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MICROBIOLOGY > PRACTICE EXAM 2 > Flashcards

PRACTICE EXAM 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Bacteria stain as gram-positive or gram-negative because they differ in their:

(a) Shape
(b) Cytoplasmic membrane
(c) Cell wall
(d) Outer membrane

A

Cell wall

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2
Q
  1. Who of the following developed a set of criteria that could be used to establish a causative link between a particular microorganism and a particular disease?

(a) Louis Pasteur
(b) Antoine van Leeuwenhoek
(c) Robert Koch
(e) Edward Jenner

A

Robert Koch

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3
Q
  1. What would you expect to see under a microscope if you were to stain Archaeal cells using the Gram staining procedure?

(a) Pink coloured cells
(b) Purple coloured cells
(c) Colourless cells
(d) Nothing

A

Pink coloured cells

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4
Q
  1. All viruses have which one of the following characteristics in common?

(a) Lipid outer covering
(b) Obligate intracellular parasites
(c) Contain RNA as their genomic material
(d) Composed of a head and tail with tail fibres

A

Obligate intracellular parasites

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5
Q
  1. Archaea were first revealed when:

(a) Molecular sequencing was used as a means of classifying microbes
(b) Advanced sampling techniques enabled hydrothermal vents to be examined
(c) Stromatolites were first sampled
(d) None of the above

A

Molecular sequencing was used as a means of classifying microbes

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is true for all organisms?

(a) They require organic nutrients
(b) They require inorganic nutrients
(c) They require oxygen
(d) None of the above are true

A

They require inorganic nutrients

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about the production of lytic bacteriophages?

(a) They are produced straight away
(b) The host decides on the number that are made throughout the infection
(c) The viral genome is integrated into the host chromosome
(d) None of the above

A

They are produced straight away

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8
Q
  1. You have isolated an unknown microbe from bottom sediments of a lake. Observations reveal that the microbe will grow between 14C and 41C with a growth optimum of 26C. From this information, the microbe would be classified as:

(a) Psychrophilic
(b) Thermotolerant
(c) Psychrotolerant
(d) Mesophilic

A

Mesophilic

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9
Q
  1. A non-halophilic bacterium put into a high salt environment will:

(a) Be hypertonic and plasmolyse
(b) Be hypotonic and burst
(c) Be in an isotonic environment
(d) Not be effected at all

A

Be hypertonic and plasmolyse

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10
Q
  1. Microorganisms utilising atmospheric oxygen and also growing in the absence of oxygen are:

(a) Obligate aerobes
(b) Aerotolerant anaerobes
(c) Facultative anaerobes
(d) Obligate anaerobes

A

Facultative anaerobes

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11
Q
  1. The metabolic process of Cyanobacteria and Algae is:

(a) Anaerobic respiration
(b) Anoxygenic photosynthesis
(c) Aerobic respiration
(d) Oxygenic photosynthesis

A

Oxygenic photosynthesis

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12
Q
  1. Which organisms are able to use glucose for carbon and energy?

(a) Photoautotroph
(b) Photoheterotroph
(c) Chemolithotroph
(d) Chemoheterotroph

A

Chemoheterotroph

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a structure for survival in prokaryotes?

(a) Flagella
(b) Glycogen
(c) Endospores
(d) Inorganic polyphosphate inclusions

A

Flagella

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14
Q
  1. Most phototrophs are:

(a) Autotrophic
(b) Heterotrophic
(c) Organotrophic
(d) Chemotrophic

A

Autotrophic

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following would grow best in dry conditions?

(a) Osmophile
(b) Xerophile
(c) Halophile
(d) Psychophile

A

Xerophile

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following techniques best determines the number of total bacteria?

(a) Plate count
(b) Most probable number measurement
(c) Turbidity measurements
(d) None of the above

A

Turbidity measurements

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17
Q
  1. When undertaking a colony count:

(a) It is assumed that each colony arose from one cell
(b) Only viable cells are counted
(c) The organisms must be able to grow on solid media
(d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a function of the cytoplasmic membrane?

(a) It retains the cytoplasm
(b) It acts as a selectively permeable barrier
(c) It maintains the various shapes of bacteria
(d) It is the location of various metabolic processes, such as respiration and photosynthesis

A

It maintains the various shapes of bacteria

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19
Q
  1. Carrier mediated transport is necessary when:

(a) Diffusion will not allow adequate amounts of a substance to enter a cell
(b) Movement of a substance is against the concentration gradient
(c) The level of solutes is higher inside a cell than outside a cell
(d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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20
Q
  1. By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration?

(a) Simple diffusion
(b) Active transport
(c) Facilitated diffusion
(d) Any of the above

A

Active transport

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21
Q
  1. Cilia on the outer cell surface of some protozoa are used for:

(a) Cell motility
(b) Sexual reproduction
(c) Adherence to surfaces
(d) Adherence and exchange of genetic material

A

Cell motility

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22
Q
  1. A scrapping of material from a person’s tooth revealed many bacteria on the tooth surface. Such bacteria remain attached to the tooth surface by structures called

(a) pili
(b) capsules
(c) glycocalyx
(d) all of the above

A

all of the above

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23
Q
  1. The membrane of a gas vesicle is composed of

(a) various phospholipids.
(b) protein.
(c) carbohydrate.
(d) both glycoproteins and phospholipids.

A

protein.

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24
Q
  1. The diether molecule within the membrane structure of the __________ yields a lipid __________.

(a) Archaea / bilayer
(b) Archaea / monolayer
(c) Bacteria / bilayer
(d) Bacteria / monolayer

A

Archaea / monolayer

25
Q
  1. When does endospore formation in bacteria commence?

(a) when bacterial growth ceases due to limitation of an essential nutrient
(b) when the bacterium is undergoing binary fission
(c) when bacteria are in the lag phase
(d) following bacterial death

A

when bacterial growth ceases due to limitation of an essential nutrient

26
Q
  1. Bacterial generalized transduction differs from specialized transduction in that generalized transduction

(a) Kills the host.
(b) Transfers DNA from one cell to another.
(c) Transfers specific DNA segments.
(d) Involves lysogeny.

A

Transfers specific DNA segments.

27
Q
  1. Which of the following processes requires contact between donor and recipient cells?

(a) Transduction
(b) Transcription
(c) Transformation
(d) Conjugation

A

Conjugation

28
Q
  1. F– strains of Escherichia coli

(a) Do not have an F factor
(b) Have the F factor as a plasmid
(c) Have an integrated F factor
(d) Transfers the F factor to other strains at a high frequency

A

Do not have an F factor

29
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true about Hfr x F– matings?

(a) The recipient can become F+ (or Hfr) if the mating lasts long enough for the entire bacterial chromosome to be transferred.
(b) The recipient usually remains F– because the connection usually breaks before the entire bacterial chromosome can be transferred.
(c) The recipient may become F+ if more than half of the plasmid is transferred.
(d) All of the above are true about Hfr x F– matings.

A

The recipient may become F+ if more than half of the plasmid is transferred.

30
Q
  1. Which of the following can be evolutionary chronometers?

(a) Fossilised remains of microorganisms
(b) Macromolecules measuring change in organisms over time
(c) Universally distributed, functionally homologous molecules in organisms
(d) All of the above

A

All of the above

31
Q
  1. What most likely was the earliest cellular process on Earth?

(a) Chemolithotrophy
(b) Fermentation
(c) Oxygenic photosynthesis
(d) Aerobic respiration

A

Chemolithotrophy

32
Q
  1. Extreme environments like deep ocean hydrothermal vents contain organisms similar to the first organisms that evolved on Earth. These organisms are:

(a) Psychrophilic Archaea
(b) Methanogenic Archaea
(c) Thermoacidophilic Bacteria
(d) Hyperthermophilic Archaea

A

Hyperthermophilic Archaea

33
Q
  1. Ribosomal RNA sequencing has enabled:

(a) A distinct third domain in the tree of life to be identified
(b) A reclassification of the tree of life based on molecular traits
(c) A more definitive form of identification of microbes to be achieved
(d) All of the above

A

All of the above

34
Q
  1. The most useful form of sterilisation in terms of relative effectiveness and wide-spread applications is:

(a) Incineration
(b) Autoclaving
(c) Irradiation
(d) Ultra high temperature (UHT)

A

Autoclaving

35
Q
  1. Which of the following would not be used to control bacteria in industrial products?

(a) Irradiating products
(b) Storing at low temperatures
(c) Addition of mercuric compounds
(d) Addition of preservatives

A

Addition of mercuric compounds

36
Q
  1. Which of the following are important considerations when trying to eliminate microorganisms from an object by a particular control method?
  2. Initial size of the microbial population
  3. Structural characteristics of the microbes
  4. Nature of the object being treated
  5. Dosage of the treatment agent
  6. Exposure time to the treatment agent

(a) All (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 (c) 1, 2, 4, 5 (d) 1, 2, 3

A

(a) All

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is best to sterilise heat-labile solutions:

(a) Chlorine
(b) Autoclaving
(c) Hot air oven
(d) Membrane filtration

A

Membrane filtration

38
Q
  1. Thermal death point is referred to as the:

(a) Minimum time to kill all microbes at a specified temperature
(b) Time that ensures there is less than 10-6 probability of cells surviving
(c) Lowest temperature required to kill all microbes in 10 minutes
(d) Minimum time to kill 90% of the organisms in a population at a specified temperature

A

Lowest temperature required to kill all microbes in 10 minutes

39
Q
  1. Decimal reduction time is referred to as the:

(a) Minimum time to kill all microbes at a specified temperature
(b) Time that ensures there is less than 10-6 probability of cells surviving
(c) Lowest temperature required to kill all microbes in 10 minutes
(d) Minimum time to kill 90% of the organisms in a population at a specified temperature

A

Minimum time to kill 90% of the organisms in a population at a specified temperature

40
Q
  1. Cephalosporin is an antibiotic produced by the fungus Acremonium chrysogenum. What does it target in the cell?

(a) Cell wall synthesis
(b) Protein synthesis
(c) Nucleic acid synthesis
(d) Synthesis of essential metabolites

A

Cell wall synthesis

41
Q
  1. Spirochetes are unusual bacteria because they are able to move using:

(a) Pseudopodia
(b) Peritrichous flagella
(c) Axial filaments
(d) Cilia

A

Axial filaments

42
Q
  1. Purple and green bacteria are:

(a) Chemolithotrophs
(b) Chemoheterotrophs
(c) Oxygenic phototrophs
(d) Anoxygenic phototrophs

A

Anoxygenic phototrophs

43
Q
  1. Yeasts are classified as:

(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Protozoa
(d) Archaea

A

Fungi

44
Q
  1. In general, fungi derive nutrients through:

(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Engulfing bacteria
(c) Absorbing organic substrates
(d) Parasitism

A

Absorbing organic substrates

45
Q
  1. Methanogens are found in which grouping:

(a) Gram positive bacteria
(b) Proteobacteria
(c) Archaea
(d) All of the above

A

Archaea

46
Q
  1. ____________ are toxic proteins released from the pathogen as it grows.

(a) Endotoxins
(b) Exotoxins
(c) Macrotoxins
(d) Microtoxins

A

Exotoxins

47
Q
  1. A ________ is a disease that primarily infects animals but can be transmitted to humans.

(a) nosocomial infection
(b) zoonosis
(c) vector infection
(d) fomite

A

zoonosis

48
Q
  1. For which of the following bacterial diseases/infections would penicillin therapy prove completely ineffective?

(a) Strep sore throat caused by Streptococcus pyogenes
(b) Meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis
(c) Pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumonia
(d) Gas gangrene caused by Clostridium perfringens

A

Pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumonia

49
Q
  1. Major virulence factors in Gram negative bacteria are endotoxins, which are also known as:

(a) Enterotoxins
(b) Haemolysins
(c) Lipopolysaccarides
(d) All of the above

A

Lipopolysaccarides

50
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about E.coli is not true:

(a) It can be used as an indicator organism for water quality
(b) It can cause food poisoning
(c) It is part of the normal flora of the human gastrointestinal tract
(d) All of the above are true

A

All of the above are true

51
Q

Question 1 (10 marks)

Briefly define each of the following terms (2 mark each):

(a) Chemoheterotroph
(b) Autoclaving
(c) Halophile
(d) Phylogeny
(e) Glycocalyx

A

CHECK LECTURE NOTES

52
Q

Question 2 (6 marks)

Discuss EITHER (a) or (b) (diagrams can be used):

(a) Describe the general structure of a virus. What are the types of genomes can viruses can have?

OR

(b) The differences between bacterial cytoplasmic and outer membranes.

A

CHECK LECTURE NOTES

53
Q

Question 3 (6 marks)

Answer any 3 of the following 5 short answer questions (2 marks each):

(a) What are two characteristics of endospores?
(b) What is a frameshift mutation?
(c) Briefly explain how psychrophiles adapt to low temperature.
(d) Why are most antibiotics ineffective against viruses, fungi and protozoa?
(e) What are two potential drawbacks to the use of ionizing radiation in food preservation?

A

CHECK LECTURE NOTES

54
Q

Question 4 (4 marks)

Gene transfer processes are important for microbes gaining new traits.

Discuss the key features for EITHER of the following mechanisms of gene transfer:

(a) Conjugation

OR

(b) Transduction

A

CHECK LECTURE NOTES

55
Q

Question 5 (6 marks)

Answer any 3 of the following 4 short answer questions (2 marks each):

(a) Briefly explain the endosymbiotic theory.
(b) What were the most likely early cellular processes on Earth?
(c) Name 2 medically important Enteric Bacteria (to a species level)
(d) Give examples of lactic acid bacteria that are important (i) medically and (ii) industrially

A

CHECK LECTURE NOTES

56
Q

Question 6 (6 marks)

Discuss EITHER (a) or (b):

(a) Bacterial respiration

OR

(b) Bacterial photosynthesis

A

CHECK LECTURE NOTES

57
Q

Question 7. (6 marks)

Answer ALL of the following (1 mark each)

State True or False for (a) – (d)

(a) Viruses generate energy by carrying out respiration.
(b) Porins are channels in the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria.
(c) The transport of a substance into the cell by facilitated diffusion requires energy.
(d) Some substances, for example sulfur, can be both an electron acceptor and electron donor in respiration processes.

Fill in the blanks for (h) - (j)

(e) Antimicrobial activity of a chemical is measured by determining the smallest amount of agent needed to inhibit the growth of a test organism, a value called the ________________________.
(f) In the control of pathogens,________________ are applied to living tissues; and_________________ are used on inanimate objects.

A

CHECK LECTURE NOTES

58
Q

Question 8 (6 marks)

Discuss EITHER (a) or (b):

(c) What are genotypic and phenotypic characteristics of bacteria? Briefly describe two examples of each.

OR

(d) What are the 4 main targets of antibiotics in bacterial cells. Briefly describe the mechanism of attack of two antibiotics that targeting different site in the cell.

A

CHECK LECTURE NOTES

MICROBIOLOGY (14 decks)

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