypoplasia ```

o Tracheal hypoplasia

Characteristic of canine chronic bronchitis: o Bronchial pattern on X-Ray o Mucopurulent discharge in the bronchi during bronchoscopy o Cytology and microbiology of BAL are required o All the above mentioned are true

o All the above mentioned are true

``` How many lung lobes has the dog? o 5 o 6 o 7 o 8 ```

o 6

``` Which arytenoid structure is anchored during CAL? o processus muscularis o processus cuneiformis o processus corniculatus o none of them ```

o processus muscularis

``` Which is the uppermost muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy? o Dorsal latissimus m. o Dorsal serratus m. o Ventral serratus m. o Cutaneus trunci ```

o Cutaneus trunci

What is the „golden Period“ in the treatment of fresh traumatic wounds:

o 6-8h from injury

In the early phases of healing, the most essential white blood cell in wounds are the:

o Monocytes

What characterises the proliferation phase of wound healing

o Angiogenesis

Granulation tissue is especially sensitive to

o Desiccation

Primary wound closure should be avoided in:

o Gunshot and bite wounds

Which statement is FALSE? (Wound)

o Wounds are rinsed with large volumes of hydrogene peroxide

The preferred method of debridement in a fresh lacerated wound is:

o Surgical

In case of a wound infection presumably caused by a multiresistant organism:

o The patient should be treated in isolation wearing protective clothing

First aid key points:

o Haemostasis and prevention of further contamination

Select the FALSE answer. A good bandage:

o Reduces blood flow to the wound

Which contact layer is most suitable for heavily exudating wounds:

o Calcium alginate

Used as topical wound medication, the metabolism of action is based on hyperosmolarity:

o Sugar & honey

Surgical site infection:

o Is caused by multiresistant microorganisms in about 5% of cases

A layer of a Robert-jones bandage:

o Secondary absorbent layer (e.g cotton wool)

Pseudomonas ssp. Grows from a sample from the surface of a wound with healthy granulation tissue. This is most likely due to:

o Contamination

What is the most dangerous complication of bandaging?

o Distal limb edema

``` What is the appropriate respiration rate for cardiopulmonary resuscitation? o 6-7 / min o 20-30 / min o 30-40/min o 10-12 / min. ```

o 10-12 / min.

Select the CORRECT answer. The peripheral venous cannula o not suitable for purchase stroke o suitable for monitoring of central venous pressure o not suitable for infusion therapy with colloids o suitable for re-administration

o suitable for re-administration

``` What drug/ medicine can be given intravenously? o Oil injection o Vaccine o Tissue irritant drugs o Long-acting antibiotic suspension ```

o Tissue irritant drugs

Select the CORRECT answer. Open-system blood collection o blood obtained by this method is suitable for blood testing o suitable for receiving large amounts of blood o is easy to perform / implement o no contamination

o is easy to perform / implement

``` In the case of paravenous injection, o the animal's feet swell o swelling occurs at the injection site. o to resist the beeping down.?? o apnea often occurs. ```

o swelling occurs at the injection site.

Characteristic of the foreign body in the nasal cavity: o in most cases, spontaneously healing rhinitis o Requires glucocorticoid and antibiotic treatment o improper treatment/ handling can cause fungal rhinitis o rhinoscopy can be postponed for months

o improper treatment/ handling can cause fungal rhinitis

Which statement is correct? o There is no valve in the upper opening of the venous cannula, so we take blood from here. o There is a valve in the upper opening of the venous cannula, so we cannot take blood from here. o There is no valve in the opening at the end of the venous cannula, so no infusion can be given here o There is a valve in the opening at the end of the venous cannula, so we can infuse it here

o There is a valve in the opening at the end of the venous cannula, so we can infuse it here

Deferred primary closure o can usually be performed on the first day after the injury. o performed on deep wounds suspected of being infected o can be performed 2-5 days after the injury o Complete development of the developed granulation tissue is performed afterwards

o can be performed 2-5 days after the injury

``` Which of the following surgical instruments is not part of the chest kit? o Balfour rib splitter o De Bakey / Satinsky vascular occluder o Mixter dissector o Long Mayo-Hegar pliers ```

o Mixter dissector

``` When used in a contact layer, its antibacterial effect is due to its dehydrating properties o Iodine o sugar o Silver o Paraffin ```

o Silver

``` Which muscle can be used for intramuscular drug administration? o m. quadriceps fermoris o m. gastrocnemius o m. tibialis cranialis o m. deltoideus ```

o m. quadriceps fermoris ? (Right? PQ document said Gastrocnemius..)

``` According to Poncet's BAOS classification system, which clinical condition is decisive for grade III classification? o the severity of the stridor/stertor o the fact of fainting o the length of history o grade III collapse ```

o the severity of the stridor/stertor

Which statement is correct? o Dogs have preformed antibodies to DEA L1 blood group antigens o The first transfusion is dangerous in dogs o Dogs have preformed antibodies to blood group antigens DEA o There are no preformed antibodies to blood group antigens in dogs

o There are no preformed antibodies to blood group antigens in dogs

``` In the complex therapy of heartworm, the only adulticidal agent accepted by AHS is o milbemycin oxime o moxidectin o melarsomine o ivermectin ```

o melarsomine

``` The recommended time of the last combined primary vaccine in the primary vaccination series of the pup o 16 weeks of age o 14 weeks of age o 12 weeks of age o 10 weeks of age ```

o 16 weeks of age

``` What is the correct frequency of chest compression during resuscitation? o 100-120 / min o 50-60 / min o 10-12 / min o 150-200 / min ```

o 100-120 / min

``` Prognath bite is normal: o siamese cat, bulldog, pug persian o cat, bulldog, boxer, pug o griffon, springer spaniel boxer, o sheltie, puli, bulldog ```

o cat, bulldog, boxer, pug

``` Where can I get blood to measure my blood sugar? o Ear skin o oral Mucous membrane o Both o None ```

o Both

``` Which of the following cannot be administered subcutaneously? o Microchip o Crystalloid infusion o Hormone implant o Glucose-containing injections ```

o Glucose-containing injections

If a wound infection is suspected o Treat the surface with a concentrated cytotoxic agent B o Bacterial culture and antibiotic resistance testing should be performed o The affected area should be surgically excised o The wound should be sprayed with rocking powder and covered with a bandage

o Bacterial culture and antibiotic resistance testing should be performed

``` Which instrument is not a member of the abdominal surgical instrument kit? o Balfour wound dressing o Doyen pliers o Finochietto wound dressing o Atraumatic forceps ```

o Finochietto wound dressing

``` Closed system blood collection o for mandatory blood count o for BHB measurement o for ammonia measurement o for fructosamine measurement ```

o for mandatory blood count

•Absorbable suters are generally NOT used for which of the followings? - İntestinal sutures - Ligation of the overs - Skin sutures - Subcuticular sutures

- Skin sutures

• Needle holders. Mark the incorrect statement! - Needle holders grasp and manipulate straight needles. - Long needle Holders faninternal facilitate working in deep wounds - Tungsten carbide inserts city re reposed when they false holdaway meprovetoly - Mayo-Heyar needis holders are commonly used in small antral veterinaly menic

- Needle holders grasp and manipulate straight needles.

• Retractors. Mark the incorrect statement! - Retractors are used to retract tissue and improve visualization - The ends of handheld retractors may be booked, curved spatula shaped, of mouthed. - Retractors can be divided into two groups fandroid and sell retaining. - Self retaining retractors may be bent by the surgeon.

- Self retaining retractors may be bent by the surgeon.

• Which of the following blood pressure (in mmHg) is the critical value of central nervous system blood flow maintenance in shock? - 70 - 60 - 50 - 40

- 60

• Which statement is incorrect concerning congenital diaphragmatic hernias? - They take 5 to 10% of diaphragmatic hernias - Hiatus hernia has basically 2 different forms axial and para esophageal - The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited - The peritoneopericardial hernia is due to the impaired development of septum transversum.

- The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited

• echocardiography: - Uses ionizing radiation - Detects electrical activity of the heart - Is an ultrasound based imaging method - Is not a real time imaging method (except 4D echocardiography)

- Is an ultrasound based imaging method

• Echocardiographic standard planes are: - Different in all species - Used in cardiology in image the heart - Depending on heart rate - Not use in echocardiography

- Used in cardiology in image the heart

• Why we can reduce preload dramatically in heart failure? - Because reducing preload during heart failure does not lead to arrhythmia - Because in heart failure reducing preload hardly reduces cardiac output - Because the survival of heart failure animals is so short that we have nothing to fear - Because the afterload will offset the reduction of the preload anyway

- Because the survival of heart failure animals is so short that we have nothing to fear

• Which is the first compensation during heart failure? - The renin angiotensin-aldosterone system is activated - Processes that reduce plasma volume are initiated - The peripheral blood vessel's dilate - Heart rate increases

- Heart rate increases

``` • What medicine should be given to a dog with grade B1 mitral valve disease (MMVD)? - ACE inhibitor - Pimobendan - Furosemide - None of them ```

- None of them

• Lidocaine and mexitil may be used: - For the treatment of the silent atrium - For the treatment of ventricular tachycardia - For the treatment of 3rd-degree AV block - For the treatment of junctional tachycardia

- For the treatment of ventricular tachycardia

``` • The most recommended drug combination for the chronic treatment of congestive heart failure: - ACE Inhibitor spironolactone - ACE inhibitor plus digoxin - Furosemide plus pimobendan - Furosemide plus spironolactone ```

- Furosemide plus pimobendan

• Drugs with positive inotropic effects - Ramiptil, amlodipin - Digoxin, pimobendan - Propranolol ,diltiazem - Amiodarone, sotalol

- Digoxin, pimobendan

``` • Biochemical parameter(s) important for the evaluation of chylous effusions - Cholesterol and triglyceride - Creatinine concentration - Total protein concentration - LDH concentration ```

- Cholesterol and triglyceride

•An effusion with less than 25 g/l total protein concentration is found in the abdominal cavity and the total protein in the blood is less than 40g/l Which is the least likely diagnosis? - Kidney disease - Liver disease - Intestinal disease - Heart failure

- Heart failure

• Definitions of a grade 5/6 cardiac murmur - A moderate intensity murmur with good audibility - These murmur can be heard only in congenital heart disease - A very strong murmur with precordial thrill - A very strong murmur without precordial thrill

- A very strong murmur with precordial thrill

•Which statement is true regarding macrocyclic lactones? - Selamectine is the strongest microfilaricide drug - Ivermectin is the strongest microfilaricide drug - Moxidectin is the strongest microfilaricide drug - Milbemycin is the strongest microfilaricide drug

- Ivermectin is the strongest microfilaricide drug

• Tissue Forceps. Mark the incorrect statement! - Tissue forceps are used to grasp tissue. - Tissue forceps with large teeth should be used to handle tissue that is easily traumatized - Tissue forceps are generally used in the nondominant hand. - Tissue forceps are used to stabilise tissue and/orexpose tissue layers during suturing

- Tissue forceps with large teeth should be used to handle tissue that is easily traumatized

• Which fingers are placed in the two rings of surgical hand tools? - thumb /middle finger - thumb/index finger - index/ middle finger - thumb/ring finger

- thumb/ring finger

• Basic surgical instruments. Mark the incorrect statement! - Their function can be separating, gripping, exploring and merging. - The scalpel is held with fingertips in the case of long straight incisions and pencil grip in the case of short, fine incisions. - The Mayo-Hegar needle holder is held in the palm. The Mathieu needle holder is similar to an artery forceps, but its jaw is designed to hold a needle - Scissors and artery forceps are held with the tips of the thumb and ring finger through the finger rings and with the index finger resting on the shanks.

- The Mayo-Hegar needle holder is held in the palm. The Mathieu needle holder is similar to an artery forceps, but its jaw is designed to hold a needle

``` •Which abdominal fluid to plasma creatinine ratio is diagnostic for uroperitoneum? - one to one - two to one - three to one - one to two ```

- one to two

•Scissors. Mark the incorrect statement! - Scissors come in a variety of shapes and sizes. - Scissors are classified according to the type of point and blade shape. - Metzenbaum scissors are designed for dissection. - Mayo scissors are used for dissection.

- Mayo scissors are used for dissection.

PQ SAM Flashcards

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