Practice Qs SEC+ Flashcards

(149 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following describes the difference between a worm and a virus?

  • Worms are self-replicating.
  • Viruses are self-replicating.
  • Worms are often malicious.
  • Viruses are often malicious.
A

Worms are self-replicating.

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2
Q

Which one of the following is not an example of a denial-of-service attack?

  • Gargomel
  • Smurf
  • Teardrop
  • Fraggle
A

Gargomel

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3
Q

Which one of the following is not a type of phishing attack?

  • Spear phishing
  • Whaling
  • Wishing
  • Smishing
A

Wishing.

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4
Q

At your place of employment, you are rushing to the door with your arms full of bags. As you approach, the woman before you scans her badge to gain entrance while holding the door for you, but not without asking to see your badge. What did she just prevent?

  • Phishing
  • Tailgating
  • Whaling
  • Door diving
A

Tailgaiting.

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5
Q

Which of the following is an effective way to get information in crowded places such as airports, conventions, or supermarkets?

  • Shoulder surfing
  • Phishing
  • Vishing
  • Reverse social engineering
A

Shoulder Surfing.

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6
Q

Which one of the following is designed to execute malicious actions when a certain event occurs or a specific time period elapses?

Logic bomb
Spyware
Botnet
DDoS

A

Logic Bomb

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7
Q

Which one of the following best describes a polymorphic virus?

A virus that attacks the boot sector and then attacks the system files
A virus that infects EXE files
A virus that changes its form each time it is executed
A virus inserted into a Microsoft Office document such as Word or Excel

A

A virus that changes its form each time it is executed.

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8
Q

You discover you are unable to access files on your computer. A message appears asking for payment to allow for the recovery of your files. Which of the following is most likely?

Your files have been moved to a remote server.
Your files have been copied.
Your files have been deleted.
Your files have been encrypted.

A

Your files have been encrypted.

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9
Q

Which of the following types of attacks can result from the length of variables not being properly checked in the code of a program?

Buffer overflow
Denial of service
Replay
Spoofing

A

Buffer overflow

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10
Q

Which one of the following is a best practice to prevent code injection attacks?

Implementing the latest security patches
Session cookies
Using unbound variables
Input validation

A

Input validation

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11
Q

You are the security administrator for a bank. The users are complaining about the network being slow. It is not a particularly busy time of the day, however. You capture network packets and discover that hundreds of ICMP packets have been sent to the host. What type of attack is likely being executed against your network?

Spoofing
Man-in-the-middle attack
Denial-of-service attack
Password attack

A

Denial-of-service attack

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12
Q

An initialization vector should be which of the following?

Unique and unpredictable
Repeatable and random
Repeatable and unique
Unique and predictable

A

Unique and unpredictable

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13
Q

How do relationship and capability pertain to understanding specific threat actors?

They are characteristics associated with building a threat profile.
They describe attributes that apply equally to all threats.
They are the two most important attributes when analyzing threat actors.
They indicate the likelihood of vulnerabilities being discovered.

A

They are characteristics associated with building a threat profile.

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14
Q

With which of the following is a “low and slow” attack most associated?

OSINT
Ransomware
Script kiddies
APT

A

APT

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15
Q

After conducting a vulnerability assessment, which of the following is the best action to perform?

Disable all vulnerable systems until mitigating controls can be implemented
Contact the network team to shut down all identified open ports
Organize and document the results based on severity
Immediately conduct a penetration test against identified vulnerabilities

A

Organize and document the results based on severity

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16
Q

You are conducting a penetration test on a software application for a client. The client provides you with details around some of the source code and development process. What type of test will you likely be conducting?

Both Black and White box
Vulnerability
White box
Black box

A

White box

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17
Q

Which of the following is a reason to conduct a penetration test?

To test the adequacy of security measures put in place
To passively test security controls
To steal data for malicious purposes
To identify the vulnerabilities

A

To test the adequacy of security measures put in place

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18
Q

Which one of the following best describes a penetration test?

A passive evaluation and analysis of operational weaknesses using tools and techniques that a malicious source might use
A technique used to identify hosts and their associated vulnerabilities
The monitoring of network communications and examination of header and payload data
An evaluation mimicking real-world attacks to identify ways to circumvent security

A

An evaluation mimicking real-world attacks to identify ways to circumvent security

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19
Q

Which one of the following best describes the four primary phases of a penetration test?

Planning, discovery, attack, reporting
Exploit, escalation, pivot, persistence
Discovery, attack, pivot, reporting
Planning, exploit, attack, persistence

A

Planning, discovery, attack, reporting

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20
Q

Your team is tasked with conducting a vulnerability assessment and reports back with a high number of false positives. Which of the following might you recommend to reduce the number of false positives?

Have the team run a vulnerability scan using noncredentialed access
Have the team run a vulnerability scan using credentialed access
Have the team run a port scan across all ports
Have the team run a port scan across all common ports

A

Have the team run a vulnerability scan using credentialed access

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21
Q

Which of the following are potential impacts of a race condition?

System malfunction
Denial of service
All answers are correct
Escalated privileges

A

All answers are correct

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22
Q

Which one of the following is the term given to a fraudulent wireless access point that is configured to lure connections to it?

NFC
ARP replay attack
Bluejacking
Evil twin

A

Evil twin

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23
Q

A small IT consulting firm has installed new wireless routers across all your small regional offices. Within days, you learn that you are unable to access the administrative interfaces of these routers due to an incorrect password. Which one of the following is most likely the reason?

The wireless routers are not powered on.
The wireless routers have been placed on end-of-life by the manufacturer and are no longer supported for remote login.
The wireless routers have been designed to allow improper input handling, resulting in failed password input.
The wireless routers were set up with the default configuration, which included a default password that was never changed.

A

The wireless routers were set up with the default configuration, which included a default password that was never changed.

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24
Q

You identify a system that becomes progressively slower over a couple days until it is unresponsive. Which of the following is most likely the reason for this behavior?

Improper error handling
Untrained user
Race condition
Memory leak

A

Memory leak

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25
Which of the following is a use for a VPN concentrator? Load balancing Internet connectivity Intrusion detection Remote access
Remote access
26
If the organization requires a firewall feature that controls network activity associated with DoS attacks, which of the following safeguards should be implemented? Loop protection Flood guard Implicit deny Port security
Flood Guard
27
Wired traffic must be encrypted because there is concern about protecting the security of login and password information for internal high-level users. Which technology should you implement? NAT VPN VLAN DMZ
VPN
28
Which of the following are uses for proxy servers? (Choose all correct answers.) Internet connectivity Intrusion detection Web content caching Load balancing
Internet connectivity Web content caching Load balancing
29
If the organization requires a switch feature that makes additional checks in Layer 2 networks to prevent STP issues, which of the following safeguards should be implemented? Flood guard Implicit deny Port security Loop protection
Loop protection
30
You are setting remote access for users and want to be sure a secure channel is used. Which technology should you implement? NAT VLAN DMZ VPN
VPN
31
Which of the following uses a secure cryptoprocessor that accelerates cryptographic processes and provides strong access authentication for critical application encryption keys? Full disk encryption Hardware security module Public key infrastructure File-level encryption
Hardware security module (HSM)
32
You have recently had problems with clients in one particular area of the network not being able to connect to a server. Which of the following tools should you use to begin troubleshooting? Ping Nslookup Netstat Telnet
ping
33
You have been tasked with testing the strength of user passwords. Which of the following tools is the best choice to help accomplish this task? Nmap Brutus OpenPuff Metasploit
Brutus
34
Which of the following is used for penetrating testing and risk assessments? Banner grabbing Configuration compliance scanner Honeypot Exploitation framework
Exploitation framework
35
Which of the following is used to help troubleshoot network issues by gathering packet-level information across the network? Data sanitation tools Protocol analyzer Vulnerability scanner Port scanner
Protocol analyzer
36
You have recently had problems with clients not being able to resolve domain names correctly. Which of the following tools should you use? Nslookup Netstat Ifconfig Ping
nslookup
37
It has been reported that some weak user passwords from your organization have shown up on the Internet. Which of the following tools would provide information to confirm or deny this allegation? Camouflage Tcpdump Cain and Abel SolarWinds
Cain and Abel
38
Which of the following is used to identify the level of aggressive attention directed at a network and to study and learn from an attacker’s common methods of attack? Vulnerability scanner Configuration compliance scanner Banner grabbing Honeypot
Honeypot
39
You are required to check user permissions for the finance group that includes specific registry keys. Which of the following should you choose? Content filter Audit user permissions DNS HTTPS
Audit user permissions
40
Which of the following is associated with certificate issues? Release of private or confidential information Prevention of legitimate content Algorithm mismatch error Unauthorized transfer of data
Algorithm mismatch error
41
You are required to implement a solution to identify baseline deviations for varying workloads across different days. Which of the following should you choose? Alarms Static baselining Alerts Dynamic baselining
Dynamic baselining
42
Recently, some employees have fallen victim to social engineering. Which of the following is the best way to manage this personnel issue? Awareness training Termination A new policy Written warning
Awareness training
43
It has been reported that some clear-text passwords are being transmitted within your organization. Which of the following can mitigate this situation? Auditing of user permissions DNS Content filtering HTTPS
HTTPS
44
Which of the following best describes data exfiltration? Algorithm mismatch error Prevention of legitimate content Release of private or confidential information Unauthorized transfer of data
Unauthorized transfer of data
45
An organization is looking to add a layer of security by implementing a solution that protects hosts against known and unknown malicious attacks from the network layer up through the application layer. Which of the following fulfills this requirement? Whitelisting Encryption DLP HIPS
HIPS
46
Which of the following types of antivirus scanning looks for instructions or commands that are not typically found in application programs? Pattern matching Heuristic Static Manual
Heuristic
47
Which of the following is useful in preventing users and attackers from executing unauthorized applications but does not prevent malicious code from executing? Application whitelisting Patch management DLP Malware inspection filter
Application whitelisting
48
An organization is looking to add a layer of security by maintaining strict control over the devices employees are approved to use. Which of the following fulfills this requirement? HIPS Encryption DLP Whitelisting
DLP
49
Advanced malware tools use which of the following analysis methods? Context based Static analysis Manual analysis Signature analysis
Context based
50
A Windows system is software DEP-enabled. An attacker runs an exploit that injects code into a program, and the program uses known memory space. What will the result be? The malware code will run because it was injected into a known process. The machine will automatically blue-screen and shut down. The malware will be blocked from running the injected code. The code will run with limited functionality.
The malware will be blocked from running the injected code.
51
Which of the following enables decentralized authentication through trusted agents? Transitive trusts Key management Credential management Data ownership
Transitive trusts
52
An organization wants to be sure that certain application data is protected. Which of the following fulfills this requirement? Lockout Blacklisting Whitelisting Encryption
Encryption
53
An organization is looking for a mobile solution that will allow data to be deleted if a device is lost or stolen. Which of the following fulfills this requirement? Passcode policy Remote wipe Voice encryption GPS tracking
Remote wipe
54
Which of the following are used as a most basic form of security in handheld devices? (Choose two correct answers.) Passcode Encryption PIN Fingerprint biometrics
PIN | Passcode
55
Which of the following is included in a BYOD, CYOD, or COPE policy? Data ownership Transitive trusts Credential management Key management
Data Ownership
56
An organization is looking to add a layer of security and maintain strict control over the apps employees are approved to use. Which of the following fulfills this requirement? Encryption Lockout Whitelisting Blacklisting
Whitelisting
57
Which of the following is necessary to implement an effective BYOD, CYOD, or COPE program? (Choose two correct answers.) Infrastructure considerations Legal considerations Storage limitations Key management
Infrastructure considerations | Legal considerations
58
Which standard port is used to establish an FTP connection? 21 443 80 8250
21
59
Which of the following is a protocol that incorporates enhanced security features for VoIP (Voice over IP) or video network communications? HTTPS LDAPS NTP SRTP
SRTP
60
Which of the following should be used to establish a session between client and host computers using an authenticated and encrypted connection? SSH SFTP SNMP S/MIME
SSH
61
Which of the following is a use case for subnetting? Reduced risks during data exchanges Subscription services Host arrangement into the different logical groups that isolate each subnet Regulatory mandates that require accurate time stamping
Host arrangement into the different logical groups that isolate each subnet
62
Which standard port is used to establish a web connection using the 40-bit RC4 encryption protocol? 21 443 80 8250
443
63
Which of the following protocols is used to secure email? SNMP SFTP S/MIME SSH
S/MIME
64
Which of the following is a use case for subscription services? Network automation and data analytics Regulatory mandates that require accurate time stamping Arrangement of hosts into the different logical groups that isolate each subnet Reduced risks during data exchanges
Network automation and data analytics
65
Using a combination of firewalls, intrusion detection systems, content filters, encryption, and auditing procedures in the organization for protection against intrusions is an example of which of the following? Layered security Defense in depth Infrastructure as a Service Community cloud
Layered security
66
Which of the following types of control is a surveillance system? Technical control Physical control Management control Logical control
Physical control
67
Which of the following are the most compelling reasons that secure configuration baselines have been established? (Select all correct answers.) Regulatory bodies Organizational requests Governmental mandates Industry standards
Regulatory bodies Governmental mandates Industry standards
68
Which of the following devices is used to accept encrypted connections from users and then send the connection to the server unencrypted? DMZ SSL accelerator VPN DDoS mitigation appliance
SSL accelerator
69
You are setting up a switched network and want to group users by department. Which technology should you implement? VPN NAT DMZ VLAN
VLAN
70
You are setting up a web server that both the internal employees and external customers need to access. What type of architecture should you implement? VLAN DMZ VPN NAT
DMZ
71
An organization has a sensitive network that needs to have physically isolated machines. Which of the following practices would be used to meet this requirement? Air gap Honeynet VLAN RAS
Air gap
72
An organization is experiencing a large amount of electromagnetic interference (EMI). Which of the following is the best method to provide continuous operations? A generator A RAID configuration A redundant electric connection Extra shielding
Extra shielding
73
Which of the following best describes the result of adding an email address to the blocked list? It is considered part of the whitelist. It is considered part of the graylist. It is considered part of the blacklist. It is considered part of the brownlist.
It is considered part of the blacklist.
74
Which of the following can result in the exploitation of a BIOS vulnerability? (Select all correct answers.) Hard drive failure occurs System cannot boot System locks up Denial of service occurs
System cannot boot | Denial of service occurs
75
Which of the following uses a secure cryptoprocessor to authenticate hardware devices such as a PC or laptop? Public key infrastructure File-level encryption Full disk encryption Trusted platform module
Trusted platform module
76
Which of the following provides a sandboxed environment that can be used to investigate unsafe executables? Network storage Virtualization Application baselining Host software baselining
Virtualization
77
Which of the following is considered good practice for separation of development and test environments? (Select two correct answers.) Different physical locations VLAN VPN Firewall
VLAN | Firewall
78
In which of the following are attestation challenges from computed hashes of system or application information used to obtain confidence in the trustworthiness and identity of a platform or software? Sandboxing Application baselines Staging environments Integrity measurement
Integrity measurement
79
A vulnerability assessment has revealed that legacy internal heart monitors of a hospital’s intensive care unit (ICU) are visibly exposed to the Internet. Which of the following should be implemented? Network segmentation Manual updates Code wrappers Control diversity
Network segmentation
80
Which of the following operating systems is run in a SoC environment? RedHat Enterprise Linux (RHEL) RTOS CAN bus Windows Server 2016
RTOS
81
Which of the following is most likely to use network segmentation as a security method? Mainframes Gaming consoles Android devices SCADA systems
SCADA systems
82
In which of the following phases should code security first be implemented? Testing Review Design Implementation
Design
83
Buffer overflows, format string vulnerabilities, and utilization of shell escape codes can be mitigated by using which of the following practices to test an application? Testing Fuzzing Browser-initiated token request Input validation
Input validation
84
The organization is building a new application and is more interested in being able to use a rigorous methodical process to verify each phase along the way than it is in selecting a fast delivery method. Which of the following should the organization choose? Waterfall Agile Continuous integration IaC
Waterfall
85
An organization is interested in using a vendor SaaS application but is concerned about the lack of cloud security. What type of cloud architecture is the most appropriate? Community Public Private Hybrid
Hybrid
86
Which of the following methods of cloud computing allows the client to literally outsource everything that would normally be in a typical IT department? SaaS IaaS PaaS DaaS
IaaS
87
An organization wants to use a service provider to implement processes for the organization such as identity and access management (IAM) and encryption. Which of the following should the organization choose? SaaS IaaS SecaaS DRaaS
SecaaS
88
An organization that operates a small web-based photo backup business is evaluating single points of failure. The organization has three servers, four switches, and 100 client systems. Which of the following is the most likely component(s) to be the single point of failure? Switches Client systems Servers ISP connection
ISP connection
89
An organization is implementing a data availability solution based on a striped disk array without redundancy. Which of the following best describes this implementation? RAID 1 RAID 0 RAID 5 RAID 10
RAID 0
90
Because of seasonal business fluctuations, an organization uses cloud environments to purchase resources for a short period of time based on demand. Which of the following terms best describes this principle? Elasticity Snapshots Scalability Server redundancy
Elasticity
91
Which type of fire extinguisher is best for putting out burning wires? Sodium chloride Water Carbon dioxide Copper powder
Carbon dioxide
92
What is the plenum? A type of dry-pipe fire control system A mesh enclosure designed to block EMI A mechanism for thermal management A mechanism for controlling condensation
A mechanism for thermal management
93
The ASHRAE recommends humidity levels in which range? 40%–55% 70%–85% 25%–40% 55%–70%
40%–55%
94
An organization that has several small branches in North Dakota, Minnesota, and Ontario, Canada, is planning for a fire-suppression system installation. Which of the following best fits the needs of the organization? Dry pipe Deluge Wet pipe Preaction
Dry pipe
95
If you have a smart card that contains details of your iris coloring and retinal patterns, which two types of authentication would be involved in a successful access request? Something you have and something you do Something you have and something you are Something you are and something you know Something you do and something you are
Something you have and something you are
96
Which of the following best describes the Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) component of AAA functions? Data holder Authenticator Final decision maker Auditor
Authenticator
97
If an organization wants to implement an enterprise access solution that does not require a user to remember passwords across multiple distinct business units, which of the following is the best choice? Federation Single sign-on Transitive trusts Retinal scanning
Federation
98
Which of the following processes occurs when the user provides appropriate credentials such as the correct password and a username? Accounting Authorization Authentication Identification
Authentication
99
Which of the following best describes the Policy Decision Point (PDP) component of AAA functions? Auditor Authenticator Data holder Final decision maker
Final decision maker
100
Which of the following processes occurs first when a user or device presents information such as a username, a process ID, a smart card, or another unique identifier? Accounting Authentication Authorization Identification
Identification
101
An organization that relies heavily on cloud and SaaS service providers, such as Salesforce.com (Links to an external site.), WebEx, or Google, would have security concerns about which of the following? TACACS+ OpenID Connect SAML LDAP
SAML
102
An educational institution requires a secure solution that is capable of interfacing with state systems and other state-run universities. Which of the following is the best solution? Shibboleth OAuth OpenID Connect SAML
Shibboleth
103
An organization is implementing a server-side application using OAuth 2.0. Which of the following grant types should be used? Authorization code Implicit Password credentials Client credentials
Authorization code
104
Which of the following is used with OAuth 2.0 as an extension to the authorization process? LDAP NTLM Shibboleth OpenID Connect
OpenID Connect
105
An organization is implementing an application that needs service access to its own resources using OAuth 2.0. Which of the following grant types should be used? Authorization code Client credentials Implicit Password credentials
Client credentials
106
Which of the following is a nonproprietary protocol that provides authentication and authorization in addition to accounting of access requests against a centralized service for the authorization of access requests? SAML OAuth TACACS+ LDAP
TACACS+
107
Which type of “something you have” factor do U.S. federal governmental employees and contractors use under HSPD 12? SecurID Smart card PIV CAC
PIV
108
Which of the following token-based solutions is considered the most secure? OATH OTP TOTP HOTP
TOTP
109
Which of the following is the best way to secure NoSQL databases such as MongoDB? Use the default port Bind the interface to multiple IPs Implement separate authentication methods Encrypt the data after it is written to the database
Implement separate authentication methods
110
Which of the following best describes a biometric false acceptance rate (FAR)? The point at which acceptances and rejections are equal Failure to identify a biometric image Access allowed to an unauthorized user Rejection of an authorized user
Access allowed to an unauthorized user
111
Which of the following best describes a biometric false rejection rate (FRR)? Access allowed to an unauthorized user The point at which acceptances and rejections are equal Rejection of an authorized user Failure to identify a biometric image
Rejection of an authorized user
112
Which directory services protocol should be implemented to protect against man-in-the-middle data interception attacks? Shibboleth Kerberos LDAP NTLM
Kerberos
113
Which of the following is a type of “something you have” that uses a time-shifting key token? SecurID CAC PIV Smart card
SecurID
114
Which type of password policy protects against reuse of the same password? Expiration Password complexity Password history Account lockout
Password history
115
A user calls the help desk saying that she changed her password yesterday. She did not get any email on her mobile phone last night and she cannot log on this morning. Which password policy is most likely at fault for her difficulties? Expiration Account lockout Password history Password complexity
Account lockout
116
Which of the following reduces the effectiveness of a good password policy? Password recovery Account lockout Password reuse Account disablement
Password reuse
117
Which of the following is considered best practice when formulating minimum standards for developing password policies? Account lockout threshold set to 0 Password length set to six characters Maximum password age set to 0 Required password change at 90 days
Required password change at 90 days
118
Which of the following is one of the first steps that must be taken to provide a secure account access environment? Implement user access reviews Initiate continuous account monitoring Eliminate the use of shared accounts Set user-assigned privileges
Eliminate the use of shared accounts
119
Which of the following is used to create a user identity profile and get the necessary information required to describe the identity? Least privilege Onboarding Recertification Offboarding
Onboarding
120
Which of the following policies addresses the need for other employees who can do the job of each employee so that corruption does not occur, and also helps minimize the impact when personnel leave their jobs? Least privilege Acceptable use Privacy policy Mandatory vacations
Mandatory vacations
121
An organization is partnering with another organization that requires shared systems. Which of the following documents outlines how the shared systems will interface? ISA SLA MOU BPA
ISA
122
Which of the following are steps an organization can take to be sure compliance and performance standards are met in third-party or partner agreements? (Select two correct answers.) Review third-party arrangements and performance annually Implement an acceptable use policy Sign a data ownership agreement Take appropriate action if the relationship presents elevated risk
Review third-party arrangements and performance annually | Take appropriate action if the relationship presents elevated risk
123
Which of the following requires users to remove sensitive and confidential materials from workspaces and lock items that are not in use when they leave their workstations? Clean desk policy Tailgating training Data handling policy Phishing attack training
Clean desk policy
124
Which of the following designates the amount of data loss that is sustainable and up to what point in time data recovery could happen before business is disrupted? RTO MTTF RPO MTBF
RPO
125
Eliminating email to avoid the risk of email-borne viruses is an effective solution but is not likely to be a realistic approach for which of the following? Risk acceptance Risk transference Risk mitigation Risk avoidance
Risk avoidance
126
Which of the following parties typically are notified first when a confirmed incident has occurred? (Select two correct answers.) Press CISO End users Legal
CISO | Legal
127
In which of the following types of analysis might an examiner have difficulty proving that the evidence is original? Log files Big data Disk-to-disk image Disk-to-image file
Big data
128
Which of the following information should be collected when collecting volatile data? (Select all correct answers.) System date and time Full disk image Current open ports and applications listening on those ports Current network connections
System date and time Current open ports and applications listening on those ports Current network connections
129
Which of the following provides a clear record of the path evidence takes from acquisition to disposal? Witness statements Video capture Chain of custody Hashes
Chain of custody
130
Which recovery site has only power, telecommunications, and networking active all the time? Shielded site Hot site Warm site Cold site
Warm site
131
If an organization takes a full backup every Sunday morning and a daily differential backup each morning, what is the fewest number of backups that must be restored following a disaster on Friday? 5 6 1 2
2
132
Which one of the following best provides an example of detective controls versus prevention controls? IDS/camera versus IPS/guard IPS versus guard IPS/camera versus IDS/guard IDS/IPS versus camera/guard
IDS/camera versus IPS/guard
133
Which one of the following federal laws addresses privacy, data protection, and breach notification? HIPAA Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act All answers are correct Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act
All answers are correct
134
Which of the following individual items are examples of PII? (Choose all correct answers.) Home address Gender State of residence Social security number
Home address | Social security number
135
Which of the following is information that is unlikely to result in a high-level financial loss or serious damage to the organization but whose confidentiality should still be protected? Confidential data Private data Public data Sensitive data
Private data
136
Which one of the following best describes diffusion? A principle that states only secrecy of the key provides security A key stretching technique in which a password is used as part of a KDF A principle that if the plain text is changed, no matter how minor, then at least half of the cipher text should change A principle that the plain-text input should be significantly changed in the resulting cipher text
A principle that if the plain text is changed, no matter how minor, then at least half of the cipher text should change
137
Which of the following are elements provided by nonrepudiation? (Choose three correct answers.) Proof of submission Proof of concept Proof of delivery Proof of origin
Proof of submission Proof of delivery Proof of origin
138
Which of the following algorithms are examples of a symmetric encryption algorithm? (Choose three correct answers.) Rijndael Diffie-Hellman AES RC6
Rijndael AES RC6
139
Which of the following algorithms are examples of an asymmetric encryption algorithm? (Choose two correct answers.) Elliptic curve AES 3DES RSA
Elliptic curve | RSA
140
You are tasked with configuring your web server with strong cipher suites. Which of the following should you choose as part of your cipher suite? (Choose three correct answers.) AES SHA RC4 RSA
AES SHA RSA
141
Which one of the following EAP authentication protocols should you deploy to avoid having to deploy client or server certificates? PEAP EAP-TTLS EAP-TLS EAP-FAST
EAP-FAST
142
Which of the following statements is true when comparing CCMP and TKIP? TKIP is more resource-intensive than CCMP, but it supports longer keys. CCMP is less resource-intensive than TKIP, and it supports longer keys. CCMP is more resource-intensive than TKIP, but it supports longer keys. TKIP is less resource-intensive than CCMP, and it supports longer keys.
CCMP is more resource-intensive than TKIP, but it supports longer keys
143
To check the validity of a digital certificate, which one of the following is used? Corporate security policy Certificate policy Certificate revocation list Expired domain names
Certificate revocation list
144
Which of the following is not a certificate trust model for arranging Certificate Authorities? Bridge CA architecture Sub-CA architecture Single-CA architecture Hierarchical CA architecture
Sub-CA architecture
145
Which of the following are included within a digital certificate? (Choose all the correct answers.) User’s public key Digital signature of the issuing CA User’s private key Information about the user
User’s public key Digital signature of the issuing CA Information about the user
146
Which of the following is not true about the expiration dates of certificates? Certificates are issued only at 1-year intervals. Certificates may be issued for 20 years. Certificates must always have an expiration date. Certificates may be issued for a week.
Certificates are issued only at 1-year intervals.
147
What type of certificate supplies mechanisms to help prevent phishing attacks and provides the highest level of trust? EV OV SAN DV
EV
148
Which one of the following is not true regarding DER-encoded certificates? They are common to Java platforms. The .cer and .crt extensions can be used instead of .der. They include the BEGIN CERTIFICATE header. They are binary-encoded.
They include the BEGIN CERTIFICATE header.
149
Which one of the following mechanisms places the responsibility for handling certificate status requests on the web server instead of the CA? OCSP pinning CRL stapling OCSP stapling CRL pinning
OCSP stapling