PQ SAM

Question 1

Which statement is false?

• The generator determines the capacity of the x-ray machine
• Greater capacity allows shorter exposure time
• Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion sharpness
• The most common reason for motion unsharpness is panting

Answer 1

• Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion sharpness

Question 2

What is the role of the collimator?

• Filtration of the scattered beams
• Setting the size of the x-ray beam
• Setting the strength of the x-ray beam
• Reduction of x-ray radiation

Answer 2

• Reduction of x-ray radiation

Question 3

Which on is not an exposure factor?

• kV
• mA
• kW
• s

Answer 3

• kW

Question 4

Which statement is false

• The kVp describes the strength (penetrating power) of the x-ray beam
• The mA describes the number of x-ray photons
• To maintain the same exposure, if increasing the mAs you have to elevate the kVp too
• The same mAs can be created from different time components

Answer 4

• To maintain the same exposure, if increasing the mAs you have to elevate the kVp too

Question 5

What is the normal range of tube voltage in small animal radiography?

• 0,1-2 kVp
• 1000-2000 kVp
• 40-100 kVp
• 4-10 kVp

Answer 5

• 40-100 kVp

Question 6

Which of the above x-ray tubes contains rotating anode?

• A (upper)
• B (lower)
• Both
• None

Answer 6

• B (lower)

Question 7

Which statement is true? The use of the grid

• Reduces the radiation exposure
• Improves the image contrast
• Improves the image sharpness
• Reduces the exposure time

Answer 7

• Improves the image contrast

Question 8

What is not a normal component of an indirect digital system (CR)?

• X-ray tube
• x-ray film
• collimator
• PSP plate

Answer 8

• x-ray film

Question 9

Which statement is false?

• The x-ray radiation is electromagnetic radiation
• X-ray beam cannot be deflected by a magnetic field
• Particles with higher energy have a higher penetrating power
• The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron

Answer 9

• The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron

Question 10

Which part of the x-ray machine is marked in the picture (green box at beginning)?

• Generator
• Collimator
• X-ray tube
• Control panel/computer

Answer 10

• Generator

Question 11

Which statement is true?

• Some digital technologies use x-ray films
• Fluoroscopy can be digital or analog
• DR systems can be digital or analog
• The picture of CR systems can be static or dynamic

Answer 11

• Fluoroscopy can be digital or analog

Question 12

Which statement is true

• Fluoroscopy causes very low radiation exposure
• Fluoroscopy is mainly used for static examination
• During fluoroscopy the x-ray tube is generally above the animal
• Fluoroscope is also called C-arm

Answer 12

• Fluoroscope is also called C-arm

Question 13

The negatively charged particles of an atom is the

• Proton
• Neutron
• Electron
• Nucleus

Answer 13

• Electron

Question 14

As x-rays pass through materials, they have the ability to

• Cause some substances to fluoresce (emit visible light)
• Completely remove an electron from an atom, leaving the atom positively charged
• Cause chemical changes that can kill cells
• All of the above

Answer 14

• All of the above

Question 15

Which of the following statements is true

• X-ray can be deflected by magnetic fields
• X-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate further than rays with shorter wavelengths
• Electromagnetic radiation with higher frequency has more penetrating power through space and matter
• Gamma rays are required for the production of a radiograph

Answer 15

• X-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate further than rays with shorter wavelengths

Question 16

Electrons travel

• Toward the cathode in an x-ray tube
• Away from the anode in an x-ray tube
• Toward the anode in an x-ray tube
• None of them are true

Answer 16

• Toward the anode in an x-ray tube

Question 17

X-ray photons travel

• Toward the cathode in an x-ray tube
• Away from the anode in an x-ray tube
• Toward the anode in an x-ray tube
• None of them are true

Answer 17

• None of them are true (out of the x-ray tube –> created when e- drop an orbital)

Question 18

Ways to increase penetrating power of x-rays include

• increasing kVp
• Increasing the time setting
• Increasing thermionic emission
• Increasing mAs

Answer 18

• increasing kVp

Question 19

The millamperage-second (mAs) for 100 mA and 1/10 sec is

• 10 mAs
• 10000 mAs
• 100 mAs
• 1 mAs

Answer 19

• 10 mAs

Question 20

According to Santes’ rule, if a cats abdomen measures 8 cm, FFD is 100 cm, kVp is

• 72
• 56
• 66
• 52

Answer 20

• 56 (100 cm = 39,4 inches, (8*2)+39,4 =55,4)

Question 21

Increasing the film-object distance

• The resulting image will be larger
• The resulting image will be sharper
• The resulting image will be distorted
• Both A and B is correct

Answer 21

• The resulting image will be larger

Question 22

One percent of the energy produced at the anode is in the form of

• heat
• X-ray
• Light
• None of the above

Answer 22

• X-ray

Question 23

The temperature of the filament within the cathode is controlled by

• Time setting
• The source-image distance
• kVp setting
• mA setting

Answer 23

• mA setting

Question 24

Which is a characteristic of x-rays?

• Their total number produced is determined by kV
• Longer wavelengths have more penetrating power
• Their intensity increases as SID (source-image distance) decreases
• They diverge from a light source

Answer 24

• Their intensity increases as SID (source-image distance) decreases

Question 25

The potential difference between the anode and cathode is measured in

• Kilovolts
• Kilowatts
• Miliamperes
• Centimeters

Answer 25

• Kilovolts

Question 26

Higher kVp settings allows for a ____ mAs and ____ exposure time

• higher, higher
• higher, lower
• lower, lower
• lower, higher

Answer 26

• lower, lower

Question 27

Which of the following increases radiographic density

• Thinner body parts
• Increased mAs
• Increased density of the bodypart being radiographed
• Decreased kVp

Answer 27

• Increased mAs

Question 28

Which of the following radiographs should have the shortest scale of contrast

• Abdomen
• Thorax
• Femur
• All are approximately equal

Answer 28

• Femur

Question 29

The primary exposure factor that controls scatter radiation is

• kVp
• mAs
• Increased exposure time
• The collimator setting

Answer 29

• kVp

Question 30

What do grids contain that controls scatter radiation

• Molybdenum
• Aluminium
• Silver
• Lead

Answer 30

• Lead

Question 31

Where is a grid located

• Between the patient and the cassette
• Between the patient and the x-ray tube
• Above the x-ray tube
• Under the cassette

Answer 31

• Between the patient and the cassette

Question 32

To prevent magnification and distortion of the object being radiographed, the patient must

• Be as parallel to the film as possible
• Be as close to the film as possible
• Be as close to the x-ray tube as possible
• Both A and B are correct

Answer 32

• Both A and B are correct

Question 33

When viewing a radiograph over laterally positioned animal

• The head should be at the top of the view box/display
• The head should face the viewer’s left with this spine at the top
• They had shoot face with the viewer’s right with the spine at the top
• The head should face the viewer’s left with the spine at the bottom

Answer 33

• The head should face the viewer’s left with this spine at the top

Question 34

Any body part exceeding this measurement requires the use of a grid to reduce fog producing scatter radiation

• 20 cm
• 10 cm
• 2,5 cm
• 30 cm

Answer 34

• 10 cm

Question 35

Which statement is false

• The use of grid is recommended over 10 cm object diameter
• Using a grid, the dose of the radiation should be reduced
• The grid filters the scatter radiation
• The grid contains small lead strips standing vertically or in an angle facing toward the x-ray tube

Answer 35

• Using a grid, the dose of the radiation should be reduced

Question 36

Which statement is false? The scattered beam

• Is negligible concerning radiation safety of the staff
• Originates mostly from the patient’s body
• Is disadvantageous concerning the quality of the radiograph
• Is less intense than the primary beam

Answer 36

• Is negligible concerning radiation safety of the staff

Question 37

Which statement is false? The x-rat beam is

• Invisible
• Makes chemical changes in photoemulsions
• Produces light flash in fluorescent materials
• Penetrates bodies without losing energy

Answer 37

• Penetrates bodies without losing energy

Question 38

Which one does not belong to the basic radiographic opacities

• Metal
• Wood
• Stone
• Gas

Answer 38

• Wood

Question 39

With the use of a grid we can

• Reduce the radiation exposure
• Improve the image contrast
• Improve the image sharpness
• Reduce the exposure time

Answer 39

• Improve the image contrast

Question 40

Which statement is incorrect? The x-ray (is)

• ionizing radiation
• Electromagnetic radiation
• Travels at the speed of light
• Consists of charged particles

Answer 40

• Consists of charged particles

Question 41

What is not a normal component in the digital radiographic technology?

• x-ray tube
• Intensifying screen
• Grid
• Collimator

Answer 41

• Intensifying screen

Question 42

The attenuation of the x-ray beam does not depend on which parameter?

• Atomic number
• Object thickness
• Physical density
• Optical density

Answer 42

• Optical density

Question 43

Which components are different in conventional and digital radiography

• x-ray tube
• Generator
• Grid
• Detector

Answer 43

• Detector

Question 44

What is the main source of the radiation exposure of the personnel?

• Leaking radiation from the x-ray tube
• The primary beam
• The secondary beam originating from the patient
• None of them

Answer 44

• The secondary beam originating from the patient

Question 45

Which statement is false?

• Bones are more radiolucent than metals
• Fat is more radiopaque than fluids
• Gas is more radiolucent than fat
• Fluids and soft tissues have the same opacity

Answer 45

• Fat is more radiopaque than fluids

Question 46

The cause of an unsharp x-ray image cannot be:

• Motion
• Increased distance between the object and the detector
• Low kV
• High mAs

Answer 46

• Low kV

Question 47

Which statement is true regarding the radiographic image?

• The distortion is less on the periphery
• Distortion can be prevented by centralization
• Objects look smaller on radiograph then their real size
• Unsharpness may come only from motion

Answer 47

• Distortion can be prevented by centralization

Question 48

Which statement is true

• Image acquisition is faster in CR, than in DR systems
• CR systems are cheaper, than DR systems
• In the DR systems the cassette contains a PSP plate
• A reader or scanner is a normal component of a DR system

Answer 48

• CR systems are cheaper, than DR systems

Question 49

Which exposure feature could be used in small animal radiography

• 8 mAs
• 100 mAs
• 0,8 mAs
• 800 mAs

Answer 49

• 8 mAs

Question 50

Which statement is false

• The mAs describes the number of x-ray photons
• Higher capacity generators are required to produce longer exposure time
• The contrast of the image is mainly based on the mAs
• Scatter radiation is mainly based on mAs

Answer 50

• Higher capacity generators are required to produce longer exposure time

Question 51

Which statement is false? In case of chest radiography

• Longer exposure time is recommended
• Smaller exposure values are needed compared to an abdominal radiograph of the same diameter
• The contrast will be higher compared to the abdomen
• Motion unsharpness is a common problem

Answer 51

• Longer exposure time is recommended

Question 52

Which exposure factors cause same blackening on the detector than 60kV/8mAs

• 70kV/16mAs
• 50kV/20mAs
• 80kV/2mAs
• 40kV/10mAs

Answer 52

• 80kV/2mAs

Question 53

Which of the following is not an image parameter?

• Density
• Sharpness
• Magnification
• Contrast

Answer 53

• Magnification

Question 54

Which statement is true

• The overexposed digital image will be too bright
• The overexposed analogue image will be too dark
• The underexposed analogue image will be too dark
• The underexposed digital image will be too bright

Answer 54

• The overexposed analogue image will be too dark

Question 55

Which statement is false?

• In case of wrong exposure factors the digital image will be mottled
• The S-value informs you about the exposure
• The image can be mottled both in over- and underexposed cases
• Digital systems require much higher doses than analogue systems

Answer 55

• Digital systems require much higher doses than analogue systems

Question 56

Which statement is true

• You don’t have to use grid for the chest
• You don’t have to use grid above 10 cm object thickness
• The use of the grid is often not required in digital systems
• The create improves the image sharpness

Answer 56

• The create improves the image sharpness (badly translated? Did they mean Grid and Contrast?)

Question 57

The opacity of which organ differs from the others?

• Urinary bladder
• Gallbladder
• Trachea
• Heart

Answer 57

• Trachea

Question 58

One of the following is NOT a form of protection against ionizing radiation

• Distance
• Shielding
• Dose equivalent
• Time

Answer 58

• Dose equivalent

Question 59

A personal dose meter is

• Worn on the outer side of protective clothing
• Is obligatory for everybody
• Indicates overexposure with light and sound signals
• Records the effective dose

Answer 59

• Records the effective dose

Question 60

The x-ray beam does not

• Cause radioactivity
• Ionize matter
• Travel at the speed of light
• Require electric current to generate

Answer 60

• Cause radioactivity

Question 61

In veterinary diagnostic radiology adverse may include

• Stochastic effect
• Deterministic effects
• Radiation sickness
• None

Answer 61

• Stochastic effect

Question 62

An especially sensitive tissue type for ionizing radiation is

• The skin
• The bone marrow
• The nervous system
• None

Answer 62

• The bone marrow

Question 63

In case of deterministic effects

• Severity is proportionate to dose
• There is no threshold
• The typical unit of measure is Sievert
• The most common result is a malignant tumour

Answer 63

• Severity is proportionate to dose

Question 64

It is officially safe to put a hand in the primary x-ray beam with

• Lead gloves on
• With nothing on
• With a double layer of protective lead on
• None of the above

Answer 64

• None of the above

Question 65

Radon

• Is incorporated after inhalation
• Is released from industrial fallout
• Is generated by x-ray
• Is absent in Europe

Answer 65

• Is incorporated after inhalation

Question 66

X-ray photons in the body normally are not

• Absorbed
• Reflected
• Scattered
• Transmitted

Answer 66

• Transmitted

Question 67

Why can be a structure more radiopaque than the others?

• It has the same diameter, but it consists of elements of lower atomical numbers
• It has the same material, but thinner
• It consists of elements of higher atomic number and has the same diameter
• It consists of elements with smaller atomic number and is thinner

Answer 67

• It consists of elements of higher atomic number and has the same diameter

Question 68

Which statement is false?

• The canine tooth is located rostral to the tympanic bulla
• The patella is located cranial to the fabella
• The sternum is located ventral to the heart
• The olecranon is located dorsal to the carpus

Answer 68

• The olecranon is located dorsal to the carpus

Question 69

What if the object is not in the centre of the detector plate?

• The resulting image will be enlarged
• The resulting image will be distorted
• The resulting image will be unsharp
• The resulting image will be overexposed

Answer 69

• The resulting image will be distorted

Question 70

Which statement is true?

• You can’t reach into the primary beam even with lead gloves on
• The land club protects from the primary beam
• If you don’t see the bones of your gloved hand on the radiograph, then no radiation was exposed to your hand
• Only pregnant women can’t reach into the primary beam

Answer 70

• You can’t reach into the primary beam even with lead gloves on

Question 71

What does “Acquisition” mean in digital imaging?

• The clouding of electrons around the cathode spiral
• The scatter of primary beams around the animal’s body
• The creating of picture from the electric sign
• The equilibrium of exposure factors to optimize the image quality

Answer 71

• The creating of picture from the electric sign

Question 72

What is not true for DICOM files?

• They can be inspected with commercial image vier programs
• Contains images of TIFF format
• The x-ray images have a size of 10-30 megabytes
• They contain metadata besides the image

Answer 72

• Contains images of TIFF format (dcm format, TIFF image)

Question 73

Which statement is incorrect- Compared to the JPEG image is the DICOM files are

• Less appropriate for diagnostics
• Bigger
• Preferred more by the owner
• Cannot be inspected with a medical image viewer program

Answer 73

• Preferred more by the owner

Question 74

A rarely performed contrast study in small animal radiology

• Thoracic cavity infusion
• Lacrimal duct contrast study
• Laryngeal contrast instillation
• None of the above

Answer 74

• Lacrimal duct contrast study

Question 75

Myelography is primarily used to diagnose

• Spinal cord bleeding
• Spinal cord compression
• Spinal cord necrosis
• Brain circulatory disorders

Answer 75

• Spinal cord compression

Question 76

In myelography, a contrast agent is injected into the following space

• Epidural
• Subdural
• Subarachnoid
• Spinal

Answer 76

• Subarachnoid

Question 77

In the study of megaesophagus one of the following methods is not used

• Survey radiographs
• Barium sulfate paste swallow
• Carbon-dioxine inflation
• Feeding barium sulfate mixed with pet food

Answer 77

• Carbon-dioxine inflation

Question 78

When is liquid barium sulfate entirely emptied from the stomach following per os administration in a healthy dog?

• After 1 hour
• After 4 hours
• After 12 hours
• After 24 hours

Answer 78

• After 4 hours

Question 79

Which of the following retrograde contrast studies is not performed in dogs?

• Positive contrast cystography
• Negative contrast cystography
• Positive contrast urethrography
• Negative contrast urethrography

Answer 79

• Negative contrast urethrography

Question 80

Which statement is false regarding the radiography of the intestinal obstruction

• The obturating object and the distended proximal intestinal loops may be seen on the radiograph at the same time
• The obturating object may be seen without secondary X-ray signs of the radiograph
• In certain cases the radiographic finding may be unremarkable
• Contrast study is used in every case to make the diagnosis of intestinal obstruction

Answer 80

• Contrast study is used in every case to make the diagnosis of intestinal obstruction

Question 81

Which statement is not true? In carnivores the homogenous abdomen

• May suggest abdominal effusion
• Is normal in young animals
• Is normal in cachectic animals
• Is normal in obese patients

Answer 81

• Is normal in obese patients

Question 82

What contrast medium would you choose for double contrast cystography?

• Iodinated contrast and barium sulfate
• Air and barium sulfate
• Iodinated contrast and air
• Air only

Answer 82

• Iodinated contrast and air

Question 83

Which statement is true? In case of an intestinal obstruction

• The use of barium sulfate is contraindicated
• Unevenly the standard intestinal looks are always visible
• The radiograph can be completely normal
• The gas filled stomach is pathognostic

Answer 83

• The radiograph can be completely normal

Question 84

Which contrast can be used to examine the urethra?

• Liquid BaSO4
• Powder BaSO4
• Organic iodine compound
• Inorganic iodine compound

Answer 84

• Organic iodine compound

Question 85

Which of the above organs can be generally seen on a survey radiograph

• Pancreas
• Ovaries
• Adrenal glands
• Aorta

Answer 85

• Aorta

Question 86

The best method to detect the rupture of the ureters is

• Double contrast cystography
• Excretory urography
• Excretory urethrography
• Retrograde urethrography

Answer 86

• Excretory urethrography

Question 87

Which statement is true? In small animals

• Every uroliths are visible on the survey radiograph
• Urethrography is recommended to confirm cystolithiasis
• Ectopic ureters can be detected by intravenous cystolithiasis
• The best method to confirm urinary bladder rupture is negative contrast cystography

Answer 87

• Ectopic ureters can be detected by intravenous cystolithiasis

Question 88

Negative bronchogram is typical in which pulmonary pattern?

• Nodular pattern
• Alveolar pattern
• Bronchial pattern
• Interstitial pattern

Answer 88

• Alveolar pattern

Question 89

Which contrast medium can be used in case of a suspected eosophageal perforation

• Liquid BaSO4
• Liquid BaSO4 and canned food
• Organic iodine compound
• Inorganic iodine compound.

Answer 89

• Inorganic iodine compound.

Question 90

In case of a tracheal hypoplasia the diameter of the trachea is less than

• The 1/3 of the length of the third rib
• The 20% of the thoracic inlet
• The double of the length of the second lumbar vertebrae
• One intercostal space

Answer 90

• The 20% of the thoracic inlet

Question 91

Which of the following is typical for tracheal hypoplasia

• The entire trachea is narrower than normal
• The trachea is narrowed in the thoracic inlet
• The respiratory phase has an influence on the diameter of the trachea
• The narrow portion is generally located inside the chest

Answer 91

• The entire trachea is narrower than normal

Question 92

In which condition can we see the tracheal wall separated from the neighboring tissues

• Pneumothorax
• Pleural effusion
• Pneumomediastinum
• Negative bronchogram

Answer 92

• Pneumomediastinum

Question 93

Which statement is true for the feline esophagus?

• The caudal 1/3 on the survey radiograph shows herring bone pattern
• The cranial 1/3 on the contrast radiograph shows herring bone pattern
• The cranial 1/3 on the survey radiograph shows herring bone pattern
• The caudal 1/3 on the contrast radiograph shows herring bone pattern

Answer 93

• The caudal 1/3 on the contrast radiograph shows herring bone pattern

Question 94

What is the basic structure of the pulmonary pattern

• Bronchi
• Pulmonary vessels
• Alveoli
• None of them

Answer 94

• Pulmonary vessels

Question 95

A vertebral heart scale

• Describes the length of the vertebrae
• Describes the size of the heart
• Can be measured on the VD thoracic radiograph
• Can be measured on the LL lumbar spine radiograph

Answer 95

• Describes the size of the heart

Question 96

Which statement is not true for the tracheal collapse?

• Its radiographic appearance is influenced by the respiratory phase
• The entire trachea is affected
• Its cause is the softening of the tracheal C-cartilage
• Toy breeds are affected

Answer 96

• The entire trachea is affected

Question 97

Which statement is true? On the lateral chest radiograph

• The left ventricle is located cranioventrally
• The left atrium is located caudodorsally
• The right ventricle is located craniodorsally
• The right atrium is located caudoventrally

Answer 97

• The left atrium is located caudodorsally

Question 98

Which statement is false? In case of thoracic effusion

• The opacity of the thorax is increased
• The outline of the organs gets sharper
• Diaphragmatic hernia sometimes cannot be ruled out
• Type of the fluid cannot be determined

Answer 98

• The outline of the organs gets sharper

Question 99

What contrast medium would you use to determine vascular strangulation of the esophagus

• Barium-sulfate
• Inorganic iodine compound
• Air
• The use of contrast medium is contraindicated

Answer 99

• Barium-sulfate

Question 100

Which one is not a pulmonary pattern

• Alveolar
• Fibrous
• Interstitial
• Bronchial

Answer 100

• Fibrous

Question 101

The tracheal hypoplasia is common in which breed?

• Dachshund
• English bulldog
• German shepherd
• Irish setter

Answer 101

• English bulldog

Question 102

Which contrast medium can be used for the non-perforating esophagus

• Barium sulfate suspension
• Organic iodine
• Both
• None of them

Answer 102

• Both

Question 103

Which statement is false? When obtaining radiographs of fractures, it is important

• To take orthogonal projection
• To have neighboring joints in the picture too
• In case of uncertainty take x-ray of the contralateral limb too
• Always take radiograph of the thorax too

Answer 103

• Always take radiograph of the thorax too

Question 104

Which statement is correct? In mature healthy carnivores

• The cortical layer of the long bones is radiolucent
• The growth plate is radiolucent
• The periosteum is not visible in the radiograph
• The endosteum is visible on the radiograph

Answer 104

• The endosteum is visible on the radiograph (I think)

Question 105

What is the normal anatomy of the long bone?

• Epiphysis - Metaphysis - Diaphysis - Metaphysis - Epiphysis
• Metaphysis - Diaphysis - Epiphysis - Diaphysis - Metaphysis
• Diaphysis - Epiphysis - Metaphysis - Epiphysis - Diaphysis
• Metaphysis - Epiphysis - Diaphysis - Epiphysis -Metaphysis

Answer 105

• Epiphysis - Metaphysis - Diaphysis - Metaphysis - Epiphysis

Question 106

Which part of long bones is radiolucent

• Cortex
• Subchondral bone
• Growth plate in young animals
• Growth plate in adults

Answer 106

• Growth plate in young animals

Question 107

Sunburst-like periosteal reaction is typical for which disorder?

• Malignant bone tumour
• Bone cyst
• Osteochondrosis dissecans
• Benign bone tumor

Answer 107

• Malignant bone tumour

Question 108

Which statement is true?

• The joint capsule is visible in the radiograph
• The subchondral bone is not visible in the radiograph
• The joint cartilage is not visible in the radiograph
• Joint ligaments are visible in the radiograph

Answer 108

• The joint cartilage is not visible in the radiograph

Question 109

Which anatomical structure is demonstrated by myelography?

• Epidural space
• Subdural space
• Subarachnoid space
• Periarachnoideal space

Answer 109

• Subarachnoid space

Question 110

Which abnormality can be connected to clinical signs

• Spondylosis
• Hemivertebrae
• Calcified nucleus pulposus
• SH-2 epiphyseosis

Answer 110

• SH-2 epiphyseosis

Question 111

The number of vertebrae in dogs?

• 6 cervical, 13 thoracic, 6 lumbar
• 7 cervical, 13 thoracic, 7 lumbar
• 7 cervical, 12 throacic, 7 lumbar
• 6 cervical, 12 thoracic, 6 lumbar

Answer 111

• 7 cervical, 13 thoracic, 7 lumbar

Question 112

Which answer is true? The radiographic signs of a Wobbler syndrome can be

• Deformed cervical vertebrae
• Deformed thoracic vertebrae
• Deformed lumbar vertebrae
• Deformed sacrum

Answer 112

• Deformed cervical vertebrae

Question 113

Hansen type 1 discus hernia

• Is called protrusion in Latin
• Is generally acute clinical process
• Generally affects large breed dogs
• The fibrotic change of the nucleus pulposus in the background

Answer 113

• Is generally acute clinical process

Question 114

Which radiographic change is not connected generally to clinical signs

• Spondylosis deformans
• Discospondylitis
• Extradural compression of the myelogram
• Vertebral fracture

Answer 114

• Spondylosis deformans

Question 115

Which statement is false regarding discospondylitis

• It is characterized by osteolytic changes
• It is an aseptic process
• The end plates of the vertebrae are affected
• It generally goes with pain and pyrexia

Answer 115

• It is an aseptic process

Question 116

Premedication

• Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthesia
• Pharmacological intervention prior to recovery of general anesthesia
• Pharmacological intervention after induction of general anesthesia
• Pharmacological intervention after recovery of general anesthesia

Answer 116

• Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthesia

Question 117

Calming

• Analgesia
• Anxiolysis
• Sedation
• Anesthesia

Answer 117

• Sedation

Question 118

Reduction of fear

• Analgesia
• Anxiolysis
• Sedation
• Anesthesia

Answer 118

• Anxiolysis

Question 119

Pain relief

• Analgesia
• Anxiolysis
• Sedation
• Anesthesia

Answer 119

• Analgesia

Question 120

Catalepsy may be caused by

• Ketamine
• Propofol
• Fentanyl
• Xylazine

Answer 120

• Ketamine

Question 121

Neuroleptnalgesia. Pick the false answer

• Superficial “sleeping”
• Analgesia
• Caused by phenothiazine + opioid combination
• Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination

Answer 121

• Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination

Question 122

Anesthesia types. Pick the false answer

• Local
• Regional
• Subtotal
• General

Answer 122

• Subtotal

Question 123

General anesthesia criteria. Pick the false answer

• Inhalation
• Hypnosis
• Analgesia
• Muscle relaxation

Answer 123

• Inhalation

Question 124

Balanced anesthesia. Pick the false answer

• Achievable with a single “monoanesthetic” drug
• Consciousness may be steered with anesthetics
• Pain may be controlled by analgesics
• Muscle relaxation may be altered via muscle relaxants

Answer 124

• Achievable with a single “monoanesthetic” drug

Question 125

Dissociative anesthesia. Pick the false answer

• Thalamocortical dissociation
• Limbic depression
• Peripheral analgesia
• Alteration of consciousness

Answer 125

• Limbic depression

Question 126

Phenothiazines may cause life threatening hypotension in

• Dobermanns
• Boxers
• Staffordshire terriers
• Greyhounds

Answer 126

• Boxers

Question 127

Brachycephalic breeds need.. Pick the false answer

• Preoxigenation
• Short induction
• Fast intubation
• Early extubation

Answer 127

• Early extubation

Question 128

MDR-1 gene defect is detected in… Pick the false answer

• Australian shepherd
• English shepherd
• German shepherd
• Pug

Answer 128

• Pug

Question 129

Preanesthetic circulatory examination. Pick the false answer

• Mucous membranes
• Capillary refill time
• Spleen size
• Pulse frequency and quality

Answer 129

• Spleen size

Question 130

Preanesthetic heart function examination. Pick the false answer

• Auscultation
• Electrocardiography
• Ultrasonography
• Heart muscle biopsy

Answer 130

• Heart muscle biopsy

Question 131

Preanesthetic minimal laboratory exam Pick the false answer

• Parasitological examination of faeces
• White blood cell count and hematocritt
• Total plasma protein
• Urea, Crea and ALT

Answer 131

• Parasitological examination of faeces

Question 132

ASA 1. Pick the false answer

• Healthy state
• Symptom-free state
• Low anesthesia risk
• Age: 0 day - 8 years

Answer 132

• Age: 0 day - 8 years (6 weeks to 5 years are ASA 1)

Question 133

ASA 2. Pick the false answer

• Mild systemic disease
• No apparent functional disorders
• Low anesthesia risk
• Age: 6 weeks - 5 years

Answer 133

• Age: 6 weeks - 5 years (3 days - 6 weeks & 5-8 years)

Question 134

ASA 3. Pick the false answer

• Severe systemic disease
• Visible functional impairment
• Age: 6 weeks - 5 years
• Not life threatening status

Answer 134

• Age: 6 weeks - 5 years (8-10 years)

Question 135

ASA 4. Pick the false answer

• Severe systemic disease
• Constant threat to life
• Age: 0-3 days or over 10 years
• Age: 6-16 years

Answer 135

• Age: 6-16 years

Question 136

CEPOD classification. Pick the false answer

• I: Immediate, life-saving intervention
• II: Urgent intervention
• III: Planned for near future
• IV: No time for classification

Answer 136

• IV: No time for classification

Question 137

Preanesthetic fasting. Pick the false answer

• Usually 6 hours
• Less than 6 hours in very young patients
• More than 6 hours in brachycephalic dogs
• Only 2 hours in emergency patients

Answer 137

• Only 2 hours in emergency patients

Question 138

Advantages of premedication. Pick the false answer

• Decreases stress, fear and aggression
• Lowers anesthetic demand
• Decreases drug expenditure and costs
• Increases the excitation phase

Answer 138

• Increases the excitation phase

Question 139

Step of general anesthesia. Pick the false answer

• Premedication
• Induction
• Stadium analgesia
• Recovery

Answer 139

• Stadium analgesia

Question 140

Effects of premedication. Pick the false answer

• Decreases pain, stress, fear, aggression
• Increases O2-demand
• Decreases anesthetic dosage, side effects, costs
• Eliminates excitation stage.

Answer 140

• Increases O2-demand

Question 141

Reasons of vein cannulation. Pick the false answer

• Drug administration
• Fluid therapy
• Emergency access
• Monitoring core temperature

Answer 141

• Monitoring core temperature

Question 142

Preferred drugs for induction. Pick the false answer

• Anesthetics with moderate (or NO) side effects
• Rapid onset of action
• Long duration
• Short duration or counteractable

Answer 142

• Long duration

Question 143

Maintenance of general anesthesia. Pick the false answer

• Intramuscular
• Intravenous
• Inhalation
• Epidural

Answer 143

• Epidural

Question 144

Role of the anesthesiologist. Pick the false answer

• Control the depth of anesthesia
• Patient monitoring
• Reduce surgical time
• Maintain homeostasis

Answer 144

• Reduce surgical time

Question 145

Stages of nacrosis (I-IV). Pick the false answer

• Stadium analgesia = induction phase
• Stadium excitationis = excitatory phase
• Stadium tolerantiae = surgical narcosis
• Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis

Answer 145

• Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis

Question 146

Characteristics of general anesthesia. Pick the false answer.

• Unconsciousness
• Lack of perception
• Analgesia
• Muscle rigidity

Answer 146

• Muscle rigidity

Question 147

Atropine is used for treatment… Pick the false answer

• Bradycardia caused by opioids
• Reflex-bradycardia caused by alpha2-agonists (hig BP)
• AV- and SA blocks
• Increased gland-secretion and bronchospasm

Answer 147

• Reflex-bradycardia caused by alpha2-agonists (hig BP)

Question 148

ACP effects. Pick the false answer

• Calming
• Vasodilation
• Depression of thermoregulation
• Emetic

Answer 148

• Emetic (ANTIemetic)

Question 149

ACP effect. Pick the false answer

• Decreases BP
• Antihistaminic
• Depression of platelet function
• Analgesic

Answer 149

• Analgesic

Question 150

Diazepam and midazolam. Pick the false answer

• For old animals with poor general condition
• Can be antagonized by atipamezole
• Decrease anxiety, relax muscles
• High dose causes respiratory depression.

Answer 150

• Can be antagonized by atipamezole

Question 151

Alpha-2 agonists. Pick the false answer

• Alphazalone and alphadolone
• Detomidine
• Metomidine and dexmedetomidine
• Xylazine

Answer 151

• Alphazalone and alphadolone

Question 152

Alpha2-agonists. Pick the false answer

• Sedative
• Analgesic
• Emetic
• Not antagonizable

Answer 152

• Not antagonizable

Question 153

Medetomidine, xylazine. Pick the false answer
. Using a general dose, phases of sedation, induction and maintenance can not be separated
- Can be antagonized by flumazenil
- Not recommended for old and cardiac and diabetic patients
- Cause circulatory and respiratory depression

Answer 153

• Can be antagonized by flumazenil

Question 154

Opioid drugs. Pick the false answer

• Morphine and fentanyl
• Buprenorphine and butorphanol
• Tramadol and thiopental
• Naloxone

Answer 154

• Tramadol and thiopental

Question 155

Opioid receptors. Pick the false answer

• mu
• kappa
• omicron
• delta

Answer 155

• omicron

Question 156

Fentanyl. Pick the false answer

• Full agonist opioid drug
• 15-30 minutes duration of effect
• Do not combine with propofol
• May be redosed

Answer 156

• Do not combine with propofol

Question 157

Morphine. Pick the false answer

• Full agonist opioid drug
• 4-6 hours duration of effect
• Use high dose IV in mastocytoma patients
• May be redosed

Answer 157

• Use high dose IV in mastocytoma patients

Question 158

Opioids. Pick the false answer

• Despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect
• Major analgesics
• Side effects are bradycardia and respiratory depression
• Can be antagonized by naloxone

Answer 158

• Despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect

Question 159

Full opioid agonist

• Morphine
• Buprenorphine
• Butorphanol
• Tremadol

Answer 159

• Morphine

Question 160

Full opioid agonist

• Naloxon
• Buprenorphine
• Butorphanol
• Fentanyl

Answer 160

• Fentanyl

Question 161

Short duration of action

• Morphine
• Buprenorphine
• Fentanyl
• Fentanyl patch

Answer 161

• Fentanyl

Question 162

Partial mu-agonist

• Morphine
• Buprenorphine
• Butorphanol
• Fentanyl

Answer 162

• Buprenorphine

Question 163

Partial mu-antagonist and kappa-agonist

• Morphine
• Buprenorphine
• Butorphanol
• Fentanyl

Answer 163

• Butorphanol

Question 164

Weak mu-agonist

• Morphine
• Buprenorphine
• Butorphanol
• Tremadol

Answer 164

• Tremadol

Question 165

Propofol. Pick the false answer

• Can be used in almost all patient groups
• Hypnotic, muscle relaxant and analgesic
• Short duration of action, can be redosed
• High dose and rapid application lead to respiratory depression

Answer 165

• Hypnotic, muscle relaxant and analgesic

Question 166

Application of propofol. Pick the false answer

• Only in combination with muscle relaxants
• Slowly
• IV
• To effect ???

Answer 166

• Only in combination with muscle relaxants

Question 167

Ketamine. Pick the false answer

• Moderate analgesic effect
• Benzodiazepine can help avoid catalepsy
• Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients
• Eyes remain open, thus the cornea may desiccate

Answer 167

• Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients

Question 168

Safe inhalat anesthetics. Pick the false answer

• Ether
• Isoflurane
• Sevoflurane
• Desflurane

Answer 168

• Ether

Question 169

Inhalant anesthetics- Pick the false answer

• 1 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 50% of cases
• 2 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 100% of cases
• Hypnotic, muscle relaxant, strong analgesic effect
• Short induction and recovery

Answer 169

• Hypnotic, muscle relaxant, strong analgesic effect

Question 170

Inhalat anesthetics- Pick the false answer

• Hypnotic
• Muscle relaxant
• No analgesic effect
• Sedative

Answer 170

• Sedative

Question 171

Local anesthetics- Pick the false answer

• Block nerve cells
• Local anesthesia types: terminal, conductive, paravertebral, epidural, spinal
• Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anesthetics
• Possible side-effects: cardiovascular and CNS signs, cell toxicity

Answer 171

• Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anesthetics

Question 172

LA side effects. Pick the false answers

• Cardiovascular
• CNS
• Cell toxicity
• Respiratory

Answer 172

• Respiratory

Question 173

Pancuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, rocuronium

• Central muscle relaxants
• Peripheral non depolarising muscle relaxants
• Peripheral depolarising muscle relaxants
• Local anesthetics

Answer 173

• Peripheral non depolarising muscle relaxants

Question 174

Pain. Pick the false answers

• Complex, multidimensional negative experience
• There is no linear correlation between degree of pathological changes and intensity of pain
• Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress
• Simultaneous nociceptive effets add up

Answer 174

• Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress

Question 175

Characteristics of pain. Pick the false answer

• Function: physiological or pathological
• Origin: organic or psychogenic
• Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional
• Duration: Acute or chronic

Answer 175

• Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional

Question 176

Pathological pain. Pick the false answer

• Hyperalgesia: mild noxious stimuli result in intense pain sensation
• Allodynia: tactile (non-painful) stimuli result in pain sensation
• Pain impulse may be inhibited by pain-killers
• Never combine pain-killers

Answer 176

• Never combine pain-killers

Question 177

Ascending pathway of the nociception

• Transmission, transduction, modulation, projection and perception
• Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection and preception
• Transduction, modulation, transmission, projection and perception
• Modulation, tranduction, transmission, projection and perception

Answer 177

• Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection and preception

Question 178

Modern concept of pain management. Pick the false answer

• Young animals do not need analgesics
• Preemptive (prophylactic) analgesia
• Multimodal (multiple approach) analgesia
• No gap should appear

Answer 178

• Young animals do not need analgesics

Question 179

Intraoperative analgesic effect- Pick the false answer

• Ketamine CRI
• Lidocaine + fentanyl CRI
• Local anesthetics + opioids
• Inhalation alone

Answer 179

• Inhalation alone

Question 180

Purpose of anesthesia machines. Pick the false answer

• Administer appropriate flow of oxygen
• Administer appropriate concentration of inhalants
• Administer constant rate infusions
• Elimination of exhaled CO2

Answer 180

• Administer constant rate infusions

Question 181

Mixing part of anesthesia machine. Pick the false answer

• Gas source
• Flowmeter
• Vaporizer
• One-way valves

Answer 181

• One-way valves

Question 182

Breathing circuit of anesthesia machine- Pick the false answer

• Y-piece
• Reservoir bag
• Oxygen bypass button
• CO2 absorbent canister

Answer 182

• Oxygen bypass button

Question 183

Mixing system:

• 1
• 1+2
• 3
• 7

Answer 183

• 1+2

Question 184

High-pressure part of the mixing system

• 1
• 2
• 1+2
• 5

Answer 184

• 1

Question 185

Low-pressure part of the mixing system

• 1
• 2
• 1+3
• 3

Answer 185

• 2

Question 186

Breathing circuit

• 2+3
• 3
• 12+14
• 9

Answer 186

• 3

Question 187

Gas source

• 7
• 4
• 6
• 13

Answer 187

• 4

Question 188

Pressure regulator

• 5
• 6
• 7
• 8

Answer 188

• 5

Question 189

Oxygen bypass

• 5
• 6
• 7
• 15

Answer 189

• 6

Question 190

Flowmeter

• 5
• 6
• 7
• 8

Answer 190

• 7

Question 191

Vaporizer

• 5
• 6
• 7
• 8

Answer 191

• 8

Question 192

Reservoir bag

• 8
• 9
• 10
• 11

Answer 192

• 9

Question 193

Absorpent canister

• 6
• 8
• 10
• 15

Answer 193

• 10

Question 194

Inspiratory one-way valve

• 5
• 15
• 12
• 14

Answer 194

• 12

Question 195

Expiratory one-way valve

• 5
• 15
• 12
• 14

Answer 195

• 14

Question 196

Pop-off (Adjustable pressure limiting) valve

• 5
• 15
• 6
• 12+14

Answer 196

• 15

Question 197

Constant secondary pressure is provided by

• 5
• 6
• 7
• 15

Answer 197

• 5

Question 198

FLow rate of source gas is set by

• 5
• 7
• 8
• 15

Answer 198

• 7

Question 199

Anesthetic concentration is set by

• 5
• 7
• 8
• 10

Answer 199

• 8 (vaporiser)

Question 200

Balances volume changes during inspiration and expiration

• 7
• 12
• 14
• 9

Answer 200

• 9 (reservoir bag)

Question 201

Absorbs exhaled CO2

• 10
• 15
• 8
• 13

Answer 201

• 10 (absorbent canister)

Question 202

Maintains unidirectional flow in inspiratory ribbed tube

• 6
• 12
• 14
• 15

Answer 202

• 12 (insp. one way valve)

Question 203

Maintains unidirectional flow in expiratory ribbed tube

• 6
• 12
• 14
• 15

Answer 203

• 14 (exp- one way valve)

Question 204

Prevents excessive pressure in the circuit and lungs

• 5
• 6
• 9
• 15

Answer 204

• 15 (pop-off valve)

Question 205

Dead space in the system

• 4
• 8
• 9
• 13

Answer 205

• 13 (breathing tubes)

Question 206

Oxygen-bypass- Pick the false answer

• Emergency option
• Concentration of inhalational anesthetic in the circuit can be quickly reduced
• Pure O2 can directly enter the circuit
• The bypass rate is controlled by the flowmeter

Answer 206

• The bypass rate is controlled by the flowmeter

Question 207

Optional breathing tubes are… Pick the false answer

• Ribbed
• Short
• Wide
• Blue

Answer 207

• Blue

Question 208

Optional size of the reservoir bag is

• The respiratory volume
• 2 times the respiratory volume
• 5 times the respiratory volume
• 10 times the respiratory volume

Answer 208

• 5 times the respiratory volume

Question 209

The absorbent canister is part of the… pick the false answer

• Open system
• Semi-open system
• Semi-open and semi-closed systems
• Semi-closed and closed systems

Answer 209

• Semi-closed and closed system

Question 210

CO2 absorption. Pick the false answer

• The absorbent canister contains absorbing soda
• The absorbing soda granules have rough surface
• The absorbing sode granules consist of Mg-hydroxide
• Exhaution of the soda is indicated by discoloration

Answer 210

• The absorbing sode granules consist of Mg-hydroxide

Question 211

The pop-off valve (Adjustable pressure liming value)… Pick the false answer

• Prevents excessive pressure in the circuit and lungs
• Is open during spontaneous breathing
• Is set to 20 cmH20 during manual or mechanical ventilation
• Is set to 40 cmH2O in case of compromised lung

Answer 211

• Is set to 40 cmH2O in case of compromised lung

Question 212

Advantages of semi-open narcosis systems. Pick the false answer

• Low resistance
• Small mechanical dead space
• Anesthetic concentration can be quickly modified
• Large anesthetic consumption

Answer 212

• Large anesthetic consumption

Question 213

Advantages of closed narcosis systems. Pick the false answer

• Low source gas consumption
• Low inhalation anesthetic consumption
• Cheap
• Easily controllable depth of anesthesia

Answer 213

• Easily controllable depth of anesthesia

Question 214

Narcosis systems. Pick the false answer

• Open circuit
• Semi-open system
• Semi-closed circuit
• Closed circuit

Answer 214

• Open circuit

Question 215

Indications for mechanical ventilation. Pick the false answer

• Open thorax
• Neuromuscular blockade
• Hypoventilation caused by severe hypothermia
• Decreased etCO2 level

Answer 215

• Decreased etCO2 level

Question 216

IPPV (Intermittent Positive Pressure Ventilation). Pick the false answer

• Commonly used type of mechanical ventilation
• Airway pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure during inspiration
• Airway pressure falls to atmospheric pressure during passive expiration
• Can not be used in large dogs

Answer 216

• Can not be used in large dogs

Question 217

Physiological dead space means

• Anatomical dead space
• Anatomical + alveolar dead space
• Alveolar dead space
• Anatomical + apparatus dead space

Answer 217

• Anatomical + alveolar dead space

Question 218

Inspiration. Pick the false answer

• Spontaneous inspiration is caused by decreasing interpleural pressure
• IPPV inspiration is caused by increasing interpleural pressure
• Expiration is spontaneous in both cases
• IPPV expiration is caused by negative interpleural pressure

Answer 218

• IPPV expiration is caused by negative interpleural pressure

Question 219

CNS effects of IPPV. Pick the false answer

• Controlled hyperventilation reduces CO2 level in the blood
• Reduced CO2 level causes arterial vasoconstriction
• Arterial vasoconstriction decreases intracranial pressure
• Severely decreased intracranial pressure supports cerebral oxygenation

Answer 219

• Severely decreased intracranial pressure supports cerebral oxygenation

Question 220

Volume-controlled time-cycle mechanical ventilation. Pick the false answer

• Common in veterinary anesthesia
• Constant flow during inspiration
• Inspiratory pressure decreases during inspiration to maintain constant airflow
• Inspiratory phase ends after preset inspiratory time

Answer 220

• Inspiratory pressure decreases during inspiration to maintain constant airflow

Question 221

Triggering type (initiation of inspiratory phase). Pick the false answer

• Time
• Pressure
• Flow
• Concentration

Answer 221

• Concentration

Question 222

Parameters of ventilation. Pick the false answer

• Tidal volume: 10-15 ml/bwkg
• Respiratory rate: 80-100/min
• Inhalation/exhalation time ratio: 1:2-1:3
• Target values: 35-45 mmHg etCO2 and 100% SpO2

Answer 222

• Respiratory rate: 80-100/min

Question 223

Blood pressure measuring methods- Pick the false answer

• Femoral pulse quality evaluation
• Invasive direct
• Noninvasive doppler
• Noninvasive oscillometric

Answer 223

• Femoral pulse quality evaluation

Question 224

Blood pressure measurement at right atrial height

• Measure lower, the value will be higher
• Measure higher, the value will be lower
• 10 cm height difference results in a deviation of 7,36 mmHg
• 10 cm height difference results in a deviation of 73,6 mmHg

Answer 224

• 10 cm height difference results in a deviation of 7,36 mmHg

Question 225

Cuff size for BP measuring. Pick the false answer

• Patients of different sizes require different sizes of cuffs
• Optimal cuff’s with is 40% of leg’s circumference
• Optimal cuff’s with is 140% of leg’s circumference
• Wider cuff produces lower BP value and vica versa

Answer 225

• Optimal cuff’s with is 140% of leg’s circumference

Question 226

The MAP (Mean Arterial Pressure) is

• Average of the systolic and diastolic values
• Rarely lower than diastolic pressure
• Closer to diastolic pressure than to systolic pressure
• Closer to systolic pressure than diastolic pressure

Answer 226

• Average of the systolic and diastolic values

Question 227

Urine production during general anesthesia

• 0,1-0,2 ml/bwkg/h
• 1-2 ml/bwkg/h
• 10-20 ml/bwkg/h
• 100-200 ml/bwkg/h

Answer 227

• 1-2 ml/bwkg/h

Question 228

Pulse oximetry. Pick the false answer

• Noninvasive method
• Continuous measurements
• Measurement of O2 saturation of Hb (%)
• The target value is 89%

Answer 228

• The target value is 89%

Question 229

Pulse oximetry. Pick the false answer

• Physiological range of oxygen saturation: 35-45 mmHg
• Sensor can be placed on tongue, ear etc.
• In case of transmission-type sensors one side emits, while the other detects light
• Absorption depends on oxyHb/desoxyHb ratio

Answer 229

• Physiological range of oxygen saturation: 35-45 mmHg

Question 230

Most pulse oximeters display

• Signal strength
• Saturation and pulse frequency
• Plethysmogram
• Ratio of abnormal/normal hemoglobin types

Answer 230

• Ratio of abnormal/normal hemoglobin types

Question 231

Correlation between paO2 and SpO2

• Positive correlation
• Negative correlation
• Can be shown with sigmoid curve
• Small changes in SpO2 are caused by large changes of paO2 (in the physiological range)

Answer 231

• Can be shown with sigmoid curve

Question 232

Causes of malfunction of pulse oximeter. Pick the false answer

• Strong pulse
• Total light absorption
• Improper contact
• Interference with electrosurgical devices

Answer 232

• Strong pulse

Question 233

Capnometry. Pick the false answer

• Physiological range of etCO2: 35-45 mmHg
• Capnogram may be divided into 4 phases
• In case of hypoventilation etCO2 decreases
• Exhausted CO2 absorbent soda lime increases inhaled CO2 level

Answer 233

• In case of hypoventilation etCO2 decreases

Question 234

Correlation of paCO2 and etCO2. Pick the false answer

• Positive correlation
• Negative correlation
• PaCO2>etCO2
• The difference in small animals is 2-5 mmHg

Answer 234

• Negative correlation

Question 235

Capnograph types

• Side-flow and main-flow measuring
• Left-sided and right-sided measuring
• Low-flow and high-flow measuring
• Mono-flow and multi-flow measuring

Answer 235

• Side-flow and main-flow measuring

Question 236

Capnogram phases

• Phase 1 (inhalation), Phase 2 (exhalation begins), Phase 3 (exhalation ends), Phase 4 (inhalation begins)
• Phase 1 (exhalation begins), Phase 2 (exhalation ends), Phase 3 (inhalation begins), Phase 4 (inhalation)
• Phase 1 (exhalation ends), Phase 2 (inhalation begins), Phase 3 (inhalation), Phase 4 (exhalation begins)
• Phase 1 (inhalation begins), Phase 2 (inhalation), Phase 3 (exhalation begins), Phase 4 (exhalation ends)

Answer 236

• Phase 1 (inhalation), Phase 2 (exhalation begins), Phase 3 (exhalation ends), Phase 4 (inhalation begins)

Question 237

Causes of decreasing etCO2- Pick the false answer

• Acute respiratory distress (e.g. hyperventilation)
• Acute respiratory distress (e.g. hypoventilation)
• Acute circulatory distress (e.g. decreased heart minute volume)
• Acute metabolic distress

Answer 237

• Acute respiratory distress (e.g. hypoventilation)

Question 238

Causes of zero etCO2 on the capnograph’s display. Pick the false answer

• Capnograph performs calibration (calibration message is displayed)
• Cardiac arrest, respiratory arrest
• Tube malposition, disconnection
• Capnoperitoneum (endoscope)

Answer 238

• Capnoperitoneum (endoscope)

Question 239

Causes of rebreathed CO2- Pick the false answer

• High flow in semi-open nonrebreathing system
• Exhausted soda lime
• Stucked one-way valves
• Large dead space

Answer 239

• High flow in semi-open nonrebreathing system

Question 240

Core-temperature can be measured with… Pick the false answer

• Pharingeal probes
• Esophageal probes
• Rectal probes
• Thermocamera

Answer 240

• Thermocamera

Question 241

Warming hypothermic patient- Pick the false answer

• Heating pads
• Infrared lamps
• Covers and heat mirrors
• Hot IV infusion

Answer 241

• Hot IV infusion

Question 242

Close control of blood glucose level is needed in… Pick the false answer

• Very small or young patients
• Acute trauma and shock patients
• Cachectic or weak patients
• Diabetic or insulinoma patients

Answer 242

• Acute trauma and shock patients

Question 243

Monitoring of anesthetized patients involves assessment of… Pick the false answer

• The stage of narcosis
• Pain markers
• Patient’s parameters
• Owner’s consent

Answer 243

• Owner’s consent

Question 244

Which is NOT the part of the status presens

• Nationale
• Basic clinical values
• General impression
• Examination of the genitals

Answer 244

• Nationale

Question 245

Which are most specific symptoms to heart disease/heat failure?

• Respiratory arrhythmia, cough
• Porcelain white mucous membranes, dyspnoe
• Murmur, arrhythmia, dyspnea
• Ascites, subcutaneous eodema

Answer 245

• Murmur, arrhythmia, dyspnea

Question 246

Which is NOT additional examination

• Biopsy
• Cystocentesis
• Percussion
• Fine needle aspiration

Answer 246

• Percussion

Question 247

What is the normal pulse (/min) in cats at the clinic

• 60-70
• 120-130
• 140-180
• 220-250

Answer 247

• 140-180

Question 248

The bronchial respiratory sounds can be heard under normal (physiological) conditions

• Only above the lungs
• Above the larynx and trachea
• Only above the larynx
• Only above the trachea

Answer 248

• Above the larynx and trachea

Question 249

Which sentence is NOT correct? In dogs

• The cough originated in the larynx is retching/gagging like, has a tendency to vomit
• The cough is tracheitis is loud, explosive, barking like
• The cough in trachea collapse in goose honking like
• The cough in chronic bronchitis, emphysema is high, intensive, explosive, barking like

Answer 249

• The cough in chronic bronchitis, emphysema is high, intensive, explosive, barking like

Question 250

Which sentence is NOT true?

• Held inspiration can be due to narrowed upper airway’s
• Held inspiration can be due to increased abdominal pressure
• Help expiration can be due to decreased lung elasticity
• The narrowed upper airways cause mostly held expiration

Answer 250

• The narrowed upper airways cause mostly held expiration

Question 251

Which statement is false

• Regurgitation is passive and consequence of disorder of oesophagus or pharynx
• Vomiting is characterized by active abdominal movement and preceded by nausea
• The vomited content is always digested and the pH is always acidic
• The pH of the regurgitated content is usually alkalic

Answer 251

• The vomited content is always digested and the pH is always acidic

Question 252

Which examination methods can be used for the examination of the bone marrow? Please mark the Incorrect answer

• Complete blood count
• Abdominal ultrasonography
• Bone marrow core biopsy
• Bone marrow aspiration cytology

Answer 252

• Abdominal ultrasonography

Question 253

What is ataxia

• Incoordinated movement
• Abnormal proprioception
• Muscle weakness
• Loss of vestibular function

Answer 253

• Incoordinated movement

Question 254

Method of the hepatojugular reflux test?

• Compress the epigastrium and observe the v. jugularis
• Compress the jugular vein and observe refilling
• Compress the v. jugularis on one side and observe the other side
• Compare the jugular vein to the vena cava

Answer 254

• Compress the epigastrium and observe the v. jugularis

Question 255

Part of brain responsible for mental status is

• Medulla oblongata
• Thalamocortex
• Chiazma
• Limbic system

Answer 255

• Thalamocortex

Question 256

Which is not a mark?

• Whorl
• Chestnut
• Tattoo
• Blaze

Answer 256

• Tattoo

Question 257

Which corticosteroid is recommended in treatment of shock

• Dexamethasone
• Hydrocortisone
• Prednisone
• Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

Answer 257

• Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 258

When can a horizontal dullness occur during thoracic percussion?

• Pneumothorax
• Thoracic fluid accumulation (pleural effusion)
• Foreign body in the thorax
• None of the above

Answer 258

• Thoracic fluid accumulation (pleural effusion)

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 259

What changes do you expect to find in case of severe PDA?

• Left ventricular dilation
• Right ventricular dilation
• Left arterial dilation
• Right arterial dilation

Answer 259

• Left ventricular dilation

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 260

In which alteration is the dislocation of the cardiac dullness can be characteristic?

• Pneumothorax
• Space occupying lesion within the thoracic cavity
• Both
• None of the above

Answer 260

• Space occupying lesion within the thoracic cavity (Original text said; space occupying ass within the thoracic cavity)

(I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad)

Question 261

What changes do you expect to find in case of dilated cardiomyopathy DCM?

• Left ventricular dilation
• Right ventricular dilation
• Left arterial dilation
• Right arterial dilation

Answer 261

• Left ventricular dilation

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 262

Which can be a congenital pericardial disease

• Pericarditis
• Pericardiac tympany
• PPHD
• Pericardiac constriction

Answer 262

• PPHD

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 263

Which answer is not good? The hemodynamic parameters that determine heart rate include

-I don’t have any alternatives

Answer 263

• The relative ratio of the amount of blood pumped by the two sides of the heart

(The primary haemodynamic parameters are: Heart rate, Blood pressure, stroke volume and cardiac output)

Question 264

What is NOT characteristic of feline hypertrophy cardiomyopathy HCM

• Causes left sided heart dilation
• Causes right sided heart dilation
• Thromboembolism may occur
• Pulmonary edema may occur

Answer 264

• Causes right sided heart dilation

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 265

Not typical clinical sign in cats in case of so-called riding thrombus

• Hindlimb paralysis
• Cold feet
• Dyspnoe
• Painful hindlimb

Answer 265

• Dyspnoe

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 266

What is not typical of the surgery of PRAA?

• Left lateral thoracotomy in the 4th intercostal space
• Ligature and transection of Botallo ligament
• Dissection and balloon dilation of the strangulated esophagus
• Circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest

Answer 266

• Circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 267

Which of the following is the main shock organ of the horse and dog?

• Liver
• Heart
• GI tract
• Lungs

Answer 267

• GI tract

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 268

In which clinical category can hemoglobinuria occur during canine heartworm disease?

• During category 1
• During category 2
• During category 3
• During category 4

Answer 268

• During category 4

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 269

Which part of the stomach usually dislocates in paraoesophageal (rolling) hiatal hernia

• Fundus
• Cardia
• Liver
• Pylorus

Answer 269

• Fundus

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 270

Which of the following diagnostic tools is the next to be chosen in case of uncertain finding in suspected diaphragmatic hernia

• CT
• AST & ALKP
• Ultrasonography
• Radiology

Answer 270

• Ultrasonography

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 271

The most common heart disease in dogs?

• HCM
• DCM
• Mitral endocardiosis
• Heart arrhythmias

Answer 271

• Mitral endocardiosis

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 272

How can you distinguish between a ventricular extrasystole and a supraventricular arrhythmia on the ECG?

• I don’t know what to put..

Answer 272

• Ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause

Question 273

Which of the following is the main shock organ of the horse and cat

• Liver
• Heart
• GI tract
• Lungs

Answer 273

• Lungs

Question 274

Which part of the stomach usually dislocated in case of sliding (axial) hiatal hernia

• Fundus
• Cardia
• Liver
• Pylorus

Answer 274

• Cardia

Question 275

Classification of Pimobendane?

• Ca channel sensitizer
• Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
• Both A & B
• None of the above

Answer 275

• Ca channel sensitizer and phosphodiesterase inhibitor

I split them up, but they may be together in the exam

Question 276

What are the three major components of the complex treatment of canine heartworm disease

• Doxycycline, melarsomine & febantel
• Doxycycline, melasomine & fenbendazole
• Doxycycline, moxidectin & melasomine
• Doxycycline, moxidectin & fenbendazole

Answer 276

• Doxycycline, moxidectin & melasomine

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 277

Which of the following organs is the source of the MDF release in shock

• Liver
• Pancreas
• Kidney
• GI-tract

Answer 277

• Pancreas

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 278

Which statement is true regarding the antigen test result in canine heartworm disease

• Strength of reaction does not matter regarding the number of worms within the affected animals
• Strength of reaction does matter regarding the number of worms within the affected animals

Answer 278

• Strength of reaction does not matter regarding the number of worms within the affected animals

Question 279

What is NOT needed to a standard echocardiographic examination

• Sector transducer
• Convex transducer
• Linear transducer

Answer 279

• Linear transducer

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 280

The most recommended drug combination for the chronic treatment of congestive heart failure

• ACE inhibitors Spironolactone
• Angiotensin-2 receptor blockers Telmisartan
• Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists Spironolactone
• Beta blockers Carvedilol

Answer 280

• ACE inhibitors Spironolactone

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 281

Which of the following types of shock SIRS is rated in

• Hyperoxic
• Hypercapnic
• Hypoxic
• Hypocapnic

Answer 281

• Hypoxic

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 282

Ventricular extrasystoles are

• Caused by ventricular disease
• Caused by atrial disease
• Caused by pericardial disease
• Caused by extracardiac disease

Answer 282

• Caused by atrial disease

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 283

Which statement is incorrect concerning congenital diaphragmatic hernias

• The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited
• The peritoneopericardial hernia is not inherited
• The peritoneopericardial hernia is a defect of the septum transversum
• Clinical signs of peritoneopericardial hernia is non-specific

Answer 283

• The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 284

Which macrocyclic lactone is used in our university clinic as part of the complex treatment of heartworm disease

• Avermectins
• Milbemycin
• Moxidectin
• Ivermectin

Answer 284

• Moxidectin

Question 285

Suture type. Pick the false answer

Answer 285

• Regardless of the suture type, the knots need to be placed on the suture line

Question 286

Which is the first compensation during heart failure?

• Heart rate increase
• Heart rate decrease
• Pale mucous membranes
• Dyspnea

Answer 286

• Heart rate increase

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 287

Which solution of the mostly potentially alkalizing effect in the treatment of metabolic acidosis

• KHCO3
• H2CO3
• NaHCO3
• CaCO3

Answer 287

• NaHCO3

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 288

Which of the following parameters decreased in DIC

• D-dimer
• Fibrinogen
• PT
• PPT

Answer 288

• Fibrinogen

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 289

What is the typical physical finding during the FIP coinciding with fluid accumulation

• Water like serous fluid during puncture
• Yellowish-green exudate during puncture
• Yellowish-brown exudate during puncture
• Honey like viscous exudate during puncture

Answer 289

• Honey like viscous exudate during puncture

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 290

An ECG is most appropriate (indicated) if

• When the heart rate of a dog arrived at the clinic is at 120 bpm
• When the heart rate of a dog arrived for vaccination is 200 bpm
• When the heart rate of a cat arrived at the clinic is at 220 bpm
• When the heart rate of a cat arrived for vaccination is 200 bpm

Answer 290

• When the heart rate of a dog arrived for vaccination is 200 bpm

(I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad)

Question 291

Typical clinical findings in case of dog haemopericardium

• Distorted heart sounds
• Distant heart sounds
• Decreased rhythm of the heart
• Increased resonance of the heart

Answer 291

• Distant heart sounds

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 292

What is the most reliable diagnostic method in pneumothorax

• Thoracocentesis
• Radiography
• Ultrasound
• CT

Answer 292

• Radiography

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 293

Which pulmonary vessels can be altered on the thoracic xray during canine heartworm disease

• Pulmonary arteries
• Pulmonary veins
• Both
• None of the above

Answer 293

• Pulmonary arteries

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 294

Which type of perineal hernia is the most common one in bitches?

• Sciatic perineal hernia
• Dorsal perineal hernia
• Ventral perineal hernia
• Perineal hernia does not happen in bitches

Answer 294

• Perineal hernia does not happen in bitches

Question 295

Which of the following abdominal organ does usually not dislocated in PPDH

• Liver
• Kidney
• Spleen
• GI-tract

Answer 295

• Spleen

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 296

Consequence of the left heart failure

• Enlarged liver
• Distention of V. jugularis
• Pulmonary edema
• Abdominal distention

Answer 296

• Pulmonary edema

Question 297

Which is the wrong answer? Supraventricular arrhythmias are

• Fibrosis of the AV node
• Fibrosis of the supraventricular node
• Distention of the AV node
• Distention of the supraventricular node

Answer 297

• Fibrosis of the AV node

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 298

Which does not belong to the abnormal remodeling process of the heart?

• Change in the number of myocardial cells
• Changes in the myocardial cell connection
• Changes in the size of the myocardial cells
• None of the answers above

Answer 298

• Changes in the myocardial cell connection

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 299

Which has the highest microbial number at the beginning of the surgery

• Surgical gloves
• Surgical scalpel
• The skin of the patient
• Surgical scissors

Answer 299

• The skin of the patient

Question 300

Pacemaker implantation is justified?

• For treatment of 1st degree AV block
• For treatment of 2nd degree AV block
• For treatment of 3rd degree AV block
• Only for treatment of 4th degree AV block

Answer 300

• For treatment of 3rd degree AV block

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 301

Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of an animal with ventricular arrhythmia

Answer 301

Digoxin administration

C Troponin I measurement

Question 302

Explanation of cardiovascular failure

• Caused by congenital heart disease only
• Caused by acquired heart disease only
• Caused by primary heart disease or secondary heart changes
• Clinical signs are pathognomic

Answer 302

• Caused by primary heart disease or secondary heart changes

Question 303

Which answer is true

• The efficiency of the surgical scrubbing depends primarily on how hard you rub in
• The efficiency of the surgical scrubbing depends primarily on the exposure time and not how hard you rub in
• During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile
• None of the above

Answer 303

• The efficiency of the surgical scrubbing depends primarily on the exposure time and not how hard you rub in

Question 304

Which answer is false

• The efficiency of the surgical scrubbing depends primarily on the exposure time and not how hard you rub in
• During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile
• During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface cannot be made completely sterile
• None of the above

Answer 304

• During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile

Question 305

Which step is not recommended when treating animals with refractory heart failure

Answer 305

Parenteral administration of an ACE inhibitor

Question 306

Which parameter is the most specific for DIC

• Fibrinogen
• Liver enzymes
• FDP
• Azotaemia

Answer 306

• FDP

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 307

Electrosurgery, Choose the incorrect statement

Answer 307

• The efficiency and safety of monopolar system is better

Question 308

What can we conclude from the speed of flow during doppler echography

Answer 308

• The pressure difference between the heart chambers

Question 309

What lesion is expected in severe dilated cardiomyopathy

• Left heart distention
• Right heart distention
• Eccentric hypertrophy
• Concentric hypertrophy

Answer 309

• Left heart distention

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 310

What lesion is expected in severe pulmonary stenosis

• Left arterial hypertrophy
• Right arterial hypertrophy
• Left ventricular hypertrophy
• Right ventricular hypertrophy

Answer 310

• Right ventricular hypertrophy

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 311

What lesions are expected in severe aortic stenosis?

• Left arterial hypertrophy
• Right arterial hypertrophy
• Left ventricular hypertrophy
• Right ventricular hypertrophy

Answer 311

• Left ventricular hypertrophy

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 312

What treatment should be given to a dog with B2 level mitral endocardiosis?

• Spirolactone
• Pimobendan
• Carvedilol
• Telmisartan

Answer 312

• Pimobendan

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 313

Choose the incorrect answer

• During sterilisation all pathogen microbes are destroyed, but non-pathogenic microbes remain on the surface of instruments
• During autoclave all pathogen microbes are destroyed, but non-pathogenic microbes remain on the surface of instruments
• During autoclave all pathogen and non-pathogenic microbes are destroyed
• Autoclave uses at least 121 C for 30-60 minutes

Answer 313

• During autoclave all pathogen microbes are destroyed, but non-pathogenic microbes remain on the surface of instruments

Question 314

What kind of diagnostic tests are needed during the screening examination of canine heartworm disease

• PCR only
• Drip test only
• Modified Knott test only
• Serological antigen test only

Answer 314

• Modified Knott test only

Question 315

Which of the following approaches is mostly recommended in case of diaphragmatic hernia repair

Answer 315

• Laparotomy

Question 316

What modality is used to two-dimensional real-time imaging of cardiac structures

• S-mode
• K-mode
• M-mode
• A-mode

Answer 316

• M-mode

Question 317

Why can we boldly reduce preload in heart failure?

Answer 317

• Because the afterload will offset the reduction of the preload anyway

Question 318

Lidocaine and mexitil may be used…

Answer 318

• For the treatment of ventricular tachycardia

Question 319

Typical echocardiographic findings in dogs in case of DCM

Answer 319

• Both of them

Question 320

PDA means..

Answer 320

Patency of the botallo duct

Question 321

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding incisional hernia

Answer 321

Iatrogenic complication

Question 322

Which is the wrong answer? May play a role in the progression of heart failure

Answer 322

Cardiac acetylcholine receptor numbers and function altered (down regulation)

Question 323

For which disease is “heart palpation” obtusio cordis changes specific?

Answer 323

Space consuming the chest

Question 324

After physical and auxiliary examinations, we diagnose mitral endocardiosis, but the typical symptoms are not present yet. Which stage can we put the patient in?

Answer 324

AHA-B

Question 325

Basic therapy for endocardiosis with typical symptoms present

Answer 325

Furosemide, potassium, pimobendan

Question 326

Which congenital heart disease has a specific continuous machinery heart murmur as a symptom

Answer 326

PDA

Question 327

The herniation/strangulation of which organ cause acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia

Answer 327

Bladder

Question 328

The most common color code meaning in color doppler echocardiography

Answer 328

Red: blood flow towards the transducer, blue: blood flow away from the transducer

Question 329

Typical for PRAA

Answer 329

Abnormal development of the aortic arch

Question 330

Which congenital heart disease is more common in female dogs?

Answer 330

PDA

Question 331

In which stage of heartworm disease can ascites happen in dogs?

• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4

Answer 331

• 3

Question 332

Which is the wrong answer= If we increase the preload

Answer 332

We can induce stagnancy

Question 333

Which mode can be used for real-time 2 d visualization of the structure of the myocardium

Answer 333

M mode

Question 334

What drug should be given for a B1 stage mitral endocardosis canine patient

• Furosemide
• Pimobendan
• Carvedilol
• Telmisartan

Answer 334

• Furosemide

I’m just making up alternatives, so if one of them end up being correct, it is my bad

Question 335

What CANNOT be determined by color Doppler ultrasound

Answer 335

The character of blood flow (laminar or turbulent)

Question 336

An ECG is most appropriate (indicated) if

Answer 336

When a cat that arrived from flea prevention has 120 bpm heart rate

Question 337

Suture material, choose the incorrect answer

Answer 337

The size of the suture material is given in either metric unit (e-g- 1- European Pharmacopoeia) or in USP unit (5-0 United States Pharmacopoeia)

Question 338

Knot tying technique- Choose the wrong answer

Answer 338

In case of systhetic monofilament suture material less knots (3-4), in case of multifilament more knots (5-6) are needed for a safe tie

Question 339

Which of the following drugs has no afterload decreasing effect

Answer 339

Digoxin

Question 340

The most common heart disease in cat is

Answer 340

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

Question 341

Which drug does not have a significant diuretic effect in small animals

Answer 341

Spirolactone

Question 342

Can diaphragmatic hernia be diagnosed by ultrasound

• Yes
• No
• Need xray as well
• Need CT as well

Answer 342

• Yes

Question 343

How can you distinguish between a ventricular and a supraventricular arrhythmia on the ECG

Answer 343

The QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrythmias

Question 344

Which anal zone involves circumanal hepatoid gland

• Zone cutanea
• Linea anorectalis
• Zona intermedia
• Zone colimnaris

Answer 344

• Zone cutanea (I think)

Question 345

Which of the following procedures is most frequently used for cholecystolith removal

• Cholecystotomy
• Cholecystectomy
• Cholecystoenterostomy
• Choledochostomy

Answer 345

• Cholecystectomy (I think, it is used for Cholelithiasis)

Question 346

Which type of small intestinal obstruction has usually the poorest prognosis

• Linear foreign body idegentest
• Obturation
• Ileus
• Mesenteric torsion

Answer 346

• Mesenteric torsion

Question 347

Cyanotic mucous membranes

Answer 347

Gastric dilation and volvulus (GDV), shock (depends on what alternatives are given)

Question 348

Recommended treatment in weighty FORL (feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions)

Answer 348

(Depends on stage, 4 different stages) usually tooth extraction and crown amputation

Question 349

Which BAOS surgery technique causes less wide soft palate

• FFPP (folded flap palatoplasty)
• Soft palate resection
• Tonsillectomy
• Sacculectomy

Answer 349

• FFPP (folded flap palatoplasty)

Question 350

Which disease is associated with ascites in cats

Answer 350

Lymphocytic cholangitis (LC)

Question 351

Give antibiotics in case of diarrhoea

Answer 351

Only in case of sepsis

Question 352

An additional test is recommended for mild acute small bowel diarrhoea

Answer 352

Fecal parasitical examination

Question 353

Which is false, Eosinophilic granuloma complex

Answer 353

Only diagnosable with RTG (x-ray)

Question 354

Which is true for gastric disease

Answer 354

Stomach ulcers are often caused/exacerbated by NSAIDs

Question 355

What sickness cause portal hypertension

Answer 355

Connected to heaptic arterio-venosus fistula (also hepatic venous outflow obstruction)

Question 356

Which statement is true, Feline ALP

Answer 356

Feline ALP isoenzymes: liver, bone

Question 357

Which statement is false?

Answer 357

Increased lipoprotein synthesis, therefore decreased triglyceride levels in the liver

Question 358

It is not used for surgical resolution of cleft palate

Answer 358

True: Rotational flap, advancement flap

Question 359

This is NOT true for perianal adenoma
uncommon in females
common in males
malignant
originates from the anal sac in females
in males it starts mainly from the perianal sinuses

Answer 359

same Q- different answers:
In males it starts/originates mainly form the perianal sinuses
malignant
originates from anal sac in females

Question 360

Which statement is true

Answer 360

Excessive inflation of the stomach may interfere with gastroscopic examination of the antrum and pylorus

Question 361

An indication for lobectomy may be one of the following

• EHBO
• abscess (if liver)

Answer 361

Acute, extrahepatic biliary obstruction (EHBO)

or abscess

Question 362

What is NOT true for perianal adenoma

Answer 362

In males it mainly originates from the paranasal sinuses

Question 363

Cyanotic mucous membranes

Answer 363

Shock signs

Question 364

Which statement is false= Hepatic lipidosis in cats

Answer 364

Increased lipoprotein synthesis due to starvation, resulting in decreased triglyceride levels in the liver

Question 365

Which statement is false? Hepatic lipidosis in cats

Answer 365

Increased lipoprotein synthesis due to starvation, resulting in decreased triglyceride levels in the liver

Question 366

Where is it advisable to infiltrate the area of the tonsils before tonsillectomy performed under anesthesia

Answer 366

(Epinephrine-infiltration topically = adrenalin) –> vasoconstriction and reduce bleeding

Question 367

Characteristic of lympgangiectasia

Answer 367

Ascites, hydrothorax, weight loss, emaciation

Question 368

Which is false? EOGC ((fe) eosinophilic granuloma complex)

• Eosinophilia could be in the blood
• Allergy has a role in the pathogenesis
• It could be diagnosed just with RTG (Xray)
• Cyclosporin possible therapy method

Answer 368

• It could be diagnosed just with RTG (Xray)

Question 369

Which is true for stomach disease

Answer 369

The non-steroid anti-inflammatory, metabolic disorders, glucocorticoides are predisposing for stomach ulcers

Question 370

Which disease cause portal hypertension

Answer 370

Arterio protal/Arteriovenous AVF- fistula

Question 371

Recommended treatment in weighty FORL (feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions)

Answer 371

(Depends on stage, 4 different stages) usually tooth extraction or crown amputation of all affected teeth

Question 372

Which disease cause portal hypertension

Answer 372

Arterio portal/Arteriovenous AVF

Question 373

Which is true?

Answer 373

Cat ALP (isoenzyme: liver, bone) (Not steroids in cats!)

Question 374

The EPI exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, not true

Answer 374

The satiety and returning colon origin diarrhoea

Question 375

Which is the clinical symptoms of stomach disease

Answer 375

Vomiting hematemesis anorexia

Question 376

Which BAOS surgery technique could make your soft palate more thin?/ “less wide” in other PQ

• FFPP (folded flap palatoplasty)
• Soft palate resection
• Tonsillectomy
• Sacculectomy

Answer 376

Folded flap palatoplasty

Question 377

Which one is false in Primer Cu storage disease

Answer 377

Cholestasis causes Cu accumulation

Question 378

What is gastropexy?

Answer 378

Surgical procedure where the stomach is sutured to abdominal wall OR diaphragm (so it cannot twist anymore)

Question 379

Which is false? Cats with hepatic lipidosis

Answer 379

Increased lipoprotein synthesis due to starvation, therefore decreased triglyceride levels in the liver

Question 380

Which disease is associated with ascites in cats

Answer 380

LC

Question 381

What are clinical symptoms of gastric disease

Answer 381

Anorexia, hematemesis, vomiting

Question 382

Indication for lobectomy

Answer 382

Abscess

Question 383

Which statement is true for esophageal diseases

Answer 383

Appetite

Question 384

Infiltrating tonsillectomy during anesthesia

Answer 384

Adrenaline

Question 385

Which statement is true for stomach “ailments” (symptoms)

Answer 385

NSAIDs

Question 386

Which is false for primary copper storage disease

Answer 386

Cholestasis

Question 387

Which is not true for perianal adenoma

Answer 387

Malignancy

Question 388

Which is not true for perianal adenoma

Answer 388

Malignancy

Question 389

Characteristic of lymphangiectasia

Answer 389

Ascites, emaciation

Question 390

Characteristic of lymphangiectasia

Answer 390

Ascites, emaciation

Question 391

Which statement is false in hepatic lipidosis in cats

Answer 391

Decreased TG

Question 392

Why not use multifilament for stomach and intestine surgeries

• Expensive
• The risk of septic complication is higher, the risk of yarn drainage is (miatt)
• Poor tensile strength
• The knot tolerance is not good

Answer 392

• The risk of septic complication is higher, the risk of yarn drainage is (miatt)

Question 393

suturing of an enterotomy

• Monofilament, absorbent suture, with knotted seams, in 2 coats
• Monofilament, absorbent suture with knotted seams only, 2 coats
• Monofilament, absorbent suture, single knot running seam in 1 layer (seromuscular)
• Monofilament, absorbent suture, single knot running seam in 1 layer (full overcoat)

Answer 393

-Monofilament, absorbent suture, single knot/simple interrupted or continous suture pattern in 1 layer (seromuscular)

Question 394

Difference in rabies and Aujeszky’s disease symptoms in dog and cat

• Paresthesia is common in Aujeszky’s disease, offensive behaviour is common in rabies
• Strabismus and ascending limb paralysis is common in Aujeszky’s disease. paresthesia is common in rabies
• Swallowing disorders does not occur in Aujeszky’s disease only in rabies. The aquifer is typical of Aujeszky’s disease
• Rabies in cats does not occur, only Aujeszky’s disease

Answer 394

• Paresthesia is common in Aujeszky’s disease, offensive behaviour is common in rabies

Question 395

Which of the following is regenerative anemia?

• Anemia caused by erythropoietin
• Iron deficiency anemic
• Hemolytic anemia
• Aplastic anemia

Answer 395

• Hemolytic anemia

Question 396

Which medicine can be used to relieve seizures?

• Diazepam
• Propofol
• Both
• None

Answer 396

• Both

Question 397

Medication for treatment of immune mediated hemolytic anemia

• Azathioprine, prednisolone, hepcidine, cyclosporine
• Azathioprine, prednisolone, heparin, cyclosporine
• Albendazole, prednisolone, heparin, cyclosporine
• Azathioprine, prednisolone, heparin, lokivetmab

Answer 397

• Azathioprine, prednisolone, heparin, cyclosporine

Question 398

Discrepancies in DIC

• Thrombocytopenia, schistocytosis, ACT (inc), D-dimer+
• Thrombocytosis, schistocytosis, ACTI, D-dimer+
• Thrombocytosis, sphaerocytosis, ACTO, D-dimer+
• Thrombocytopenia, schistocytosis, ACT (decr), D-dimer+

Answer 398

• Thrombocytopenia, schistocytosis, ACT (inc), D-dimer+

Question 399

What is the most likely cause of a seizure in a young adult dog?

• Congenital heart disease
• Primary epilepsy
• Portosystemic shunt
• Brain tumour

Answer 399

• Portosystemic shunt

Question 400

Differences in thrombocytopenia

• Haemoperitoneum, epistaxis, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (inc)
• Petechia, haemothorax, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (decr)
• Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (decr)
• Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time (decr), platelet count (decr)

Answer 400

• Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (decr)

Question 401

Lurking of rabies(if they mean incubation)

• It is usually 2-3 months, but can be shorter or longer, depending on the location of the infection
• Symptoms of OA rabies develop within 3-7 days after infection
• OA rabies incubation period is very short, symptoms occur within 1-2 days after infection
• Usually 1-2 weeks, but can be shorter if the … has hit the first limb

Answer 401

• It is usually 2-3 months, but can be shorter or longer, depending on the location of the infection

Question 402

Which statement is true for congenital hydrocephalus

• A hydrocephalus is common in flatal (less than 1 year) individual of large dogs
• Ventriculoperitoneal shunt implantation in dogs may be used for palliative symptomatic treatment
• Glucocorticoid and diuretic therapy is contraindicated in individuals with high intracranial pressure
• Hydrocephalus is very rare in flatal (less than 1 year) individuals of small dogs

Answer 402

• Ventriculoperitoneal shunt implantation in dogs may be used for palliative symptomatic treatment ?

Question 403

The modified glasgow? Coma scale affected the condition of the brain injury based on the following

• Pupil size, motor activity, state of consciousness
• Pupillary reaction, motor activity, brainstem reflexes
• Brainstem reflex, motor activity, state/level of consciousness
• Pupillary size, brainstem reflexes, state of consciousness

Answer 403

• Brainstem reflex, motor activity, state/level of consciousness

Question 404

The modified glasgow? Coma scale affected the condition of the brain injury based on the following

• Pupil size, motor activity, state of consciousness
• Pupillary reaction, motor activity, brainstem reflexes
• Brainstem reflex, motor activity, state/level of consciousness
• Pupillary size, brainstem reflexes, state of consciousness

Answer 404

• Brainstem reflex, motor activity, state/level of consciousness

Question 405

Which can not cause secondary immunohemolytic anemia

• Microsporum
• Mycoplasma
• Babesia
• Haemangiosarcoma

Answer 405

• Microsporum ?

Question 406

This is not true for acute abdominal disasters

• The differentiation of the exact organ involvement is necessary for the surgical indication
• For the indication of surgery, the diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient
• They require emergency care
• Caused by morphological or functional changes in abdominal organs

Answer 406

• The differentiation of the exact organ involvement is necessary for the surgical indication

Question 407

The owner of a 3 year old labrador has experienced 2 seizures in the last 2 months. Apart from this, he did not notice anything abnormal in his dog. What is the most likely diagnosis

• Idiopathic epilepsy, breed predisposition
• Structural epilepsy, presumably due to a congenial brain disorder
• Exercise induced collapse (idiopathic epilepsy)
• Reactive epileptic seizure due to compulsive eating in labradors
• Portosystemic shunt

Answer 407

• Exercise induced collapse (idiopathic epilepsy)

Question 408

The owner of a 3 year old labrador has experienced 2 seizures in the last 2 months. Apart from this, he did not notice anything abnormal in his dog. What is the most likely diagnosis

• Idiopathic epilepsy, breed predisposition
• Structural epilepsy, presumably due to a congenial brain disorder
• Exercise induced collapse (idiopathic epilepsy)
• Reactive epileptic seizure due to compulsive eating in labradors
• Portosystemic shunt

Answer 408

• Exercise induced collapse (idiopathic epilepsy)

Question 409

How can we diagnose deep pain?

• To tighten/pinch patient’s finger
• The patient squeezed his finger, stretching out the limb of the opposite side
• After pinching/squeezing a patient’s finger, he pulls out, turn his head, vocalises, tries to bite
• After painful stimulation, the M. cutaneous trunci contracts

Answer 409

• After pinching/squeezing a patient’s finger, he pulls out, turn his head, vocalises, tries to bite

Question 410

Which surgical technique is the best choice for Hansen I type disc herniation?

Answer 410

Hemilaminectomy

Question 411

Which drug can cause bone marrow damage

• Phenobarbital
• Paracetamol
• Levetiracetam
• Gabapentin

Answer 411

• Levetiracetam

Question 412

Which symptom is not common in acute abdominal disasters

• Abdominal pain
• DIC
• Vomiting
• One of the phases of shock?

Answer 412

• DIC

Question 413

What situation does taken CSF sample help diagnosis

Answer 413

Meningitis

Question 414

Why are cats sensitive to pyrethrins

Answer 414

Hepatic glucuronidase activity is low –> decreased metabolism –> toxicosis (seizures/tremors)

Question 415

Which statement is true

• In case of haemolytic anemia, plasma is clear
• In pancytopenia, platelet counts increased
• In acute blood loss, microcytic hypochromic anemia develops few hours afterwards
• Babesia and Mycoplasma causes non-regenerative anemia

Answer 415

• Babesia and Mycoplasma causes non-regenerative anemia

Question 416

Which statement is true

• In case of haemolytic anemia, plasma is clear
• In pancytopenia, platelet counts increased
• In acute blood loss, microcytic hypochromic anemia develops few hours afterwards
• Babesia and Mycoplasma causes non-regenerative anemia

Answer 416

• Babesia and Mycoplasma causes non-regenerative anemia

Question 417

Which of the following diseases with non-regenerative anemia has the best prognosis?

• Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
• Addison’s disease
• Sertol cellular testicular tumor with hyperestrogenization
• …. tynphoblastos leukemia

Answer 417

• Addison’s disease

Question 418

Which instrumental addition test is best for diagnosing fibrocartilago embolism

• Xray
• CT
• MRI
• Liqour cytology

Answer 418

• MRI

Question 419

What means cervical malformation & malarticulation

• Wobbler disease
• Cauda equina syndrome
• Perthes disease
• Sever’s disease

Answer 419

• Wobbler disease

Question 420

In which case can a serological examination of cerebrospinal fluid be helpful?

• Hansen as type of discopathy
• Witriet syndrome
• ?
• ?

Answer 420

• Hansen as type of discopathy ??

Question 421

Which of the following statements is not true for splenic hemangiosarcoma

• Tumor splenectomy can only be assessed as palliative surgery
• Chemotherapy does not significantly increase survival time
• The ruptured nature of the tumour does not significantly impair the prognosis
• It does not form a metastasis in the heart

Answer 421

• The ruptured nature of the tumour does not significantly impair the prognosis

Question 422

Which cannot be a symptom of transverse myelopathy

• Partiality
• Lameness
• Ataxia
• Hyperreflexia
• Proprioceptive disorder

Answer 422

• Ataxia

Question 423

Which cannot be a symptom of transverse myelopathy

• Partiality
• Lameness
• Ataxia
• Hyper-reflexia
• Proprioceptive disorder

Answer 423

• Ataxia

Question 424

If a cat has enlarged kidneys, which diagnosis is NOT probable

• PKD (polycystic kidney disease)
• Hydronephrosis
• Lymphoma of the kidneys
• Renal fibrosis

Answer 424

• Renal fibrosis

Question 425

The most common lower urinary tract disease of dogs

• Prostate diseases
• Sterile cystitis
• Urolithiasis
• Bacterial cystitis

Answer 425

• Bacterial cystitis

Question 426

Choose the correct answer! High-dose maintenance fluid therapy (>100 ml/kg/day) for acute kidney injury

• It increases diuresis, thus “flushes” the kidney faster
• May cause interstitial edema in the kidney, that decreases GFR and renal blood flow
• Ensures adequate daily fluid intake in anorexic animals
• In anuria, it ensures that renal function and urine production is restored quickly

Answer 426

• May cause interstitial edema in the kidney, that decreases GFR and renal blood flow

Question 427

Hypercholesterolemia is typically associated with the following kidney disease

• Glomerulopathies of dogs
• Chronic kidney disease of cats
• Acute kidney injury of dogs
• Fanconi syndrome

Answer 427

• Glomerulopathies of dogs

Question 428

Causes of acute nephrosis… Which answer is wrong?

• Immune complex deposition
• Renal ischemia
• Nephrotoxic materials
• Hemoglobin, myoglobin

Answer 428

• Immune complex deposition

Question 429

Renal amyloidosis typically found in which cat breed

• Persian
• Siamese
• Abyssinian
• Bengal

Answer 429

• Abyssinian

Question 430

What is the main & initiating cause of calcium-phosphorus imbalance in chronic renal failure?

• Inadequate vitamin D production
• Poor absorption of calcium from the gastro-intestinal tract
• Retention of phosphorus
• Nephrocalcinosis

Answer 430

• Retention of phosphorus

Question 431

Typically laboratory alteration in CKD is

• Low serum phorphorus levels
• Active urine sediment
• The urine protein/creatinine level is below 0,2
• Inappropriately concentrated urine

Answer 431

• Inappropriately concentrated urine

Question 432

Typically laboratory alteration in CKD is

• Low serum phorphorus levels
• Active urine sediment
• The urine protein/creatinine level is below 0,2
• Inappropriately concentrated urine

Answer 432

• Inappropriately concentrated urine

Question 433

Which statement is false?

• In glomerular proteinuria, large proteins are excreted in the urine
• In tubular proteinuria, the urinary protein/creatinine ratio (UPC) is very high
• Borderline proteinuria means UPC is between 0,2 and 0,4/0,5 (Cats/Dogs)
• Proteinuria of glomerular or tubular origin can be differentiated by renal biopsy

Answer 433

• In tubular proteinuria, the urinary protein/creatinine ratio (UPC) is very high

Question 434

The creatinine level of dogs and cats with IRIS stage 1 chronic kidney disease is

• Normal < 140 umol/l
• 240 umol/l
• 340 umol/l
• 440 umol/l

Answer 434

• Normal < 140 umol/l

Question 435

Choose the right answer: if a dog is azotaemic then

• The ammonia level is increased in its blood
• 50% of its nephrons have been destroyed in their kidneys
• It may have been dehydrated
• It has urethral obstruction

Answer 435

• The ammonia level is increased in its blood

Question 436

Which statement is true about animals with renal dysplasia

• Kidneys are typically enlarged on ultrasound with a thick cortex
• In such cases, there are usually no changes in the urine, only in the blood
• Common symptoms are polyuria and polydipsia
• On physical examination the kidneys are usually painful

Answer 436

• Common symptoms are polyuria and polydipsia ?

Question 437

The application of this drug is NOT recommended to improve the appetite of cats with chronic kidney disease

• Mirtazapine
• Vitamine B preparations
• Maropitant
• Pantoprazole

Answer 437

• Pantoprazole

Question 438

Which treatment is NOT recommended in feline interstitial cystitis (FIC)

• Increased water intake
• Facial phermones
• Urine acidification
• Adding toys, scratching posts, climbing-hiding places, additional litters

Answer 438

• Urine acidification

Question 439

Renal amyloidosis is typically NOT caused by

• Chronic inflammatory process
• Neoplastic process
• Chronic liver disease
• Genetic (familiar) causes

Answer 439

• Chronic liver disease (more people say this one is correct)

Question 440

What is NOT true for feline interstitial cystitis (FIC)

• Antibiotics are useless
• Affected cats mostly fed by dry food
• Affected cats are mostly outdoor animals
• Affected cats are mostly neutered animals

Answer 440

• Affected cats are mostly outdoor animals

Question 441

Polydipsia definition in dog and cat

• Dog & cat: water intake more than 50 ml/bwkg/day
• Dog: water intake more than 800-100 ml/bwkg/day, Cat: water intake more than 50 ml/bwkg/day
• Dog & cat: water intake more than 100 ml/bwkg/day
• Dog: water intake more than 50 ml/bwkg/day, Cat: water intake more than 100 ml/bwkg/day

Answer 441

• Dog: water intake more than 800-100 ml/bwkg/day, Cat: water intake more than 50 ml/bwkg/day

Question 442

Polydipsia definition in dog and cat

• Dog & cat: water intake more than 50 ml/bwkg/day
• Dog: water intake more than 800-100 ml/bwkg/day, Cat: water intake more than 50 ml/bwkg/day
• Dog & cat: water intake more than 100 ml/bwkg/day
• Dog: water intake more than 50 ml/bwkg/day, Cat: water intake more than 100 ml/bwkg/day

Answer 442

• Dog: water intake more than 800-100 ml/bwkg/day, Cat: water intake more than 50 ml/bwkg/day

Question 443

Which statement is true about the progression of CKD

• Hypertension and proteinuria can increase the hyperfiltration of the nephrones
• Renal fibrosis is primarily caused by the excessive production of parathormone
• The progression of CKD is generally reversible with specific therapy
• The loss of functional nephrons lead to an increase in the glomerular filtration rate

Answer 443

• Hypertension and proteinuria can increase the hyperfiltration of the nephrones

Question 444

Which is the wrong answer: Postrenal azotaemia

• May be due to urethral obstruction
• May cause kidney damage without treatment
• May be due to severe dehydration
• May be due to ureter rupture

Answer 444

• May be due to severe dehydration

Question 445

The suspicious of antifreez poisoning is supported by.. which answer is wrong?

• The demonstration of calcium-dihydrate crystals in the urine sediment
• The detection of ethylene-glycol in blood
• Detection of ethylene-glycol in urine
• The observation of marked halo signs in the kidney during ultrasonography

Answer 445

• The demonstration of calcium-dihydrate crystals in the urine sediment

Question 446

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding nephrolithiasis

• It can occur bilaterally
• It can lead to ureterolithiasis
• It can be caused by congenital disorder
• Dalmations always form urate uroliths

Answer 446

• Dalmations always form urate uroliths ?

Question 447

Which of the following findings indication the diagnosis of urinary bladder rupture?

• If the cystourethral catheterization cannot harvest urine in a traumatized patients
• If the urine is bloody obtained via cystourethral catheterization in a traumatised patient
• If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive anterograde cystography
• If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

Answer 447

• If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

Question 448

Which of the following is the most informative one for diagnosing ectopic urether?

• Cystoscopy
• Double contrast cystography
• Intravenous urography pneumocystography
• Urinary scintigraphy (Tc04)

Answer 448

• Cystoscopy

Question 449

Which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureter?

• It may cause dysuria
• In acquired form, the incontinence is recurring
• The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes
• The urinary incontinence is always constant

Answer 449

• The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes

Question 450

Which of the following conditions does not cause hydronephrosis

• Ureteral stricture associated with previous surgery
• Ureteral torsion
• Ureteral tumor
• Ureterolithiasis

Answer 450

• Ureteral torsion

Question 451

Typical symptoms of renal tubular acidosis

• Metabolic acidosis
• Incontinence
• Polyuria, polydipsia
• Bone development disorders

Answer 451

• Metabolic acidosis

Question 452

Faniconi syndrome in dogs: which answer is wrong?

• Glucosuria
• Metabokuc acidosis
• Aminoaciduria
• Ketonuria

Answer 452

• Ketonuria

Question 453

In case of elevated blood creatinine concentration

• The animal is uremic
• The animals has kidney disease
• The animal has azotaemia
• The animal was fed with too much protein

Answer 453

• The animal has azotaemia

Question 454

Which one of the following uroliths appears usually in case of dogs bacterial cystitis?

• Urate
• Calcium-oxalate monohydrate
• Cystine
• Struvite

Answer 454

• Struvite

Question 455

Which of the following is true in case of tubular proteinuria

• Small sized proteins appears in the urine
• UPC > 2
• UPC > 0,2
• Ketonuria

Answer 455

• Small sized proteins appears in the urine

Question 456

What is the most common cause of struvite urolithiasis in dogs?

• Neutering in bitches
• Chronic bacterial urinary tract infection
• Dietary anomaly
• Inadequate response to stressors

Answer 456

• Chronic bacterial urinary tract infection

Question 457

The antibiotic is NOT excreted with urine thus is NOT a proper treatment for urinary tract

• Amoxicillin
• Cefalosporin
• Rifampicin
• Trimetoprim-szulfonamid

Answer 457

• Rifampicin

Question 458

Cases of glomerular disease in small animals. Which answer is NOT correct

• Adhesions of immune complexes to the basement membrane
• Ischemia, nephrotoxic materials
• Amyloidosis
• Congenital/Acquired basement membrane/podocyte injury

Answer 458

• Ischemia, nephrotoxic materials

Question 459

Cases of glomerular disease in small animals. Which answer is NOT correct

• Adhesions of immune complexes to the basement membrane
• Ischemia, nephrotoxic materials
• Amyloidosis
• Congenital/Acquired basement membrane/podocyte injury

Answer 459

• Ischemia, nephrotoxic materials

Question 460

Recommended concomitant therapy with erythropoietin/Darbepoetin

• Subcutaneous infusion, because the side effect of treatment is often dehydrated
• Gastric protection, because the side effect of treatment is often ulcer formation
• Mirtazapine because the side effect of treatment is often anorexia
• Iron and vitamin B12

Answer 460

• Iron and vitamin B12

Question 461

Recommended concomitant therapy with erythropoietin/Darbepoetin

• Subcutaneous infusion, because the side effect of treatment is often dehydrated
• Gastric protection, because the side effect of treatment is often ulcer formation
• Mirtazapine because the side effect of treatment is often anorexia
• Iron and vitamin B12

Answer 461

• Iron and vitamin B12

Question 462

Which urinary stone type can NOT be dissolved medically?

• Struvite
• Cystine
• Purine
• Calcium-oxalate

Answer 462

• Calcium-oxalate

Question 463

The most common lower urinary tract disesae in cats

• Prostate diseases
• Idiopathic cystitis
• Urolithiasis
• Bacterial cystitis

Answer 463

• Idiopathic cystitis

Question 464

Which statement is true about the treatment of pyelonephritis

• 1-2 weeks of antibiotic therapy is required
• Aspiration of pus and rinsing of the renal pelvis accelerated healing
• Treatment of anemia should be started as soon as possible
• Conservative treatment is usually unsuccessful, thus unilateral nephrectomy is the solution

Answer 464

• 1-2 weeks of antibiotic therapy is required

Question 465

Which statement is true about the treatment of pyelonephritis

• 1-2 weeks of antibiotic therapy is required
• Aspiration of pus and rinsing of the renal pelvis accelerated healing
• Treatment of anemia should be started as soon as possible
• Conservative treatment is usually unsuccessful, thus unilateral nephrectomy is the solution

Answer 465

• 1-2 weeks of antibiotic therapy is required

Question 466

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe?

• The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication
• The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication
• It is caused by morphological and/or functional disorders of abdominal organ(s)

Answer 466

• The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication

Question 467

What is the advantage of scrotal urethrostomy

• Castration can prevent urinary incontinence
• The perineal urethrostomy can be avoided
• Easily dissectable urethral section, wider and safer stroma
• The cystotomy can be avoided

Answer 467

• Easily dissectable urethral section, wider and safer stroma

Question 468

Which statement is correct? During nephrotomy

• The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery and vein
• Renal vein is to be occluded so that the arterial supply remains intact
• Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact
• The ureter is also occluded

Answer 468

• Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact

Question 469

Which of the following conditions does not cause hydronephrosis

• Ureteral stricture associated with previous surgery
• Ureteral torsion
• Ureteral tumour
• Ureterolithiasis

Answer 469

• Ureteral torsion

Question 470

Which of the following factors does not effect the success of feline perineal urethrostomy?

• Mucocutaneous approximation of the stoma
• Transection of bulbospongious muscle
• Transection of ischiocavernous muscle
• Type of the suture material

Answer 470

• Transection of bulbospongious muscle

Question 471

IRIS stage 1 chronic renal failure is associated with

• Azotaemia
• Anaemia, metabolic acidosis
• Uremia
• Decreased specific gravity of urine

Answer 471

• Decreased specific gravity of urine (?)

Question 472

Abnormalities that are typical for chronic renal disease…which answer is wrong?

Answer 472

Hypophosphatemia

Question 473

The progression of renal diseases caused by… which is NOT correct

• Proteinuria
• Isosthenuria
• Hyperparathyroidism
• Glomerular hypertension

Answer 473

• Isosthenuria

Question 474

It prolongs the survival of dogs and cats with Chronic kidney disease

• Increased phosphorus intake
• Medical reduction of proteinuria
• Urinary diet
• ABC are all true

Answer 474

• Urinary diet

Question 475

Which of the following is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis

• Partial nephrectomy
• Unilateral nephroureterectomy
• Kidney drainage
• Euthenasia

Answer 475

• Unilateral nephroureterectomy

Question 476

Which of the following suture materials is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure

• PDS
• Polyglyconate
• Glycomer
• Poliglecaprone

Answer 476

• Poliglecaprone

Question 477

Which one of the following is NOT typical in case of acute kidney injury

• Cachexia
• Vomitus
• Metabolic acidosis
• Uremic ulcers

Answer 477

• Cachexia or Uraemic ulcer (depends on the options)

Question 478

Which of the following protocols is to be followed in case of acute obstruction form of Feline Lower Urinary Tract disease

• Stabilisation perineal urethrostomy
• Stabilisation cystocentesis
• Stabilisation urinary bladder expression
• Stabilisation urethral catheterisation

Answer 478

• Stabilisation urethral catheterisation

Question 479

Which one of the following is not typical in case of babesiosis

• Myoglobinuria
• Icterus
• Vomitus
• Acute kidney injury

Answer 479

• Myoglobinuria

Question 480

Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral obturation in the male dogs?

• Urethral hydropropulsion
• Prescrotal urethrostomy
• Scrotal urethrostomy
• Perineal urethrostomy

Answer 480

• Urethral hydropropulsion

Question 481

Which of the following is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis

• Partial nephrectomy
• Unilateral nephroureteroectomy
• Kidney drainage
• Euthenasia

Answer 481

• Unilateral nephroureteroectomy

Question 482

Which circumstances may cause nephrosis/acute kidney injury? Which answer is WRONG

• Hypotension, dehydration
• Overhydration with crystalloid infusions
• Hypothermia, NSAID therapy
• Antibiotics, chemotherapeutics

Answer 482

• Overhydration with crystalloid infusions

Question 483

Oligouria definition in dogs

• Urine output less than 50 ml/ttkg/day
• Urine output less than 100 ml/ttkg/day
• Urine output less than 30 ml/ttkg/day
• Urine output less than 6-10 ml/ttkg/day

Answer 483

• Urine output less than 6-10 ml/ttkg/day

Less than 1 ml per hour is definition so, this is the one that makes most sense

Question 484

Treatment of nephritis

• ACE-inhibitors, omega-3 fatty acids
• Puncture and flushing of the renal pelvis
• Systemic antibiotics
• Fluid therapy

Answer 484

• Fluid therapy

Question 485

Which is the least important to establish the diagnosis of kidney disease

• Blood urea creatinine measurement
• Measurement of blood phosphorus, calcium and potassium levels
• Urine sediment evaluation and urine specific gravity measurement
• Detection of proteinuria

Answer 485

• Measurement of blood phosphorus, calcium and potassium levels

Question 486

Which one of the following uroliths appears in case of ethylene-glycol toxicosis?

• Struvite
• Calcium-oxalate dihydrate
• Calcium-oxalate monohydrate
• Purine

Answer 486

• Calcium-oxalate monohydrate

Question 487

Symptoms of lower urinary tract disease in small animals? Which answer is wrong?

• Hematuria, pollakiuria
• Stranguria, dysuria
• Polyuria, azotemia
• Periuria, incontinence

Answer 487

• Polyuria, azotemia

Question 488

The most important aspect of struvite urolithiasis treatment in dogs

• Diet
• AB
• Urine acidification
• All 3

Answer 488

• All 3

Question 489

The most important aspect of struvite urolithiasis treatment in dogs

• Diet
• AB
• Urine acidification
• All 3

Answer 489

• All 3

Question 490

Renal cysts

• Are always congenital
• Are always bilateral
• Are mainly incidental findings
• Generally cause renal failure

Answer 490

• Are mainly incidental findings

Question 491

Which therapy is NOT recommended for the treatment of dehydration in chronic kidney disease?

• Administration of intravenous infusion
• Administration of subcutaneous infusion
• Increase of water consumption
• Dialysis treatment

Answer 491

• Dialysis treatment

Question 492

What is NOT true about renal glycosuria?

• It is caused by glomerular disease
• Plasma glucose levels are normal
• Can have genetic causes
• May be a part of Fanconi syndrome

Answer 492

• It is caused by glomerular disease

Question 493

How would you treat a diagnosed cat with intersitital cystitis?

• Antibiotics
• Urine acidifying diet
• Catheterization, flusihing the bladder with isotonic saline
• Increase water

Answer 493

• Increase water

Question 494

Which statement is true about animals with renal dysplasia?

• Kidneys are typically enlarged on US with a thick cortex
• In such cases, there are usually no changes in the urine, only the blood
• Common symptoms are polyuria and polydipsia
• On a physical examination the kidneys are usually painful

Answer 494

• Common symptoms are polyuria and polydipsia

Question 495

Which therapeutic measure decreases blood potassium level during the treatment of hyperkalemia? Choose the wrong answer

• IV calcium
• Potassium free infusion and furosemide
• Glucose containing infusions
• Rapid acting insulin applications

Answer 495

• IV calcium

Question 496

In dogs, which type of urolithiasis can be affected by housing conditions, lifestyle and body condition?

• Struvite
• Calcium oxalate
• Purine
• Cystine

Answer 496

• Calcium oxalate

Question 497

The following is NOT true about polycystic kidney disease

• Is often asymptomatic
• Renal abscesses may develop in case of bacterial infection of the cyst
• Ultrasound examination is required to make a diagnosis
• Treatment is often surgical

Answer 497

• Treatment is often surgical

Question 498

The most effective gastric protectant for dogs with chronic kidney disease is

• Pantoprazole
• Famotidine
• Sucralfate
• Benazepril

Answer 498

• Pantoprazole

Question 499

It typically causes acute on chronic kidney disease: pre-existing chronic kidney disease, plus

• Polypoid cystitis
• Hemodynamic disturbance
• Hyperthyroidism
• Hepatopathy

Answer 499

• Hemodynamic disturbance

Question 500

Possible causes of hydronephrosis, which is the WRONG answer?

• Ureter stone
• Granuloma formation following neutralization
• Ascending infection
• Transitional cell carcinoma in the bladder

Answer 500

• Ascending infection

Question 501

Until what level is it recommended to increase the hematocrit(Ht) with erythropoietin/darbepoetin therapy in chronic kidney disease?

• Until Ht is 22-25%
• Until Ht is around 30%
• To normal range
• The success of the treatment does not depend on the Ht value

Answer 501

• Until Ht is around 30%

Question 502

Until what level is it recommended to increase the hematocrit(Ht) with erythropoietin/darbepoetin therapy in chronic kidney disease?

• Until Ht is 22-25%
• Until Ht is around 30%
• To normal range
• The success of the treatment does not depend on the Ht value

Answer 502

• Until Ht is around 30%

Question 503

Renal amyloidosis typically is found in … which dog breed

• Basenji
• Shar-pei
• Hungarian vizsla
• Poodle

Answer 503

• Shar-pei

Question 504

Oliguria in the dog/etiology

• Chronic renal disease, nephrosis/nephritis, pyometra
• Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis
• Dehydration, renal insufficiency, chronic liver disease
• Endocrine disorders, hepatopathies

Answer 504

• Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis

Question 505

What statement is true about immune-complex glomerulonephritis

• Diagnosis can be made based on the typical US image of the kidneys
• Urine protein/creatinine ratio is typically high
• An important element of therapy is broad-spectrum AB treatment
• Serum albumin level is increased

Answer 505

• Urine protein/creatinine ratio is typically high

Question 506

Which treatment does NOT affect the PTH level in chronic renal cases

• Feeding real diet
• Adding phosphorous binders to the diet
• ACE inhibitor therapy
• Vitamin D administration

Answer 506

• ACE inhibitor therapy

Question 507

What statement is correct? In case of renal traumatic bleeding

• The abdominocentesis is always positive (blood)
• The plain abdominal radiography is usually pathognomic
• Retroperitoneal blood loss may even lead to exsanguination
• Retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually does not lead to life threatening circulatory changes

Answer 507

• Retroperitoneal blood loss may even lead to exsanguination

Question 508

Which statement is incorrect concerning prostate ultrasonography

Answer 508

It can differentiate cyst from abscess

Question 509

If a cat has enlarged kidneys, which diagnosis is NOT probable

• PKD
• Hydronephrosis
• Lymphoma of the kidneys
• Renal fibrosis

Answer 509

• Renal fibrosis

Question 510

Which is the most important test for diagnosing glomerulonephropathies

• Determination of the blood creatinine and urea values
• Determination of the urine specific gravity by a refractometer
• Detection of severe proteinuria
• Examination of the urine sediment

Answer 510

• Detection of severe proteinuria

Question 511

Not a typical laboratory alteration in CDK

• Hypokalemia
• Anemia
• Hyperphosphatemia
• Metabolic alkalosis

Answer 511

• Metabolic alkalosis

Question 512

What is your diagnosis in flucosuria appears in cause of euglycemia

• Cushing’s disease
• Addisons’ disease

Answer 512

• Addisons’ disease

Question 513

Causes of anemia in chronic kidney patients. Which answer is not correct?

• Lack of erythropoietin
• GI bleeding/ulcers
• Decreased survival of RBC
• Hemolysis

Answer 513

• Hemolysis

Question 514

Causes of anemia in chronic kidney patients. Which answer is not correct?

• Lack of erythropoietin
• GI bleeding/ulcers
• Decreased survival of RBC
• Hemolysis

Answer 514

• Hemolysis

Question 515

Which of the following tools/findings is of lowest diagnostic value in the diagnosis of urinary bladder tumours?

• Double contrast cystography
• Ultrasonography
• Urine sediment analysis/cytology
• Therapy-irresponsive hematuria

Answer 515

• Therapy-irresponsive hematuria (?)

Question 516

Which statement is TRUE for pyelonephritis

• The bacteria usually reach the renal pelvis from the systemic circulation
• We can get a sample for diagnostic tests by aspirating the renal pelvis
• On US we find shrunken kidneys
• Usually the urinary sediment is unchanged because the inflammation in limited to the renal pelvis

Answer 516

• We can get a sample for diagnostic tests by aspirating the renal pelvis

Question 517

Which of the following uroliths is surely radiodense

Answer 517

Ca-oxalate ??

Question 518

Which is TRUE; subclinical bacteriuria

• Asymptomatic
• Only mild lower UTI symptoms
• Pyelonephritis may be suspected
• Bacteria in urine as usually multidrug resistant

Answer 518

• Asymptomatic

Question 519

Causes of acute interstitial nephritis in small animals

• E. coli/proteus
• Antifreeze
• Leptospirosis
• Ureter stone

Answer 519

• Leptospirosis

Question 520

NOT true about polycystic kidney disease

• painful kidneys
• Hematuria
• Do not have >1 year to live
• Inherited

Answer 520

• Do not have >1 year to live

Question 521

Most common causes of lower urinary tract diseases in dogs

• Bladder tumour, prostate alteration
• Anatomical disorders, foreign bodies
• Bacterial infection, urolithiasis
• Interstitial cystitis, mycoplasma

Answer 521

• Bacterial infection, urolithiasis

Question 522

True about urohydropropulsion

• Requires good surgical skills
• No sedation is required
• Renal pelvis is connected to the bladder with special shunt
• May be suitable for removing small stones from the bladder

Answer 522

• May be suitable for removing small stones from the bladder

Question 523

Which statement is FALSE

• In glomerular proteinuria large proteins are excreted
• Tubular proteinuria, urinary protein/creatinine ratio is very high
• Borderline proteinuria means UPC between 0,2 and 0,4 or 0,5
• Proteinuria of glomerular or tubular origin can be differentiated by renal biopsy

Answer 523

• Tubular proteinuria, urinary protein/creatinine ratio is very high

Question 524

Fanconi syndrome is NOT characterized by

Answer 524

• Central diabetes insipidus

Question 525

Not recommended for cystotomy wound closure

• Double layer continuous lambert
• Double layer penetrating lambert
• Single layer seromuscular continuous
• Double layer interrupted lambert

Answer 525

• Double layer penetrating lambert

Question 526

IRIS classification of CKD. Wrong answer

• 4 stages determined by serum creatinine levels
• Stage 1 the creatinine is only mildly elevated
• Substages based on presence of proteinuria
• Substaged based on degree of hypertension

Answer 526

• Stage 1 the creatinine is only mildly elevated

Question 527

When should you think of leptospirosis in a dog

Answer 527

Elevated liver enzymes and creatinine levels

Question 528

Antidote of ethylene-glycol toxicosis

Answer 528

Etil alcohol

Fomepizole

Question 529

Not typical of IRIS stage 1 CKD

Answer 529

Acute blindness because of hypertension

Question 530

Which statement is correct about glomerulopathies

• 75% of glomerulopathies is amyloidosis
• 50% of glomerulopathies is amyloidosis
• 15% of glomerulopathies is of immune complex origin
• 50% of glomerulopathies is of immune complex origin

Answer 530

• 50% of glomerulopathies is of immune complex origin

Question 531

Most likely diagnosis in cats in case of haematuria

• FIC
• Urolithasis
• Neoplasia
• Bacterial cystitis

Answer 531

• FIC

Question 532

To determine the urine concentrating ability of the kidney we use

• Blood urea levels
• Urinary total protein/creatinine ratio (UPC)
• Urine specific gravity with a refractometer
• Blood creatinine and SDMA levels

Answer 532

• Urine specific gravity with a refractometer

Question 533

Monitoring blood pressure is particularly important

• In young animals
• In FIC
• In kidney disease
• In case of heart failure

Answer 533

• In kidney disease (?)

Question 534

What is the cause of urine urolithiasis

• Hyperuricosuria
• PSS shunt
• Chronic liver disease
• All 3

Answer 534

• All 3

Question 535

You can diagnose pyelonephritis by.. which answer is wrong?

• Hemoculture in case of azotemia
• The histological examination of a renal biopsy specimen
• Visualizing pelvis dilation with imaging methods and performing urine culture
• The microbiological examination of a renal pelvis puncture

Answer 535

• Hemoculture in case of azotemia

Question 536

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe? (peritonitis)

• The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunction is necessary for surgical indication
• The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication
• It definitely requires emergency care
• It is caused by morphological and/or functional disorders of abdominal organs

Answer 536

• The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunction is necessary for surgical indication

Question 537

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe? (peritonitis)

• The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunction is necessary for surgical indication
• The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication
• It definitely requires emergency care
• It is caused by morphological and/or functional disorders of abdominal organs

Answer 537

• The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunction is necessary for surgical indication

Question 538

Persistent, prerenal proteinuria

• Is a typical characteristic of urinary tract infections
• Occurs after heavy physical activity
• Bence-jones proteins are typical examples for it
• Is a typical characteristic of leptospirosis

Answer 538

• Bence-jones proteins are typical examples for it

Question 539

The second most common lower urinary tract disease of dogs

• Prostate diseases
• Sterile cystitis
• Urolithiasis
• Bacterial cystitis

Answer 539

• Urolithiasis

Question 540

Treatment of CKD patients include… which answer is NOT correct

• Renal diet, phosphate binders
• ACE-inhibitors, antihypertensive drugs
• Erythropoietin inj., potassium supplementation
• Diuretics PO

Answer 540

• Diuretics PO

Question 541

Which statement is FALSE? In case of subclinical bacteriuria

• Usually a predisposing factor for UTI is present
• AB therapy (amoxicillin) will be prescribed
• The urine sediment can be active
• Microbiological examination of urine is positive

Answer 541

• AB therapy (amoxicillin) will be prescribed

Question 542

Which of the following means urination not at the proper place?

• Stranguria
• Pollakiuria
• Dysuria
• Periuria

Answer 542

• Periuria

Question 543

What type of proteins are detected with sulfosalicyclic acid test

• Albumin and globulin
• Albumin
• Globulin
• None

Answer 543

• Albumin and globulin

Question 544

Recommended concomitant with erythropoietin/darbepoetin

• Subcutaneous infusion, because the side effect of treatment is often dehydration
• Gastric protection, because the side effect of treatment is often ulcer formation
• Mirtazapine because the SE of treatment is often anorexia
• Iron and B12

Answer 544

• Iron and B12

Question 545

This feline lower urinary tract disease can be accompanied by crystalluria

• Idiopathic cystitis
• Urolithiasis
• Bacterial cystitis
• All 3

Answer 545

• All 3

Question 546

Which is NOT a contributing factor concerning lower UTI?

• Incontinence
• Corticosteroid therapy
• FIC
• Fanconi syndrome

Answer 546

• FIC

Question 547

Which is NOT an indication for dialysis treatment

• Anuric acute kidney injury
• Polyuric acute kidney injury unresponsive to fluid therapy
• Chronic renal failure, renal fibrosis
• Removal of toxins in case of acute toxicosis

Answer 547

• Chronic renal failure, renal fibrosis

Question 548

Which is NOT an indication for dialysis treatment

• Anuric acute kidney injury
• Polyuric acute kidney injury unresponsive to fluid therapy
• Chronic renal failure, renal fibrosis
• Removal of toxins in case of acute toxicosis

Answer 548

• Chronic renal failure, renal fibrosis

Question 549

When is it recommended to start erythropoetin/Darbepoetin therapy in chronic kidney disease?

• If cyanosis is already occurring due to hypoxia
• When the hematocrit level drops to 18-20%
• Only when clinical signs of hypoxia are already present, not earlier
• If the systolic blood pressure is >180 mmHg

Answer 549

• When the hematocrit level drops to 18-20%

Question 550

When is it recommended to start erythropoetin/Darbepoetin therapy in chronic kidney disease?

• If cyanosis is already occurring due to hypoxia
• When the hematocrit level drops to 18-20%
• Only when clinical signs of hypoxia are already present, not earlier
• If the systolic blood pressure is >180 mmHg

Answer 550

• When the hematocrit level drops to 18-20%

Question 551

Treatment of pyelonephritis; which answer is WRONG

• ACE-inhibitors, omega 3 fatty acids
• Puncture and flushing of the renal pelvis
• Systemic AB
• Fluid therapy

Answer 551

• ACE-inhibitors, omega 3 fatty acids ?

Question 552

What is not typical for acute kidney failure?

• Azotaemia
• Hypokalamia
• Oligouria, anuria
• Metabolic acidosis

Answer 552

• Hypokalamia

Question 553

Which of the following procedures is not recommended for surgical resolution of prostatic cysts

• Marsupialisation
• Omentalisation
• Drainage
• Puncture

Answer 553

• Marsupialisation

Question 554

Which of the following breeds is usually NOT affected by ectopic ureter

• Labrador
• Husky
• Germen shepherd
• West highland white terrier

Answer 554

• Germen shepherd

Question 555

Ectomic ureter.. which answer is wrong

• Are usually causing constant urine dripping
• Are occurring only in females
• Can be diagnosed by xray or ct-exam
• Can be diagnosed with cystoscopy

Answer 555

• Are occurring only in females

Question 556

Which is NOT typically a “target organ” that is damaged by hypertension

• Lungs
• Brain
• Kidney
• Eyes

Answer 556

• Lungs

Question 557

Which statement is true about the treatment of pyelonephritis

• 1-2 weeks of AB therapy is required
• Aspiration of pus and rinsing of the renal pelvis accelerated healing
• Treatment if anemia should be started as soon as possible
• Conservative treatment is usually unsuccessful, thus unilateral nephrectomy is the solution

Answer 557

• Aspiration of pus and rinsing of the renal pelvis accelerated healing

Question 558

What is the cause of purine urolithiasis

• Hyperuricosuria
• Portosystemic shunt
• Chronic liver disease
• All 3

Answer 558

• All 3

Question 559

Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis in dogs in case of haematuria

• Urolithiasis
• Benignus prostate gland hypertrophy
• Bacterial cystitis
• Neoplasma

Answer 559

• Bacterial cystitis

Question 560

Renal proteinuria can be decreased by

• Renal diet
• Antihypertensive drugs
• ACE-inhibitors
• All 3

Answer 560

• All 3

Question 561

Renal proteinuria can be decreased by

• Renal diet
• Antihypertensive drugs
• ACE-inhibitors
• All 3

Answer 561

• All 3

Question 562

Diabetes insipidus: which is correct?

• Clinical manifestation: PU/PD, hypersthenuria
• The most effective drug in the central form is desmopressin
• The ADH production of the kidneys is insufficient in the nephrogenic form
• Diagnosis: modified water deprivation test, ADH stimulation test

Answer 562

• Diagnosis: modified water deprivation test, ADH stimulation test (?)

Question 563

Hyperthyroidism of cats: therapeutic options

• Thyroidectomy, radiotherapy, methimazole, low iodine diet
• Parathyroidectomy 131 I IV, methimazole, low iodine diet
• Thyroidectomy 00 Tc IV, methimazole, low sodium diet
• Parathyroidectomy 131 I IV, fenbendazole, low iodine diet

Answer 563

• Thyroidectomy, radiotherapy, methimazole, low iodine diet

Question 564

Acromegaly: causes

• Dog: pituitary tumor cat: estrogen treatment, mammary gland tumor, ovarian cyst
• Acquired GH deficiency
• Congenital GH excess
• Dog: progestagen treatment Cat: pituitary tumor

Answer 564

• Dog: progestagen treatment Cat: pituitary tumor

Question 565

Which breed is predisposed for cushing disease?

• Greyhound
• Cocker spaniel
• English bulldog
• Karelian beardog
• Dachshund

Answer 565

• Dachshund

Question 566

Hypoadrenocorticism of dogs: therapy

• Crisis: 0,9% saline, hydrocortisone Later: Fludrocortisone, DOCP, prednisolone, salt
• Crisis: 0,9% saline, DOCP hydrocortisone Later: Fludrocortisone, prednisolone
• Crisis: 0,9% saline, hydrocortisone Later: DOCP prednisolone
• Crisis: 0,9% saline, fludrocortisone Later: hydrocorticone, DOCP, prednisolone, salt

Answer 566

• Crisis: 0,9% saline, hydrocortisone Later: Fludrocortisone, DOCP, prednisolone, salt

Question 567

3 most common causes of PU/PD in dogs

• Pyometra, bacterial cystitis, diabetes mellitus
• Chronic kidney disease, cushing syndrome, diabetes mellitus
• Cushing syndrome, diabetes mellitus, pyometra
• Bacterial cystitis, cushing syndrome, diabetes mellitus

Answer 567

• Chronic kidney disease, cushing syndrome, diabetes mellitus

Question 568

3 most common causes of PU/PD in dogs

• Pyometra, bacterial cystitis, diabetes mellitus
• Chronic kidney disease, cushing syndrome, diabetes mellitus
• Cushing syndrome, diabetes mellitus, pyometra
• Bacterial cystitis, cushing syndrome, diabetes mellitus

Answer 568

• Chronic kidney disease, cushing syndrome, diabetes mellitus

Question 569

What is “V-Y” plasty

• The correction of Y-U plasty
• The type of Z plasty
• The modified type of W plasty
• Tension relieving plastic procedure

Answer 569

• Tension relieving plastic procedure

Question 570

What is “V-Y” plasty

• The correction of Y-U plasty
• The type of Z plasty
• The modified type of W plasty
• Tension relieving plastic procedure

Answer 570

• Tension relieving plastic procedure

Question 571

What does W-plasty mean

• The correction of Y-U plasty
• The modified type of Y-U plasty
• The modified type Z plasty
• Scar correcting plastic procedure

Answer 571

• Scar correcting plastic procedure

Question 572

Which of the following has got the widest indication area

• Plastic surgery
• Cosmetic surgery
• Esthetic surgery
• Reconstructive surgery

Answer 572

• Plastic surgery

Question 573

What is the pathognomic symptoms of cushing’s syndrome

• Collarette
• Hyperhidrosis
• Angioedema
• Keratin plugs
• Calcinosis cutis

Answer 573

• Calcinosis cutis

Question 574

What may cause hyperglycemia in the diabetic patient treated

• Liver failure
• Concurrent Addisions disease
• Insulin resistance
• Xylitol-toxicosis
• Neutering the bitch after 2-5 days

Answer 574

• Insulin resistance

Question 575

Which statement is correct

• Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenoma is common in cats
• Hypothyroidism caused by thyroid adenoma is common in cats
• Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenocarcinoma is common in cats
• Hypothyroidism caused by thyroid adenocarcinoma is common in cats

Answer 575

• Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenoma is common in cats

Question 576

Which statement is correct

• Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenoma is common in cats
• Hypothyroidism caused by thyroid adenoma is common in cats
• Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenocarcinoma is common in cats
• Hypothyroidism caused by thyroid adenocarcinoma is common in cats

Answer 576

• Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenoma is common in cats

Question 577

Addison’s disease in dogs: diagnosis

• Na/K > 27, Cl- decrease, ACTH stimulation test
• Na/K < 27, Cl- decrease, ACTH stimulation test
• Na/K < 27, Cl- decrease, LDDST
• Na/K > 27, Cl- decrease, LDDST

Answer 577

• Na/K < 27, Cl- decrease, ACTH stimulation test

Question 578

What may cause hypoglycemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin?

• Progestagen treatment, insulin antagonist
• Concurrent diabetes insipidus
• Castration of male dog/cat
• Neutering the bitch after 2-5 days
• Stress
• Glucocorticoid therapy

Answer 578

• Glucocorticoid therapy ??

Question 579

What is the target blood glucose level in the diabetic patient at maximum effect of insulin

• 3-6 mmol/l
• 3-6 umol/l
• 4-9 umol/l
• 4-9 mmol/l

Answer 579

• 4-9 mmol/l

Question 580

Which is not a possible consequence of obesity

• Hypertension
• Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• Hypokalemia
• Hyperlipidemia

Answer 580

• Hypokalemia

Question 581

Calcium features of congenital hyposomatotropism

• Yorkshire terrier, pituitary tumor, liver failure, alopecia
• German shepherd, proportionate dwarfism, alopecia
• Great dane, enzyme deficiency, kidney failure
• Beagle, IGF-1 decrease, disproportionate

Answer 581

• German shepherd, proportionate dwarfism, alopecia

Question 582

Cause of insulin resistance

• Progesterone, hypercorticolism, hypersomatotropism
• Hypocalcemia, glucocorticoids, acromegaly
• Cushing’s syndrome, enalapril, progestagens
• Acromegaly, xilitol, cushing’s syndrome
• MPA, DOCP, GH

Answer 582

• Progesterone, hypercorticolism, hypersomatotropism

Question 583

Which statement is true? In monogastric animals the energy content of dietary..

• Proteins is utilized most efficiently
• Carbohydrates is utilized most efficiently
• Fibers is utilized most efficiently
• Fats is utilized most efficiently

Answer 583

• Fats is utilized most efficiently

Question 584

Which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate one in canine otitis externa and media

• Hinz-procedure
• Zepp-procedure
• TECA LBO
• Ventral Bulla Osteotomy

Answer 584

• TECA LBO

Question 585

Which of the following techniques is the most tension relieving one

• Simple interrupted, horizontal/vertical/mattress, far-near-near-far, far-far-near-near, x-mattress
• Cruciate suture
• Continuous locked suture
• Tubed/stent suture

Answer 585

• Simple interrupted, horizontal/vertical/mattress, far-near-near-far, far-far-near-near, x-mattress

Question 586

Which of the following nerves is mostly prone to iatrogenic injury during ventral bulla osteotomy (VBO) procedure

• Maxillary N
• Auriculotemporal branch of facial N
• Auriculopalpebral branch of facial N
• Hypoglossal N

Answer 586

• Hypoglossal N ?

Question 587

In which endocrine disorder there is no polydipsia/polyuria

• Diabetes mellitus
• Diabetes insipidus
• Alopecia X
• Cushings
• Hyperthyroidism

Answer 587

• Alopecia X

Question 588

Hypothyroidism of dogs: symptoms

• Activity decrease, obesity, PD/PU, alopecia, tachycardia, fertility decrease
• Activity increase, obesity, alopecia, thin skin, bradycardia, PP
• Activity decrease, obesity, alopecia, thin skin, bradycardia, fertility decreased
• Activity decrease, weight gain, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, fertility decreased

Answer 588

• Activity decrease, weight gain, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, fertility decreased

Question 589

Which statement is true regarding diabetes insipidus

• Partial or complete ADH deficiency
• Failure of renal tubules to react to ADH
• Very common disorder
• In case of water deprivation these patients are able to concentrate their urine

Answer 589

• Partial or complete ADH deficiency

Question 590

Which statement is correct

• Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenoma is common in dogs
• Thyroid adenocarcinoma without hormonal alteration is common in dogs
• Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid adenocarcinoma is common in dogs
• Thyroid adenoma without hormonal alteration is common in dogs

Answer 590

• Thyroid adenocarcinoma without hormonal alteration is common in dogs

Question 591

Hypothyroidism in dogs: diagnosis

• Thyroxine decrease and TSH increase, free thyroixine increase, TGAA- , TRH stimulation test
• Thyroxine decrease and TSH increase, free thyroxine decrease, TGAA, TSH-stimulation test
• Thyroxine decrease and TSH increase, free thyroxine decrease, TGAA and ACTH stimulation test
• Thyroxine increase and TSH decrease, free thyroxine decrease, TGAA, ACTH stimulation test

Answer 591

-Thyroxine decrease and TSH increase, free thyroxine decrease, TGAA, TSH-stimulation test

Question 592

Hypoadrenocorticism of dogs: clinical manifestations

• Dehydration, K increase, Ca decrease –> weakness tremors and shock
• Dehydration, Na increase, K decrease –> Abdominal pain, PU/PD
• Dehydration, K increase, Cl decrease –> shock, bradycardia
• Vomiting/Diarrhoea, K decrease, Ca decrease –> shock, tetany

Answer 592

• Dehydration, K increase, Cl decrease –> shock, bradycardia

Question 593

Which breed is not predisposed for obesity

• Labrador retriever
• Borzoi
• Dachshound
• Beagle

Answer 593

• Borzoi

Question 594

What may cause hypoglycaemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin

• Progestagen treatment
• Concurrent diabetes insipidus
• Castration of male dog/cat
• Neutering a bitch after 2-5 days
• Stress
• Glucocorticoid therapy

Answer 594

• Glucocorticoid therapy (Long term therapy can cause hypo)

Question 595

Which is the “classic” indication of adrenalectomy

• Unilateral adrenal cortical adenoma caused by peripheral cushings
• Unilateral adrenal cortical adenoma caused by central cushings
• Unilateral adrenal medullar adenoma caused by peripheral cushings
• Unilateral adrenal medullar adenoma caused by central cushings

Answer 595

• Unilateral adrenal cortical adenoma caused by peripheral cushings

Question 596

Hypothyroidism of dogs; symptoms

• Activity decrease, PU/PD, alopecia, tachycardia, fertility decrease
• Activity increase, obesity, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, PP
• Activity decrease, obesity, alopecia, thin skin, bradycardia, fertility decrease
• Activity decrease, weight gain, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, fertility decrease

Answer 596

• Activity decrease, weight gain, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, fertility decrease

Question 597

Which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate one in feline otitis media?

• Hinz-procedure
• Zepp-procedure
• TECA-LBO
• Ventral Bulla osteotomy

Answer 597

• Ventral Bulla osteotomy

Question 598

Which factor plays, crucial role in the preoverative determination of the surgical prognosis of adrenalectomy

• Tumourous involvement of pancreativoduodenal artery and vein
• Tumourous involvement of phrenicoabdominal artery and vein
• Tumourous involvement of caudal vena cava
• Tumourous involvement of the adrenal cortex and medulla

Answer 598

• Tumourous involvement of caudal vena cava

Question 599

Which disorder does NOT cause osmotic diuresis

• Renal glucouria
• Postobstructive diuresis
• Pyometra
• Diabetes mellitus

Answer 599

• Postobstructive diuresis

Question 600

Hyperthyroidism of cats

• Consequence of thyroiditis, goiter, dyspnoe, dilated cardiomyopathy
• Consequence of thyroid gland tumour, goiter, myxedema, anorexia/cachexia
• Consequence of thyroiditis, aggressivity, panting, sudden blindness due to hypotension
• Thyroid adenoma or hyperplasia, polyphagia, weight loss, myocardial hypertropy

Answer 600

• Thyroid adenoma or hyperplasia, polyphagia, weight loss, myocardial hypertropy

Question 601

The most important nutritive vessel of ventral abdominal skin is
- Caud. supf. epigastric a. and v.
- Cran. supf. epigastric a. and v.
Deep iliac circumflexa a. and v.
Supf. iliac circumflexa a. and v

Answer 601

• Caud. supf. epigastric a. and v.

Question 602

Addison’s disease in dogs: causes pathogenesis

• The primary disease is due to autoimmune inflammation of the adrenals
• Primary: cortisol increase, aldosterone decrease, Secondary: cortisol decrease, aldosterone increase
• The primary disease is due to incorrect glucocorticoid therapy
• Primary: cortisol decrease, aldosterone decrease, Secondary: cortisol normal, aldosterone decrease

Answer 602

• The primary disease is due to autoimmune inflammation of the adrenals

Question 603

Diabetes insipidus: which is correct

• Clinical manifestations: PD/PU, hypersthenuria
• The most effective during in the central form is desmopressin
• The ADH production of the kidneys is insufficient in the nephrogenic form
• Diagnosis: modified water deprivation test, ADH-stimulation test

Answer 603

• The most effective during in the central form is desmopressin

Question 604

Which statement is false? Following neutering

• A basic metabolic rate is reduced
• The appetite may increase
• The physical activity may decrease
• The production of the anabolic hormone, melatonin is increased

Answer 604

• The production of the anabolic hormone, melatonin is increased

Question 605

Which statement is TRUE regarding diabetes insipidus

• Partial or complete ADH deficiency
• Failure of the renal tubules to react to ADH
• Very common disorder
• In case of water deprivation test these patients are able to concentrate their urine

Answer 605

• Partial or complete ADH deficiency

Question 606

Which of the following nerves is mostly prone to iatrogneic injury during TECA LBO procedure

• Maxillary n
• Auriculotemporal branch of the facial n
• Auriculopalpabral branch of facial n
• Hypoglossal n

Answer 606

• Auriculopalpabral branch of facial n (Was mentioned during the lecture) ?

Question 607

Which of the following nerves is mostly prone to iatrogenic injury during ventral bulla osteotomy (VBO)

• Maxillary n
• Auriculotemporal branch of the facial n
• Auriculopalpabral branch of facial n
• Hypoglossal n

Answer 607

• Hypoglossal n

Question 608

Breed predisposed for Addison’s disease

• French bulldog
• Irish setter
• Poodle
• Dachshund
• Beagle

Answer 608

• Poodle

Question 609

According to Vasanjee et al Vet Surg paper (2006) which of the following liver biopsy techniques caused remarkable collateral tissue damage?

• Ligature biopsy
• Laparoscopic “pinch” biopsy
• Needle biopsy
• None of them

Answer 609

• Laparoscopic “pinch” biopsy

Question 610

Which clinical signs are characteristic for the following oesophageal diseases?

• Oesophagitis: odynophagia, regurgitation, salivation, food refusal
• Oesophageal foreign body: regurgitation, salivation, sometimes distended abdomen
• Spirocercosis: regurgitation, vomiting, weight loss, coughing, dyspnea, rarely sudden death
• All statements are true

Answer 610

• All statements are true

Question 611

In which of the following breeds is the congenital cleft palate common?

• German shepherd
• Hungarian vizsla
• Yorkshire terrier
• French bulldog

Answer 611

• French bulldog

Question 612

Which additional laboratory parameter should be measured in case of an old cachectic cat with diarrhoea?

• crp
• T4 level
• Ca level
• ALT level

Answer 612

• T4 level

Question 613

The most common indication of subtotal colectomy in cats is

• Congenital megacolon
• Primary idiopathic megacolon
• Secondary idiopathic megacolon
• Tertiary idiopathic megacolon

Answer 613

• Primary idiopathic megacolon

Question 614

Which of the following is not typical for vomitus?

• Preceded by nausea
• Active muscle contractions
• Presence of gastric chyme
• Eating the content

Answer 614

• Eating the content

Question 615

Which of the following procedures has a modification called “Roux-en-Y” technique?

• Choledochotomy
• Cholecystectomy
• Cholecystoduodenostomy
• Cholecystojejunostomy

Answer 615

• Cholecystojejunostomy

Question 616

Which of the following can not cause hepatic icterus?

• Hepatic cirrhosis
• Cholelithiasis
• Cholangiohepatitis
• Liver tumor

Answer 616

• Liver tumor

Question 617

Which of the following is not typical for regurgitation

• Develops spontaneously
• Preceded by nausea
• Undigested food
• Passive backflow

Answer 617

• Preceded by nausea

Question 618

In case of intestinal obstruction

• Acute vomiting is the most characteristic symptom
• Urgent gastric lavage is required
• Profuse, bloody diarrhoea is the most characteristic symptom
• Most of the cases can be managed with conservative therapy

Answer 618

• Acute vomiting is the most characteristic symptom

Question 619

Extracardiac murmur typically

• Have punctum maximum
• Have no punctum maximum
• Are due to valvular insufficiency
• Are alway systolic

Answer 619

• Have no punctum maximum

Question 620

Which statement is not correct about canine PSS

• The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs in large breed dogs
• The symptoms of the portosystemic shunt can worsen after the feeding of protein-rich food (meat)
• The postpradial bile avid level of the blood is higher than normal in portosystemic shunts
• In congenital portosystemic shunts, the nervous symptoms are usually episodic

Answer 620

• The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs in large breed dogs

Question 621

Which breed is not predisoposed for primer Cu accumulation?

• Bedlington terrier
• German shepherd
• Labrador retriever
• Dalmation

Answer 621

• German shepherd

Question 622

Which component is responsible for the closure of PSS in case of Ameroid ring constrictor?

• Celophane
• Silk
• Kazein
• Nylon

Answer 622

• Kazein

Question 623

Which is the major difference between midline and incisional gastropexy

• Midline gastropexy uses seromuscular pattern, whilst the incisional operates with penetrating sutures
• The techniques fix different areas of the stomach
• In the framework of incisional gastropexy scarification of the stomach serosa is done unlike midline gastropexy
• Incisional gastropexy has just temporary efficacy

Answer 623

• The techniques fix different areas of the stomach

Question 624

Which of the statements is correct for the clinical signs of the oesophageal diseases in general

• Appetite is always decreased
• Appetite is always increased
• Appetite is never changed
• Appetite can be decreased or increased

Answer 624

• Appetite can be decreased or increased

Question 625

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in case og obstructive ileus

• Maropitant
• Metroclopramide
• Pantoprazole
• Tramadol

Answer 625

• Metroclopramide

Question 626

In which of the following diseases does megaoesophagus not occur

• Cushing’s disease
• Myasthena gravis
• Addison’s disease
• Hypothyreosis

Answer 626

• Cushing’s disease

Question 627

Which is the first layer you have to close if you have a median laparotomy wound?

• Rectus sheet
• Subcutis
• Ligamentum falciforme
• Peritoneum

Answer 627

• Peritoneum

Question 628

Granulomatous colitis is caused by

• Campylobacter coli
• Enteropathogenic E coli (EPEC)
• Adherent-invasive E coli (AIEC)
• Clostridium perfringens

Answer 628

• Adherent-invasive E coli (AIEC)

Question 629

Which statement is correct?

• ALP has the following isoenzymes in the cat: liver, bone, steroid-induced
• The bile acid, bilirubin, ALP, GGT levels are elevated in cholestasis
• The bilirubinuria is alway pathologic in the dog, associated with hyperbilirubinaemia
• ALT and AST are cholestatic enzymes

Answer 629

• The bile acid, bilirubin, ALP, GGT levels are elevated in cholestasis

Question 630

Which belong to the core vaccines in dogs?
o parvoviral enteritis, distemper, Rubarths disease
o panleukopenia, parvoviral enteritis, Rubarths-disease
o panleukopenia, distemper ruburths-disease
o leptospirosis, parvoviral enteritis, distemper, Rubarth’s- disease

Answer 630

o leptospirosis, parvoviral enteritis, distemper, Rubarth’s- disease

Question 631

Which muscle/muscles can be used for intramuscular drug application
o M femoralis
o M. gastrocnemius
o M. semitendinosus / semimembranosus
o Tibialis cranialis muscle

Answer 631

o M. semitendinosus / semimembranosus

Question 632

To perform a complete blood count examination you need
o heparinized blood sampling tube.
o EDTA blood sampling tube.
o citrated blood sampling tube.
o NaF blood sampling tube.

Answer 632

o EDTA blood sampling tube.

Question 633

In case of acute epistaxis/nasal bleeding
o Immediate X-Ray examination is required
o immediate rhinoscopy is required
o as soon as possible hemostasis and coagulation profile laboratory tests are required
o Nasal foreign body and fungal rhinitis cannot be presumed in the background

Answer 633

o as soon as possible hemostasis and coagulation profile laboratory tests are
required

Question 634

The point of maintenance infusion therapy is

Answer 634

Treat dehydration

Question 635

Characteristic of feline herpes viral rhinitis

Answer 635

Bilateral mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge

Question 636

The concept of moist wound therapy does not include
o surgical debridement
o autolytic debridement
o a wet-to-dry dressing
o a hydrocolloid dressing

Answer 636

A wet to dry dressing ?? or Surgical debridement?

Question 637

What does “3-metric” mean on a suture material pack?

Answer 637

The suture material is 0,3 mm of diameter

Question 638

According to Shamit et al (JSAP 2002) which of the following features is incorrect concerning the typical canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma

Answer 638

Bodyweight < 10 kg

Question 639

Characteristic of canine chronic bronchitis
o it is more common in old, large breed dogs
o it is more common in young, small breed dogs
o inspiratory type dyspnoea
o crackles and wheezes with auscultation

Answer 639

o crackles and wheezes with auscultation

Question 640

Characteristic of aspiration pneumonia

• Can be caused by megaoesophagus and laryngeal dysfunction
• Its prognosis can be influenced by the pH, volume and quality of aspirated volume
• Glucocorticoid and furosemide are not recommended for treatment
• All above mentioned are correct

Answer 640

• All above mentioned are correct

Question 641

Which of the followung reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2 < 60 mmHg)

• Dyspnea
• Cyanosis
• Hyperventilation
• Labial breathing

Answer 641

• Cyanosis

Question 642

Characteristic of canine/feline pneumonia

• Usually, a primary disease
• Good general condition, cough
• Its background is usually viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration
• Normal body temperature, good general condition, good appetite

Answer 642

• Its background is usually viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration

Question 643

Which statement is incorrect regarding cervical tracheal resection/anastomosis?

• Ventral cervical approach is usually applied
• In adults even the 50% of the tracheal length can be resected
• In immature dogs even the 25% of the tracheal length can be resected
• Either interrupted or continuous stitches are applicable for anastomosis

Answer 643

• Either interrupted or continuous stitches are applicable for anastomosis

Question 644

Which of the following categories is correct according to the approximation of the wound edge

• Skin - intradermal - subcutaneous - muscular - fascial
• Interrrupted vs continuous
• Appositional - inverting - tension-releiving
• Simple - mattress - criciate ligament

Answer 644

• Skin - intradermal - subcutaneous - muscular - fascial

Question 645

Which is the following prognostic factors had no impact on the disease free interval (DFI) in a retrospective study by McNeil al (JAVMA, 1997) analyzing cases with primary lung tumor removed pulmonary lobectomy?
o the histopathologic grade of the lung tumor
o clinical signs
o regional lymph node metastases
o / - chemotherapy

Answer 645

o / - chemotherapy

Question 646

Characteristic of “reverse sneezing”:
o Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background
o indicates a serious, life- threatening illness
o usually caused by irritation of the anterior third of the nasal cavity
o indicates a laryngeal lesion

Answer 646

o Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background

Question 647

Which of the following clinical findings is not a member of the diagnostic triad defining the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?
o Status of the thoracic wall
o Skin defect on the thoracic wall
o Positive radiological finding of lung contusion
o ARD

Answer 647

o Skin defect on the thoracic wall

Question 648

In which of the following conditions is the rhinotomy not the primarily indicated
therapy?
o nasal foreign body abscess
o nasopharyngeal polyp
o chronic, conservative therapy-resistant rhinitis
o nasal adenocarcinoma

Answer 648

o nasal adenocarcinoma

Question 649

Which of the following statement is incorrect? An active drain …
o … is not recommended as flushing drain
o … can be open suction-drain
o … can be closed suction-drain
o … is used as flushing drain

Answer 649

o … is not recommended as flushing drain

Question 650

Which of the following statement is incorrect? Radon drain ...
o ... is a tube drain
o ... is made of latex
o ... can be used as passive drain
o ... is mostly used as active drain

Answer 650

o … is made of latex

Question 651

Primary Survey. Mark the incorrect answer!
o Determine all organic disorders
o Reveal direct life-threatening conditions
o Check and stabilize circulation and respiration
o Check and stabilize CNS

Answer 651

o Determine all organic disorders

Question 652

Which of the following sterilization methods operates at the highest temperature?
o Autoclave (steam)
o Gamma-beam radiation
o Ethylene-dioxide sterilization
o Dry heat sterilization

Answer 652

o Dry heat sterilization

Question 653

Which of the following USP numbers indicates the thickest suture material?
o 0
o 2-0
o 2
o 3-0

Answer 653

o 2

Question 654

according to Poncet classification system for BAOS which is the most defining clinical
condition of the grade III category?
o severity of stridor / stertor
o syncope
o duration of clinical signs
o grade III laryngeal collapse

Answer 654

o syncope

Question 655

which finding is incorrect about pneumonectomy cases in the ??pective multicenter
study by Wavreille et al (Vet Surg 201
o primary lung tumors were represented in 52% of the indications
o 76% of dogs and 80% of cats had postoperative respiratory complications
o the acute perioperative (< 24h) mortality was around 10%
o subacute (<2 weeks) postoperative mortality affected 1 dog and 2 cats

Answer 655

o the acute perioperative (< 24h) mortality was around 10%

Question 656

Which statement is Incorrect regarding midline sternotomy
o it causes significantly bigger postoperative pain compared to lateral
thoracotomy
o oscillating saw or osteotome is necessary for the approach
o Finachietto rib retractor or Gelpi retractor is applicable
o it is indicated by mediastinal and/or bilateral thoracic conditions

Answer 656

o it causes significantly bigger postoperative pain compared to lateral
thoracotomy

Question 657

Characteristics of critical care. Mark the incorrect answer!
o The order of examination and therapeutical methods are different than in
non-emergency cases
o Diagnostics and therapy overlap each other in order to gain time
o The examination consists of two phases. primary and secondary survey
o All emergency patients require intensive ward care

Answer 657

o All emergency patients require intensive ward care

Question 658

Choose the correct answer. Colloid infusions
o contain small molecular weight compounds
o in a dosage less than 20ml / kg/day they may induce coagulopathy
o are used to treat dehydration
o are used in hypovolemia combined with crystalloids

Answer 658

o are used in hypovolemia combined with crystalloids

Question 659

Delayed primary closure
o is normally performed on the first day post-trauma
o may be indicated in deep infected puncture wounds
o is usually performed 2 to 5 days after injury
o involves the complete excision of granulation tissue

Answer 659

o is usually performed 2 to 5 days after injury

Question 660

What does 'atypical' operation mean?
o one sort of ide-saving surgeries
o One sort of tumor removal procedures
o Specific plastic surgical intervention
o An individual procedure using the whole knowledge, experience and intuition
of the surgeon

Answer 660

o An individual procedure using the whole knowledge, experience and intuition
of the surgeon

Question 661

In case of hypovolemia, the first choice of infusion is:
o 5% glucose
o HAES infusion
o Lactated Ringer Solution
o 10% NaCI infusion

Answer 661

o Lactated Ringer Solution

Question 662

which of the following breeds is the congenital laryngeal paralysis common?
o Hungarian vizsla
o Husky
o Greyhound
o Pointer

Answer 662

o Husky

Question 663

What is the most frequent complication of CricoArytenoid Lateralization?
o laryngeal collapse
o recurrence
o aspiration
o none of them

Answer 663

o aspiration

Question 664

which of the following features makes polyprolylene the most popular
cardiovascular suture material?
o Monofilament feature
o Good tensile strength
o Good knot security
o Unique thrombophobic feature

Answer 664

o Monofilament feature

Question 665

Which approach is recommended for nasal opening in brachycephalic breeds?
o Dorsal rhinotomy
o Ventral rhinotomy
o Dorsal rhinotomy sinus trephination
o Ventral rhinotomy sinus trephination

Answer 665

o Ventral rhinotomy

Question 666

which of the following brachycephalic disorders is not surgically curable?
o Stenotic nares
o Elongated soft palate
o Laryngeal collapse
o Tracheal hypoplasia

Answer 666

o Tracheal hypoplasia

Question 667

Characteristic of canine chronic bronchitis:
o Bronchial pattern on X-Ray
o Mucopurulent discharge in the bronchi during bronchoscopy
o Cytology and microbiology of BAL are required
o All the above mentioned are true

Answer 667

o All the above mentioned are true

Question 668

How many lung lobes has the dog?
o 5
o 6
o 7
o 8

Answer 668

o 6

Question 669

Which arytenoid structure is anchored during CAL?
o processus muscularis
o processus cuneiformis
o processus corniculatus
o none of them

Answer 669

o processus muscularis

Question 670

Which is the uppermost muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy?
o Dorsal latissimus m.
o Dorsal serratus m.
o Ventral serratus m.
o Cutaneus trunci

Answer 670

o Cutaneus trunci

Question 671

What is the „golden Period“ in the treatment of fresh traumatic wounds:

Answer 671

o 6-8h from injury

Question 672

In the early phases of healing, the most essential white blood cell in wounds are the:

Answer 672

o Monocytes

Question 673

What characterises the proliferation phase of wound healing

Answer 673

o Angiogenesis

Question 674

Granulation tissue is especially sensitive to

Answer 674

o Desiccation

Question 675

Primary wound closure should be avoided in:

Answer 675

o Gunshot and bite wounds

Question 676

Which statement is FALSE? (Wound)

Answer 676

o Wounds are rinsed with large volumes of hydrogene peroxide

Question 677

The preferred method of debridement in a fresh lacerated wound is:

Answer 677

o Surgical

Question 678

In case of a wound infection presumably caused by a multiresistant organism:

Answer 678

o The patient should be treated in isolation wearing protective clothing

Question 679

First aid key points:

Answer 679

o Haemostasis and prevention of further contamination

Question 680

Select the FALSE answer. A good bandage:

Answer 680

o Reduces blood flow to the wound

Question 681

Which contact layer is most suitable for heavily exudating wounds:

Answer 681

o Calcium alginate

Question 682

Used as topical wound medication, the metabolism of action is based on
hyperosmolarity:

Answer 682

o Sugar & honey

Question 683

Surgical site infection:

Answer 683

o Is caused by multiresistant microorganisms in about 5% of cases

Question 684

A layer of a Robert-jones bandage:

Answer 684

o Secondary absorbent layer (e.g cotton wool)

Question 685

Pseudomonas ssp. Grows from a sample from the surface of a wound with healthy
granulation tissue. This is most likely due to:

Answer 685

o Contamination

Question 686

What is the most dangerous complication of bandaging?

Answer 686

o Distal limb edema

Question 687

What is the appropriate respiration rate for cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
o 6-7 / min
o 20-30 / min
o 30-40/min
o 10-12 / min.

Answer 687

o 10-12 / min.

Question 688

Select the CORRECT answer. The peripheral venous cannula
o not suitable for purchase stroke
o suitable for monitoring of central venous pressure
o not suitable for infusion therapy with colloids
o suitable for re-administration

Answer 688

o suitable for re-administration

Question 689

What drug/ medicine can be given intravenously?
o Oil injection
o Vaccine
o Tissue irritant drugs
o Long-acting antibiotic suspension

Answer 689

o Tissue irritant drugs

Question 690

Select the CORRECT answer. Open-system blood collection
o blood obtained by this method is suitable for blood testing
o suitable for receiving large amounts of blood
o is easy to perform / implement
o no contamination

Answer 690

o is easy to perform / implement

Question 691

In the case of paravenous injection,
o the animal's feet swell
o swelling occurs at the injection site.
o to resist the beeping down.??
o apnea often occurs.

Answer 691

o swelling occurs at the injection site.

Question 692

Characteristic of the foreign body in the nasal cavity:
o in most cases, spontaneously healing rhinitis
o Requires glucocorticoid and antibiotic treatment
o improper treatment/ handling can cause fungal rhinitis
o rhinoscopy can be postponed for months

Answer 692

o improper treatment/ handling can cause fungal rhinitis

Question 693

Which statement is correct?
o There is no valve in the upper opening of the venous cannula, so we take
blood from here.
o There is a valve in the upper opening of the venous cannula, so we cannot
take blood from here.
o There is no valve in the opening at the end of the venous cannula, so no
infusion can be given here
o There is a valve in the opening at the end of the venous cannula, so we can infuse it here

Answer 693

o There is a valve in the opening at the end of the venous cannula, so we can infuse it here

Question 694

Deferred primary closure
o can usually be performed on the first day after the injury.
o performed on deep wounds suspected of being infected
o can be performed 2-5 days after the injury
o Complete development of the developed granulation tissue is performed
afterwards

Answer 694

o can be performed 2-5 days after the injury

Question 695

Which of the following surgical instruments is not part of the chest kit?
o Balfour rib splitter
o De Bakey / Satinsky vascular occluder
o Mixter dissector
o Long Mayo-Hegar pliers

Answer 695

o Mixter dissector

Question 696

When used in a contact layer, its antibacterial effect is due to its dehydrating
properties
o Iodine
o sugar
o Silver
o Paraffin

Answer 696

o Silver

Question 697

Which muscle can be used for intramuscular drug administration?
o m. quadriceps fermoris
o m. gastrocnemius
o m. tibialis cranialis
o m. deltoideus

Answer 697

o m. quadriceps fermoris ? (Right? PQ document said Gastrocnemius..)

Question 698

According to Poncet's BAOS classification system, which clinical condition is decisive
for grade III classification?
o the severity of the stridor/stertor
o the fact of fainting
o the length of history
o grade III collapse

Answer 698

o the severity of the stridor/stertor

Question 699

Which statement is correct?
o Dogs have preformed antibodies to DEA L1 blood group antigens
o The first transfusion is dangerous in dogs
o Dogs have preformed antibodies to blood group antigens DEA
o There are no preformed antibodies to blood group antigens in dogs

Answer 699

o There are no preformed antibodies to blood group antigens in dogs

Question 700

In the complex therapy of heartworm, the only adulticidal agent accepted by AHS is
o milbemycin oxime
o moxidectin
o melarsomine
o ivermectin

Answer 700

o melarsomine

Question 701

The recommended time of the last combined primary vaccine in the primary
vaccination series of the pup
o 16 weeks of age
o 14 weeks of age
o 12 weeks of age
o 10 weeks of age

Answer 701

o 16 weeks of age

Question 702

What is the correct frequency of chest compression during resuscitation?
o 100-120 / min
o 50-60 / min
o 10-12 / min
o 150-200 / min

Answer 702

o 100-120 / min

Question 703

Prognath bite is normal:
o siamese cat, bulldog, pug persian
o cat, bulldog, boxer, pug
o griffon, springer spaniel boxer,
o sheltie, puli, bulldog

Answer 703

o cat, bulldog, boxer, pug

Question 704

Where can I get blood to measure my blood sugar?
o Ear skin
o oral Mucous membrane
o Both
o None

Answer 704

o Both

Question 705

Which of the following cannot be administered subcutaneously?
o Microchip
o Crystalloid infusion
o Hormone implant
o Glucose-containing injections

Answer 705

o Glucose-containing injections

Question 706

If a wound infection is suspected
o Treat the surface with a concentrated cytotoxic agent B
o Bacterial culture and antibiotic resistance testing should be performed
o The affected area should be surgically excised
o The wound should be sprayed with rocking powder and covered with a
bandage

Answer 706

o Bacterial culture and antibiotic resistance testing should be performed

Question 707

Which instrument is not a member of the abdominal surgical instrument kit?
o Balfour wound dressing
o Doyen pliers
o Finochietto wound dressing
o Atraumatic forceps

Answer 707

o Finochietto wound dressing

Question 708

Closed system blood collection
o for mandatory blood count
o for BHB measurement
o for ammonia measurement
o for fructosamine measurement

Answer 708

o for mandatory blood count

Question 709

•Absorbable suters are generally NOT used for which of the followings?

• İntestinal sutures
• Ligation of the overs
• Skin sutures
• Subcuticular sutures

Answer 709

• Skin sutures

Question 710

• Needle holders. Mark the incorrect statement!
- Needle holders grasp and manipulate straight needles.
- Long needle Holders faninternal
facilitate working in deep wounds
- Tungsten carbide inserts city re reposed when they false holdaway meprovetoly
- Mayo-Heyar needis holders are commonly used in small antral veterinaly menic

Answer 710

• Needle holders grasp and manipulate straight needles.

Question 711

• Retractors. Mark the incorrect statement!

• Retractors are used to retract tissue and improve visualization
• The ends of handheld retractors may be booked, curved spatula shaped, of mouthed.
• Retractors can be divided into two groups fandroid and sell retaining.
• Self retaining retractors may be bent by the surgeon.

Answer 711

• Self retaining retractors may be bent by the surgeon.

Question 712

• Which of the following blood pressure (in mmHg) is the critical value of
central nervous system blood flow maintenance in shock?
- 70
- 60
- 50
- 40

Answer 712

• 60

Question 713

• Which statement is incorrect concerning congenital diaphragmatic
hernias?
- They take 5 to 10% of diaphragmatic hernias
- Hiatus hernia has basically 2 different forms axial and para esophageal
- The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited
- The peritoneopericardial hernia is due to the impaired development of septum transversum.

Answer 713

• The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited

Question 714

• echocardiography:

• Uses ionizing radiation
• Detects electrical activity of the heart
• Is an ultrasound based imaging method
• Is not a real time imaging method (except 4D echocardiography)

Answer 714

• Is an ultrasound based imaging method

Question 715

• Echocardiographic standard planes are:

• Different in all species
• Used in cardiology in image the heart
• Depending on heart rate
• Not use in echocardiography

Answer 715

• Used in cardiology in image the heart

Question 716

• Why we can reduce preload dramatically in heart failure?

• Because reducing preload during heart failure does not lead to arrhythmia
• Because in heart failure reducing preload hardly reduces cardiac output
• Because the survival of heart failure animals is so short that we have nothing to fear
• Because the afterload will offset the reduction of the preload anyway

Answer 716

• Because the survival of heart failure animals is so short that we have nothing to fear

Question 717

• Which is the first compensation during heart failure?

• The renin angiotensin-aldosterone system is activated
• Processes that reduce plasma volume are initiated
• The peripheral blood vessel’s dilate
• Heart rate increases

Answer 717

• Heart rate increases

Question 718

• What medicine should be given to a dog with grade B1 mitral valve
disease (MMVD)?
- ACE inhibitor
- Pimobendan
- Furosemide
- None of them

Answer 718

• None of them

Question 719

• Lidocaine and mexitil may be used:

• For the treatment of the silent atrium
• For the treatment of ventricular tachycardia
• For the treatment of 3rd-degree AV block
• For the treatment of junctional tachycardia

Answer 719

• For the treatment of ventricular tachycardia

Question 720

• The most recommended drug combination for the chronic treatment of
congestive heart failure:
- ACE Inhibitor spironolactone
- ACE inhibitor plus digoxin
- Furosemide plus pimobendan
- Furosemide plus spironolactone

Answer 720

• Furosemide plus pimobendan

Question 721

• Drugs with positive inotropic effects

• Ramiptil, amlodipin
• Digoxin, pimobendan
• Propranolol ,diltiazem
• Amiodarone, sotalol

Answer 721

• Digoxin, pimobendan

Question 722

• Biochemical parameter(s) important for the evaluation of chylous
effusions
- Cholesterol and triglyceride
- Creatinine concentration
- Total protein concentration
- LDH concentration

Answer 722

• Cholesterol and triglyceride

Question 723

•An effusion with less than 25 g/l total protein concentration is found in
the abdominal cavity and the total protein in the blood is less than 40g/l Which is the least
likely diagnosis?
- Kidney disease
- Liver disease
- Intestinal disease
- Heart failure

Answer 723

• Heart failure

Question 724

• Definitions of a grade 5/6 cardiac murmur

• A moderate intensity murmur with good audibility
• These murmur can be heard only in congenital heart disease
• A very strong murmur with precordial thrill
• A very strong murmur without precordial thrill

Answer 724

• A very strong murmur with precordial thrill

Question 725

•Which statement is true regarding macrocyclic lactones?

• Selamectine is the strongest microfilaricide drug
• Ivermectin is the strongest microfilaricide drug
• Moxidectin is the strongest microfilaricide drug
• Milbemycin is the strongest microfilaricide drug

Answer 725

• Ivermectin is the strongest microfilaricide drug

Question 726

• Tissue Forceps. Mark the incorrect statement!

• Tissue forceps are used to grasp tissue.
• Tissue forceps with large teeth should be used to handle tissue that is easily traumatized
• Tissue forceps are generally used in the nondominant hand.
• Tissue forceps are used to stabilise tissue and/orexpose tissue layers during suturing

Answer 726

• Tissue forceps with large teeth should be used to handle tissue that is easily traumatized

Question 727

• Which fingers are placed in the two rings of surgical hand tools?

• thumb /middle finger
• thumb/index finger
• index/ middle finger
• thumb/ring finger

Answer 727

• thumb/ring finger

Question 728

• Basic surgical instruments. Mark the incorrect statement!
- Their function can be separating, gripping, exploring and merging.
- The scalpel is held with fingertips in the case of long straight incisions and pencil grip in the
case of short, fine incisions.
- The Mayo-Hegar needle holder is held in the palm. The Mathieu needle holder is similar to
an artery forceps, but its jaw is designed to hold a needle
- Scissors and artery forceps are held with the tips of the thumb and ring finger through the
finger rings and with the index finger resting on the shanks.

Answer 728

• The Mayo-Hegar needle holder is held in the palm. The Mathieu needle holder is similar to
  an artery forceps, but its jaw is designed to hold a needle

Question 729

•Which abdominal fluid to plasma creatinine ratio is diagnostic for
uroperitoneum?
- one to one
- two to one
- three to one
- one to two

Answer 729

• one to two

Question 730

•Scissors. Mark the incorrect statement!

• Scissors come in a variety of shapes and sizes.
• Scissors are classified according to the type of point and blade shape.
• Metzenbaum scissors are designed for dissection.
• Mayo scissors are used for dissection.

Answer 730

• Mayo scissors are used for dissection.