Practice Issues; Ethical and Legal Principles Flashcards

1
Q

Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment (POLST)

A

addresses vague language in a patient’s end of life care directives, such as “life support” and “no heroics”

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2
Q

Three phases of policy making

A
  1. Formulation
    - input of information, ideas, and research from key people, organizations, and interest groups
    - identification of the purpose and outcomes
    - selection of strategies
    - identification of needed resources
  2. implementation
    - dissemination of information about the adopted policy and putting it in place as a plan of action
  3. Evaluation
    - policies may be amended or rewritten to adjust for circumstances over time in an incremental manner
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3
Q

Physician-assisted suicide vs euthanasia

A

Physician-assisted suicide: making the means of death available to the patient
- legal in some states in the United States

Euthanasia: physician actually administers the method of death
- illegal throughout the United States

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4
Q

Orem’s theory of nursing practice

A

Focuses on professional and technological operations
1. The nurse diagnoses the patient and determines why nursing is needed
2. Designs the nursing system and plans for delivery of care
3. Production and management of nursing systems, labeled planning, and controlling

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5
Q

Nightingale’s theory of nursing

A

Based on creating a restorative environment

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6
Q

Abdellah’s theory of nursing

A

Based on the delivery of nursing care for the whole person, including the spiritual, physical, and emotional needs

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7
Q

Rogers’ concept of nursing

A

Focuses on the maintenance of health, prevention of illness, and the care and rehabilitation of disabled clients through the “humanistic” science of nursing

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8
Q

durable power of attorney

A

makes decisions not he patient’s behalf while the patient is still alive
Does not apply if the patient has died

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9
Q

advance directive

A

written statement of a patient’s intent regarding medical treatment

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10
Q

healthcare directive

A

type of advance directive that may (or may not) include a living will and/or specifications regarding durable power of attorney in one or two separate documents

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11
Q

living will

A

written compilation of statements that specifies which life-prolonging measures one does and does not want to be taken if he/she becomes incapacitated

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12
Q

durable power of attorney

A

A significant other is granted the ability to act as a proxy/agent/attorney-in-fact of the patient in making healthcare decisions should the patient become incapacitated.
Responsible for articulating the patient’s advance directive

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13
Q

strongest method to evaluate teaching

A

returned demonstration

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14
Q

Injuries that should be transferred to a tertiary facility

A

Major maxillofacial injuries
Severe Le Fort fractures:
- Le Fort 1: floating palate
- Le Fort 2: Floating maxilla
- Le Fort 3: floating face

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15
Q

most powerful data collected from a patient

A

subjective data

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16
Q

Health related information that must be reported to the Department of Health in most states

A

Criminal acts and injury from a dangerous weapon
Diseases: gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis, HIV, TB, COVID-19
Animal bites
Suspected or actual child or elder abuse

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17
Q

Level of physical exam documentation: A limited examination of the affected body area or organ system

A

problem focused

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18
Q

Level of physical exam documentation: A limited examination of the affected body area or organ system and any other symptomatic or related body area(s) or organ system(s)

A

expanded problem focused

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19
Q

Level of physical exam documentation: An extended examination of the affected body area(s) or organ system(s) and any other symptomatic or related body area(s) or organ system(s)

A

detailed

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20
Q

Level of physical exam documentation: A general multi-system examination, or complete examination of a single organ system and other symptomatic or related body area(s) or organ system(s)

A

comprehensive

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21
Q

Type of Medicare: Covers inpatient hospitalization, SNF services, home health services, and/or hospice associated with the inpatient event

A

Medicare A

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22
Q

Type of Medicare: Most people qualify to receive this benefit at 65 years of age

A

Medicare A

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23
Q

Type of Medicare: Covers physician services, outpatient hospital services, lab and diagnostic procedures, medical equipment, and some home health services

A

Medicare B

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24
Q

Type of Medicare: Supplemental medical insurance requiring recipients to pay a premium

A

Medicare B

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25
Q

Type of Medicare: NPs and CNSs receive 85% of physician reimbursement for services provided in collaboration with a physician

A

Medicare B

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26
Q

Type of Medicare: Medicare pays 80% of the patient’s bill for physician services and the patient pays 20%

A

Medicare B

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27
Q

Type of Medicare: Formerly known as “Medicare+Choice”, now known as “Medicare Advantage”

A

Medicare C

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28
Q

Type of Medicare: Patients entitled to Medicare A and enrolled in Part B are eligible to receive all of their health car services through one of the provider organizations under this Part (e.g. HMOs, PPOs, etc.)

A

Medicare C

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29
Q

Type of Medicare: Limited prescription drug coverage. Co-pay on each prescription is required

A

Medicare D

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30
Q

To qualify to be a Medicare provider, an NP must…

A

Hold a state license as an NP
Be certified as an NP by a recognized national certifying body
Hold at least an MSN degree

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31
Q

Sentinel event

A

Unexpected occurrences involving death or serious physical or psychological injury, or the risk thereof

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32
Q

Credential, Licensure, or Certification?: Encompasses required education, licensure, and certification to practice as an NP (e.g. degree, diploma)

A

credential

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33
Q

Credential, Licensure, or Certification?: Establishes minimal levels of acceptable performance

A

credential

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34
Q

Credential, Licensure, or Certification?: Necessary to ensure that safe health care is provided by quality individuals, and to comply with federal and state laws relating to advanced practice nursing

A

credential

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35
Q

Credential, Licensure, or Certification?: Acknowledges the scope of practice of the NP

A

credential

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36
Q

Credential, Licensure, or Certification?: Mandates accountability

A

credential

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37
Q

Credential, Licensure, or Certification?: Enforces professional standards for practice

A

credential

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38
Q

Credential, Licensure, or Certification?: Establishes that a person is qualified to perform in a particular professional role

A

licensure

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39
Q

Credential, Licensure, or Certification?: Granted as defined by rules and regulations set forth by a governmental regulatory body (I.e. state board of nursing)

A

licensure

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40
Q

Credential, Licensure, or Certification?: Establishes that a person has met certain standards in a particular profession which signify mastery of specialized knowledge and skills

A

certification

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41
Q

Credential, Licensure, or Certification?: Granted by nongovernmental agencies (e.g. AACN, ANCC)

A

certification

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42
Q

nonmaleficence

A

the duty to do no harm

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43
Q

utilitarianism

A

The right act is the one that produces the greatest good for the greatest number

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44
Q

beneficence

A

The duty to prevent harm and promote good

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45
Q

Justice

A

The duty to be fair

46
Q

Fidelity

A

The duty to be faithful

47
Q

Veracity

A

The duty to be truthful

48
Q

Autonomy

A

The duty to respect an individual’s thoughts and actions

49
Q

One standard deviation above or below the mean contains __% of the population being studied.

Two standard deviations above or below the mean contain __% of the population.

Three standard deviations above or below the mean contain __% of the population being studied.

A
  1. 68%
  2. 95%
  3. 99%
50
Q

Type of research: A type of observational study that examines a population with a very similar attribute but differs in one specific variable (such as age)

A

cross sectional (non-experimental)

51
Q

Type of research: analyzes a known outcome by looking back in time to assess exposure

A

case-control studies

52
Q

Type of research: used to assess disease incidence and prevalence

A

cross sectional (non-experimental)

53
Q

Type of research: Designed to find relationships between variables at a specific point in time or “surveys”

A

cross sectional (non-experimental)

54
Q

Type of research: retrospective or prospective

A

cohort (non-experimental)

55
Q

Type of research: compares a particular outcome (such as lung cancer) in groups of individuals who are alike in many ways but differ by a certain characteristic (e.g. female nurses who smoke compared with those who do not smoke)

A

cohort (non-experimental)

56
Q

Type of research: A study that involves taking multiple measures of a group/population over an extended period of time to find relationships between variables

A

longitudinal

57
Q

Type of research: A “no experiment” design; usually includes two broad categories of research, descriptive and ex post factor/correlational research

A

nonexperimental

58
Q

Type of research: aims to describe situations, experiences, and phenomena as they exist

A

descriptive (non-experimental)

59
Q

Type of research: Examines relationships among variables

A

ex post facto or correlational research (non-experimental)

60
Q

Type of research: includes experimental manipulation of variables using randomization and a control group to test the effects of an intervention or experiment

A

experimental

61
Q

Type of research: Involves manipulation of variables but lacks a comparison group or randomization

A

Quasi-experimental

62
Q

Type of research: Includes case studies, open-ended questions, field studies, participant observation and ethnographic studies, where observations and interview techniques are used to explore phenomena through detailed descriptions of people, events, situations, or observed behavior

A

qualitative

63
Q

Type of research: Researcher bias is a potential problem

A

qualitative

64
Q

Type of research: Calls into question the generalizability of findings

A

qualitative

65
Q

Type of research: Produces very rich data through no other means of research

A

qualitative

66
Q

Type of research: Highest level of research

A

Meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials

67
Q

Type of research: Lowest level of research

A

Editorial/expert opinion

68
Q

Type of research: Tests hypotheses using numerous quantitative studies to systematically assess the results of previous research

A

Meta-analysis

69
Q

Type of research: Analyzes data across qualitative studies in order to build new theories

A

Meta-synthesis

70
Q

An interval, with limits at either end, with a specified probability of including the parameter being estimated.

A

confidence interval

71
Q

A small confidence interval implies

A

a very precise range of values

72
Q

Indicates the average amount of deviation of values from the mean

A

standard deviation

73
Q

The probability level of which the results of statistical analyses are judged to indicate a statistically significant difference between groups

A

level of significance

74
Q

The probability of false rejection of the null hypothesis in a statistical test

A

level of significance

75
Q

A measure of the interdependence of two random variables that ranges in value from -1 to +1

A

perfect correlation

76
Q

Perfect correlation: -1

A

perfect negative correlation

77
Q

Perfect correlation: 0

A

Absence of correlation

78
Q

Perfect correlation: +1

A

perfect positive correlation

79
Q

Statistical test to evaluate the differences in means between two groups

A

t-test

80
Q

The consistency of a measurement, or the degree to which an instrument measures the same way over time with the same subjects

A

reliability

81
Q

Reflects the estimated repeatability of a measurement

A

reliability

82
Q

The degree to which a variable measures what it is intended to measure

A

validity

83
Q

The legal responsibility that an NP has for actions that fail to meet the standard of care, resulting in actual or potential harm to a patient

A

liability

84
Q

Failure of an individual to do what a reasonable person would do, resulting in injury to the patient

A

negligence

85
Q

Failure of a professional to render services with the degree of care, diligence, and precaution that another member of the same profession under similar circumstances would render to prevent injury to someone else

A

malpractice

86
Q

Malpractice may involve..

A

professional misconduct
unreasonable lack of skill
illegal/immoral conduct
Other allegations resulting in harm to a patient

87
Q

An intentional act by one person that creates an apprehension in another of an imminent harmful or offensive contact

A

assault

88
Q

An illegal, willful, angry, violent, or negligent striking of a person, his clothes, or anything with which he is in contact

A

battery

89
Q

Carried out by a threat of bodily harm coupled with an apparent, present ability to cause the harm

A

assault

90
Q

Communication that causes someone to suffer a damaged reputation

A

defamation

91
Q

Defaming, distributed written material

A

libel

92
Q

Spoken defamation

A

slander

93
Q

In most states, there is a duty to commit someone who is in danger of hurting himself or others as a result of mental illness

A

involuntary commitment

94
Q

An NP is potentially liable if a patient is discharged while in danger of hurting himself or others

A

involuntary commitment

95
Q

sensitivity

A

True positives

96
Q

specificity

A

true negatives

97
Q

Level of prevention: Begins in childhood and focuses on lifestyle choices to prevent the development of risk factors

A

primordial

98
Q

Level of prevention: Involves modifying existing risk factors to prevent the development of disease

A

primary

99
Q

Level of prevention: reduces the impact of an illness or prevents a progression or return to the problem

A

secondary

100
Q

Level of prevention: soften the impact of an illness that has life-altering effects

A

tertiary

101
Q

Level of prevention: Focuses on screening, early identification and treatment of existing problems

A

secondary

102
Q

Special research participants

A

Individuals with diminished ability to give informed consent
Risk for exploitation
Should only be used for therapeutic research from which they have some hope of benefit

103
Q

null hypothesis

A

suggests that no real relationship exists between two groups that cannot be explained by chance alone

104
Q

nondirectional hypothesis

A

suggests a relationship exists between two variables but does not predict the relationship

105
Q

directional hypothesis

A

states a positive or negative relationship exists between two variables

106
Q

Core competencies of collaborative inter professional practice

A

Patient-centered care
Utilization of informatics
Use of evidence-based practice
Application of quality improvement

107
Q

recognizes personal belief and value systems including religion and religious symbols

A

resiliency

108
Q

emphasizes alternative care practices and cultural practices

A

stability

109
Q

Includes seeking input from patients and families related to care practices

A

participation in care

110
Q

Includes answering questions honestly

A

participation in decision making

111
Q

“incident-to” billing

A

Basic services (e.g. weight, temp) provided by a physician or done within the physician’s office with the physician in close proximity
Not allowed in hospital setting

112
Q

What does Medicare not cover?

A

If you’re healthy, it does not cover general health counseling, maintenance health screenings, or regular physical exams