PQs from screen recording Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

What is the ideal temperature for aflatoxin production

A

28–30 °C

Aflatoxins are toxic secondary metabolites produced primarily by Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus. These fungi thrive and produce the highest levels of aflatoxins under warm (around 28–30 °C) and humid conditions. This is why aflatoxin contamination is a serious concern in tropical and subtropical regions.

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2
Q

Rumen metabolite of zearalenone is more/less toxic than original compound?

A

The correct answer is:

less toxic metabolite produced than the original

Zearalenone is a mycotoxin with estrogenic effects, produced mainly by Fusarium species. In ruminants, the rumen microbiota is capable of metabolizing zearalenone into derivatives such as α-zearalenol and β-zearalenol. Among these, β-zearalenol is less toxic than the original compound, while α-zearalenol can be more potent, but overall, the rumen generally reduces the toxicity of zearalenone compared to monogastric animals.

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3
Q

Tricotecen mycotoxins:

A

T-2 toxin, HT-2 toxin, DAS (diacetoxyscirpenol), DON (deoxynivalenol, vomitoxin), NIV (nivalenol)

Trichothecenes are a group of mycotoxins produced mainly by Fusarium species. They are classified into Type A and Type B trichothecenes, and common examples include:
Type A trichothecenes:
• T-2 toxin
• HT-2 toxin
• DAS (diacetoxyscirpenol)
Type B trichothecenes:
• DON (deoxynivalenol or vomitoxin)
• NIV (nivalenol)
• Fusarenon-X

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4
Q

Which sector is the largest emitter of greenhouse gas emission?

A

Energy

According to the IPCC and other global sources:
• The energy sector contributes roughly 73% of total global GHG emissions.
• Transportation: ~15%
• Agriculture (including livestock and crops): ~10–12%

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5
Q

Smallest emitter of greenhouse gas emissions

A

Chat gpt tells me its crop production but on video it’s seen that it’s wrong answer. So i guess they want livestock farming as answer even though on slides they put that it’s 3d largest emitter after energy and transportation. So i have no idea. To get correct point id put livestock farming

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6
Q

Is nitrogen dioxide
(NO2) a greenhouse gas?

A

no

Nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) is not classified as a greenhouse gas.
• It is a major air pollutant, contributing to smog and acid rain, and has harmful effects on human health and the environment.
• However, it does not significantly contribute to the greenhouse effect, which is caused by gases that trap heat in the atmosphere.

Main Greenhouse Gases include:
• Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
• Methane (CH₄)
• Nitrous oxide (N₂O) (note: not the same as NO₂!)
• Water vapor (H₂O)
• Fluorinated gases (e.g., HFCs, PFCs)

🔍 Important distinction:
• N₂O (nitrous oxide) → Greenhouse gas
• NO₂ (nitrogen dioxide) → Air pollutant, not a greenhouse gas

So the correct classification for NO₂ is: ❌ Not a greenhouse gas.

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7
Q

Is nitrous oxide (N2O) a greenhouse gas?

A

yes, and it has strong greenhouse effect, 300x stronger than CO2

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8
Q

How many categories are livestock byproducts classified ?

A

👉 3

Livestock byproducts are typically classified into three main categories:
1. Edible byproducts
– Examples: liver, kidney, heart, tongue, tripe, blood, etc.
2. Inedible byproducts
– Examples: hides/skins, hooves, horns, bones, hair, etc.
3. Pharmaceutical/industrial byproducts
– Examples: enzymes, hormones, gelatin, insulin, heparin, etc.

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9
Q

Protein meal of animal origin (meat, bone, blood, feather meal, etc.) prepared from animal waste classified as which class ?

A

Protein meal of animal origin (meat, bone, blood, feather meal, etc.) made from animal waste classified in the first and second classes must not be used for feeding to farm animals

According to EU regulations (and many similar international standards), animal by-products are classified into three categories based on their risk level:
1. Category 1 – High risk (e.g. animals with TSEs, pets, zoo animals)
❌ Not allowed for animal feed at all.
2. Category 2 – Medium risk (e.g. manure, animals that died other than by slaughter)
❌ Also not allowed for animal feed.
3. Category 3 – Low risk (e.g. parts of animals fit for human consumption but not used)
✅ Can be used in some animal feeds (with restrictions, especially for non-ruminants).

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10
Q

Subject to certain exceptions, the feeding to animals of processed animal protein derived from bodies or parts of bodies of animals of the same species shall be prohibited.

True/false

A

True

This refers to the ban on intra-species recycling (also known as the “cannibalism ban”) in EU and international regulations, especially following the BSE (mad cow disease) crisis.

Key points:
• Processed animal protein (PAP) is protein derived from animal tissues and used in animal feed.
• Intra-species feeding (e.g., feeding cattle PAP made from other cattle) is prohibited, to prevent disease transmission.
• Exceptions exist:
• For example, fish PAP can be fed to pigs or poultry, but not to other fish.
• Non-ruminant PAP cannot be fed to ruminants.

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11
Q

Is it permitted to feed farm animals with catering
& catering waste or feed containing or derived from such waste?

A

👉 Yes for animals kept for fur, but not for others

🔍 Why this is correct:

According to EU Regulation (EC) No 1069/2009, catering waste:
• ❌ Must NOT be fed to farm animals (those raised for food production like pigs, poultry, cattle, etc.)
• ✅ May be used under strict conditions for animals not intended for the food chain, such as fur animals (e.g., mink)
🧠 Summary:
• Farm animals (pigs, poultry, cattle) ➡️ ❌ No catering waste
• Fur animals (e.g., mink) ➡️ ✅ Permitted under regulated conditions

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12
Q

What must processes animal waste comply with from a microbiological point of view after cutting, heat and pressure treatment?

A

1g sample must not contain Clostridium perfringens and 25g sample must not contain Salmonella

According to EU standards for processed animal protein (PAP) — specifically under Regulation (EU) No 142/2011, which lays down the microbiological requirements for animal by-products — after processing (cutting, heat, pressure treatment), PAP must meet the following criteria:
• 1 g of the product must not contain Clostridium perfringens
• 25 g of the product must not contain Salmonella spp.

These tests are mandatory to ensure that processed animal proteins are microbiologically safe for use (e.g., in non-ruminant feed, fertilizers, or pet food), and to prevent the spread of zoonotic and feed-borne diseases.

1 g – no Clostridium perfringens
25 g – no Salmonella spp.

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13
Q

What does psychometria do?

A

By measuring the physical and thermodynamic characteristics of gas-water mixtures

Psychrometry (or psychrometria) is the science of studying the thermodynamic properties of gas–vapor mixtures, most commonly air and water vapor.

It involves measuring and analyzing properties such as:
• Temperature
• Humidity (relative and absolute)
• Dew point
• Wet-bulb and dry-bulb temperatures
• Enthalpy
• Vapor pressure

These measurements are essential in:
• HVAC (Heating, Ventilation, Air Conditioning) systems
• Animal housing and welfare studies (e.g. understanding heat stress in livestock)
• Environmental control in agriculture

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14
Q

What instrument do we use to measure the velocity of airflow?

A

Anemometer

An anemometer is the instrument specifically designed to measure the velocity (speed) of airflow. It is commonly used in:
• Meteorology
• Ventilation and HVAC systems
• Animal housing and environmental monitoring

❌ Other options explained:
• Turbometer – Not a standard or recognized instrument for airflow measurement.
• Barometer – Measures atmospheric pressure, not airflow.
• Pressure gauge – Measures pressure in fluids or gases, not velocity.

✅ Correct answer: Anemometer

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15
Q

Upper limit for CO2 concentration

A

0.3% (3000 ppm) in adult animal buildings, 0.2% (2000 ppm) in adult sheds

The upper limit for CO₂ concentration in animal housing is important for ensuring adequate ventilation and animal welfare. High levels of CO₂ can indicate poor air exchange, leading to:
• Respiratory stress
• Decreased productivity
• Increased risk of disease

Recommended limits:
• Adult animal buildings: 0.3% CO₂ = 3000 ppm
• Animal sheds or juvenile housing: 0.2% CO₂ = 2000 ppm

These are standard thresholds used in livestock facility design and welfare assessments across the EU and other regulatory systems.

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16
Q

Adequate value of NH3 in livestock buildings

A

< 50 ppm

Ammonia (NH₃) is a common gas found in livestock buildings, produced primarily from urine and feces. At high levels, it can:
• Irritate the respiratory tract of animals and humans
• Increase the risk of respiratory infections
• Lower overall animal welfare and productivity

Acceptable levels:
• Safe and acceptable concentration in livestock housing is generally below 25–50 ppm.
• Above 50 ppm is considered harmful with chronic exposure.

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17
Q

Which statement is typical for hydrogen sulphide (HS)?
1p /1p
Flammable and explosive
Toxic to animals and humans at higher concentrations
Heavier than air
All three are true

A

All three are true

Hydrogen sulfide (H₂S) is a dangerous gas commonly found in manure storage areas and poorly ventilated livestock buildings.

All of the following statements are correct:
1. Flammable and explosive
• H₂S is highly flammable and forms explosive mixtures with air.
2. Toxic to animals and humans at higher concentrations
• Even at low concentrations, it can cause eye and respiratory irritation.
• At higher concentrations, it can lead to unconsciousness or death.
3. Heavier than air
• H₂S is denser than air, so it tends to accumulate in low-lying areas, like manure pits.

18
Q

Why is methane a concern for cattle farmers?

A

Because 12–14% of the daily energy intake is lost from the animal’s body through methane without utilization

In ruminants like cattle, methane (CH₄) is produced during enteric fermentation — a natural digestive process where microbes break down fibrous feed in the rumen.
• This methane is eructated (burped) out and represents a significant energy loss for the animal.
• It’s estimated that 12–14% of the energy from feed is lost as methane, which could otherwise be used for growth, milk production, or maintenance.
• This is economically important to farmers, because it reduces feed efficiency and overall productivity.

19
Q

Best definition of PLF

A

Professional management of livestock, based on continuous, real-time monitoring of production, fertility, state of health, animal welfare and animal reactions to changes in the environment

PLF stands for Precision Livestock Farming. It refers to:
• The use of advanced technologies (e.g., sensors, cameras, automated feeders, wearables)
• To enable real-time monitoring and data collection
• Covering key parameters such as:
• Production (milk yield, weight gain)
• Fertility
• Health status
• Animal welfare
• Behavior and reactions to environmental changes

This approach allows better decision-making, early detection of problems, and optimization of animal performance and welfare.

20
Q

What is the importance of digital and automated weighing in poultry farming?

  • Reduced need for live labor
  • It provides real-time, accurate information about the body weight of birds in the barn, so you can determine the date of harvesting
  • Bird injuries caused by human weighing can be eliminated
  • all three
A

All three are true

Digital and automated weighing systems in poultry farming offer several key benefits:
1. ✅ Reduced need for live labor
• Manual weighing is labor-intensive. Automation saves time and reduces labor costs.
2. ✅ Real-time, accurate information
• Continuous body weight monitoring allows for better decision-making about:
• Growth performance
• Feed efficiency
• Optimal harvesting time
3. ✅ Fewer bird injuries
• Manual handling during weighing can cause stress or injury to birds. Automation eliminates this risk by providing non-invasive measurements.

21
Q

Direct (animal to animal) transmission is typical for the following group of diseases

A

foot-and-mouth disease; Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae infection; porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus; swine influenza virus; Salmonella infection in poultry; Aujeszky disease; bovine respiratory disease complex

1.	**Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD)** – Highly contagious; spreads via direct contact, aerosols, and fomites.
2.	**Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae** infection – Spread through direct contact and aerosols between pigs.
3.	**Porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus (PEDV)** – Fecal-oral transmission, mostly by direct contact.
4.	**Swine influenza virus** – Spread via respiratory secretions, mainly by direct contact or droplets.
5.	**Salmonella infection in poultry** – Can spread through fecal contamination, often via direct contact or pecking behavior.
6.	**Aujeszky disease (Pseudorabies)** – Spread by direct contact, especially via oronasal secretions.
7.	**Bovine respiratory disease complex (BRDC)** – Involves multiple agents; direct animal contact and aerosols are typical routes of transmission.

❌ Why the other groups are incorrect:
• Q fever, tuberculosis, cysticercosis, Aspergillus, avian influenza → Not all primarily spread by direct contact (many involve aerosols, vectors, or environmental contamination).
• Cysticercosis, Q fever, tuberculosis → Often indirectly transmitted via intermediate hosts, vectors, or ingestion, not typically direct animal-to-animal.

22
Q

Poultry diseases with vertical mode of spread

A

Salmonella infection; Mycoplasma spp. (synoviae, gallisepticum) infection; avian encephalomyelitis

These poultry diseases are all known to have vertical transmission, meaning they can be passed from parent to offspring via the egg.

❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
• Marek disease – Not vertically transmitted; it spreads via inhalation of feather dander.
• Fowl pox – Spread via mosquitoes or direct contact, not vertical.
• Escherichia coli infection – Primarily horizontal transmission; while egg contamination can happen, it’s not considered true vertical transmission.
• Pasteurella, Clostridium perfringens – Spread via horizontal contact or environment, not vertically.
• Newcastle disease virus – Vertical transmission is rare or not significant in its epidemiology.

23
Q

How would you describe iodophors

A

They have powerful cleaning effect

❌ Incorrect options:
• “Most effective above 40°C”
❌ False – Iodophors are effective at room temperature (~20–25°C). Higher temperatures may destabilize the iodine complex.
• “Not inactivated by organic debris”
❌ False – Like many disinfectants, iodophors can be inactivated by high levels of organic matter, such as manure or blood.
• “pH optimum is above pH 6”
❌ False – Iodophors are more effective in acidic conditions. Their optimal pH is below 6, as iodine is less stable and less effective at higher pH levels.

24
Q

First step of barns disinfection

A

Dry cleaning

•	Dry cleaning — removing all organic matter, dust, manure, feed residues by sweeping, scraping, or vacuuming.

This is crucial because:
• Organic material interferes with disinfectants and reduces their effectiveness.
• Without removing the bulk of dirt first, wet cleaning and disinfection will be less effective.

The sequence typically is:
1. Dry cleaning (remove solids and debris)
2. Soaking / wet cleaning (to loosen and remove remaining dirt)
3. High-pressure washing (to thoroughly clean surfaces)
4. Disinfection (chemical or gas)

25
Glutaraldehyde
• Glutaraldehyde is not classified as strongly carcinogenic. While it is a potent chemical and can be an irritant or sensitizer, it is not strongly carcinogenic. • It is not highly corrosive to plastics and rubber; in fact, glutaraldehyde is often preferred because it is less corrosive than other disinfectants and generally safe for equipment. • Soaps and detergents do not neutralize glutaraldehyde easily; it requires thorough rinsing but is stable in presence of some detergents.
26
Which is the one true statement? - Another name for glyoxal is glutaraldehyde. - Hydrogen peroxide is often used in combination with peracetic acid. - ATP analysis can replace CFU analysis. - All statements true.
**Hydrogen peroxide is often used in combination with peracetic acid.** • Another name for glyoxal is glutaraldehyde — False Glyoxal and glutaraldehyde are different chemicals with distinct structures and properties. • Hydrogen peroxide is often used in combination with peracetic acid — True This combination is common in disinfectants because peracetic acid is produced from hydrogen peroxide and acetic acid, enhancing antimicrobial efficacy. • ATP analysis can replace CFU analysis — False ATP analysis measures organic residues rapidly but does not identify or quantify specific microbes like CFU (colony-forming unit) counts, so it cannot replace CFU analysis fully.
27
Clostridium perfrigens usually transmitted vertically/horizontally?
Horizontally via ingestion of spores from the environment or contaminated feed
28
Is ASF a disease of high public health importance? What its causing agent?
No, a it’s not a zoonotic disease. Causing agent: ASF virus
29
Function of Clara cells
**neutralisation of the inhaled toxic substances** Clara cells (also called club cells) are found in the bronchioles of the lungs and have several important functions, primarily: • Detoxifying inhaled harmful substances by secreting enzymes that metabolize toxins and pollutants. • Secreting components of the lung surfactant. • Serving as progenitor (stem) cells for the bronchiolar epithelium. ⸻ Why other options are incorrect: • Immunoglobulin production in lung mucosa: Mostly done by plasma cells, not Clara cells. • Phagocytosis: Primarily a function of alveolar macrophages, not Clara cells. • Vasoactive peptide production: Not a primary function of Clara cells.
30
Wich is not detemining factor in the level/severity of environmental germ load?
**dysbiosis** • Number of germs, composition of the microflora, and virulence of the germs all directly affect the level and severity of environmental germ load and infection risk. • Dysbiosis refers to an imbalance of microbial communities inside a host’s body, especially in the gut, and is not a direct factor in environmental germ load.
31
Wich group of microbes requires the lowest (aw) for gradation?
**Storehouse moulds** • aw (water activity) is a measure of how much water is available for microbial growth. • Storehouse moulds (e.g., Aspergillus, Penicillium) are adapted to low-moisture environments such as stored grains, feed, and other dry products. They can grow at very low aw levels — sometimes as low as 0.65–0.70. • Field moulds require higher aw because they grow on crops in the field before harvest. • Yeasts typically need higher aw (around 0.88–0.90) to grow. • Viruses do not replicate independently in the environment and are not classified based on aw requirements since they need a host cell to reproduce.
32
CFU - ?
Colony-forming unit Helps to quantify microbial contamination of food, water, feed, etc
33
If there are obligate pathogens present in feeds…
**Feed is not allowed to use as feed** • The presence of obligate pathogens in feed is strictly prohibited because these pathogens can cause disease in animals. • Therefore, feed containing obligate pathogens cannot be used as animal feed under any conditions. • Heat treatment or dilution is not enough to guarantee safety if obligate pathogens are present
34
The indicator microorganisms in feeds.... - Represents direct health risk - Indicates the possible origin of the feed contamination - Approves the bacterial toxin contamination of feeds - Indicates the usability of feeds
**Indicates the possible origin of the feed contamination** Explanation: • Indicator microorganisms in feeds are used as markers to identify contamination sources or hygiene status. • They do not necessarily represent a direct health risk themselves but signal potential contamination. • They help in tracking contamination routes and assessing feed quality control. • They do not approve bacterial toxin contamination nor directly indicate feed usability.
35
Maximum storage time allowed for drinking water samples for bacteriological laboratory examination
**24 hours** Explanation: • Drinking water samples for bacteriological examination should ideally be analyzed within 24 hours of collection if stored properly at 0-4°C to ensure accurate results. • Delays beyond 24 hours can affect the viability of bacteria and lead to unreliable results.
36
How influencing the organic matter content of the water the effectiveness of sodium-hypochlorit as disinfectant
**decreases** • Organic matter in water reacts with sodium hypochlorite (a chlorine-based disinfectant), consuming the available free chlorine. • This reduces the disinfectant’s effectiveness because less free chlorine is available to kill pathogens. • Therefore, high organic matter decreases the disinfection efficiency of sodium hypochlorite.
37
Maximum storage time allowed for drinking water samples for bacteriological laboratory examination stored without cooling until analysis
**1 hour** • When drinking water samples are stored without cooling, bacteriological changes can occur quickly. • To maintain sample integrity, the maximum storage time without cooling before analysis should be 1 hour. • Beyond this time, bacterial growth or die-off can distort results.
38
Is official sampling of feeds obligatory?
Yes.
39
What is FRAS4 system used for?
**Measurement of the parameters of Oxidative stress (dROM, PAT, OSI) from blood** • The FRAS4 system is a diagnostic tool used to measure oxidative stress markers in biological samples like blood. • It assesses parameters such as dROM (reactive oxygen metabolites), PAT (plasma antioxidant test), and OSI (oxidative stress index). • It is not used for measuring particulate matter, disinfection effectiveness, or water activity.
40
Biogenic amines
• Biogenic amines in feeds **originate from the decomposition of feed proteins by microbial activity** • They **indicate feed spoilage or deterioration** • Some biogenic amines can have direct **harmful effects** on animal health when consumed in high amounts.
41
What is the basic amino acid of cadaverine formation?
**lysine** • Cadaverine is a biogenic amine formed by the decarboxylation of the amino acid lysine. • Histidine forms histamine, tyrosine forms tyramine, and ornithine forms putrescine.