practice questions Flashcards by Fatjona Gjeloshi

1.Which term refers to the study of how an organ functions?
A. Anatomy
B. physiology

b.physiology

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

2.A group of similar cells performing a specialized function is
referred to as a(n)
A. tissue. B. organ.
C. molecule. D. system

a.tissue

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Cells are to tissues as tissues are to
A. systems. B. molecules.
C. organs. D. organelles

C. organs

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT considered anatomical
position?
A. Standing erect B. Palms facing backward
C. Face forward D. Toes pointing forward

B. Palms facing backward

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

5.Which of the following pairs are opposing terms?
A. Superior/posterior B. Superior/inferior
C. Anterior/inferior D. Superior/anterior

B. Superior/inferior

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which term refers to the back?
A. Inferior B. Lateral
C. Posterior D. Peripheral

C. Posterior

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The heart is _____ to the lungs.
A. dorsal B. superior
C. lateral D. medial

D. medial

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is INCORRECT in describing the
nose?
A. It is superior to the mouth
B. It is medial to the eyes
C. It is on the dorsal aspect of the face
D. It is inferior to the forehead

C. It is on the dorsal aspect of the face

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Appendicular refers to the
A. skull. B. thorax.
C. legs and arms. D. skull and thorax

C.legs and arms

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which type of section divides the body into anterior and
posterior portions?
A. Median B. Transverse
C. Sagittal D. Frontal or coronal

D. Frontal or coronal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Visceral refers to
A. organs. B. tissues.
C. cells. D. atoms.

A. organs

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which two cavities does the diaphragm separate?
A. Abdominal and pelvic B. Dorsal and ventral
C. Thoracic and abdominal D. Cranial and spinal

C. Thoracic and abdominal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The liver would be found in which cavity?
A. Dorsal cavity B. Abdominal cavity
C. Pericardial cavity D. Pleural cavity

B. Abdominal cavity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The urinary bladder is found in which abdominopelvic
region?
A. Hypogastric B. Left lumbar

C. Right iliac D. Umbilical

A. Hypogastric

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Skin is part of
A. integration and coordination.
B. the integumentary system.
C. transportation.
D. support and movement.

B. the integumentary system.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Transportation within the body is mainly part of
A. the nervous system. B. the skin.
C. the skeleton. D. the cardiovascular system.

D. the cardiovascular system.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Homeostasis refers to
A. changing external conditions.
B. stable external conditions.
C. changing internal conditions.
D. stable internal conditions.

D. stable internal conditions.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following occurs as a result of positive feedback
and assists in the maintenance of homeostasis?
A. Body temperature regulation
B. Blood pH regulation
C. Blood clot formation
D. Blood cell production

C. Blood clot formation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Sally is rushed to the hospital with acute appendicitis. Which
serous membrane is in danger of infection?
A. Peritoneum B. Pleura
C. Meninges D. Pericardium

A. Peritoneum

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Different forms of the same element with different numbers
of neutrons are called
A. molecules. B. compounds.
C. isotopes. D. lattices.

C. isotopes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An ion is an atom or molecule that
A. is in a gaseous state.
B. carries an electrical charge.
C. is attracted to a north-seeking pole.
D. forms a visible glow.

B. carries an electrical charge

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A bond created from the sharing of electrons between two
atoms is a(an) ______ bond.
A. covalent B. hydrogen
C. ionic D. polymer

A. covalent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When one atom has a stronger attraction for shared
electrons in a bond than the other atom, a(an) ___________
covalent bond is formed.
A. polar B. nonpolar
C. ionic D. metallic

A. polar

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Substances that are water-loving are called
A. hydrophilic. B. hydrophobic.
C. hydrophoric. D. hydrochromic.

A. hydrophilic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

25. A pH of 5.5 would be considered A. acidic. B. basic. C. neutral.

A. acidic

26. Organic compounds always contain ___________ atoms. A. water B. carbon C. nitrogen D. oxygen

B. carbon

27. Glycogen is A. a monosaccharide used for quick energy. B. a protein found in cell membranes. C. a polysaccharide used as stored energy. D. a fat found in margarine.

C. a polysaccharide used as stored energy.

28. Which of the following contains glucose? A. Protein B. Fat C. Nucleic acid D. Starch

D. Starch

29. Organic compounds that are always insoluble in water are called A. sugars. B. lipids. C. nucleotides. D. proteins.

B. lipids

30. Triglycerides are composed of glycerol and three fatty acids. When the fatty acids contain one or more double bonds, the fat is considered A. saturated. B. unsaturated. C. emulsified. D. synthesized.

B. unsaturated

31. The subunit molecules for proteins are A. atoms. B. amino acids. C. enzymes. D. polymers

B. amino acids.

32. Which of the following is a nucleic acid? A. DNA B. RNA C. Both DNA and RNA D. None of these choices are correct.

C. Both DNA and RNA

33. Which of the following is NOT a component of a nucleotide? A. Pentose sugar B. Phosphate group C. Glucose D. Nitrogen-containing base

C. Glucose

34. Which of the following molecules is the primary energy carrier in cells? A. DNA B. ATP C. RNA D. GNA

B. ATP

35. The movement of protein molecules within the phospholipids bilayer is described by the A. fluid mosaic model. B. lipid mosaic model. C. protein – lipid mosaic model. D. cholesterol mosaic model.

A. fluid mosaic model.

36. Which of the following organelles functions in protein synthesis? A. Ribosomes B. Golgi apparatus C. Smooth ER D. All of these choices are correct.

A. Ribosomes

37. Mitochondria A. produce protein. B. store food. C. produce ATP. D. digest food.

C. produce ATP

38. __________ are small hair-like extensions that produce movement across the surface of cells. A. Cilia B. Flagella C. Microvilli D. Basal bodies

A. Cilia

39. The plasma membrane is A. impermeable. B. permeable to everything. C. selectively permeable.

C. selectively permeable.

40. The random movement of simple substances from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called A. osmosis. B. filtration. C. diffusion. D. pumping.

C. diffusion

41. The movement of H 2 O across a plasma membrane A. is called osmosis. B. is called diffusion. C. requires energy. D. is called osmosis and requires energy.

A. is called osmosis

42. When a cell is placed into a(an) __________ solution, water enters the cell. A. isotonic B. hypotonic C. hypertonic

B. hypotonic

43. Which process does not require a concentration gradient? A. Active transport B. Diffusion C. Facilitated diffusion D. Osmosis

A. Active transport

44. The formation of a pocket of the plasma membrane to bring in solid materials is called A. exocytosis. B. pinocytosis. C. phagocytosis. D. facilitated diffusion.

C. phagocytosis.

45. The division of the nucleus is A. cytokinesis. B. mitosis. C. interphase. D. telophase.

B. mitosis.

46. The division of the cytoplasm and organelles is A. cytokinesis. B. mitosis. C. interphase. D. telophase.

A. cytokinesis

47. The portion of the cell cycle when a cell is not dividing and doing what it is designed to do is called A. interphase. B. mitosis. C. apoptosis. D. exterophase.

A. interphase

48. Which type of tissue covers surfaces and lines cavities? A. connective B. epithelium C. muscle D. connective and muscle

B. epithelium

49. Which type of tissue binds and supports body parts? A. epithelium B. nervous C. connective D. muscular

C. connective

50. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial tissue? A. It readily divides to produce new cells. B. It has a basement membrane to connect to underlying tissue. C. It has many blood vessels to support its nutrient needs. D. It always has a free surface.

C. It has many blood vessels to support its nutrient needs.

51. Which of the following is NOT a shape of epithelial tissue? A. rectangular B. squamous C. columnar D. cuboidal

A. rectangular

52. What type of epithelium is found where simple diffusion occurs? A. simple columnar B. pseudostratified columnar C. stratified squamous D. simple squamous

D. simple squamous

53. What type of epithelium is often found in glands and kidney tubules? A. simple cuboidal B. simple squamous C. stratified squamous D. pseudostratified columnar

A. simple cuboidal

54. What type of tissue lines the small intestine? A. squamous epithelium B. loose connective C. simple columnar epithelium D. simple cuboidal epithelium

C. simple columnar epithelium

55. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelial tissue is found in (on) the A. skin. B. trachea. C. blood vessels. D. digestive tract.

B. trachea.

56. Specialized columnar cells that secrete mucus onto the surfaces of the tissue are called A. adipose cells. B. surface cells. C. goblet cells. D. endocrine cells.

C. goblet cells

57. What type of epithelium is found in the urinary bladder and allows it to stretch and slide to create a barrier? A. simple columnar B. stratified squamous C. stratified cuboidal D. transitional

D. transitional

58. Which type of fiber found in connective tissue provides flexible strength? A. reticular B. collagen C. keratine D. elastic

B. collagen

59. Which of the following is/are connective tissue(s)? A. bone B. cartilage C. blood D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

60. Which of the following is a type of loose connective tissue? A. tendons B. cartilage C. adipose tissue D. ligaments

C. adipose tissue

61. What is the cell found in fibrous connective tissue? A. osteocytes B. chondrocytes C. erythrocytes D. fibroblasts

D. fibroblasts

62. Which of the following connects muscles to bones? A. tendons B. cartilage C. adipose tissue D. ligaments

A. tendons

63. Which tissue has lacunae? A. bone B. cartilage C. tendons D. bone and cartilage

D. bone and cartilage

64. Which of the following is the most common type of cartilage? A. hyaline B. elastic C. fibrocartilage

A. hyaline

65. What type of tissue is made of concentric rings called an osteon or Haversian system? A. compact bone B. hyaline cartilage C. adipose tissue D. spongy bone

A. compact bone

66. The skin consists of ____ regions. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B. 2

67. In which layer of the epidermis are cells constantly dividing? A. stratum corneum B. stratum lucidum C. stratum dermis D. stratum basale

D. stratum basale

68. Which layer of the epidermis protects from abrasion and is found only in thick skin? A. stratum basale B. hypodermis C. stratum corneum D. stratum lucidum

D. stratum lucidum

69. Which layer of the epidermis is closest to the surface? A. stratum lucidum B. stratum corneum C. dermis D. stratum basale

B. stratum corneum

70. Keratin is A. a pigment. B. a waterproof protein. C. located in the hypodermis. D. described by all of these characteristics.

B. a waterproof protein.

71. Melanin A. is a pigment. B. protects the skin from ultraviolet radiation. C. is located in the epidermis. D. is described by all of these characteristics.

D. is described by all of these characteristics.

72 Which layer contains blood vessels AND nerve fibers? A. epidermis B. dermis C. epidermis and dermis

B. dermis

73. Hair is produced by epithelial cells located in the A. epidermis. B. dermis. C. hypodermis. D. dermis and hypodermis.

B. dermis.

74. What type of gland is associated with hair follicles? A. sebaceous glands B. apocrine sweat glands C. eccrine sweat glands D. ceruminous glands

A. sebaceous glands

75. What percentage of a person's skin would be involved if they had burned their left arm, front of the trunk, and the front of their left leg? A. 45% B. 40.5% C. 36% D. 31.5%

C. 36%

76. Athlete's foot is A. a bacterial infection. B. caused by over keratinization. C. caused by sensitivity to chemicals. D. a fungal infection.

D. a fungal infection.

77. Which of the following is the most common type of skin cancer? A. basal cell carcinoma B. squamous cell carcinoma C. malignant melanoma D. Kaposi's sarcoma

A. basal cell carcinoma

78. The epidermis and part of the dermis are damaged from a A. first-degree burn. B. second-degree burn. C. third-degree burn. D. fourth-degree burn.

B. second-degree burn.

79. Which of the following is a function of the skin? A. protection B. sensory reception C. synthesis of vitamin D D. all of these are functions

D. all of these are functions

80. What is needed to produce vitamin D? A. calcium B. phosphorus C. ultraviolet light D. calcium and phosphorus

C. ultraviolet light

81. Which of the following is a function of the skeleton? A. produces blood cells B. provides sites for muscle attachment C. protects internal organs D. All of the choices are functions

D. All of the choices are functions

82. Which of the following is NOT a general shape to classify bones? A. long B. short C. rectangular D. irregular

C. rectangular

83. The end of a long bone is the A. diaphysis. B. periosteum. C. shaft. D. epiphysis.

D. epiphysis.

84. The shaft of a long bone is the A. periosteum. B. diaphysis. C. articular cartilage. D. endosteum.

B. diaphysis

85. The medullary cavity contains A. yellow marrow. B. spongy bone. C. the periosteum. D. red marrow.

A. yellow marrow

86. Red marrow A. produces blood cells. B. is located in spongy bone. C. is located in the epiphyseal plate. D. produces blood cells and is located in spongy bone

D. produces blood cells and is located in spongy bone

87. What are the cells found within an osteon? A. osteoblasts B. osteocytes C. epiphysealcytes D. chondrocytes

B. osteocytes

88. What are the small passageways through compact bone that connect osteocytes to each other and the central canal? A. lamellae B. lacunae C. canaliculi D. osteons

C. canaliculi

89. Which of the following is NOT a feature of compact bone? A. lacunae B. lamellae C. trabeculae D. osteon

C. trabeculae

90. Which of the following are the bone-eating (reabsorbing) cells? A. osteoprogenitor cells B. osteocytes C. osteoblasts D. osteoclasts

D. osteoclasts

91. Which would form by way of intramembranous ossification? A. humerus B. metacarpal C. frontal bone D. clavicle

C. frontal bone

92. During endochondral ossification A. hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue. B. osteoblasts break down bone. C. hyaline cartilage is replaced by bone. D. simple fractures are more common

C. hyaline cartilage is replaced by bone.

93. What structure is the site of bone growth in length? A. primary ossification center B. epiphyseal plates C. periosteum D. None of the choices are correct.

B. epiphyseal plates

94. The addition of new bone on top of existing bone to increase bone thickness is called A. endochondral ossification. B. intramembranous ossification. C. osteoprogenesis. D. appositional growth.

D. appositional growth

95. A __________ is a rounded opening through a bone. A. foramen B. fossa C. trochanter D. condyle

A. foramen

96. A condition in which bones lose bone mass and therefore become weak is A. osteomyelitis. B. osteogenesis. C. osteoporosis. D. osteomalacia.

C. osteoporosis.

97. What are the structures that are air-filled spaces of the skull bones? A. sutures B. fontanels C. paranasal sinuses D. lacrimal ducts

C. paranasal sinuses

98. The membrane soft spots of a newborn's skull A. are synovial in nature. B. occur only as a result of illness. C. are called fontanels. D. become foramina.

C. are called fontanels.

99. Which of the following bones forms the forehead? A. parietal B. frontal C. mandible D. temporal

B. frontal

100. Which of the following bones forms most of the roof of the cranium? A. parietal B. frontal C. mandible D. temporal

A. parietal

101. Which of the following bones form the upper jaw? A. maxilla B. mandible C. palatine D. lacrimal

A. maxilla

102. What is the only movable bone of the skull? A. temporal B. mandible C. maxilla D. zygomatic

B. mandible

103. Which bone has no articulation with any other bone? A. vomer B. axis C. hyoid D. scapula

C. hyoid

104. Which of the following pairings of vertebra and their number is correct? A. cervical – five B. thoracic – seven C. lumbar – five D. sacrum – three

C. lumbar – five

105. An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called A. lordosis. B. kyphosis. C. hunchback. D. scoliosis.

D. scoliosis.

106. The tailbone is called the A. sacrum. B. atlas. C. ilium. D. coccyx.

D. coccyx.

107. Which ribs do NOT attach anteriorly to the sternum? A. true ribs B. false ribs C. floating ribs

C. floating ribs

108. Another name for the collarbone is the A. scapula. B. clavicle. C. sternum. D. xiphoid.

B. clavicle

109. The bone of the upper arm is the A. ulna. B. radius. C. scapula. D. humerus.

D. humerus.

110. Which forearm bone is on the thumb side when in anatomical position? A. radius B. ulna C. carpal D. humerus

A. radius

111. What is another name for the wrist? A. tarsals B. metacarpals C. carpals D. phalanges

C. carpals

112. Another name for the bones of the hand is A. tarsals. B. metacarpals. C. carpals. D. phalanges.

B. metacarpals.

113. The phalanges are the bones of the A. hand. B. fingers. C. wrist. D. foot.

B. fingers

114. Which of the following coxal bones is most inferior and allows a person to sit? A. ischium B. ilium C. pubis

A. ischium

115. The seven ankle bones are called the A. carpals. B. metatarsals. C. metacarpals. D. tarsals.

D. tarsals

116. The largest of the ankle bones that forms the heel is the A. talus. B. calcaneus. C. navicular. D. cuboid.

B. calcaneus.

117. Which type of joint is correctly matched with the amount of movement they allow? A. synarthrosis – slight movement B. amphiarthrosis – immovable C. diarthrosis – freely movable

C. diarthrosis – freely movable

118. Sutures occur mainly in the A. cranium. B. pelvic girdle. C. tarsals. D. wrist.

A. cranium.

119. Which of the following is NOT a cartilaginous joint? A. between the ribs and the sternum B. between the bodies of the vertebra C. between the two pelvic bones D. between each tooth and its socket

D. between each tooth and its socket

120. What material is found within the joint cavity of a synovial joint? A. fibrous connective tissue B. synovial fluid C. fibrocartilage D. ligaments

B. synovial fluid

121. Bursae are A. tendons. B. types of joints. C. fluid-filled sacs. D. cartilage pads.

C. fluid-filled sacs

122. What type of synovial joint is found between the carpal and metacarpal of the thumb? A. pivot B. hinge C. condyloid D. saddle

D. saddle

123. The elbow is an example of a __________ joint. A. ball-and-socket B. hinge C. gliding D. pivot

B. hinge

124. A hip is an example of a __________ joint. A. ball-and-socket B. hinge C. gliding D. pivot

A. ball-and-socket

125. A wrist is an example of a __________ joint. A. ball-and-socket B. hinge C. gliding D. pivot

C. gliding

126. What type of synovial joint movement will move a body part laterally, away from the body? A. adduction B. extension C. dorsiflexion D. abduction

D. abduction

127. What type of joint disease is described by deterioration of articular cartilage? A. osteoarthritis B. osteoporosis C. rheumatoid arthritis D. gout

A. osteoarthritis

128. What type of synovial joint movement is the movement of a body part around its own axis? A. flexion B. supination C. pronation D. rotation

D. rotation

129. Rotating the arms so that the palms are forward is an example of A. elevation. B. abduction. C. inversion. D. supination.

D. supination.

130. What type of joint disease is described by the autoimmune inflammation of the synovial membrane? A. osteoarthritis B. osteoporosis C. rheumatoid arthritis D. gout

C. rheumatoid arthritis

131. Which type of muscle tissue has intercalated disks? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. smooth D. Both cardiac and skeletal are correct.

A. cardiac

132. Which type of muscle tissue is striated? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. smooth D. Both cardiac and skeletal are correct.

D. Both cardiac and skeletal are correct.

133. Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow internal organs? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. smooth D. Both smooth and skeletal are correct

C. smooth

134. Which type of muscle tissue is involuntary? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. smooth D. Both cardiac and smooth are correct.

D. Both cardiac and smooth are correct.

135. Which of the following surrounds a fascicle? A. endomysium B. epimysium C. fascia D. perimysium

D. perimysium

136. Which of the following covers the muscle organ itself? A. endomysium B. epimysium C. fascia D. perimysium

B. epimysium

137. Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscles? A. generate heat B. maintain posture C. move food through the GI tract D. keep blood moving in veins and lymphatics

C. move food through the GI tract

138. The special name for the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is the A. sarcolemma. B. sarcoplasm. C. T tubules. D. sarcoplasmic reticulum.

A. sarcolemma

139. The smooth ER that stores calcium ions is the A. sarcolemma. B. sarcoplasm. C. T tubules. D. sarcoplasmic reticulum.

D. sarcoplasmic reticulum.

140. A sarcomere is A. formed from myosin only. B. the distance between Z lines. C. the length of the H zone. D. between the I bands.

B. the distance between Z lines.

141. Myofibrils A. are located in muscle fibers. B. are contractile units. C. have striations. D. are described by all of these characteristics.

D. are described by all of these characteristics.

142. Myosin is A. a protein. B. the thin filament. C. pulled inward during contraction. D. described by all of these characteristics.

A. a protein.

143. Which of the following proteins is NOT a component of the thin filament? A. tropomyosin B. myosin C. troponin D. actin

B. myosin

144. The A band A. is in the center of the sarcomere. B. is the dark region of the sarcomere. C. contains the overlapping of the thick and thin filaments. D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

145. The sliding filament theory of muscle contraction describes A. how a sarcomere shortens. B. the disappearance of the A band. C. the movement of the myosin in relation to the actin. D. All of the choices are correct.

A. how a sarcomere shortens.

146. Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contain the cross bridges? A. myosin B. actin C. tropomyosin D. troponin

A. myosin

147. What does calcium do during muscle contraction? A. binds to troponin B. binds to the crossbridges C. supplies energy D. hydrolyzes ATP

A. binds to troponin

148. Myoglobin A. breaks down glycogen. B. holds a reserve supply of oxygen in muscle cells. C. is a protein involved in the addition of a phosphate to ADP. D. produces the axon terminal signal

B. holds a reserve supply of oxygen in muscle cells

149. Athletes sometimes complain of oxygen debt, a condition that results when insufficient oxygen is available to completely break down pyruvic acid. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to A. a strong base. B. stearic acid. C. hydrochloric acid. D. lactic acid.

D. lactic acid.

150. Rigor mortis occurs because A. there is no ATP to relax the muscles. B. the body temperature drops. C. there are no brain waves. D. there are no nerve signals

A. there is no ATP to relax the muscles.

151. Summation is A. receiving many impulses in rapid succession. B. the period between stimulation and contraction. C. the depletion of ATP. D. a single contraction that lasts only a fraction of a second.

A. receiving many impulses in rapid succession.

152. A motor unit is A. a group of muscles working together. B. a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it supplies. C. a group of muscle fiber. D. an artery and the muscle fibers it supplies.

B. a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it supplies.

153. When muscles are not used, they shrink or A. atrophy. B. hypertrophy. C. antagonize. D. fatigue.

A. atrophy.

154. Two discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their fuel supply, oxygen supply, and tension. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of slow- twitch fibers? A. a sprint by an Olympic runner B. swinging a baseball bat C. lifting weights D. mountain climbing

D. mountain climbing

155. Which part of a muscle is on the stationary bone? A. insertion B. prime mover C. origin

C. origin

156. The muscle that does most of the work for a particular movement is called the A. prime mover. B. synergist. C. insertion. D. antagonist.

A. prime mover.

157. The biceps brachii and triceps brachii in the upper arm A. are antagonistic. B. are synergistic. C. depend upon activity to determine antagonism or synergism.

A. are antagonistic.

158. The gluteus maximus muscle is named for A. its size and shape. B. its size and location. C. its shape and action. D. its attachment and fiber direction.

B. its size and location.

159. The biceps femoris is named for A. its shape and location. B. its fiber direction and action. C. its shape and number of attachments. D. its number of attachments and location.

D. its number of attachments and location

160. The extensor digitorum is named for A. its action and attachment. B. its location and action. C. its size and attachment. D. its number of attachments and shape.

A. its action and attachment.

161. The __________ raises your eyebrow. A. biceps brachii B. frontalis C. hamstring group D. gluteus maximus

B. frontalis

162. The ______ is used in forming a kiss. A. zygomaticus B. buccinator C. orbicularis oris D. orbicularis oculi

C. orbicularis oris

163. The _______ is used to smile. A. zygomaticus B. buccinator C. frontalis D. orbicularis oris

A. zygomaticus

164. The _______ is used for chewing. A. buccinators B. masseter C. zygomaticus D. Both the buccinator and masseter.

B. masseter

165. The ____________ is used to flex the neck and turn the head laterally. A. trapezius B. temporalis C. sternocleidomastoid D. suprahyoid

C. sternocleidomastoid

166. The _______ will adduct the scapulae and help extend the neck. A. trapezius B. temporalis C. sternocleidomastoid D. deltoid

A. trapezius

167. The _______ will abduct the arm. A. serratus anterior B. deltoid C. latissimus dorsi D. pectoralis major

B. deltoid

168. The __________ flexes your elbow. A. biceps brachii B. frontalis C. triceps brachii D. gluteus maximus

A. biceps brachii

169. The __________ flexes your knee. A. biceps brachii B. quadriceps femoris C. hamstring group D. gluteus maximus

C. hamstring group

170. The ______ will straighten your leg (extend) at the knee. A. adductor group B. quadriceps femoris C. hamstring group D. gluteus maximus

B. quadriceps femoris

171. A _____ is caused by stretching or tearing of a muscle. A. spasm B. cramp C. strain D. tendonitis

C. strain

172. A genetic disease of progressive muscle weakening and degeneration due to the lack of a protein is A. fibromyalgia. B. myasthenia gravis. C. muscular dystrophy. D. osteoarthritis

C. muscular dystrophy.