Practice Exam Flashcards
To learn all of the details of anatomy and physiology, and how to talk about them using the correct terminology (443 cards)
1
Q
Explain the principle of complementarity of structure and function.
A
What a structure can do depends on its form.
2
Q
What’s an example of the principle of complementarity?
A
Bones can support body organs and protect them because they contains hard mineral deposits
3
Q
Why are the heart’s valves an example of the principle of complementarity?
A
Blood flows through the heart in one direction because the heart has built in valves that prevent back flow.
4
Q
Name the different levels of structural organisation that make up the body.
A
- Chemical level
- Cellular level
- Tissue level
- Organ level
- Organ system level
- Organismal level
5
Q
Define anatomy and physiology.
A
Anatomy studies the structure of body parts and their relationships to one another. Physiology concerns the function of the body, in other words, how the body parts work and carry out life sustaining activities.
6
Q
List the 11 organ systems of the body.
A
Integumentary system, skeletal system, muscular system, nervous system, endocrine system, cardiovascular system, lymphatic system/immunity, respiratory system, digestive system, reproductive
7
Q
List the 11 organ systems of the body.
A
Integumentary system, skeletal system, muscular system, nervous system, endocrine system, cardiovascular system, lymphatic system/immunity, respiratory system, digestive system, urinary system.
8
Q
List the 11 organ systems of the body.
A
Integumentary system, skeletal system, muscular system, nervous system, endocrine system, cardiovascular system, lymphatic system/immunity, respiratory system, digestive system, urinary system, male and female reproductive systems.
9
Q
What term describes the body’s ability to maintain its normal states?
A
Homeostasis.
10
Q
Complete labelling activities on website.
A
Complete labelling activities on website.
11
Q
What is it called when the anatomy of a body part is intimately tied to its structure and function?
A
The principle of complementarity.
12
Q
Explain primary and secondary active transport and distinguish between the two.
A
In primary active transport, the energy is derived directly from the breakdown of ATP. In the secondary active transport, the energy is derived secondarily from energy that has been stored in the form of ionic concentration differences between the two sides of a membrane.
13
Q
Compare and contrast endocytosis and exocytosis in terms of function and direction.
A
Endocytosis and exocytosis are both cellular means of transporting substances across a cell membrane via the use of a vesicle. However, the processes differ in the direction in which the substances move across the cell membrane. During endocytosis, substances are brought into the cell (“endo” = in). During exocytosis, substances exit the cell (“exo” = exit).
14
Q
Recognise the effects of positive and negative ions moving across the membrane.
A
A
15
Q
Define membrane potential and explain how the resting membrane potential is established and maintained.
A
A
16
Q
Recognise and label main cell organelles.
A
A
17
Q
Match the organelles to their functions.
A
A.
18
Q
Compare mitosis and meiosis.
A
Mitosis versus meiosis. Cells divide and reproduce in two ways, mitosis and meiosis. Mitosis results in two identical daughter cells, whereas meiosis results in four sex cells. Below we highlight the keys differences and similarities between the two types of cell division.
Involves one cell division?
Results in two daughter cells
Results in diploid? daughter cells? (chromosome? number remains the same as parent cell)
Daughter cells are genetically identical
Occurs in all organisms except viruses
Creates all body cells (somatic?) apart from the germ cells? (eggs and sperm)
Prophase is much shorter
No recombination/crossing over occurs in prophase.
In metaphase individual chromosomes (pairs of chromatids) line up along the equator.
During anaphase the sister chromatids are separated to opposite poles.
Involves two successive cell divisions Results in four daughter cells Results in haploid? daughter cells (chromosome number is halved from the parent cell) Daughter cells are genetically different Occurs only in animals, plants and fungi Creates germ cells (eggs and sperm) only
Prophase I takes much longer
Involves recombination/crossing over of chromosomes in prophase I
In metaphase I pairs of chromosomes line up along the equator.
During anaphase I the sister chromatids move together to the same pole.
During anaphase II the sister chromatids are separated to opposite poles.
19
Q
Discuss the lifecycle of a cell including interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase and cytokinesis.
A
- Interphase:
Interphase is the period from cell formation to cell division. During interphase a cell carries out all its routine activities, and “rests” only by dividing. This is the metabolic phase and growth phase. - Prophase. Prophase is the first phase of mitosis, the process that separates the duplicated genetic material carried in the nucleus of a parent cell into two identical daughter cells. During prophase, the complex of DNA and proteins contained in the nucleus, known as chromatin, condenses.
- Metaphase. The second stage of cell division, between prophase and anaphase, during which the chromosomes become attached to the spindle fibres.
- Anaphase. Third stage of mitosis, meiosis I, and meiosis II in which chromosomes move toward each pole of a cell.
- Telophase. The final phase of mitosis, meiosis I, and meiosis II: begins when migration of chromosomes to the poles of the cell has been completed and ends with the formation of two daughter nuclei.
- Cytokinesis. The division of cytoplasm that occurs after the cell nucleus has divided.
20
Q
Recognise cell adaptations and variations in cell death.
A
Apoptosis, or programmed cell death, rids the body of cells that are programmed to have a limited life span. These include the cells lining the uterus in a menstruating woman, and the webs between the fingers and toes of a developing foetus.
Leukocytosis
Margination
Diapedesis
Chemotaxis
Necrosis
21
Q
Identify the four tissue types and state their features, functions and where they are found in the body.
A
There are four main types of tissue: muscle, epithelial, connective and nervous.
Muscle tissue:
Epithelial tissue, also referred to as epithelium, refers to the sheets of cells that cover exterior surfaces of the body, lines internal cavities and passageways, and forms certain glands. Connective tissue, as its name implies, binds the cells and organs of the body together and functions in the protection, support, and integration of all parts of the body. Muscle tissue is excitable, responding to stimulation and contracting to provide movement, and occurs as three major types: skeletal (voluntary) muscle, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle in the heart. Nervous tissue is also excitable, allowing the propagation of electrochemical signals in the form of nerve impulses that communicate between different regions of the body
22
Q
Classify different types of epithelium.
A
Epithelium is a sheet of cells that covers a body surface or lines a body cavity. Two forms occur in the body:
- Covering and lining epithelium. Forms the outer layer of the skin, dips into and lines the open cavities of the urogenital, digestive and respiratory systems; and covers the walls and organs of the closed ventral body cavity.
- Glandular epithelium. Fashions the glands of the body.
23
Q
Discuss endocrine and exocrine glands, including where they are found in the body.
A
A.
24
Q
Describe the process of tissue repair.
A
A.
25
List and describe seven important functions of bones.
A.
26
Name the four bone classifications and provide examples of each.
A.
27
Discuss general aspects of bone development (ossification).
A
28
Explain bone growth from cartilage and formation of spongy bone.
A.
29
Compare compact bone to spongy bone.
A.
30
Discuss how each type of bone structure relates to its function.
A.
31
Which tissue type is comprised largely of non-living extracellular matrix: important in protection and support?
Connective tissue
32
Which tissue is immediately responsible for body movement?
Muscle tissue
33
Which tissue enables us to be aware of the external environment and react to it?
Nervous tissue
34
What tissue lines body cavities and covers surfaces?
Epithelial tissue
35
What is an epithelium that has several layers, within an apical layer of flattened cells called?
Stratified squamous epithelium
36
What is the gland type that secretes products such as milk, saliva, bile or sweat through a duct?
Exocrine gland
37
What is the membrane that lines body cavities that open the exterior called?
Mucous membrane
38
What of these is scar tissue a variety of? (Endothelium, connective tissue, muscle tissue, nervous tissue, all of them)
B
39
Distinguish between the axial and appendicular skeleton.
B.
40
Identify arrangements of compact and spongy bone.
B.
41
Discuss osteocytes, osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
B.
42
Identify bony markings and discuss the terminology correctly.
B.
43
Identify major features of the skull.
B.
44
Identify and label skull bones and sutures.
B.
45
Explain what bones contribute to the eye socket.
B.
46
Name and local the major regions of the vertebral column.
B.
47
Name the functions of the spine.
The three main functions of the spine are to: Protect the spinal cord, nerve roots and several of the body's internal organs. Provide structural support and balance to maintain an upright posture. Enable flexible motion.
48
Identify the importance of the vertebral curvatures.
The major function of the vertebral column is protection of the spinal cord; it also provides stiffening for the body and attachment for the pectoral and pelvic girdles and many muscles. In humans an additional function is to transmit body weight in walking and standing.
49
Identify abnormal/excessive curvatures.
B.
50
Describe vertebral structures as they relate to functions.
B.
51
Identify the structures and functions of the thoracic cage.
The thoracic cage is formed by the 12 pairs of ribs with their costal cartilages and the sternum. The ribs are attached posteriorly to the 12 thoracic vertebrae and most are anchored anteriorly either directly or indirectly to the sternum. The thoracic cage functions to protect the heart and lungs.
52
Distinguish between true, false and floating ribs.
B.
53
Identify bones forming the pectoral girdle and the pelvic girdle, and relate their structure and arrangement to the function of these girdles.
B.
54
Identify important bone markings on the pectoral girdle.
B
55
Identify and label bones of the upper and lower limbs.
B
56
Can material move either into or out of a cell by means of active transport?
B.
57
Complete all online anatomy quizzes
B.
58
Complete all interactive diagrams and questions online, watch all youtube videos.
B.
59
In their resting state, do all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential ranging from 50 to +50 millivolts?
B.
60
Do osteoclasts develop from osteoblasts?
B.
61
Is spongy bone always covered by compact bone?
B.
62
Do most bones develop from hyaline cartilage?
B.
63
Is the growth zone of the long bones of adolescents the articular cartilage?
B.
64
Do blood vessel travel through the central canals of compact bone?
B.
65
Does the parathyroid hormone promote bone resorption and raise blood calcium concentration?
B.
66
Does the shallow socket of the shoulder joint restrict the movement of the humerus but does increase the stability of the joint?
B.
67
In the anatomical position, is the lateral forearm bone the radius?
B.
68
Do the lacrimal bones contain openings that allow the tear ducts to pass?
B.
69
Are there seven cervical, twelve thoracic and five lumbar vertebrae?
B.
70
How many cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae are there?
B.
71
Which of the following organs lies directly posterior to the sternum: the brain, heart, spinal cord or liver?
B.
72
Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton: clavicle, scapula, sternum or ilium?
B.
73
Which of the following bones is capable of bearing the greatest physical stress: ischium, fibula, femur or patella?
B.
74
Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus: calcaneus, head, medial malleolus or lateral malleolus?
B.
75
The "Hallux" refers to which part of the body: metacarpal, big toe, thumb or metatarsal?
B.
76
If someone has broken a leg, he or she has damaged the dorsal/appendicular/superficial/axial division of the body.
B.
77
Which of the following is not an example of the inflammation of the serous membrane: pericarditis, pleurisy, peritonitis or appendicitis?
B.
78
Phospholipids orient themselves in aqueous solutions such that __________.
B.
79
A red blood cell placed into a container of distilled water will _____ water via _____.
B.
80
When movement of Na+ ions down their concentration gradient drives the transport of other substances across the cell membrane, it is called ______.
B.
81
What does the sodium-potassium pump do?
B.
82
What is the fluid component between the plasma membrane and nuclear envelope called?
B.
83
What does apoptosis do?
B.
84
Define joint or articulation.
C.
85
Classify joints by structure and by function.
C.
86
Provide examples for each kind of joint.
C.
87
Label the parts and associated structures of the synovial joint.
C.
88
What is the difference between an endocrine and an exocrine gland?
C.
89
Give details of the two chemical classes of hormones.
C.
90
List the major endocrine organs of the human body.
C.
91
Explain the neuroendocrine system.
C
92
What is the importance of target cell receptors for effective hormone action?
C.
93
What hormones are released by the anterior pituitary gland? What are their target organs and what effect do they have on the body?
C.
94
Using GH hormone as an example, explain negative feedback.
C.
95
Discuss oxytocin.
C.
96
Explain the formation, effect and control of thyroid hormone.
D.
97
How does the endocrine system control blood calcium levels?
D.
98
Discuss the hormones synthesised and secreted by the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex.
D.
99
What hormones are produced by the pancreas? Specift the locations and cell types responsible. What is their effect?
D.
100
Name three other organs that can produce hormones and give one example for each.
D.
101
Describe the system of ducts a sperm will travel through to get from the testis to outside the penis.
D.
102
Describe the importance of seminal vesicle secretion.
D.
103
What are the main differences between mitosis and meiosis?
D.
104
Explain the mechanism of release of hormones from the anterior pituitary.
D.
105
Explain Growth Hormone (GH) release, effects and process of negative feedback.
D.
106
Explain how Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH), Gonadotropins, and Prolactin are released and regulated.
D.
107
Label a diagram of thyroid gland follicles.
D.
108
Explain the release, function and regulation of thyroid hormones.
D.
109
State the release and function of Parathyroid hormone.
D.
110
Identify the components of the adrenal cortex and medulla and compare their structures and functions.
D.
111
State the hormones secreted from each layer and their effects.
D.
112
State the function of the pineal gland.
E.
113
Identify other multifunctional glands and organs like gonads, pancreas, placenta, kidneys and heart and discuss their role in the endocrine system.
E.
114
Identify hormones released from the gonads.
E.
115
Discuss heart and kidney hormones and their effects.
E.
116
Locate and identify the structures that make up the male reproductive system.
E.
117
Describe the role of each male reproductive structure in producing, storing, and transporting semen.
E.
118
Describe blood supply and innervation of the testes.
E.
119
Describe the process of spermatogenesis.
E.
120
Locate the regions of the male urethra.
E.
121
Describe the composition and functions of semen.
E
122
Describe the physiological changes that occur during ejection and ejaculation.
F
123
Identify the hormones involved in male reproductive functions.
F.
124
Describe the control of breathing.
F.
125
Distinguish between asthma and COPD.
F.
126
Discuss the features that support the function of the lungs.
F.
127
Highlight the key responses of the respiratory system to altered O2 and CO2 conditions.
F.
128
Describe and explain the ventilatory responses to increased CO2 concentrations in the inspired air.
F.
129
Describe and explain the ventilatory responses to decreased O2 concentrations the inspired air.
F.
130
Describe the effects of each of the main non chemical factors that influence respiration.
F.
131
Describe the effects of each of exercise on ventilation and O2 exchange in the tissues.
F.
132
Demonstrate the surface anatomy of the left and right lungs.
F.
133
Compare the pulmonary and systemic circulations, and list some major differences between them.
F.
134
List the major muscles involved in respiration, and state the role of each.
F.
135
Define partial pressure and calculate the partial pressure of each of the important gases in the atmosphere at sea level.
F.
136
Define hypoxia and describe differences in subtypes of hypoxia.
F.
137
List the reactions that increase the amount of CO2 in the blood, and draw the CO2 dissociation curve for arterial and venous blood.
F.
138
What are the 2 types of hormones and what are their main features?
F.
139
Which two endocrine organs contribute to the neuroendocrine system?
G.
140
Explain the three triggers for hormone release.
G.
141
What is the difference between synergism and permissiveness?
G.
142
Do more people get rheumatoid arthritis than osteoarthritis?
G.
143
Are synovial joints known as synarthroses?
G.
144
Do most ligaments, but not all, connect one bone to another?
G.
145
Does reaching behind you to take something out of your pocket involve hyperextension of the elbow?
G.
146
Does the anterior cruciate ligament normally prevent hyperextension of the knee?
G.
147
Is there meniscus in the elbow joint?
G.
148
Are knuckles diarthroses?
G.
149
Is synovial fluid secreted by the bursae?
G.
150
Can condylar joints move in more planes than a hip joint?
G.
151
Does reaching behind you to take something out of your pocket involve hyperextension of the shoulder?
G.
152
Does each motor neurone supply just one muscle fiber?
G.
153
To initiate muscle contraction, must calcium ions bind to the myosin heads.
G.
154
Are slow oxidative fibres more fatigue resistant than fast gycolytic fibres?
G.
155
Are thin filaments found in both the A bands and I bands of striated muscle?
G.
156
Do thin filaments change length when a muscle contracts?
G.
157
Does smooth muscle lack striations because it does not have thick and thin myofilaments?
G.
158
Must a muscle contract to the point of complete tetanus if it is to move a load?
G.
159
Identify the neural controls of respiration and describe their functions, specifically, the Medulla (VRG and DRG) and the Pontine.
G.
160
Recognise the central and peripheral chemoreceptors as sensors, state their locations and functions.
G.
161
Define hypercapnia.
G.
162
Articulate why Oxygen is less important; CO2 as most important and discuss the influence of pH on respiration.
G.
163
Discuss voluntary control of breathing.
G.
164
Explain the effects of exercise and high altitudes on respiration.
G.
165
Identify and discuss examples of lung diseases.
G.
166
Identify the locations and functions of all glands and organs in the endocrine system.
G.
167
Compare hormone classes.
H.
168
Discuss the neuroendocrine system.
H.
169
Explain mechanisms of hormone action and release, including negative feedback loops.
H.
170
Describe the structural and functional relationships between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland.
H.
171
Discuss the structure of the anterior and posterior pituitary lobes.
H.
172
List and describe the chief effects of both the anterior and posterior pituitary hormones.
H.
173
Describe the four processes of respiration.
H.
174
What are the anatomical features of the nasal cavity and what is each of their functions?
H.
175
Name the three divisions of the pharynx. What features of the immune system are found in these regions?
H.
176
What are the distinguishing features of the respiratory zones?
H.
177
What structures are found in the lower respiratory system?
H.
178
Describe the changes in epithelium through the respiratory system. What are the differences in function?
H.
179
What are the functions of the larynx?
H.
180
Explain sound production.
H.
181
What is the unique feature of the trachea?
H.
182
Trace the pathway of air from the nostril to the alveoli. What changes occur to the air and where?
H.
183
What structures make up the alveolar wall?
H.
184
Explain the defining features of the left lung.
H.
185
Describe pulmonary ventilation in terms of pressure changes.
H.
186
What is lung compliance? What might affect it?
H.
187
Classify the structures of LRS as part of the conducting or respiratory zones.
H.
188
Identify the organs forming the respiratory passageways in descending order until you reach the alveoli.
H.
189
Describe the functions and location of the larynx as well as label its various structures.
H.
190
Identify changes in epithelium throughout the RS.
H.
191
Label a diagram of the respiratory zone and anatomy of the alveoli.
H.
192
Compare the right and left lungs.
H.
193
Identify the layers of pleura.
H.
194
Explain the pressure mechanism of breathing and identify active vs. passive processes.
H.
195
Define airway resistance, surface tension and lung compliance.
H.
196
Label a spirographic record of ideal respiratory volumes and capacities for a healthy adult male.
H.
197
Identify transpulmonary, intrapleural and intrapulmonary pressures relative to atmospheric pressure.
H.
198
Explain partial pressures of gases.
H.
199
Discuss how partial pressure gradients promote gas exchange in the body.
H.
200
Relate Dalton's and Henry's laws to events of external and internal respiration.
H.
201
Explain ventilation-perfusion coupling.
H.
202
Compare the transportation of O2 and CO2 in the blood.
H.
203
Explain the basics of the haemoglobin saturation curve and the bicarbonate buffering system.
H.
204
Do more people get rheumatoid arthritis than osteoarthritis?
H.
205
Are synovial joints known as synarthroses?
H.
206
Do most ligaments but not all, connect one bone to another.
H.
207
Does reaching behind you to take something out of your hip pocket involve hyperextension of the elbow?
H.
208
Does the anterior cruciate ligament normally prevent hyperextension of the knee?
H.
209
Is there a meniscus in the elbow joint?
H.
210
Are the knuckles diarthroses?
H.
211
Is synovial fluid secreted by the bursae?
H.
212
Can condylar joints move in more planes than a hip joint?
H.
213
Does reaching behind you to take something out of your hip pocket involve hyperextension of the shoulder?
H.
214
Does each motor neuron supply only one muscle fibre?
I.
215
To initiate muscle contraction, must calcium ions bind to the myosin heads?
I.
216
Are slow oxidative fibres more fatigue resistant than fast glycotic fibres?
I.
217
Are thin filaments found in both A bands and I band of striated muscle?
I.
218
Do thin filaments change length when a muscle contracts?
I.
219
Name the arteries on the anterior surface of the heart.
I.
220
Explain the electrical sequence of excitation of the heart.
I.
221
Why is there a delay in the excitation sequence of the cardiac muscle?
I.
222
Why is the plateau phase in the cardiac muscle contraction important?
I.
223
Explain the stages of an ECG trace, and what mechanical event does each stage represent?
I.
224
Define the terms systole and diastole.
J.
225
What does isovolumetric contraction mean? And where does it occur?
J.
226
What do the first and second heart sound represent?
J.
227
Explain Cardiac output. How changes in stroke volume and heart rate effect CO?
J.
228
Name the three layers of a vessel wall. Are the present in a capillary?
J.
229
How many RBCs fit through a capillary?
J.
230
Where would you find fenestrated capillaries and what characteristics do they possess?
J.
231
Explain the term vascular shunt.
J.
232
Which vessels are the main resistance vessels? Why?
J.
233
Which vessels are capacitance vessels?
J.
234
In which part of the cardiovascular system is the blood most at rest?
J.
235
Discuss hypertension. What are some of the risk factors?
J.
236
Discuss hypovolemic shock.
J.
237
Discuss the relationship between anaphylaxis and vascular shock.
J.
238
If the HPc in a capillary is 35mmHg, the COPc is 26mmHg, the HPif is 0mmHg and the OPif is 1mmHg, is the capillary in net filtration or net absorption?
J.
239
Detail the journey a RBC would take to travel from the heart to the left foot.
K.
240
Detail the journey a RBC would take from the superior mesenteric artery to the right
atrium, and explain the nature of the blood as it goes through; for example oxygenated/deoxygenated, nutrient rich/nutrient poor etc.
K.
241
Define terminology related to blood pressure
K.
242
Describe the relationship between blood volume and blood pressure.
K.
243
Describe relationships between blood pressure, cardiac output, total peripheral resistance,
stroke volume and heart rate.
K.
244
Describe the factors that affect resistance.
K.
245
Identify the main factors that control vessel diameter and alter resistance.
K.
246
Outline factors involved in capillary exchange and bulk flow; explain the significance of each.
K
247
Distinguish between capillary hydrostatic pressure and blood colloid osmotic pressure,
explaining the contribution of each to net filtration pressure.
L
248
Trace the pathway of blood through the pulmonary and systemic circuits.
L
249
Describe the general functions of the systemic circuit.
L
250
Name and give the location of the major arteries and veins in the systemic circulation.
L
251
Compare differences in functions and structure of arteries and veins.
L
252
Name and identify the location of all structures in the upper respiratory system
L
253
Explain the relationship and importance of structure for function
L
254
The right AV value is the__________ valve and the left AV valve is the_____________
M
255
Which valve is the first valve in the heart to have deoxygenated blood flow through it?
M
256
Which valve prevents backflow into the left ventricle?
M
257
Explain how pressure differences open and close heart valves.
M
258
Three veins drain into one of the heart chambers. Which chamber is this and what
are the veins called?
M
259
How does the heart’s ability to contract differ from that of other muscles of the body?
N
260
Which system is responsible for decreasing heart rate after a crisis has passed?
N
261
Cardiac output is _______________.
N
262
Given a volume of 150 ml at the end of diastole, a volume of 50 ml at the end of systole, and a heart rate of 60 bpm, the cardiac output is
N
263
Soon after the onset of ventricular systole, the
N
264
List the components of the cardiovascular system.
N
265
Trace the pathway of blood through the heart.
N
266
Name the heart valves and describe their location and function.
N.
267
Compare the three main types of vessels.
N.
268
Determine the function of each type of vessel by the structure of the vessel walls.
O.
269
Label a diagram of the heart, including internal structures.
O.
270
Recognise the layers of the pericardium and describe their functions.
O.
271
Classify unique features of cardiac muscle that determine function.
O.
272
Explain pacemaker cells.
O.
273
Contrast the membrane potentials of pacemaker cells and contractile cells.
O.
274
Summarise the sequence of excitation.
P.
275
Identify the stages in an ECG.
P.
276
Define terminology related to cardiac output.
P.
277
Explain how heart rate and stroke volume affect cardiac output.
P.
278
Identify the effects of the autonomic nervous system on heart rate.
P.
279
Recognise the relationship between stroke volume, heart rate cardiac output, end-diastolic
volume and end-systolic volume.
P.
280
Describe the factors that affect stroke volume.
P.
281
Describe the effects of exercise on heart rate, stroke volume, and cardiac output.
P.
282
In adults, does hematopoiesis refer to the formation of blood mostly within the red bone marrow of long bones.
P.
283
Do hemorrhagic anemias result from a lack of intrinsic factor.
P.
284
Is a possible outcome from an overdose of the hormone erythropoietin the
overproduction of red blood cells, a condition known as polycythemia?
P.
285
In a centrifuge, do two distinct layers of blood emerge: the erythrocytes and the buffy
coat?
P.
286
Do blood’s protective functions include preventing blood loss by forming clots when a
vessel is damaged and preventing infection due to its antimicrobial proteins and
white blood cells.
P.
287
Is the hematocrit the percentage of blood that is occupied by erythrocytes (red
blood cells) and is it normally about 45 %?
P.
288
What are the three main functions of blood? Give examples for each.
P.
289
What is the matrix of blood?
P.
290
What are the three plasma proteins? Why is the most common one so important?
P.
291
Describe the features of an Eosinophil.
P.
292
How do the actions of T lymphocytes differ from those of B lymphocytes?
P.
293
What shape is an erythrocyte? And why?
P.
294
What is Erythropoiesis? List the stages.
P.
295
What eventually happens to a RBC?
P.
296
What cells can be produced from myeloid stem cells?
P.
297
If a person with type A blood receives a transfusion of blood from a type B donor,
two antigen-antibody reactions occur. What are they? And what are the
consequences?
P.
298
Can a mother with RH- blood give birth to a healthy baby with RH+ blood?
P.
299
List the functions of blood.
P.
300
Describe the composition and physical characteristics of whole blood.
P.
301
Recognize red blood cell structure and function.
P.
302
Discuss the composition and functions of plasma.
P.
303
Describe the process of haemostasis.
P.
304
Explain how blood types are formed and determined.
P.
305
Describe the functions of prime movers, antagonists, and synergists.
P.
306
Explain how a muscle's position relative to a joint affects its action.
P.
307
List the criteria used in naming muscles.
P.
308
Provide an example to illustrate the use of each criterion.
P.
309
Label diagrams of the major muscles.
P.
310
True or false? All muscle tissues develop from embryonic myoblasts
True
311
Define joint or articulation.
P.
312
Classify joints by structure and by function.
P.
313
Provide examples for each type of joint.
P.
314
Label the parts and associated structures of the synovial joint.
P.
315
Name and describe the common body movements allowed by the synovial joint.
P.
316
Describe the properties and locate structures of skeletal muscle tissue.
P.
317
Explain muscle attachment points: origin and insertion.
P.
318
Discuss the sliding filament model.
P.
319
Describe the three-phase cycle of muscle twitch.
P.
320
Define muscle summation versus tetanus.
P.
321
Describe isotonic versus isometric movements.
P.
322
Locate all micro structures in a sarcomere and discuss their functions.
P.
323
Explain how muscle fibers are stimulated to contract by describing events that occur at the
neuromuscular junction.
P.
324
Describe how an action potential is generated.
P.
325
Recognize the events of excitation-contraction coupling that lead to cross bridge activity.
P.
326
True or false: More people get rheumatoid arthritis than osteoarthritis.
P.
327
True or false: Synovial joints are also known as synarthroses.
P.
328
True or false: Most ligaments, but not all, connect one bone to another.
P.
329
True or false: Reaching behind you to take something out of your hip pocket involves hyperextension of the elbow.
P.
330
True or false: The anterior cruciate ligament normally prevents hyperextension of the knee.
P.
331
True or false: There is no meniscus in the elbow joint.
P.
332
True or false: The knuckles are diarthroses.
P.
333
True or false: Synovial fluid is secreted by the bursae.
P.
334
True or false: Condylar joints can move in more planes than a hinge joint.
P.
335
True or false: Reaching behind you to take something out of your hip pocket involves hyperextension of the shoulder.
P.
336
True or false: Each motor neuron supplies just one muscle fiber.
P.
337
True or false: To initiate muscle contraction, calcium ions must bind to the myosin heads.
P.
338
True or false: Slow oxidative fibers are more fatigue resistant than fast glycolytic fibers.
P.
339
True or false: Thin filaments are found in both the A bands and I bands of striated muscle.
P.
340
True or false: Thin filaments do not change length when a muscle contracts.
P.
341
True or false: Smooth muscle lacks striations because it does not have thick and thin myofilaments.
P.
342
True or false: A muscle must contract to the point of complete tetanus if it is to move a load.
P.
343
True or false: If no ATP were available to a muscle fiber, the excitation stage of muscle action could not occur.
P.
344
True or false: For the first 30 seconds of an intense exercise, muscle gets most of its energy from lactic acid.
P.
345
True or false: The smooth muscle and the skeletal muscle are both autorhythmic.
P.
346
The site where two or more bones meet is called a(n) ______.
P.
347
Which of the following correctly lists the three structural types of joints?
P.
348
An amphiarthrotic joint exhibits which level of movement?
P.
349
Of the following types of joints, which type occurs only in the skull?
P.
350
The ______ the ligament fibers of a syndesmosis, the ______ the degree of movement.
P.
351
Which of the following joints is a site of long bone growth?
P.
352
All synovial joints are ______.
P.
353
Which of the following synovial joint components is responsible for secreting synovial fluid?
P.
354
Much of the friction associated with synovial joints is reduced by the presence of ______.
P.
355
The greatest degree of motion that synovial joints display is described as ______.
P.
356
During depolarization, the sarcolemma is most permeable to ______.
P.
357
The time period between action potential initiation and mechanical activity of a muscle fiber is called the ______.
P.
358
What is calcium's function during muscle contraction?
P.
359
Corpses usually exhibit rigor mortis because ______.
P.
360
Small precise movements are controlled by ______ motor units.
P.
361
A muscle contraction increases in strength up to a point because ______.
P.
362
Isometric contractions come into play when an individual is ________.
P.
363
Sprinters typically possess more ______ muscle fibers.
P.
364
A major difference between smooth muscle fibers and skeletal muscle fibers in terms of calcium influx is that ______.
P.
365
A major cellular feature in smooth muscle that contributes to its rhythmicity and ability to participate in peristalsis is the presence of ______.
P.
366
Electrical coupling by gap junctions is present in ______.
P.
367
True or false: All muscle tissues develop from embryonic myoblasts
P.
368
True or false: Multinucleated skeletal muscle cells form by fusion
P.
369
True or false: A growth factor stimulates clustering of ACh receptors at neuromuscular junctions
P.
370
True or false: Cardiac and smooth muscle myoblasts develop gap junctions
P.
371
True or false: ~All muscle tissue develops from myoblasts
P.
372
True or false: Cardiac and skeletal muscle become amitotic, but can lengthen and thicken in growing child
P.
373
True or false: Myoblast-like skeletal muscle satellite cells have limited regenerative ability
P.
374
True or false: Cardiomyocytes can divide at modest rate, but injured heart muscle mostly replaced by connective tissue
P.
375
True or false: Smooth muscle regenerates throughout life
P.
376
True or false: Muscular development reflects neuromuscular coordination
P.
377
True or false: Development occurs head to toe, and proximal to distal
P.
378
True or false: Peak natural neural control occurs by mid adolescence
P.
379
True or false: Athletics and training can improve neuromuscular control
P.
380
True or false: Female skeletal muscle makes up 36% of body mass
P.
381
True or false: Male skeletal muscle makes up 42% of body mass, primarily due to testosterone
P.
382
True or false: Body strength per unit muscle mass same in both sexes
P.
383
True or false: With age, connective tissue increases and muscle fibers decrease
P.
384
True or false: By age 30, loss of muscle mass (sarcopenia) begins
P.
385
True or false: Regular exercise reverses sarcopenia
P.
386
True or false: Atherosclerosis may block distal arteries, leading to intermittent claudication and severe pain in leg muscles
P.
387
Muscle disorder – myopathies
– Disrupt movement of body
• Mild case: inconvenience to slight troublesome
• Severe case: impairment of muscle used in breathing
P.
388
Muscle injury
P.
389
Strain
– Muscle overexertion or trauma
– Myalgia: pain
– May involve overstretching or tearing muscle fibers
P.
390
Sprain
– If joint ligament injured or
damaged
P.
391
Minor trauma; contusion
| – Muscle bruise, Local internal bleeding
P.
392
Severe trauma: crush injury
| – Release of fiber contents into blood stream, life threatening (myoglobin > kidney failure)
P.
393
Muscular Dystrophy:
• Group of inherited muscle-destroying diseases; generally appear in
childhood
• Muscles enlarge due to fat and connective tissue deposits
• Muscle fibers atrophy and degenerate
P
394
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD):
• Most common and severe type
• Inherited, sex-linked, carried by females and expressed in males
(1/3500) as lack of dystrophin
• Cytoplasmic protein that stabilizes sarcolemma
• Fragile sarcolemma tearsàCa2+ entryàdamaged contractile fibers à inflammatory cells à muscle mass drops
• Victims become clumsy and fall frequently; usually die of respiratory failure in 20s
• No cure
• Myoblast transfer therapy disappointing
• Coaxing dystrophic muscles to produce more utrophin (protein similar to dystrophin) successful in mice
• Viral gene therapy and infusion of stem cells with correct dystrophin genes show promise
P.
395
True or false: All skeletal muscle is voluntary
V
396
True or false: The endomyosin surrounds fasciculi.
V
397
True or false: ATP is required to stop the cross bridge cycle.
V
398
True or false: Most skeletal muscles are examples of a third-class lever.
V
399
True or false: The rectus abdominis muscle is the most superficial out of all the abdominal wall muscles.
V
400
True or false: The biceps femoris is part the quadriceps.
V
401
True or false: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is the most common and severe type of muscular dystrophy.
V
402
True or false: Smooth muscle regenerates throughout life.
V
403
True or false: A muscle that assists the muscle primarily responsible for a given action is called an agonist.
V.
404
True or false: Antagonists are muscles that oppose or reverse a particular movement.
V
405
Whichoneofthefollowingisnotapatternoffasciclearrangement? a) Bipennate
b) Transverse
c) Parallel
d) Circular
V.
406
Muscle that crosses a joint anteriorly generally functions as a_____.
a) Flexor
b) Abductor c) Extensor d) Rotator
V.
407
Which one of the following is NOT found in the forearm? a) Brachioradialis
b) Pronator teres
c) Flexorpollicislongus
d) Fibularis longus
V.
408
Which muscle is NOT part of the rotator cuff?
a) Teresmajor
b) Infraspinatus
c) Subscapularis
d) Teres minor
V.
409
Which is one of the following is an adductor muscle?
a) Vastuslateralis
b) Gracilis
c) Vastusmedialis
d) Tensor fascia lata
V.
410
Which one of the following muscles is used during passive inspiration?
a) Externalintercostals
b) Internal intercostals
c) Sternocleidomastoid
d) Scalenes
V.
411
Cell Membrane
Semi-permeable membrane made of phospholipids that acts as a barrier between inside and outside of the cell.
412
Cytoplasm
The fluid, cytoskeleton, and organelles inside a cell.
413
Nucleus
Contains DNA and control's the cell's activity.
414
Nuclear Envelope
Double membrane that surrounds the nucleus and has pores to allow some molecules (like RNA) out of the nucleus.
415
Nucleolus
Dark, dense area inside nucleus that makes rRNA.
416
Mitochondria
Makes ATP (chemical energy). Folds inside are called cristae. They have their own DNA.
417
Ribosomes
Made of rRNA and proteins. This is where proteins are made.
418
Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER)
Protein highway of sorts (transports proteins made on ribosomes). RER are covered with ribosomes.
419
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)
Lacks ribosomes. Responsible for making steroids (hormones/cholesterol).
420
Golgi Apparatus
Flattened sacs responsible for packaging proteins before they leave the cell. They can add carbs, proteins, or fats like address label.
421
Lysosomes
Contain digestive enzymes to break stuff down. Like a garbage disposal.
422
Vesicles
Regulate water like in some single-celled organisms. Used for storage in other types of cells. Also, molecules are sometimes transported in them.
423
Cytoskeleton
Network of thin and tubular structures that give the cell its shape.
424
Microtubules
Large, hollow, protein tubes that sometimes form cilia and/or flagella in addition to the cytoskeleton.
425
Microfilaments
Thin protein threads in the cell cytoplasm.
426
Cilia
Made of microtubules, they are hair-like and are involved in movement (ex. paramecium or lining of the lung.
427
Flagella
Made of microtubules and are tail-like and involved in movement (ex. sperm tail).
428
Centrioles
Only in animal cells. Made of microtubules and help in cell division.
429
Cell Wall
Only in plant cells. Made of cellulose and has pores to let things in and out of plant. Helps keep shape.
430
Central Vacuole
Only in plant cells. Large, full of water, enzymes, wastes, etc. Shrinks and expands based on water content.
431
Chloroplast
Only in plant cells. Takes light energy and makes carbs from CO2 and water. Inside are thylakoids (flattened sacs) that contain the pigment chlorophyll (main molecule that absorbs light).
432
What are the similarities between meiosis and mitosis?
Diploid parent cell
Consists of interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase
In metaphase individual chromosomes (pairs of chromatids) line up along the equator.
During anaphase the sister chromatids are separated to opposite poles.
Ends with cytokinesis.
433
Loss of lung elasticity and destruction of alveolar walls is termed ______.
a.
434
The Bohr effect describes _______.
a.
435
Breathing air through the nose serves multiple functions. What functions would be increased when breathing dry air?
a.
436
The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ______.
a.
437
What lines most of the digestive tract?
a.
438
What lines the esophagus?
a.
439
What lines much of the respiratory tract?
a.
440
What forms the walls of the air sacs of the lungs?
a.
441
What is found in the urinary tract organs?
a.
442
What does endothelium and mesothelium look like?
a.
443
Watch videos/lessons online
a.
