Practice Questions Flashcards

Question

The idea of a "midlife crisis": Select one: A. has not been supported by recent longitudinal studies B. was observed by Levinson across genders C. is countered by evidence that middle-aged samples have low rates of depression D. was first proposed by Erickson (as the central idea in Erickson's description of the stagnation of middle adulthood)

Answer 1

The correct answer is A. Recent longitudinal studies have shown that life satisfaction appears to be stable through midlife, a finding that counters the idea of a midlife crisis (see Galambos, Fang, Krahn, Johnson and Lachman, 2015 in Developmental Psychology). Answer B: Levinson's sample was exclusively male, making this answer false. Answer C: Rates of depression and serious psychological distress are highest in midlife. See Brody, Pratt & Hughes, 2018, National Center for Health Statistics Brief No. 303). Answer D: Erickson's idea of generativity refers to a drive to leave a legacy that will outlast the individual. It emphasizes having an effect on others, rather than the egocentric behavior described by a midlife crisis.

Answer 2

The correct answer is C. Factors to consider when evaluating the appropriateness of a psychological test for a particular examinee or situation include the qualifications of the examiner and characteristics of the examinee and the test. While test edition should be considered, as test characteristics are updated with each new edition, this is not the BEST answer. Answer A: Examiner qualifications are required considerations for determining test appropriateness. Answer B: Examinee characteristics are required considerations for determining test appropriateness. Answer D: Test characteristics are required considerations for determining test appropriateness.

Answer 3

The correct answer is B. Sleep patterns vary with age. Older adults experience an advanced sleep phase, which refers to a shift in the timing of sleep that involves getting sleepier earlier in the evening and waking up earlier in the morning. Answer A: Although some older adults have difficulty falling asleep, the advanced sleep phase referred to in the question is a timing shift which involves waking up earlier in the morning. Answer C: REM sleep is stage 5 in the sleep cycle, and individuals must go through the first four stages of non-REM sleep until they reach REM sleep. Answer D: Individuals progress through the stages of the sleep cycle in sequential order, although they may spend more or less time in each stage.

Answer 4

The correct answer is C. Papez concluded that destruction of certain interconnected regions in the brain has an adverse impact on emotional experience and expression. These regions include the mammillary bodies, anterior thalamus, cingulate cortex, hippocampus, and fornix. The circuit referred to in this question is known as Papez's circuit. Answer A: Sperry conducted research on split-brain patients. Answer B: Fechner developed Fechner's Law, which is one of several laws used to explain the relationship between sensation and perception. Answer D: Penfield found that stimulation of certain brain areas produced certain movements, while stimulation of other areas produced certain sensations.

Answer 5

The correct answer is C. The "Barnum effect" predicts that people tend to accept vague or general descriptions of themselves as accurate descriptions. It has been used to explain why people believe that astrological predictions or descriptions are accurate. Answer A: The self-serving bias is the tendency to take credit for our successes but blame external events for our failures. Answer B: The looking-glass self predicts that people learn about themselves by imagining how others perceive them. Answer D: The Zeigarnik effect refers to the tendency to recall goals or tasks that have not been completed more readily (often automatically and in an intrusive way) than those that have been completed.

Answer 6

The correct answer is A. Festinger's (1954) social comparison theory centers on the ideas that people have a need to have accurate self-evaluations. We evaluate our beliefs and abilities by comparing them to others, thus enhancing certainty in these areas. Answers B, C, and D: These answers do not reflect the essence of social comparison theory.

Answer 7

The correct answer is D. Standard 4.07 prohibits psychologists from using confidential, information about their clients unless they have taken reasonable steps to remove all personally identifiable information. Simply using a pseudonym is not sufficient, when other details have not been changed. Answer A: Simply using a different name for the client is not sufficient to mask their identity. Answer B: Faculty may use examples if they sufficiently protect a client's identity or obtain client permission. Answer C: Psychologists must protect their client's confidentiality and mask their identity regardless of whether they are teaching undergraduate or doctoral students.

Answer 8

The correct answer is A. The hippocampus is vital to learning and memory. The right hippocampus is involved in memory for nonverbal information, including spatial and temporal memory. For example, in a study of cabdrivers, PET scans revealed that the right hippocampus was responsible for the drivers' ability to form and recall complex routes. Answer B: Psychic blindness is a symptom of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is caused by damage to the amygdala and temporal lobes. Answer C: Research has not linked the hippocampus to the sleep-wake cycle. The reticular activating system regulates arousal and sleep-wake transitions. Answer D: The hippocampus plays a role in declarative memory but does not appear to be responsible for the formation of procedural memories.

Answer 9

The correct answer is D. The APA Ethics Code states, "Whether a psychologist has violated the Ethics Code standards does not by itself determine whether the psychologist is legally liable in a court action, whether a contract is enforceable, or whether other legal consequences occur." Answer A: A psychologist who violates ethical standards is not automatically legally liable in court. Answer B: A psychologist who violates ethical standards is not automatically legally liable in the event of contract breach. Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Legal liability does not automatically stem from ethical violations.

Answer 10

The correct answer is B. Imaginary audience is the belief that one is always the center of attention or that all eyes are on them. Answer A: The invulnerability aspect is one of the sub-characteristics of the personal fable with the other being feelings of uniqueness. Answer C: The imposter phenomena occurs in high achievers who have difficulty internalizing and accepting their success. They often attribute their accomplishments to luck rather than to ability. Answer D: Renewed egocentrism marks the beginning of adolescence and the formal operational stage. This is where the adolescent turns their focus inward on themselves and their experience.

Answer 11

The correct answer is A. Abramson et al.'s (1978) reformulated version of the learned helplessness model added attributions for negative events to the original model. According to the reformulated version, people who are depressed tend to blame themselves for negative events, believe that negative events will always happen to them, and think that negativity will affect all aspects of their lives. Answer B: The fundamental attribution bias refers to the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional factors. Answer C: Lewinsohn's (1974) behavioral model is based on operant conditioning and focuses on the consequence of behavior. Lewinsohn described depression as being primarily the result of a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement. Answer D: Rehm's self-control model views depression as being the result of problems related to self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.

Answer 12

The correct answer is B. Prosopagnosia is a condition in which individuals experience difficulty with recognizing a familiar face, processing facial expressions, and learning new faces. They experience both retrograde and anterograde problems with respect to facial recognition despite normal visual perception. Answer A: Anterograde amnesia is the loss of ability to form new memories. An individual with this condition will forget new information, events, and people. Although individuals with prosopagnosia experience anterograde memory impairments with respect to new people, they have intact abilities to form new memories. Answer C: Agnosia is a general term for the loss of ability to recognize a specific stimulus such as objects, people, smells, etc. Given the answer choices, prosopagnosia is the better answer as it specifically addresses the individual’s presentation. Answer D: Anosognosia describes an individual’s lack of insight or awareness of their disability or the nature of their own illness.

Answer 13

The correct answer is C. Anosognosia is one of several types of agnosia. All agnosias are characterized by a failure of recognition that is NOT due to a sensory deficit or verbal or intellectual impairment. Anosognosia involves a failure to recognize one's own neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis). It often accompanies asomatognosia. Answer A: This is called asomatognosia and is due to damage to the somatosensory cortex. It usually involves the left side of the body. Answer B: Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize familiar faces. Answer D: This is called a scotoma and is due to damage to the primary visual cortex.

Answer 14

The correct answer is C. Symbolic (make-believe) play refers to play in which one object represents another (e.g., a doll represents a baby). For Vygotsky, symbolic play provides a "zone of proximal development" that enables a child to practice behaviors in a situation that requires less precision and accuracy than would be required in reality. Answer A: Flavell is probably best known for his research on children's ability to distinguish between appearance and reality. Answer B: Eleanor and James Gibson are best known for their research on perceptual development in infants. Answer D: Piaget viewed symbolic play as an opportunity to practice representational schemes.

Answer 15

The correct answer is C. Cultural idioms of distress are used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns. Answer A: This is the definition of cultural explanations. Answer B: This is the definition of cultural syndromes. Answer D: This is the definition of cultural concepts of distress.

Answer 16

The correct answer is C. Cultural idioms of distress are used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns. Answer A: This is the definition of cultural explanations. Answer B: This is the definition of cultural syndromes. Answer D: This is the definition of cultural concepts of distress.

Answer 17

The correct answer is D. The Tarasoff decision refers to a psychologist's duty to protect an intended victim. If a client says he is thinking of poisoning his brother, the psychologist should act to protect the brother. Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Tarasoff does not apply in this case. Answer B: Tarasoff does not apply to past situations. Answer C: Tarasoff does not apply to self-harm or suicide cases.

Answer 18

The correct answer is C. The degree to which the environment can determine the expression of a genetic trait is called the reaction range. Genes set the boundaries within which traits can operate, and the environment interacts with the genes to determine where in that range the trait is expressed. Answer A: A confluence of genotype and environmental influence is called a passive-genotype environment correlation. For example, parents pass on genotypes to their children, as well as provide home environments that correlate with their genotypes. A child's temperament may be a result of both of these influences. Answer B: When an individual seeks experience consistent with their genotype, this is called niche-picking. For example, a child with an extroverted orientation may seek out social experiences that encourage that behavior. Answer D: Reaction range refers to the degree to which an individual seeks experience consistent with their genotype.

Answer 19

The correct answer is D. Coprolalia involves repeating socially undesirable words. Answer A: This is the definition of echolalia. Answer B: This defines echokinesis. Answer C: This does not describe coprolalia.

Answer 20

The correct answer is B. An action potential is the electrical impulse that travels through a neuron. An action potential is generated by the movement of positively charged sodium ions into the cell, which creates a state of depolarization (i.e., the interior of the cell becomes less negative). Answer A: An action potential is generated by the movement of positively charged ions, not negatively charged ions. Answers C & D: An actional potential involves a state of depolarization, or the loss of resting potential, not polarization.

Answer 21

The correct answer is B. The item difficulty index ranges from 0 (which occurs when no one answers the item correctly) to 1.0 (which occurs when everyone answers the item correctly). An item difficulty level of .50 indicates an item of moderate difficulty because 50% of examinees in the sample answer the item correctly. For most tests, an average item difficulty of .50 is preferred because it helps scores on the test to be normally distributed and to discriminate between examinees with high and low ability. Answer A: An item's difficulty index of 1.0 means that 100% of examinees answer the item correctly. This means that the scores on the test will not be normally distributed and there will not be a discrimination between learners with high and low ability. Answer B: An item difficulty level of .10 indicates a difficult item, because only 10% of examinees answer the item correctly. This also means that the scores on the test will not be normally distributed and there will not be a discrimination between learners with high and low ability. Answer D: An item difficulty level of 0 means that no examinees answer this item correct, and would therefore lead to scores that are not distributed normally and would not discriminate among examinees' ability level.

Answer 22

The correct answer is B. In the Introduction of the APA Ethics Code, psychologists are advised that when there is a conflict between ethical and legal requirements, psychologists must resolve it in a way that is "in keeping with basic principles of human rights." Answer A: This answer is incorrect as it is incomplete. It is important to understand that the code advises psychologists to weigh human rights when faced with a conflict between ethical and legal responsibilities. Answer C: This answer is incorrect. It fails to include language specific to the Ethics Code. Answer D: This answer is too vague.

Answer 23

The correct answer is C. Longer tests tend to be more reliable (assuming that the added items are similar in terms of quality and content to the original items). In addition, the reliability coefficient (like all correlation coefficients) is larger when the range of scores is unrestricted, which occurs when examinees are heterogeneous with regard to the attribute being measured by the test. Answers A, B, and D: Increasing the length of a test and increasing the heterogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by a test will most likely maximize the magnitude of a test's reliability coefficient.

Answer 24

The correct answer is C. Vocational overshadowing occurs when a professional overlooks a client's vocational problems because the client has a co-existing personal problem. Answer A: Diagnostic overshadowing was originally used to describe the tendency of health professionals to attribute all of a person's psychiatric symptoms to his or her intellectual disabilities. Answer B: This is a "made up" term. Answer D: Diagnostic overlooking is not an actual clinical term.

Answer 25

The correct answer is A. The postcentral gyrus contains the primary somatosensory cortex, which mediates touch and other skin and muscle sensations for the contralateral (opposite) side of the body. Answer B: The cerebellum is involved in motor coordination. Answer C: The occipital lobe contains the visual cortex, which is responsible for visual perception, recognition, and memory. Answer D: The prefrontal cortex is involved in executive cognitive functions.

Answer 26

The correct answer is A. Echokinesis involves imitating someone else's movements. Answer B: This sounds more like echolalia. Answer C: This defines Coprolalia. Answer D: Echokinesis does not involve mimicking sound.

Answer 27

The correct answer is A. The research in this area is not entirely consistent, but it does appear that CNS chemotherapy and irradiation treatments for children with cancer do have some negative effects on their cognitive functioning, especially in terms of academic performance. [See, e.g., R. T. Brown and A. Madan-Sevain, Cognitive, neuropsychological, and academic sequelae in children with leukemia, Journal of Learning Disabilities, 26(2), 74-90, 1993.]. Answer B: Research does not show that CNS chemotherapy is associated with neurocognitive deficits but irradiation is not. See explanation for answer A. Answer C: Research does not show that CNS irradiation is associated with neurocognitive deficits but chemotherapy is not. See explanation for answer A. Answer D: Research does not show that any apparent negative impact of either treatment on neurocognitive functioning is actually due to the disease. See explanation for answer A.

Answer 28

The correct answer is D. When factors are orthogonal (uncorrelated), the factor loadings can be squared and summed to calculate the communality. 0.80 squared plus 0.10 squared equals 0.64, plus .01, or .65. The communality for Test A is .65, which means that 65% of variability in Test A scores is explained by Factors 1 and 2. Answers A, B, and C: These responses are incorrect - the communality for Test A is .65, which means that 65% of variability in Test A scores is explained by Factors 1 and 2.

Answer 29

The correct answer is A. Beck's (1976) cognitive theory views depression as being related to negative, illogical self-statements about oneself, the world, and the future. This is referred to as the "depressive cognitive triad. Answer B: The triad does not include negative thoughts about others. Answer C: Beck did not include negative thoughts about others or the meaning of life in this categorization. Answer D: The triad does not include negative thoughts about others.

Answer 30

The correct answer is D. The Wilcoxon Signed Rank test is a nonparametric test used to compare the mean of two sets of data, or the mean value of one set of data to a hypothesized mean, where the data are ranked. Answer A: The one sample or single sample t-test is a parametric test used to compare an obtained sample mean to a known or hypothesized population mean. Answer B: A one sample chi-square test is a nonparametric goodness of fit test and evaluates if a categorical variable follows a hypothesized population distribution. Answer C: ANOVAs are used with variables on a ratio or interval scale, whereas the variables listed in the question are measured on an ordinal scale.

Answer 31

The correct answer is D. Dr. Peterson should continue working with the client. Answer A: In most jurisdictions, psychologists are not required to report abuse when an adult client reveals she or he was abused as a child, unless there is reason to believe the perpetrator is still victimizing a minor. Answer B: Unless the client indicates the abuser is still abusing children or youth, psychologists should not conduct an investigation to determine this. Answer C: If the client wants to report the abuse to police, the psychologist can support her, but the psychologist should not file the report without the client's permission.

Answer 32

The correct answer is A. Overlearning refers to continued practice past the point of mastery. Overlearning is associated with improvements in both short- and long-term recall and resistance to extinction. Answer B: Overlearning has shown to be effective for short-term and long-term recall. Overlearning is also associated with resistance to extinction. Answer C: There are no detrimental effects with overlearning. Answer D: Overlearning has positive effects on recall.

Answer 33

The correct answer i: D. The keyword method is useful for paired associate tasks in which two words must be linked (e.g., foreign language learning). It involves constructing a visual images that combines the two words. Answer A: An acronym involves constructing a word from the first letter of the words to be memorized (e.g., SMART goals are specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and time-bound). Answer B: Chunking involves grouping items that are to be recalled and is useful for increasing the amount of information that can be held in short-term memory. Answer C: An acrostic is a phrase or rhyme that is composed of words that begin with the first letter of the words to be memorized. "Please excuse my dear Aunt Sally" is an acrostic to help remember the arithmetic order of operations (parentheses, exponentials, multiplication, division, addition, subtraction).

Answer 34

The correct answer is B. Children exhibit a number of predictable errors when learning to speak. As its name implies, overextension involves applying a word to a wider collection of objects or events than is appropriate. Answer A: Underextension involves applying a term too narrowly (e.g., using "dog" to refer only to the family dog). Answer C: Overregularization is an overextension of grammatical rules to words that are exceptions (e.g., adding "s" to "feet"). Answer D: Expansion refers to the feedback that adults seem to naturally give young children, which provides children with information on appropriate language use.

Answer 35

The correct answer is A. Epigenesis is the term for the phenomenon in which each stage of development is affected by previous genetic, neural, behavioral, and environmental interactions and, in turn, affects future interactions. For example, environment can influence the expression of certain genetic traits, which can then determine future exposure to select environments. Answer B: Incorrect. Genetic influences are not restricted to the prenatal period of development. Answer C: This statement may be true, but it is not the definition of epigenesis. Answer D: This statement may be true, but it is not the definition of epigenesis.

Answer 36

The correct answer is A. This statement is not true of androgynous individuals. Androgynous individuals actually report higher levels of life satisfaction, are more flexible than either masculine or feminine individuals, and have greater comfort with their sexuality. Answer B: This is a true statement about androgynous individuals -- they tend to have greater comfort with their sexuality. Answer C: Research has shown the individuals who are androgynous tend to exhibit more flexibility than either masculine or feminine individuals. Answer D: This is a true statement. Androgynous individuals report higher levels of life satisfaction.

Answer 37

The correct answer is D. You may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question even if you have never heard of partial correlation since it sounds like what it is. Partial correlation, a type of first-order correlation, is used to determine the degree of association between two variables when the effects of a third variable have been removed from both X and Y. Answer A: A zero-order correlation is the correlation between two variables. Answer B: In the context of correlation, "order" refers to the number of variables that are being controlled for. A first-order correlation controls for one other variable (which is what is described in this question), while a second-order correlation controls for two other variables. Answer C: A multiple correlation coefficient is the correlation between three or more variables.

Answer 38

The correct answer is B. Research by D. Buhrmester and W. Furman found a combination of closeness and conflict among siblings in middle childhood with a trend toward less conflict and greater egalitarianism with increasing age (Perceptions of sibling relationships during middle childhood and adolescence, Child Development, 61, 1387-1398, 1990). Answers A, C, & D: The study cited in the question found that, by the end of middle childhood, sibling relationships had become much more egalitarian and lower in intensity and conflict.

Answer 39

The correct answer is B. Socioeconomic status is one factor that has been found to affect the predictive validity of interest inventories. Members of the middle class usually have the greatest latitude when it comes to choosing an occupation and, therefore, are most likely to choose jobs that coincide with their interests. Answer A: Those with lower SES do not always have the opportunity to pursue occupations that coincide with their interests and frequently choose jobs that provide the greatest pay and security. Answer C: Those with higher SEC often choose occupations on the basis of family tradition or societal expectations rather than interests. Answer D: Members of the middle class usually have the greatest latitude when it comes to choosing an occupation and, therefore, are most likely to choose jobs that coincide with their interests.

Answer 40

The correct answer is A. The most recent version of Cross's model distinguishes between four stages of identity development: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization. An African-American in the internalization stage has developed a strong ethnic identity but has also resolved global anti-white sentiments and become more bicultural. Answer B: The final stage in Cross's (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model is not incorporation. See explanation for response A. Answer C: The final stage in Cross's (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model is not integrative awareness. See explanation for response A. Answer D: The final stage in Cross's (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model is not autonomy. See explanation for response A.

Answer 41

The correct answer is C. Knowing that implosive therapy is based on classical conditioning and uses extinction to eliminate an undesirable response would have helped answer this question. Implosive therapy is used to treat phobic responses and involves repeatedly presenting the feared stimulus (conditioned stimulus or CS) in imagination without the unconditioned stimulus (US) so that the feared stimulus no longer produces an anxiety response. It also incorporates psychodynamic principles by embellishing the imagined images with psychodynamic themes. Answer A: Reciprocal inhibition is a form of counterconditioning developed by Wolpe to alleviate anxiety reactions by pairing a stimulus (CS) that produces anxiety with a stimulus (US) that produces relaxation or other response that is incompatible with anxiety. Thus, pairing stimuli associated with anxiety with stimuli that induce relaxation will result in a more adaptive response to anxiety (and a decrease of anxiety). Answer B: This describes operant, not classical, extinction. Answer D: When using aversive counterconditioning, the stimulus associated with a maladaptive behavior (CS) is paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US) that naturally evokes pain or unpleasant response. As a result, the maladaptive behavior and associated stimuli are avoided because they elicit an undesirable response.

Answer 42

The correct answer is D. Interestingly, the phenomenon described in this question not only occurs in the living brain but can also be induced in cells that have been removed from the brain. This is the name given to the phenomenon described in this question. Long-term potentiation (LTP) is believed to underlie certain types of learning and memory. Answer A: Graded potentiation is a made-up term. Answer B: Hyperpolarization refers to a state of inhibition. Answer C: During the absolute refractory period, a cell cannot "fire" regardless of the amount of stimulation.

Answer 43

The correct answer is D. As an ethical psychologist, you have a responsibility to follow through on possible ethical violations of colleagues. The best course of action would be to confront the colleague directly. In the event that the rumor is not true, the colleague should be made aware of it. Answer A: The APA's Ethics Code requires psychologists to intervene in the event of a colleague's unethical behavior. Therefore, you should not ignore this information. Answer B: Because you are a psychologist and a colleague, you have a responsibility to act on this information. Answer C: The APA's Ethics Code advises psychologists to attempt to remedy the situation directly in most cases. Further, you do not have details to provide in a complaint.

Answer 44

The correct answer is D. As an ethical psychologist, you have a responsibility to follow through on possible ethical violations of colleagues. The best course of action would be to confront the colleague directly. In the event that the rumor is not true, the colleague should be made aware of it. Answer A: The APA's Ethics Code requires psychologists to intervene in the event of a colleague's unethical behavior. Therefore, you should not ignore this information. Answer B: Because you are a psychologist and a colleague, you have a responsibility to act on this information. Answer C: The APA's Ethics Code advises psychologists to attempt to remedy the situation directly in most cases. Further, you do not have details to provide in a complaint.

Answer 45

The correct answer is C. An image presented to the left visual field will be processed by the right hemisphere which controls the left hand. Therefore, the patient will be able to perform this task. If you encounter a question like this on the exam, keep in mind that language is controlled by the left hemisphere in most people and most functions are controlled contralaterally (but olfaction is an exception to this rule). Answer A: Olfactory signals do not cross to the other side of the brain. Consequently, an odor entering the right nostril only will be sent to the right hemisphere. Answer B: Because information projected to the left visual field will be sent to the right hemisphere, the patient will not be able to say what she has seen. Answer D: Information entering the left ear is sent to the right hemisphere. Consequently, the patient will not be able to repeat that information.

Answer 46

The correct answer is D. The actor-observer effect is a cognitive bias associated with how people view their own behavior and the behavior of others. There is a tendency to attribute one's own behavior to external factors and the behavior of others to internal (dispositional) factors. Answers A, B, and C: The actor-observer effect attempts to explain the attributions people make about their own behavior and the behavior of others.

Answer 47

The correct answer is B. Although members of culturally diverse groups express a stronger preference for therapists who are similar in terms of race or ethnicity, race and ethnicity are not always their first consideration. This was the finding of several studies which found that, when members of culturally diverse groups were given a choice between race/ethnic similarity and attitude similarity, most ranked attitude similarity as more important. See, e.g., D. R. Atkinson and C. E. Thompson, Racial, ethnic, and cultural variables in counseling, in S. D. Brown and R. W. Lent (Eds.), Handbook of counseling psychology New York, John Wiley & Sons, 1992). Answer A: The idea that rank race/ethnic similarity is more important than attitude or worldview similarity is the opposite of what some research has found. Answer C: Personality is ranked as less important than attitude or race/ethnicity. Answer D: The idea that rank age and gender similarity is more important than either race-ethic similarity or attitude similarity is not a finding of these studies. See explanation above.

Answer 48

The correct answer is B. The results of the study indicate that people who "struggle" for therapy say it gives them greater satisfaction. This finding is consistent with other research on cognitive dissonance, including studies showing that students say they like a dull club more when they have experienced a difficult initiation. Answer A: The overjustification hypothesis is used to explain why intrinsic motivation decreases after external rewards have been applied. Answer C: The approach-avoidance conflict doesn't really fit the situation described in this question. Answer D: Equity theory makes predictions about how people perform in situations they perceive to be either equitable or inequitable.

Answer 49

The correct answer is A. Standard 1.05 states, "If an apparent ethical violation has substantially harmed or is likely to substantially harm a person or organization and is not appropriate for informal resolution...psychologists take further action appropriate to the situation." Answer B: While Standard 1.04 advises psychologists to "attempt to resolve the issue by bringing it to the attention of that individual," Standard 1.05 allows for further action in more serious cases. Answer C: This answer is incorrect. There are no restrictions regarding the order in which complaints should be filed. Answer D: This answer is incorrect, as this is not required.

Answer 50

The correct answer is A. Standard 1.05 states, "If an apparent ethical violation has substantially harmed or is likely to substantially harm a person or organization and is not appropriate for informal resolution...psychologists take further action appropriate to the situation." Answer B: While Standard 1.04 advises psychologists to "attempt to resolve the issue by bringing it to the attention of that individual," Standard 1.05 allows for further action in more serious cases. Answer C: This answer is incorrect. There are no restrictions regarding the order in which complaints should be filed. Answer D: This answer is incorrect, as this is not required.

Answer 51

The correct answer is C. Psychologists should not require research participants to stay for the full duration of the study and need to communicate that participants may leave. Answer A: The APA Ethics Code does not specify that recruitment through social media is unethical. Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Researchers may pay their participants for their time. Answer D: This answer is incorrect, because it fails to acknowledge that psychologists should not mandate participants complete a research study if they want to leave before it is over.

Answer 52

The correct answer is C. The Tower of London measures attention, memory, and executive functioning. It requires the examinee to move disks, one at a time, so that they end up in a particular goal configuration. Poor performance has been linked to frontal lobe damage, ADHD, autism, and depression. The Tower of London is a variation of the Tower of Hanoi puzzle which consists of three rods and a number of disks of different sizes, which can slide onto any rod. The puzzle starts with the disks in a neat stack in ascending order of size on one rod, the smallest at the top, thus making a conical shape. The objective of the puzzle is to move the entire stack to another rod, while obeying three simple rules. Answer A: The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is used to assess the ability to form abstract concepts and shift cognitive strategies in response to feedback. It requires the examinee to sort response cards using a sorting strategy that is not disclosed; and the examinee is given feedback by the examiner about whether their strategy is "right" or "wrong." Answer B: The Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test, Second Edition is a brief measure of visual-motor integration and is used as a measure of visual-motor development and screening tool for neuropsychological impairment. Administration involves the copy phase in which the examinee is asked to copy the geometric figure designs of 16 cards and the recall phase in which the examinee is asked to draw as many of the designs as possible from memory. Answer D: The Benton Visual Retention Test is used to assess visual memory, visual perception, and visual-motor skills for the purpose of identifying brain damage. The test consists of ten cards that contain one or more simple geometric figures which the examinee is required to reproduce from memory, and the examinee's score is based on the number of figures correctly reproduced and total number of errors.

Answer 53

The correct answer is A. The mesosystem refers to interactions between components of the microsystem, such as the influence of family factors on the child's behavior at school. Answer B: The exosystem consists of elements in the broader environment that affect the child's immediate environment and includes the parents' workplace, the school board, community agencies, local industry, and the mass media. Answer C. The chronosystem consists of environmental events that occur over an individual's lifespan and impact the individual in ways that depend on their circumstances and developmental stage (e.g., the immediate and long-term effects of a change in family structure or socioeconomic status). Answer D: The macrosystem is comprised of overarching environmental influences such as cultural beliefs and practices, economic conditions, and political ideologies.

Answer 54

The correct answer is A. Holland's scale distinguishes between five occupational themes ("RIASEC"): realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. People who score high on the realistic scale are well suited for these types of tasks. Answer B: These tasks fit the investigative type. Answer C: These activities fit the interests of individuals receiving the highest score on the conventional scale. Answer D: These tasks are of greatest interest to individuals with a high score on the enterprising scale.

Answer 55

The correct answer is A. Holland's scale distinguishes between five occupational themes ("RIASEC"): realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. People who score high on the realistic scale are well suited for these types of tasks. Answer B: These tasks fit the investigative type. Answer C: These activities fit the interests of individuals receiving the highest score on the conventional scale. Answer D: These tasks are of greatest interest to individuals with a high score on the enterprising scale.

Answer 56

The correct answer is C. As its name implies, solution-focused therapy focuses on solutions rather than problems. Solution-focused therapists use "exceptions" to help identify solutions to a client's problems. An exception is a time when the problem did not exist or existed in a less intense form. Answer A: This sounds more like the approach a Bowenian family therapist would adopt. Answer B: This isn't characteristic of the solution-focused approach. Answer D: This is not characteristic of this approach.

Answer 57

The correct answer is D. Rutter's (1979) indicators for psychopathology are low SES, marital discord, large family size and overcrowding, paternal criminality, maternal psychiatric disorder, and being placed in foster care. Racial/ethnic minority status is not one of Rutter's indicators. Answer A: Low SES was identified by Rutter as a high-risk factor. Answer B: Rutter identified large family size as a high-risk factor. Answer C: Maternal psychopathology was also identified as a risk factor by Rutter.

Answer 58

The correct answer is C. Sensitivity refers to the percent of cases in the validation sample that have the attribute being assessed and were accurately classified as having the attribute by the predictor. Answer C is the formula for calculating sensitivity. Answer A: This is the formula for the positive predictive value. Answer B: This is the formula for the negative predictive value. Answer D: This describes the formula for calculating specificity.

Answer 59

The correct answer is A. The Columbia Mental Maturity Scale-Third Edition (CMMS) is a test of general reasoning ability for children ages 3:6 through 9:11. A unique feature of the CMMS is that it does not require verbal responses or fine motor skills. Although the CMMS was originally developed for children with cerebral palsy, it is also useful for children with brain damage, intellectual disability, speech impairments, hearing loss, or limited English proficiency. Answer B: The Haptic Intelligence Scale is for individuals ages 16:0 and older who are blind or partially sighted. Answer C: The Cognitive Abilities Test (CogAT) measures an examinee's reasoning abilities in three areas that are linked to academic. The test is appropriate for students in grades K through 12, is used to predict school grades, and determines a student's eligibility for placement in a gifted/talented program. It was not specifically developed for children with cerebral palsy. Answer D: The Hiskey-Nebraska Test is a measure of learning ability for children ages 3:0 to 17:6 who have hearing or language impairments.

Answer 60

The correct answer is C. In the situation described in this question, participants will not know the real purpose of the study. Demand characteristics are cues in the experimental setting that inadvertently convey information to participants about what behavior is expected. If participants do not know what the purpose of the study is, they will be less susceptible to the effects of any cues that happen to be present. Answer A: The Hawthorne effect is the tendency for the research participants' performance to improve as the result of the attention they receive as research participants. In other words, it is knowing that they are in a study (not knowing the purpose of the study) that impacts performance. Answer B: The Rosenthal effect (self-fulfilling prophecy) refers to the impact of a teacher's expectations about the students' performance on their actual performance. Answer D: Differential attrition occurs when participants who drop out of one group differ in a systematic way from those who drop out of another group and this difference affects the study's results.

Answer 61

The correct answer is D. Position-emission topography (PET) scans provide information on the functions of the brain and brain activity, including cerebral blood flow, glucose metabolism, and oxygen consumption. Answer A: Computed tomography (CT) provides information on the physical structure of the brain. CT utilizes X-rays to obtain images of horizontal slices of brain tissue. Answer B: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is another structural neuroimaging technique that provides information on the physical structure of the brain. An MRI provides cross-sectional images of the brain using magnetic fields and radio waves. Answer C: Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) is another name for MRI, which is a structural imaging technique.

Answer 62

The correct answer is A. For the exam, you want to be familiar with several terms that are used to describe the adequacy of a criterion measure. These are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. This is the correct definition of criterion deficiency. An actual criterion (the criterion measure) is deficient to the extent that it does not measure the conceptual (or hypothetical) criterion. In other words, job performance is due to several factors, but most criterion measures are deficient because they measure only one or two of those factors. Answer B: This response describes one aspect of criterion contamination. Answer C: This describes another aspect of criterion contamination. Answer D: This describes the unreliability of a criterion measure.

Answer 63

The correct answer is C. Of the answers available, this one is the best. Talking with the client about her options makes the most sense. While the other psychologist's behavior is clearly unethical and may be causing harm, Dr. Cohen cannot file a complaint or contact the other therapist without the client's permission. Answer A: Client confidentiality takes precedence over reporting another psychologist's unethical behavior, and this answer does not indicate the client has given permission. Answer B: Without the client's permission, Dr. Cohen cannot contact the previous psychologist. Answer D: This answer is obviously incorrect as Dr. Cohen would not want to contact another client.

Answer 64

The correct answer is D. The term "critical period" refers to a period when a specific experience will have its greatest impact on development. Lorenz applied the term to the period during which geese bond with (imprint on) their mothers. Lorenz found that the "critical period" for imprinting in geese is 2-3 days after birth. In other words, geese will stay close (attach) to stimuli that they are exposed to two to three days after birth. Research investigating the existence of a similar critical period in humans has been inconclusive. Answer A: As defined by Lorenz, the critical period involves bonding rather than personality development and occurs shortly after birth. Answer B: Lorenz's definition of the critical period does not involve growth spurts. Answer C: As defined by Lorenz, the critical period occurs after birth.

Answer 65

The correct answer is B. Adolescents are in the foreclosure status when they have not experienced a crisis but have adopted an identity (occupation, ideology, etc.) that has been imposed by the same-sex parent or other person. Answer A: Adolescents exhibiting diffusion have not yet experienced an identity crisis or explored alternatives and are not committed to an identity. Answer C: Identity moratorium occurs when an adolescent experiences an identity crisis and actively explores alternative identities. Answer D: Adolescents who have resolved the identity crisis by evaluating alternatives and committing to an identity are "identity achieved."

Answer 66

The correct answer is D. According to Thomas and Chess's goodness-of-fit model, behavioral and adjustment outcomes are best for children when parents' caregiving behaviors match their child's temperament. Answer A: Congruence is a term used by Carl Rogers to describe a state in which a person's ideal self and actual experience are consistent or very similar. Answer B: The lock-and-key theory purports a specific fit between two or more of its components, in a way analogous to how a key fits in a lock. It's not specific to parenting or attachment. Answer C: This is not a specific psychological term related to temperament, parenting, or attachment, rather it is broad term used to explain ideal environments in general.

Answer 67

The correct answer is B. The size and sign of a predictor's regression coefficient are related to the nature of the correlation between the predictor and criterion. A negative sign means that there is an inverse (negative) correlation between the predictor and the criterion. Answer A: A negative sign does not mean there is anything wrong with the predictor. A negative sign simply means there is an inverse correlation. Answer C: No correlation is indicated by a correlation coefficient of 0, which indicates there isn't a relationship between the predictor and criterion. Answer D: A negative regression coefficient is a possibility and is not necessarily indicative of a data entry or calculation error.

Answer 68

The correct answer is C. Marcia (1980) distinguished between four identity statuses: diffusion, foreclosure, moratorium, and achievement. Information about these statuses is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials. Identity-foreclosed individuals have made a commitment to an identity that has been imposed by parents or other authority figures. Answer A: Moratorium occurs when adolescent experiences an identity crisis and actively explores alternative identities. See explanation for answer C. Answer B: Diffusion occurs when adolescents have not yet experienced an identity crisis or explored alternatives and are not committed to an identity. See explanation for answer C. Answer D: Pseudo-achievement is not one of Marcia's "identity statuses." See explanation for answer C.

Answer 69

The correct answer is C. The goal of in vivo exposure is to extinguish the classically conditioned response by repeatedly exposing the person to the conditioned stimulus (CS) without the unconditioned stimulus (US). There is evidence that high anxiety arousal is not necessary for successful treatment with in vivo exposure. Answer A: The is the opposite of what has been found to be true. Answer B: Arousability has been linked to the effects of systematic desensitization, not in vivo exposure. Systematic desensitization is usually more successful for individual low in arousability than for those high in arousability. Answer D: Counterconditioning is not a component of in vivo exposure.

Answer 70

The correct answer is C. The goal of in vivo exposure is to extinguish the classically conditioned response by repeatedly exposing the person to the conditioned stimulus (CS) without the unconditioned stimulus (US). There is evidence that high anxiety arousal is not necessary for successful treatment with in vivo exposure. Answer A: The is the opposite of what has been found to be true. Answer B: Arousability has been linked to the effects of systematic desensitization, not in vivo exposure. Systematic desensitization is usually more successful for individual low in arousability than for those high in arousability. Answer D: Counterconditioning is not a component of in vivo exposure.

Answer 71

The correct answer is B. Skinner found that his animal subjects would repeat behaviors that were accidentally reinforced and proposed that noncontingent reinforcement may account for the acquisition of superstitious behaviors in humans. Answer A: Experimental neurosis refers to subjects' uncharacteristic behaviors that may include extreme restlessness, agitation, and unprovoked aggression, which may occur when subjects have difficulty with stimulus discriminations. Answer C: Overshadowing occurs when two neutral stimuli are repeatedly presented together prior to an unconditioned stimulus (US). Subsequent presentations of the two stimuli together produce a CR, but when the two stimuli are presented separately, only the stimulus that is more salient to the subject will produce a CR. Answer D: Satiation occurs when a reinforcer loses its effectiveness.

Answer 72

The correct answer is D. According to the DSM-5, Autism Spectrum Disorder must be distinguished from Rett Syndrome, Selective Mutism, Language Disorder, Intellectual Disability, Stereotypic Movement Disorder, ADHD, and Schizophrenia. Social Anxiety Disorder is not included as a differential. Answer A: Individuals along the spectrum may have motor deficits. Thus, this is an important differential diagnosis to consider. Answer B: This is a common differential as many individuals with Autism Spectrum Disorder have intellectual impairments. Answer C: Given the overlap of some of the negative symptoms associated with Schizophrenia this is an important differential.

Answer 73

The correct answer is C. Lowering the predictor (screening device) cutoff score increases the number of positives and decreases the number of negatives. Positives are individuals who are identified by a predictor as having the attribute being assessed - in this case, the people who are at risk for drug abuse. Answers A, B, and D: Lowering the predictor cutoff score increases the number of true and false positives.

Answer 74

The correct answer is C. Stimulants increase the amount dopamine and norepinephrine (through blocking reuptake) resulting in an increase in alertness; many individuals taking stimulants also experience in reduction in appetite and insomnia. When an individual experiences withdrawals from a stimulant, their appetite returns, they may become more fatigued, require more sleep, and in general experience lower energy levels. Symptoms of paranoia can also occur with withdrawal from stimulant medications. Answer A: Withdrawal from benzodiazepines are similar to alcohol withdrawal and can be fatal. Individuals withdrawing from benzodiazepines may present with various symptoms depending on the severity of withdrawal which can include tremors, sweating, agitation, increase in autonomic reactions, hallucinations, panic, and seizures. Answer B: Side of effects of SSRIs can include nervousness, restlessness, insomnia, and gastrointestinal distress. Individuals may also experience sexual dysfunction and children and adolescents are at-risk for increases in suicide ideation and attempts. Answer D: Even though beta blockers are generally well tolerated, they can cause a variety of side effects such as sexual dysfunction, difficulty sleeping, fatigue, dizziness, shortness of breath, nightmares, and arterial insufficiency.

Answer 75

The correct answer is C. The Preamble of the APA Ethics Code states its goals include, "the welfare and protection of the individuals and groups with whom psychologists work and the education of members, students, and the public regarding ethical standards of the discipline." Answer A: Promoting discipline is not the main goal of the Ethics Code. Answer B: This answer is incorrect because it does not fully respond to the question. Answer D: Education is one goal of the Ethics Code, but this answer is incomplete as it does not address the other goal, which is protecting those with whom psychologists work.

Answer 76

The correct answer is B. Anaclitic depression is a term used to describe the transient depressed state of infants after their separation from a mothering figure. This term has been used in research with human infants and animal infants, ranging from experiments with nonhuman primates to studies with guinea pigs and rats. Answer A: Anaclitic depression is not a syndrome and is not associated with developmental delays. Answer C: Fetal alcohol syndrome children suffer significant problems such as retarded intellect, stunted growth, and nervous system abnormalities, social problems, and isolation. Anaclitic depression is not associated with in utero alcohol exposure. Answer D: Common to all insecurely attached children is the inability to use one's parent as a secure base and safe haven, and negative beliefs about the availability and accessibility of caregivers. The term anaclitic depression has not been associated with this syndrome.

Answer 77

The correct answer is B. The term cultural encapsulation was used by Wrenn (1985) to describe the characteristics of a therapist who is "encapsulated" within his/her dominant culture. Culturally encapsulated therapists not only view clients' problems through the filter of their own culture but are also unaware of doing so. Answers A & C: Cultural encapsulation relates to the therapist's worldview and how this impacts her/his client conceptualizations. Answer D: This describes racial prejudice.

Answer 78

The correct answer is A. Successive approximation conditioning is another name for shaping, which is used to "shape" responses that are unlikely to occur spontaneously. Answer B: Differential reinforcement combines positive reinforcement with extinction and involves reinforcing alternative behaviors while ignoring the target behavior. Answer C: Overcorrection is a form of positive punishment and involves a combination of restitution (having the individual "fix" the negative consequences of his/her behavior) and positive practice (having the individual practice alternative behaviors). Answer D: Response cost is a form of negative punishment and involves removing a reinforcer following a behavior in order to reduce that behavior.

Answer 79

The correct answer is D. Evocative genotype-environment correlation occurs when a child’s genetic make-up evokes reactions from parents and others that reinforce his or her genetic make-up. For example, parents suggest joining a sports team for their athletically talented children. Answer A: This describes the passive genotype-environment correlation which occurs when children inherit genes from their parents that predispose them toward particular traits, and the parents provide the children with environments that encourage the development of those traits. Answer B: This is reflective of the active genotype-environment correlation and is also referred to as niche-picking. It occurs when children actively seek out experiences that are consistent with their genetic predispositions Answer C: This is unrelated to genotype-environment correlation.

Answer 80

The correct answer is D. Standard 2.06 advises psychologist to refrain from initiating professional activities when there is a likelihood that personal problems will interfere with those activities. The death of Dr. Preston's sister is significant enough that she should cancel the group or find another psychologist to lead it. Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Dr. Preston's loss is likely to interfere with her ability to successfully lead the group. Answer B: This answer is incorrect. It is unlikely "a few weeks" will be enough time to cope with her sister's death in such a way that Dr. Preston can assure her competence. Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Again, two weeks is unlikely to be enough time to assure she will lead the group with competence.

Answer 81

The correct answer is C. Of the antipsychotic drugs listed in the responses, only clozapine is considered to be atypical because of its effects on the nervous system. Clozapine seems to have limited effects on D2 receptors and, instead, affects D4 and other dopamine receptors as well as serotonin and glutamate receptors. Answer A: Haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic and exerts its effects by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain (especially D2 receptors). Answer B: Fluphenazine is a traditional antipsychotic and exerts its effects by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain (especially D2 receptors). Answer D: Chlorpromazine is a traditional antipsychotic and exerts is effects by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain (especially D2 receptors).

Answer 82

The correct answer is C. Bill's childhood history of problem behaviors and his current attention difficulties and impulsivity are most suggestive of ADHD. Answer A: For a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder, there should be a current pattern of antisocial behavior. Answer B: Adult Antisocial Behavior is included in the DSM-5 with Other Conditions That May Be a Focus of Clinical Attention and applies when the individual exhibits antisocial behavior that does not meet the diagnostic criteria for Antisocial Personality Disorder or another mental disorder. Answer D: The continuous and long-term nature of Bill's symptoms are more suggestive of ADHD than Bipolar I Disorder.

Answer 83

The correct answer is C. Apraxia, aphasia, and agnosia are symptoms of Alzheimer's disease and other cortical dementias. Huntington's disease produces a form of subcortical dementia; therefore, its symptoms differ somewhat from dementia due to Alzheimer's disease and other forms of cortical dementia. Answer A: Emotional and personality changes are often the first signs of Huntington's disease. Answer B: A "dance-like" gait is characteristic of Huntington's disease. Answer D: Slow writhing movements (athetosis) are characteristic of this disorder.

Answer 84

The correct answer is C. A repeated measures ANOVA is used in a within-subjects design where a researcher administers different levels of the IV or some combination of levels for two or more IVs to each subject. In other words, each subject is exposed to multiple levels of the IV in a sequential fashion. Answer A: The mixed or split-plot ANOVA is an appropriate test when a researcher uses a mixed design where at least one IV is a between-groups variable and one IV is a within-subjects variable. Answer B: A MANOVA is used when a study includes one or more IVs and two or more DVs that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale. Answer D: A randomized block ANOVA is used when a researcher wants to control an extraneous variable by statistically analyzing its effects on the dependent variable.

Answer 85

The correct answer is D. There are three types of deafness: conductive, sensorineural, and central. Conductive deafness results from failure of mechanical stimulation to reach the cochlea and can be caused by an infection or obstruction in the outer or middle ear. Answer A: Sensorineural deafness occurs when there is damage to the hair cells within the inner ear. Answer B: Damage to the cochlea also results in sensorineural deafness. Answer C: Lesions in the auditory cortex are a cause of central deafness.

Answer 86

The correct answer is C. The symptoms listed in this question are common side effects of naltrexone, which is an opioid receptor antagonist that blocks the craving for and reinforcing effects of alcohol. Answer A: Disulfram is another drug used to prevent alcohol use in individuals with Alcohol Use Disorder, and its side effects include drowsiness, depression, disorientation, headache, restlessness, impotence, and blood dyscrasias (blood disorders such as anemias, cancers of the blood, and difficulty clotting). Answer B: Methylphenidate is typically used to treat ADHD and its side effects include decreased appetite, insomnia, dysphoria, abdominal pain, and tachycardia. Answer D: Propranolol is a type of beta-blocker and is used to treat high blood pressure, angina, tremors, migraine headaches, and glaucoma. Side effects include bradycardia, shortness of breath, arterial insufficiency, nausea, diarrhea, depression, dizziness, sexual dysfunction, trouble sleeping, and tingling in the fingers and toes.

Answer 87

The correct answer is A. Although the relative accuracy of statistical (actuarial) and clinical predictions continues to be debated, the research indicates that some general conclusions can be drawn. In their meta-analysis of the research, Grove and Meehl (1996) found that actuarial prediction alone was most accurate in 64 studies, a combination of actuarial prediction and clinical judgment was most accurate than either alone in 64 studies, and clinical judgment alone was most accurate in only 8 studies. Answer B: Research on complex clinical decision-making has not confirmed that clinical judgment is usually more accurate than statistical prediction. See explanation for response A. Answer C: Research on complex clinical decision-making has not confirmed that clinical judgment is more accurate than statistical prediction as long as the clinician "optimizes" rather than "satisfices" (which sounds like the opposite of what the bounded rationality (administrative) model espouses with regards to decision-makers). See explanation for response A. Answer D: Research on complex clinical decision-making has not confirmed that clinical judgment and statistical prediction are about equal in accuracy. See explanation for response A.

Answer 88

The correct answer is A. The effects of gender on goal-setting are discussed by E. A. Locke and G. P. Latham (A Theory of Goal-Setting and Task Performance Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice-Hall, 1990). The few studies that have examined the effects of gender have found that, overall, goal-setting is equally effective for males and females. Answer B: Research on the effects of gender on goal-setting does not find that goal-setting increases the performance of both males and females only when goals are participatively set. See explanation for response A. Answer C: Research on the effects of gender on goal-setting does not find that goal-setting increases the performance of males but not females when goals are assigned but increases the performance of males and females when goals are participatively set. See explanation for response A. Answer D: Research on the effects of gender on goal-setting does not find that goal-setting increases the performance of females but not males when goals are assigned but increases the performance of males and females when goals are participatively set. See explanation for response A.

Answer 89

The correct answer is C. The idea that distinguishes the neo-Piagetian theory is the focus on cognitive ability as a necessary precursor to moral reasoning. Answer A: Both Piaget and neo-Piagetian theorists assume a biological basis for moral development. Answer B: The unfolding of moral development in stages is most associated with Piaget. Answer D: While consistency across contexts may be assumed, it is not a central distinguishing feature in the neo-Piagetian theories.

Answer 90

The correct answer is C. The adrenal medulla secretes hormones that initiate the fight-or-flight response. Both epinephrine and norepinephrine are released into the bloodstream by the adrenal medulla. Answer A: The medulla oblongata connects the brain to the spinal cord. It regulates respiration and certain functions of breathing. Answer B: The amygdala is a substructure of the limbic system and is involved in the control of emotional activities. Answer D: The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is located in the hypothalamus and mediates the sleep-wake cycle and other circadian rhythms.

Answer 91

The correct answer is C. Blocking occurs when an association between a conditioned stimulus (CS) and an unconditioned stimulus (US) has been made and, subsequently, the presence of the CS blocks a developing association between a new neutral stimulus and the US. In this situation, the tone will block the light from becoming a CS since the tone was the first stimulus to be paired with the meat powder. Blocking occurs because the second stimulus (the light in this case) provides redundant information and does not become linked to the unconditioned stimulus (meat powder). Answer A: The dog will not salivate in response to the light but will salivate in response to the tone. Answer B: The dog will not salivate in response to the light (alone or with the tone), but will salivate in response to the tone (presented either alone or with the light). Answer D: The dog will salivate in response to the tone.

Answer 92

The correct answer is C. The correction for attenuation formula is used to estimate a test's validity coefficient when the reliability coefficient for the predictor and/or criterion has been increased to 1.0. Increasing the reliability coefficient to 1.0 means that measurement error has been entirely removed. Answers A, B, and D: The correction for attenuation formula is useful for estimating the magnitude of a criterion measure's validity coefficient if measurement error is removed from the predictor and criterion.

Answer 93

The correct answer is C. The beta-blockers are associated with a number of undesirable side effects. Coldness in the extremities occurs in less than 1% of cases. See M.A. Fuller & M. Majatovic (1999), Drug information handbook for psychiatry, Hudson, OH: Lexi-Comp, Inc. Answer A: Bradycardia (slow heart rate) occurs in about 10% of cases. Answer B: Fatigue and malaise occur in about 10% of cases and may lead to a misdiagnosis of depression. Answer D: Decreased sexual ability also occurs in about 10% of cases.

Answer 94

The correct answer is C. As mandated reporters, psychologists are required by law to report suspected child abuse. The fact that the client's two younger sisters live in the home where the client's father is violent, places them at risk, especially since the client was abused herself while she lived there. Answer A: The Tarasoff decision does not have bearing on this case. Answer B: This answer is not completely incorrect, but it fails to account for the fact that the psychologist has a responsibility to report suspected child abuse. Answer D: Developing a safety plan is a good idea, but the more critical ethical and legal concern in this case is that fact that the psychologist has a responsibility to report suspected child abuse.

Answer 95

The correct answer is B. The APA's Ethical Code requires that psychologists document informed consent, but does not specify that such documentation must include a signature. Answer A: While obtaining a signature is a good idea and is one way to document consent, it is not required by the APA's ethics code. Answer C: Securing a witness's signature is not required by APA. Answer D: APA does not require a signature by either a witness or the client, though it does require documentation in the record. A signature is one way to document informed consent, but it is not the only way.

Answer 96

The correct answer is B. The MMPI-2 is commonly used to assess personality and behavior through profile analysis. Several coding systems have been developed to facilitate profile analysis. Simple systems use the two highest scale scores to form a code while more complex systems use the highest scores on three or more scales. Answer A: Factor analysis is a technique that is used to reduce a large number of variables into fewer numbers of factors. This technique extracts maximum common variance from all variables and puts them into a common score. Answer C: The interpretation of an examinee's responses involves considering the number and ratio of responses falling into each category. For example, a large number of "whole" responses on the Rorschach Inkblot test suggests integrated, organized thinking. Answer D: Free association refers to the expression of the content of consciousness without censorship as an aid in gaining access to unconscious processes.

Answer 97

The correct answer is B. Knowing that covert sensitization is classified as a type of aversive counterconditioning may have helped you identify the correct answer. When using covert sensitization, even through imagination, an aversive stimulus that is associated with the undesirable behavior is the conditioned stimulus, which is paired with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits an unpleasant response. In the situation described in this question, the cigarette is the conditioned stimulus and the electric shock is the unconditioned stimulus. Answer A: The cigarette is the conditioned stimulus. Answer C: Covert sensitization utilizes counterconditioning, which is based on classical (not operant) conditioning. Answer D: In operant conditioning, stimulus control is the process by which a behavior does or does not occur due to the presence of discriminative stimuli. Negative discriminative stimuli signal the behavior will not be reinforced. Covert sensitization does not utilize stimulus control.

Answer 98

The correct answer is A. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major functions of the brain structures listed in the answers to this question. Damage to the hippocampus is associated with memory impairments, especially impairments in retaining recently acquired information. Answer B: The hypothalamus is involved in a number of important functions including the maintenance of the body's internal balance (homeostasis). Answer C: The thalamus relays sensory messages to the cortex. Answer D: The reticular activating system (RAS) is involved in arousing the cortex and screening incoming information.

Answer 99

The correct answer is B. Pro bono services are professional services a psychologist provides without charge. The term is not used explicitly in the Ethics Code, but General Principle B (Fidelity and Responsibility) encourages psychologists to contribute some of their professional time for little or no compensation. Given that pro bono services are described in the General Principles, they are not mandated, but are recommended only. Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Because pro bono services are described in the aspirational General Principles, they are not required. Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Pro bono services are recommended, but not required. Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Pro bono services are recommended.

Answer 100

The correct answer is D. Expectancy theory distinguishes between three beliefs that affect motivation -- expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Instrumentality refers to the belief that one's performance will be rewarded. Answer A: Valence refers to the perceived value of the available rewards. Answer B: Autonomy is not part of expectancy theory. Answer C: Expectancy is the belief that one's effort will result in performance.

Answer 101

The correct answer is A. According to the Transtheoretical Model of behavior change, the therapist does not focus on the origin or characteristics of a maladaptive behavior but instead focuses on factors that facilitate a behavioral change. Answer B: This best describes Solution-Focused therapy Answer C: This best describes Interpersonal or Psychodynamic Therapy Answer D. Although there is some overlap between the Transtheoretical Model and Motivational Interviewing, this description most closely aligns with the primary technique of Motivational Interviewing: enhancing the client’s intrinsic motivation by helping the client examine and resolve their ambivalence about changing.

Answer 102

The correct answer is A. The serial position effect refers to the tendency to recall items in the beginning and end of a word list better than the items in the middle of the list. The ability to recall items in the beginning of the list (primacy effect) is believed to be due to the fact that these items have been transferred from short- to long-term memory, while the ability to recall items in the end of the list (recency effect) is due to the fact that they are still present in short-term memory. Answer B: Competing stimuli or disruption from injury or disease will inhibit transfer from short- to long-term memory. This is not addressed by the serial position effect. Answer C: Maintenance rehearsal involves simply repeating information with little or no processing to maintain the information in short-term memory. Answer D: Interference theory suggests that either newly-learned or previously-learned information makes it difficult to retrieve information from long-term memory.

Answer 103

The correct answer is D. The DSM 5 defines cultural explanations as the explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress. Answer A: Cultural idioms of distress are used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns. Answer B: This is a made up term. Answer C: Cultural syndromes are clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience.

Answer 104

The correct answer is D. The DSM 5 defines cultural explanations as the explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress. Answer A: Cultural idioms of distress are used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns. Answer B: This is a made up term. Answer C: Cultural syndromes are clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience.