Practical 3 - Placentation and twinning Flashcards

1
Q

When and why does the placenta start to develop?

A

The beginning of week 4
- large increase in foetal demand

Major change at week 9
-increased SA to facilitate exchange - villi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

From which cell line does the placenta develop

A

Trophoblast and extraembryonic mesoderm (chorionic plate) = foetal component

Uterine endometrium = maternal components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the difference between cytotrophoblast and syncitiotrophoblast

A

Cytotrophoblast
- inner layer - invades spiral arteries

Syncitiotrophoblast
-epithlial covering of highly vascular embryonic placnetal villi - invade uterus

Outer layer of embryo = cytotrophoblast, syncitiotrophobalst, intermediate mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the layers of amniotic sac

A

amnion - foetal side
Chorion - outermost foetal mmbr (trophoblast & extraembryonic; mesoderm)

Decidua basalis: maternal side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many vessels does the umbilical cord contain

A

2 x Umbilical artery
= supply deoxygenated blood of foetus to placenta

1 x umbilical vein - oxygenated blood - placenta –> embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the features of the normal full term placenta

A

MATERNAL SIDE
15-20 cotyledons (spiral arteries drain into these)
- due to septum formation in decidua)
-septa have core of maternal tissue and coating of syncitial cells
-keeps maternal blood in intervillous lakes and separate from foetal villi

FOETAL SIDE

  • covered by chorionic plate
  • chorionic vessels –> umbilical cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the hormonal functions of the placenta

A

End of fourth month - sufficient progestrone to support pregnancy

First two months - hCG - maintains corpus luteum - probabaly synthesized in syncitiotrophoblast

Oestrogenic hormones - estriol

Somatotropin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where does gas exchange occur in the placenta

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What substances can cross the placenta

A
O2
CO2
Hormones 
Amino acids
Carbohydrates 
Free fatty acids
Maternal antibodies - IgG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three foetal shunts, when does each close

A

Foramen ovale

Ductus Venosus

  • Shunt from left umbilical vein to IVC
  • Bypasses liver
  • Closes 3-7 days post-natally

Ductus Arteriosus
-closes approximately 1 day post-natally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What becomes of the umbilical vein

A

Remains open at birth - closes in first week

Obliterates –> ligamentum venosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the incidence of PDA

A

8/10,000

Normally, contraction of muscular wall after birth –> ligamentum arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why are NSAIDs contraindicated in late pregnancy

A

Ass. w/ risk of premature closure of FDA and oligohydramnios
- inhibit COX1/2 - rate limiting enzymes for prostaglandins synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a hyatidiform mole

A

Molar pregnancy

  • diploid - only paternal chromosomes
  • abnormal blastocyst (hypoplasia) - some syncitiotrophobalst only
  • blastocyst demise, trophoblast develops

Placental mmbr with little/no embyro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the genetics of a molar pregnancy suggest

A

Paternal genes regulate trophoblast development

Formed by fertilisation of oocyte with no nuleus , duplication of male chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the RF for molar pregnancy, how common is it?

A

1/1000

previous molar preg
Age < 20, >35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do you detect a molar pregnancy

A

USS- snowstorm

Bloods - hCG Raised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What might molar pregnancy progress to

A

Ectopic choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is placenta previa and its RF

A

Low lying placenta
1/200

>1 child
C section 
Uterine surgery
Multiple pregnancy
Cocaine 
Smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the complications of placenta previa

A

Haemorrhage
Maternal and foetal death
Preterm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is placenta detected prenatally and managed

A

USS

Mx-

  • depends on amount of bleeding, if it stops, maternal health, foetal health
  • C section
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is placenta accreta, what are the RF

A

absence of decidua basalis
Placental attachment to myometrium

RF:

  • Previous uterine surgery
  • Placental position (placenta previa)
23
Q

What are the consequences of placenta accreta

A

Post natal haemorrhage
-DIC, ARDS

Prem birth

24
Q

What is placental abruption, what are the RF

A

Partial placental detachment from myometrium
1/200

RF:

  • Smoking
  • Preeclampsia
  • Prior abruption
  • Trauma
  • Cocaine
  • Previous section
25
How does placental abruption present
Acutely - Sudden onset abdo pain - Contractions (continuous) - PV bleed - Enlarged uterus disproportionate to gestational age - Decreased foetal movement and HR
26
How is placental abruption managed
<36 weeks No signs of foetal or maternal distress Monitor in hospital If foetus mature, foetal or maternal distress --> immediate delivery
27
What is vasa previa and its incidence
1/1200 - 1/5000 | Blood vessels unprotectd by placental tissue or umbilical cord
28
How is vasa previa detected and managed
Vaginal exam - pulsating foetal vessels in internal os OR -Dark PV bleed & foetal compromise Urgent delivery -60% mortality if PV bleed - foetal compromise
29
What is the prognosis for Vasa Previa
If diagnosed antenatally - 95% survival If undetected - likely rupture
30
What is preeclampsia
HTN & proteinuria in pregnancy ~5%
31
What are the risk factors of preeclampsia
``` Pre-existing HTN SLE or Anti-phospholipid syndrome Previous Hx FHx >40yrs d >= 10 yrs between pregnancy BMI >= 35 ```
32
What are the signs and symptoms of preeclampsia
Symptoms - headache - confusion - Hx Convulsion - Respiratory symptoms - Visual disturbances - N&V Signs - RUQ pain - Decreased urine output
33
What is HELLP syndrome
Haemolysis Elevated Liver Enzymes Low Platelets ``` Fatigue Headache nausea RUQ PAIN SEIZURES ``` Associated with preeclampsia/eclampsia Pathophysiology unknown - endothelial cell injury Severe form of preeclampsia
34
What is the major underlying cause of preeclampsia
Incomplete differentiation of cytotrophoblast cells - many don’t undergo epithelial to endothelial transformation Rudimentary invasion of spiral arteries
35
What is eclampsia and how is it managed
1/2000 Convulsive condition associated with pre-eclampsia - complication of severe preeclampsia - new onset of grand mal seizure activity - typically occurs > 20 weeks gestation - 80% intrapartum or >48hours post partum Mx: - severe preeclampsia -MgSO4 - prevention - HTN- maintain above 130/90 (placental perfusion) - seizure - diazepam
36
What is cord prolapse, how is it managed
Cord protrudes into vagina Knee to chest position - shift foetus out of pelvis - globes hand to push foetus upwards
37
What is monozygotic twinning? | How might the membranes by arranged?
Twins derived from same oocyte - identical twins Diamniotic dichorionic Diamniotic monochorionic Monoamniotic monochorionic
38
What is dizygotic twinning?
Fraternal twinning - 90% - 2 embryos from 2 separate ova, fertilised by 2 sperm
39
Which type of twinning is most dangerous
Monozygotic monochorionic monoamniotic | - cord entaglement
40
Why are the cotyledons inspected
Retained placental tissue
41
What are complications of multiple pregnancy
TTTS PRETERM gestational HTN and diabetes
42
What types of conjoined twins are most common
Thoracopagus - 20-40% Omphalopagus - 13-33% Pyopagus - 18-28%
43
What is foetal hydrops
Accumulation of fluid in two or more compartments Jaundice Haemolytic disease of the newborn
44
What is haemolytic disease of the newborn
Rhesus +ve infant, rhesus -ve mother Mixing of blood Sensitisation of maternal immune system Anti-D antibodies Maternal antibodies to foetal RBCs cause lysis of the RBC and anaemia
45
How is haemolytic disease of the newborn prevented
Screen for Rhesus status and test for Anti-D antibodies to see if mother has been previously sensitised. Rh -ve women - Rh immunoglobulins at 28 weeks gestation
46
What is the oxygen saturation of umbilical vein
80%
47
What is the oxygen saturation of the umbilical arteries
58%
48
When does the ductus venosus close
A few minutes post-natally, functional closure Actual obliteration 2-3 months post-natally
49
When does the foramen ovale close
Properly fuses about 1 year after birth, although mostly closed immediately
50
When does the ductus arteriosus close
Almost immediately -mediated by bradykinin complete obliteration is thought to take 1-3 months
51
What is the incidence of patent foramen ovale
25%
52
What is the most and least common arrangment of mmbr
MOST: Monochorionic, diamniotic (Splitting at early blastocyst) Diamniotic, dichorionic LEAST: -monoamniotic, monochorionic (splitting at bilaminar disc stage)
53
What are some complciations of twins in utero
``` Cord entanglement TTS Twin reversed arterial perfusion Abnormal amount of amniotic fluid Vanishing twin Conjoined twin Foetus in fetu ```