Practice Exam 1 Flashcards
(90 cards)
1
Q
What is objective information?
A
Something you can observe/see on the patient.
2
Q
What is subjective information?
A
Something you can’t see on the patient. A patient’s description of what they are experiencing.
3
Q
What instrument is used to ligate a small blood vessel?
A
Mosquito hemostat
(hemostats are used to clamp off blood vessels.)
4
Q
What instrument would be used to ligate a large blood vessel?
A
Kelly hemostat
5
Q
What would you use to protect the privacy of the patient when sending a fax?
A
A cover page
6
Q
What gauge needle is most commonly used for a subQ injection?
A
25
7
Q
When filing an insurance claim for an appendectomy, which of the following is the most appropriate reference source for locating the surgical code?
A
CPT (Current Procedural Terminology)
8
Q
Which quadrant is the gallbladder located?
A
right upper quadrant
9
Q
Which quadrant is the Cecum located?
A
right lower quadrant
10
Q
Which quadrant is the Descending colon located?
A
left lower quadrant
11
Q
Which quadrant is the appendix located?
A
right lower quadrant
12
Q
Which quadrant is the Spleen located?
A
left upper quadrant
13
Q
To confirm a fracture of the distal forearm, the physician would view an x-ray study of which of the following body parts?
A
Radius and ulna
(These are bones of the forearm.)
14
Q
According to Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) coding rules, a new patient is one who has not received professional services from the physician or a qualified health care professional in the practice of the exact same specialty and subspecialty for a MINIMUM of how many years?
A
3 years
15
Q
What medical specialist is most likely to manage a patient with basal cell carcinoma?
A
Dermatologist
16
Q
What medical specialist is most likely to manage a patient with blood diseases?
A
Hematologist
17
Q
What medical specialist is most likely to manage a patient with gastrointestinal and digestive system disorders?
A
Gastroenterologist
18
Q
What medical specialist is most likely to manage a patient with diabtes?
A
Endocrinologist
19
Q
What medical specialist is most likely to manage a patient with diseases of the nervous system?
A
Neurologist
20
Q
Which artery is most often used for assessing the pulse on a conscious patient?
A
Radial
21
Q
Lisinopril (Zestril) and furosemide (Lasix) are used in the treatment of which of the following conditions?
A
hypertension
22
Q
Indomethacin (Indocin) is a medication often used for the treatment of ____?
A
gout
23
Q
Levodopa (Sinemet) is a medication for the treatment of ____?
A
Parkinson’s disease
24
Q
Phenobarbital (Solfoton) is a medication that can be used for the treatment of ____?
A
epilepsy
25
A physician who specializes in the treatment of patients with carpal tunnel syndrome?
Orthopedist
26
Which position would be appropriate for a patient with severe emphysema who is waiting to be examined by the physician?
Fowler (the patient is sitting up, slightly reclined in hospital bed).
27
The medical assistant obtains vitals for the 48- year-old male patient she has just roomed. His vitals are:
Blood Pressure 114/72, Pulse: 90, Temperature 97.2 F (36.2 C), Respirations 14 and a Pulse Oximetry of 89 %.
The medical assistant recognizes that this patient is demonstrating signs of what?
The patient's oxygen is low and they are demonstrating signs of hypoxemia. Below 90% O2 is deficient in oxygen.
28
The medical assistant obtains vitals for the 48- year-old male patient she has just roomed. His vitals are:
Blood Pressure 114/72, Pulse: 55, Temperature 97.2 F (36.2 C), Respirations 14 and a Pulse Oximetry of 99 %.
The medical assistant recognizes that this patient is demonstrating signs of what?
The patient's pulse is low and they are demonstrating signs of bradycardia. Below 60 bpm is too low.
29
The medical assistant obtains vitals for the 48- year-old male patient she has just roomed. His vitals are:
Blood Pressure 114/72, Pulse: 95, Temperature 97.2 F (36.2 C), Respirations 21 and a Pulse Oximetry of 99 %.
The medical assistant recognizes that this patient is demonstrating signs of what?
The patient's respirations are high and they are demonstrating signs of Tachypnea. Normal limits for an adult are generally 12-18.
30
The medical assistant obtains vitals for the 48- year-old male patient she has just roomed. His vitals are:
Blood Pressure 140/82, Pulse: 90, Temperature 97.2 F (36.2 C), Respirations 14 and a Pulse Oximetry of 98 %.
The medical assistant recognizes that this patient is demonstrating signs of what?
The patient's blood pressure is too high and is in the range for stage I hypertension which begins at 130/80.
31
Which type of serum level is most likely to be increased in a patient with liver disease?
Alanine Aminotransferase
(Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is found inside liver cells and when the liver is damaged or inflamed, ALT can be released into the bloodstream.)
32
Which type of serum level is most likely to be increased in a patient with bones, heart, nerves, kidneys or teeth conditions?
Calcium
(A serum calcium level is usually ordered to screen for conditions related to bones, heart, nerves, kidneys and teeth.)
33
Which type of serum level is most likely to be increased in a patient with impaired kidney function or disease?
Creatinine
(The kidneys maintain the serum creatinine in a normal range. An elevated serum creatinine level signifies impaired kidney function or disease.)
34
Which type of serum level is most likely to be increased in a patient with prostate cancer?
Acid Phosphatase
(Acid Phosphatase is produced by the prostate gland and may be increased in prostate cancer.)
35
The physician orders 75 mg of medication to be given intramuscularly. The medication is available in 50mg/mL vials. What is the correct dose to be administered?
1.5 mL
36
*The medical assistant helps a patient take her home medications while the patient is at the office. The patient is mistakenly given two 500 mg. tablets of Metformin instead of one 500 mg.*
The physician can be held legally liable for the mistake of the medical assistant under what doctrine?
Doctrine of respondeat superior
37
Describe adduction.
Movement of a body part toward the body's midline
38
Describe flexion.
Decreasing the angle between bones.
39
Describe extension.
Increasing the angle between bones.
40
What is performed to monitor a patient's response to Coumadin therapy and to aid in adjusting Coumadin dosage?
International Normalized Ratio (INR)
*The INR is performed to help ensure that patients taking Coumadin are at the therapeutic level, which is typically between 2-3. If the INR is too low, the patient is at risk of a blood clot and if it is too high, the patient is at risk for excessive bleeding.*
41
What term describes the telescoping of the intestine into itself?
Intussusception
*This is a prolapse of one part of the intestine into the lumen of an adjacent part of the intestine*
42
What term describes an abnormal protrusion of an organ or body part through a membrane, muscle, or bone?
Herniation
43
What is a measurement of the percentage of erythrocytes in a volume of whole blood?
(Hematocrit)
This is a common laboratory test for anemia that determines the percentage of red blood cells in a volume of whole blood.
44
What is a screening test for inflammation that measure how fast red blood cells settle in a sample of whole blood?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
45
Which part of Medicare covers the cost of hospital care?
Part A
46
A patient needing cataract surgery could be referred appropriately to what health care provider?
Ophthalmologist
47
State laws vary regarding responsibilities of the physician in reporting conditions. However, all states require the reporting of which type of condition?
Deaths due to violence.
48
What is the vein that returns the blood to the heart from parts of the body below the diaphragm?
Inferior vena cava
49
What is the vein that returns blood to the heart from the head and neck, upper extremities, and thorax?
Superior Vena Cava
50
What is the vein that is a continuation of the axillary vein and carries blood from the arm towards the heart.
Subclavian vein
51
What is the vein that drains the viscera of the thorax, and receives blood from other veins, mainly from the head and neck and upper extremities?
Brachiocephalic vein
52
What is the vein that is located in the upper arm and carries blood from the arms to the heart.
axillary vein
53
What part of Medicare is coverage for prescription drugs?
Part D
54
What part of Medicare is the coverage for physician's services?
Part B
55
What part of Medicare allows private health insurance companies to provide Medicare benefits. These Medicare private health plans, such as HMOs and PPOs, are known as Medicare Advantage plans.
Part C
56
What term describes an abnormal lateral curvature of a patient’s spine?
Scoliosis
57
What term describes an abnormal posterior curvature of the spine?
Kyphosis
58
What term describes an abnormal anterior convexity of the lumbar spine, not posterior?
Lordosis
59
What term describes a degenerative osteoarthritis of the joints between the center of the spinal vertebrae and/or neural foramina?
Spondylosis
60
What term refers to immobility or stiffness of a joint due to disease, injury, or a surgical procedure?
Ankylosis
61
What is the meaning of -algia?
What is another suffix with the same meaning?
-algia means pain
-dynia also means pain
62
What is the function of the epiglottis?
Prevents food from entering the larynx during the act of swallowing.
63
What finding is most likely in a patient with herpes labialis?
Fever blisters (Herpes labialis is an infection of the lips, mouth, or gums with the herpes simplex virus. It leads to the degvelopment of small, painful blisters commonly called cold sores or fever blisters.
64
Which color-coded evacuated tubes should be used when collecting blood if a serum specimen is required?
Red (there are no anticoagulants and yields serum after the blood has clotted)
65
What does "Cysto-" refer to?
Bladder
66
In what case is an Advance Beneficiary Notice required?
A Medicare patient has a procedure or test that may not be covered by Medicare. (In this situation, the patient must be notified that Medicare may not pay or the bill is uncollectable.)
67
What does -phagia refer to?
eating or swallowing
68
What is a common side effect of some diuretics?
Hypokalemia (low potassium)
69
exophthalmos meaning
exo-
thalm/o-
exo- : out; away from
thalm/o : thalamus (eyeball)
definition: abnormal protrusion of the thalamus.
70
What is the federal and state government funded insurance program that provides for health care services based on income guidelines
Medicaid
71
A 25 year old male patient has a bmi of 34 what condition could he be at risk for out of these options:
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Kyphoscoliosis
C. Vitiligo
D. Sleep Apnea
E. Pulmonary Hypertension
Sleep Apnea:
A BMI over 25 can lead to other conditions such as sleep apnea, hypertension, and stroke.
72
What substance may result in black stools when taken in therapeutic doses?
Iron
73
What does salpingo refer to?
Fallopian tube
74
Which of the following is a laboratory test that can be used to measure the inflammatory response in the body?
A. Hematocrit (HCT)
B. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
C. C-reactive protein (CRP)
D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
E. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
CRP is a blood test for inflammation in conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis.
75
The following codes were submitted to a private insurance company for reimbursement for an established patient with insulin dependent diabetes mellitus who was seen in the office.
The patient had a blood test to check his glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) level and a detailed history and physical examination (level 4 Evaluation and Management service) for circulatory problems.
Diagnosis Code: D51.0(pernicious anemia)
CPT 99214 level 4 established patient EM service
CPT 83036 glycosylated(A1c) hemoglobin
This insurance claim would most likely be denied due to which of the following reasons?
Lack of demonstrating medical necessity
(Medical necessity is demonstrated when the diagnosis supports necessity of the CPT code. This ICD code does not support a hemoglobin A1c test.)
76
The criteria of establishing “duty owed, dereliction of duty, direct cause, and damages” are used in reference to which situation?
Proving negligence
(Plaintiffs must prove in a court of law that the “4 Ds” of negligence exist in a malpractice claim.)
77
Which of the following is a laboratory test for kidney function?
Creatinine
78
"Cyst / o" refers to the
urinary bladder
79
"Sialaden / o" refers to the
salivary glands
80
"Pylor / o" refers to the
pyloric sphincter
81
"Enter / o" refers to the
small intestine
82
Hematocrit (HCT) testing used to test for ______
anemia
83
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is an enzyme elevated in the blood of patients with what type of diseases?
bone or liver disease
84
What does ALT (alanine aminotransferase) test for?
liver function
85
What does PSA (prostate specific antigen) test for?
prostate cancer
86
What does FBS (fasting blood sugar) test for?
diabetes
87
Which of the following would be decreased when a patient mails a check to the clinic to pay for services previously rendered?
Accounts receivable
(The amount owed to the clinic will decrease.)
88
What does "-tomy" mean?
"incision into"
89
do white blood cells have a nucleus
yes
90
What does smoking do to blood vessels?
it constricts them
