Practical I Flashcards

1
Q

McMurray Test

A

tests the medial and lateral menisci

one hand on the heel, one hand on the knee;
flex the knee;
extend the knee while
- medial meniscus: external rotation of knee
- lateral meniscus: internal rotation of knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Anterior Drawers Test

A

tests the anterior collateral ligament

feet flat, knees flexed, hands on the tibia, pull forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Posterior Drawers Test

A

tests the posterior collateral ligament

feet flat, knees flexed, hands on the tibia, push backward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lachman Test

A

tests anterior collateral ligament

one hand on distal femur, one hand on proximal tibia, pull femur up and push tibia down, vice versa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Valgus Test

A

tests medial collateral ligament

one hand on heel, one hand on lateral femur, abduct ankle and push femur medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Varus Test

A

tests lateral collateral ligament

one hand on heel, one hand on medial femur, adduct ankle and push femur laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Thompson Squeeze Test

A

tests Achilles tendon

foot hangs off table, toes pointed down, squeeze calf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cross Body Shoulder Adduction Test

A

tests adhesive capsulitis and rotator cuff

cross arm over chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Apley Scratch Test

A

tests adhesive capsulitis and rotator cuff

touch opposite scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Painful Arc Test

A

tests Subacromial Impingement/Rotator Cuff Tendinitis Disorder

abduct arm 180 degrees

positive = pain 60-120 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Neer Impingement Test

A

tests Subacromial Impingement/Rotator Cuff Tendinitis Disorder

hand on scapula, raise arm up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hawkins Impingement Test

A

tests Subacromial Impingement/Rotator Cuff Tendinitis Disorder

flex shoulder 90 degrees, palm pronated, rotate internally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

External Rotation Lag Test

A

tests supraspinatus and infraspinatus disorder

arm flexed 90 degrees, fully externally rotate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Internal Rotation Lag Test

A

tests subscapularis disorder

dorsum of hand on lower back, pull arm off back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Drop Arm Test

A

tests Supraspinatus Tear or Bicipital Tendinitis

abduct shoulder 90 degrees, release arm

positive = weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

External Rotation Resistance Test

A

tests infraspinatus disorder

adduct and flex arm, thumbs up, resist inward pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Empty Can Test

A

tests supraspinatus/rotator cuff tear

thumbs down, resist downward pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Finkelstein Test

A

tests de Quervain’s tenosynovitis

grasp thumb against palm and rotate downwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hand Grip Test

A

tests hand grip

grasp 2nd and 3rd fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Thumb Abduction Test

A

tests carpal tunnel

resist downward pressure on thumb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tinel Sign Test

A

tests carpal tunnel

tap median nerve of wrist

positive = numbness, tingling of fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Phalen Test

A

tests carpal tunnel

dorsum of hands touching each other, hold for 60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

why is getting a good history key

A

to address the patient’s needs and concerns

therapeutic relationship with patients

best clinical decision making for each patient

more effective in achieving outcomes

in up to 90% cases, can figure out diagnoses from history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

interview skills include:

A

open-ended questions

active listening

empathic responses

expanding/clarifying questions

nonverbal communication

summarization

transitions

empowering patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

amish wives don’t generally interact with

A

male physicians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

muslim females tend not to

A

shake hands with male physicians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

identifying cultural humility helps to

A

create a better rapport with patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

people whose gender identity doesn’t correspond to their birth-assigned sex and/or stereotypes associated with that sex

A

transgender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

HPI stands for ___ and details ___

A

History of Present Illness;

chief complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

7 attributes of symptom

A
O - onset
P - position, palliating/provoking factors
Q - quality
R - radiation
S - site, severity
T - timing
A - associated symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

normal vital signs include:

A

temperature: 97-99 F

respiratory rate: 12-20 breaths per min

heart rate: 60-100 bpm

blood pressure: 120/80 - 140/90

SpO2 (pulse ox): 95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

core temperature is ideally measured in ___ but is not practical unless patient is ___

A

arterial line;

critically ill and in the ICU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

rectal temperature is considered

A

core temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

oral, axillary, tympanic, temporal temperature readings can have

A

room for error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

locations to check heart rate/pulse

A
radial
carotid
brachial
femoral
dosalis pedis
medial malleolus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

check for respiratory rate

A

visual inspection

listening on chest or neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

respiratory distress =

A

abdominal muscle use + tachypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Kussmaul breathing is characterized by ___ and can occur in patients with ___

A
deep, rapid, and labored breathing;
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

stethoscope diaphragm is used for

A

high-pitched sounds, firm pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

stethoscope bell is used for

A

low-pitched sounds, light pressure (blood pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

how to measure bp accurately

A
correct BP cuff size (length and width),
patient sits and relaxes,
brachial artery at heart level,
right arm is most proximal to the heart,
auscultatory gap
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

normal oxygen saturation

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

reflex hammer is used on

A
biceps, 
triceps,
brachialis,
patellar tendon,
achilles tendon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

visual acuity of 20/200 means

A

person at 20 feet can read print that a person with normal vision can read at 200 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

keep the eye chart card ___ from eye

A

15 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

name of eye chart

A

Snellen eye chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

tuning forks are used to check for

A

air/bone conduction and lateralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

tuning fork tests include

A

Weber Test

Renne Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

a ___ is a head to toe assessment and ___ of a patient that includes the patient’s ___

A

general survey;
observation;
appearance and demeanor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

a general survey includes:

A
general appearance,
apparent state of health,
level of consciousness,
signs of distress,
skin color / obvious lesions,
grooming / personal hygiene,
facial expressions,
odors,
posture,
gait / motor activity,
height / weight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

apparent state of health includes:

A

acute vs chronically ill, frail, fit, robust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

level of consciousness includes:

A

awake, alert, responsive to u and others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

signs of distress include:

A

cardiac/respiratory - clutching of chest, pallor, diaphoresis, labored breathing/wheezing

pain - wincing, sweating, protecting areas, facial grimacing

anxiety - fidgety, cold/moist palms, inexpressive, flat affect, poor eye contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

skin color / obvious lesions include:

A

pallor (pale skin), cyanosis (blue skin), jaundice (yellow skin), rashes, bruises, lesions, tattoos/piercings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

grooming / personal hygiene include:

A

dressed - weather appropriate, clean, holes, excessive (covering rashes, marks, anorexia, pregnancy)

unusual jewelry - piercings, copper bracelets (arthritis)

hair/nails - unkept (depression, dementia, psychosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

facial expressions include:

A

observe at rest, during conversation about specific topics, during PE, in interaction with others

eye contact (sustained, unblinking, averted quickly, absent)

flat affect, immobile face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

odors include:

A

fruity/alcohol/acetone, uremia, liver failure, infections, GI bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

posture, gait, motor activity include:

A

preferred posture (sitting upright - Lsided heart failure, learning forward with arms braced - COPD)

restless v quiet

involuntary motor activity, immobile body parts

walking smoothly, comfortably, confidently, balanced, limping, fear of falling, loss of balance, other movement disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

height and weight include:

A

v short stature - genetic disorders / anomalies

long limbs in proportion to trunk - genetic disorders

height loss - bone disorders

generalized fat - obesity

truncal fat with thin limbs - endocrine disorders

weight loss - cancer, endocrine disorders, infection, depression, diabetes, successful dieting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

initial systematic clinical evaluation and examination of the patient

A

history and physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

starting point of the patient’s story as to why they sought medical attention

A

history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

physical exam that follows history

A

physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

SOAP stands for

A

Subjective
Objective
Assessment
Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

observations that are verbally expressed by the patient

A

Subjective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

the Subjective includes:

A
chief complaint
HPI
Past Medical History
Past Surgical History
Social History
Family History
Allergies
Medications
Review of Systems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

the reason for the visit stated in patient’s own words

A

chief complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

chronological description of the development of the present illness from the first sign/symptom

A

History of Present Illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

included in and HPI

A
onset
location
duration
quality
aggravating and alleviating factors
radiation
treatment
severity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

onset

A

when did the symptoms start?

what was the pt doing at the time the symptoms started?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

location

A

what is the location of the pain? (point to it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

radiation

A

does the pain/symptom go anywhere else?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

duration / time

A

how long did the symptom last?

is it constant or does it diminish? How long does it last / go away for?

does it hurt right now?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

quality / characteristics

A

description of the symptom (sharp, throbbing, stabbing, aching, pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

aggravating / provoking factors

A

what makes it worse?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

alleviating / palliating factors

A

what makes it better?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

treatment

A

have you tried something to help the symptoms?

have you sought medical attention before today?

has this happened before? what helped with it previously?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

severity

A

on a scale of 1-10, how bad is it?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

affiliated symptoms

A

are there any other symptoms associated with the CC?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

past medical history (PMH)

A

onset of previous diagnosis

where was it diagnosed / who is treating it

previous treatment for the diagnosis

what was the severity of it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

past surgical history (PSH)

A

age of pt during procedure

where and who performed it

why? any complications with the surgery?

any follow ups?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

social history (SH)

A

Drug history (alcohol, tobacco, marijuana) - how often? when was the last? hospitalization for withdrawal?

occupation

sexual history - currently sexually active? have you ever been? how many sex partners? men, women, both? do u use protection against STDs? what kind? how often?

recent travel - where, when, how (car, plane)?

diet and exercise - what does diet consist of? how often do u eat? do u exercise? how often? what kind?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

family history (FH)

A

only relevant to blood relatives - relation to pt, what conditions, alive or deceased, age of diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

allergies (All)

A

include allergen and reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

medications (Meds)

A

all prescription and non-prescription medications patient is taking - dosage, administration, frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

review of systems (ROS)

A

constitutional symptoms (fever, weight change, chills, night sweats, fatigue, malaise)

eyes (eye pain, swelling, redness, foreign body, discharge, vision changes)

ENT/mouth (hearing changes, ear pain, nasal congestion, sinus pain, hoarseness, sore throat, rhinorrhea, swallowing difficulty)

cardiovascular (chest pain, SOB, PND (feeling suffocated during strenuous activity), claudication, edema, palpitations)

respiratory (cough, sputum, wheezing, smoke exposure)

GI (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, pain, heartburn, anorexia, dysphagia, melena, flatulence, jaundice)

genitourinary (urinary frequency, hematuria, urinary incontinence, urgency, flank pain, urinary flow changes, hesitancy)

musculoskeletal (joint swelling / stiffness, back pain, neck pain, injury history)

skin (lesions, hair changes, breast/skin changes, nipple discharge)

neuro (weakness, numbness, loss of consciousness, dizziness, headache, coordination changes, recent falls)

psych (anxiety / panic, depression, insomnia, personality changes, delusions, social issues, memory changes, violence/abuse history, eating concerns)

endocrine (temperature intolerance)

heme/lymph (bruising, bleeding, transfusion history)

allergic/immunologic (hives, itching, seasonal / environmental allergies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

physician findings on the patient

A

vital signs (temp, HR, BP, RR, SpO2, ht, wt, BMI)

gen survey (acute distress, conversant, pleasant, cooperative, appears stated age)

PE (HEENT, CV, Pulmo, ab, extrem, neuro, MSK, GU, Skin, Psych, OMM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

A&O

A

mental status - alert and oriented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

alert contains

A

awake and alert vs sleepy, drowsy, lethargic, unresponsive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

oriented contains

A

person (name/DOB), time (today’s date), place (where r u), and situation (why r u here)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Assessment

A

list of problems, diagnosis, system based

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Plan

A

tests, imaging, medications, OMT, referrals/consults, follow-up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

hand hygiene with alcohol based hand rub should be performed when

A

before touching pt

before exiting pt’s care are after touching pt or environment

contact with blood, fluids, wound dressing

after glove removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

use soap and water when

A

hands are visibly soiled (blood) or after caring for pt with known/suspected disease (diarrhea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

standard precautions include

A

hand hygiene, PPE, safe injection practices, safe handling of contaminated equip or surfaces, respiratory hygiene and cough etiquette, patient isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

universal precautions include

A

prevent parenteral, mucous membrane, and noncontact exposures to bloodborne pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

4 cardinal techniques of examination

A
  • inspection
  • auscultation
  • percussion
  • palpation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

close observation of details of pt’s appearance, behavior, movement (facial expression, mood, body habits) and conditioning (skin, eye, gait)

A

inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

use of diaphragm and bell of stethoscope to hear heart, lung, bowel sounds (location, timing, duration, pitch, intensity)

A

auscultation

99
Q

use of striking / plexor finger to deliver rapid tap or blow against distal pleximeter finger to evoke sound wave (resonance / dullness from underlying tissue / organs)

A

percussion

100
Q

tactile pressure from fingerpads to assess areas of skin elevation, depression, warmeth, tenderness, oulses, contours and sizes of organs

A

palpation

101
Q

sequence of PE

A

head to toe, right to left

102
Q

PE for newborns

A

APGAR: 5 components to classify the neurologic recovery from the stress of birth and immediate adaptation to extrauterine life

birth weight, feeding (breast/formula), jaundice

examine fontanelles (bulging - increased intracranial pressure; depressed - dehydration)

reflexes, hips (Barlow and Ortolani Test)

103
Q

PE for infants

A

examine in parent’s lap, head to toe can be out of order, developmental milestones, congenital heart murmurs, hips

104
Q

PE for adolescents

A

puberty, scoliosis, mental health, addiction, sexual behavior

105
Q

reflects analysis of the pt’s health status and documents the unique features of the pt’s history, exam, lab / test results, assessment, and plan in formal written format

A

clinical record

106
Q

ionizing radiation and light strikes a photosensitive surface = latent image that is processed to get visible image

A

Xray

107
Q

xray is the source of

A

invisible electromagnetic radiation

108
Q

discovered by Wilhelm Roentgen in 1895

A

Xray

109
Q

PACS

A

picture archiving, communications, and storage system

110
Q

allows digital archiving

A

PACS

111
Q

pros of xray:

A

inexpensive, easy to perform

112
Q

cons of xray:

A

limiting range of densities, ionizing radiation

113
Q

radiographic densities

A
darkest - air
black - fat
gray - soft tissue / fluid
silver - calcium / bone
white - metal
114
Q

absorbs all xrays

A

metal (bullets, barium)

115
Q

absorbs least xrays

A

air

116
Q

rule of twos

A
views
abnormalities
joints
sides
occasions
visits
opinion/specialists
investigations
117
Q

objects closer to the detector will appear

A

closer to true size

118
Q

objects farther from detector will appear

A

larger and less clear

119
Q

spine through the heart

A

penetration

120
Q

at least 8-9 posterior ribs

A

inspiration

121
Q

spinous process should fall equidistant between medial ends of the clavicles

A

rotation

122
Q

AP films will magnify heart slightly

A

magnification

123
Q

clavicle normally has “s” shape and medial end superimposes on 3rd or 4th rib

A

angulation

124
Q

X-ray image obtained without contrast

A

“plain” films

125
Q

when chemicals were used in the dark room

A

“Wet Read”

126
Q

x-ray contrast can be used for

A

GI: barium/iodine

127
Q

x-ray fluoroscopy can be used for

A

real-time images; helping during procedures

128
Q

xray view when all structures are superimposed

A

planar view

129
Q

abdominal anatomy

A
bones - spine, ribs, pelvis
base of lungs
stomach - only if air-filled
liver/spleen
kidneys/bladder
small intestine / colon
130
Q

mottled appearance of colon

A

stool present

131
Q

how does a CT scan work

A

passing x-rays from multiple angles at one level, produce images with better resolution representing a specific “slice” of the body

132
Q

what does CT stand for

A

computed tomography

133
Q

CT contrast IV used to

A

better visualize vessels, solid organs, tumors

134
Q

CT contrast oral used to

A

better visualize bowel

135
Q

pros of CT include

A

excellent spatial resolution

can image bowels, solid structures, and biliary tree to some extent (gallbladder)

136
Q

cons of CT include

A

radiation

expensive

+/- contrast needed for resolution

some limitations with imaging biliary tree (not as sensitive for dilation)

137
Q

how does ultrasound work

A

transducer with piezoelectric element is stimulated by electricity to generate sound waves that propagate and encounter structures with different acoustic impedances (resistance to sound). At interfaces btwn structures with diff impedances, some sound is reflected back to the transducer while the rest is transmitted deeper. The piezoelectric elements vibrate as they receive reflected sound and produce a voltage that can be detected.

The time to detection determines the location and strength of the returned sound which determines brightness

138
Q

how does MRI work

A

uses a magnetic field and radio waves to take pictures inside the body using contrast of fluid density.

139
Q

pros of MRI include

A

helpful to collect pictures of soft tissue (organs and muscles that don’t show up on xray)

bone doesn’t vibrate, so eliminated

excellent spatial resolution

no radiation

can differentiate blood vs soft tissue

can image bowels, solid structures, and biliary tree to some extent (gallbladder)

140
Q

cons of MRI include

A

can’t use with metal implants, pacemakers or metal staples on arterial or venous structures

the titanium, titanium alloy, and zirconia used in dental implants are not ferromagnetic metals

expensive

+/- contrast needed for resolution

not sensitive for biliary dilation

141
Q

how to read MRI

A

know if contrast / no contrast

think about gradation of fluid of object with weighting in the image

always recheck side of abnormality or variance

142
Q

ultrasound hand positioning

A

It is essential to hold the iQ close to the imaging base to allow you to brace your hand during the study.

143
Q

ultrasound adjust the gain

A

Overall gain should be set sufficiently high to visualize structures of interest, but sufficiently low to avoid false echoes.

144
Q

ultrasound adjust the depth

A

Depth should be optimized to center the area of interest in the middle of the screen (from top to bottom)

145
Q

ultrasound fanning

A

Fanning or tilting the iQ moves the imaging plane from a static window.

146
Q

ultrasound sliding

A

Sliding or translating the iQ allows you to move to additional imaging windows.

147
Q

ultrasound left renal exam

A

An introduction to the basic technique for evaluating the left kidney for hydronephrosis.

148
Q

ultrasound right renal exam

A
select abdomen preset
place iQ in pt's mid to anterior right axillary line with indicator towards head and fan towards bed to visualize kidney
pt takes deep breath
follow kidney inferiorly
fan towards bed and ceiling
149
Q

heart is closer to film ___ vs further from film ___

A

PA; AP

150
Q

hounsfield unit

A

CT - window level / width

151
Q

the vertebral column contains ___ vertebrae stacked on the ___

A

24; sacrum and coccyx

152
Q

a typical vertebra contains sites for ___ as well as ___ for the spinal nerve roots and peripheral nerves

A

joint articulations, weight bearing, and muscle attachments;

foramina

153
Q

anteriorly, the ___ supports weight bearing while posteriorly, the ___ encloses the spinal cord

A

vertebral body;

vertebral arch

154
Q

the ___ projecting posteriorly in the midline and the two transverse processes at the junction of the ___ and the ___ attach to the ___

A

spinous process;
pedicle; lamina;
muscles

155
Q

there are two ___ on each side of the vertebra, one facing up and one facing down, at the junction of the pedicles and laminae, often called ___

A

articular processes;

articular facets

156
Q

encloses the spinal cord

A

vertebral foramen

157
Q

formed by the inferior and superior articulating process of adjacent vertebrae that creates a channel for the spinal nerve roots

A

intervertebral foramen

158
Q

in the cervical vertebrae, creates a channel for the vertebral artery

A

transverse foramen

159
Q

spinous process of posterior iliac crest

A

L4

160
Q

in arthritis, tenderness occurs at the facet joints between

A

C5 and C6

161
Q

step-offs

A

a spinous process seems. unusually prominent or recessed in relation to the one above it

162
Q

step-offs occur in ___ which may compress the spinal cord

A

spondylolisthesis

163
Q

forward slippage of one vertebrae

A

spondylolisthesis

164
Q

tendersness over the sacroiliac joint is common in

A

sacroiliitis and ankylosing spondylitis

165
Q

pain with percussion occurs in vertebral

A

osteoporotic fractures, infection, and malignancy

166
Q

lateral and rotatory curvature of the spine brings head to the midline

A

scoliosis

167
Q

increasing kyphosis

A

thoracic kyphosis

168
Q

loss of long thoracic nerve innervation to the serratus anterior muscle

A

winged scapula

169
Q

occur in unequal leg lengths, scoliosis, and hip abduction or adduction

A

unequal iliac crest

170
Q

spasm occurs in degenerative and inflammatory muscle disorders, overuse, prolonged contraction from abnormal posture

A

paravertebral muscles

171
Q

lies midway btwn the greater trochanter and the ischial tuberosity as it runs through the sciatic notch

A

sciatic nerve

172
Q

is seen with a herniated disc or nerve root impingement from a mass lesion

A

sciatic nerve tenderness

173
Q

ball and socket joint created by the head of the femur in the acetabulum

A

hip joint

174
Q

provides leverage for movement of the femur

A

hip joint

175
Q

action of iliopsoas

A

flexion and internal rotation

176
Q

action of gluteus maximus

A

extension

177
Q

action of gluteus medius and minimus

A

abduction

178
Q

action of adductors

A

adduction

179
Q

which leg/hip muscles do external rotation

A

obturators, quadratus femoris, superior/inferior gemelli

180
Q

stance phase of gait

A

heelstrike, foot flat, midstance, push-off

181
Q

normal gait

A

2-4 inches between heels

182
Q

inguinal structures

A

nerve, artery, vein, empty, lymphatics (NAVEL)

bulges - hernias or aneurysms

lymph nodes - if palpable could be infected

183
Q

most commonly injured ligament with inversion and eversion

A

anterior talofibular ligament

184
Q

freely movable joint (knee, shoulder)

A

synovial joint

185
Q

bones covered by articular cartilage and contain cavity to cushion joint movement

A

synovial joint

186
Q

slightly movable (vertebral bodies of spine)

A

cartilaginous joints

187
Q

immovable (skull sutures)

A

fibrous joints

188
Q

ball and socket, wide flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, rotation, circumduction (hip, shoulder)

A

spheroid joints

189
Q

flat, planar, slightly curved, only gliding motion in single plane, flexion, extension (interphalangeal joints, elbow)

A

hinge joints

190
Q

movement of 2 articulating surfaces not dissociable (knee, TMJ)

A

condylar joints

191
Q

structures including joint capsule, articular cartilage, synovium, synovial fluid, intraarticular ligaments, juxtaarticular bone

A

articular structures

192
Q

composed of collagen matrix which allows the cartilage to change shape in response to pressure load = cushion for underlying bone

A

articular structures

193
Q

includes the periarticular ligaments, tendons, bursae, muscle, fascia, bone, nerve, and overlying skin

A

extra-articular structures

194
Q

rope-like bundles of collagen fibrils that connect bone to bone

A

ligament

195
Q

collagen fibers connecting muscle to bone

A

tendons

196
Q

pouches of synovial fluid that cushion the movement of tendons and muscles overbone or other joint structures

A

bursae

197
Q

4 cardinal features of inflammation

A

swelling
warmth
redness
pain

198
Q

attaches scapula to trunk

A

axio-scapular group

199
Q

attaches humerus to trunk

A

axiohumeral group

200
Q

repeated shoulder motion, sharp pain, weakness lifting arm overhead

A

rotator cuff tendinitis

201
Q

injury from fall, trauma or repeated impingement, chronic shoulder pain, night pain; may see atrophy of muscles

A

rotator cuff tear

202
Q

acute disabling attacks of shoulder pain (30+ yrs, female), arm held close to side, motion limited by pain

A

calcific tendinities

203
Q

diffuse, dull aching pain, progressive restriction of active and passive ROM, localized tenderness, unilateral (40-60 yrs)

A

adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)

204
Q

elbow is made of

A

humerus and 2 bones of forearm (radius and ulna)

205
Q

3 articulations of the elbow bones

A

humeroulnar joint
radiohumeral joint
radioulnar joint

206
Q

muscle groups of elbow

A

biceps (flexion)
brachioradialis (flexion)

brachialis (extension)
triceps (extension)

pronator teres (pronation)

supinator (supination)

207
Q

between olecranon process and skin, can’t palpate unless inflamed

A

olecranon bursa

208
Q

runs posteriorly in the ulnar groove between the medial epicondyle and olecranon process

A

ulnar nerve

209
Q

adjacent to the lateral epicondyle

A

radial nerve

210
Q

on the ventral forearm, medial to brachial artery and antecubital fossa

A

median nerve

211
Q

swelling of olecranon bursa

A

olecranon bursitis

212
Q

develop at pressure points of elbow, firm and nontender, can occur in pts with rheumatoid arthritis or acute rheumatic fever

A

rheumatoid nodules

213
Q

felt between olecranon process and epicondyles; boggy, soft, fluctuant swelling, pain, stiffness, restricted motion

A

arthritis of elbow

214
Q

pain and tenderness 1 cm distal to lateral epicondyle; pain worse with extension of wrist with resistance

A

lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow)

215
Q

tenderness lateral and distal to medial epicondyle; wrist flexion against resistance increases pain

A

medial epicondylitis (pitcher’s, golfer’s, little league elbow)

216
Q

distal radius, distal ulna 8 small carpal bones

A

wrist (So Long To Pinky, Here Comes The Thumb)

217
Q

8 carpal bones, 5 metacarpals, 5 phalanges

A

hand

218
Q

wrist joints

A

radiocarpal, distal radioulnar, intercarpal

219
Q

hand joints

A

metacarpophalangeal, proximal interphalangeal, distal interphalangeal

220
Q

important for hand movement

A

tendons and shafts

221
Q

channel beneath palmar surface of wrist and proximal hand

A

carpal tunnel

222
Q

provides sensation to palm and palmar surface of most of thumb, 2nd, 3rd, and half of 4th digits

A

median nerve

223
Q

pulp of index finger

A

median nerve

224
Q

pulp of fifth finger

A

ulnar nerve

225
Q

dorsal web space of thumb and index finger

A

radial nerve

226
Q

median nerve compression from carpal tunnel syndrome

A

thenar atrophy

227
Q

ulnar nerve compression

A

hypothenar atrophy

228
Q

audible range of human ear

A

20Hz - 20KHz

229
Q

infrasound

A

< 20 Hz

230
Q

ultrasound

A

20 KHz <

1 - 20+ MHz

231
Q

depth of ultrasound

A

amount of time it takes to receive an image

232
Q

brightness of ultrasound

A

volume; louder = brighter

233
Q

peaks on soundwave

A

compressions

234
Q

drops in sine waves

A

rarefractions

235
Q

distance between peak and peak, trough and trough

A

wavelength

236
Q

time btwn peak and peak, trough and trough

A

period

237
Q

how high pressure the compression is

A

amplitude (pitch)

238
Q

amount of sound waves that travel past a certain point in a certain period of time

A

frequency

239
Q

resolution

A

increase frequency – increase resolution

decrease frequency – decrease resolution

240
Q

penetration

A

increase frequency – decrease penetration

decrease frequency – increase penetration

241
Q

CT without intravenous contrast ___ vs with intravenous contrast ___

A

non bright aorta; bright aorta

242
Q

measure of radiodensity (CT)

A

hounsfield unit

243
Q

allows to adjust contrast levels (CT)

A

window width/levels