practice questions Flashcards by Zoe Bremer

The dip of a layer is to the north. In what direction is the strike?
a Northwest
b South only
c East-west
d North-south

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The dip of a layer is to the east. In what direction are the youngest layers?
a North
b West
c South
d East

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The headwall of a fault is down. What kind of fault is it?
a Thrust
b Normal
c Reverse
d Left lateral
e Right lateral

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A fault plane dips to the east. The oldest layers are exposed on the east side of the fault. What kind of fault is it?
a Reverse
b Left lateral
c Normal
d Right lateral

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In basin and range topography, the down-dropped blocks are called
a Horst
b Aulacogen
c Subduction zone
d Graben

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Low-angle reverse faults are called
a Right lateral
b Left lateral
c Thrust faults
d Normal
e Oblique

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An eroded fold has older layers in the center. It is a(n)
a Anticline
b Syncline
c Monocline
d Recumbent

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The compass direction of a line formed by the intersection of an inclined plane with a horizontal plane is called
a Strike
b Direction of dip
c Angle of dip
d Axis

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An anticline is
a A fold shaped like an arch with the youngest rocks exposed in the center of the fold
b A trough-shaped fold with the oldest rocks exposed in the center of the fold
c A fold shaped like an arch with the oldest rocks exposed in the center of the fold
d A trough-shaped fold with the youngest rocks exposed in the center of the fold

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A syncline is
a A fold shaped like an arch with the youngest rocks exposed in the center of the fold
b A trough-shaped fold with the oldest rocks exposed in the center of the fold
c A fold shaped like an arch with the oldest rocks exposed in the center of the fold
d A trough-shaped fold with the youngest rocks exposed in the center of the fold

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A structure in which the beds dip away from a central point and the oldest rocks are exposed in the center is called a(n)
a Basin
b Anticline
c Structural dome
d Syncline

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Fractures in bedrock along which movement has taken plane are called
a Joints
b Faults
c Cracks
d Folds

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In a normal fault, the hanging-wall block has moved ___ relative to the footwall block.
a Upward
b Downward
c Sideways

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Normal faults occur where
a There is horizontal shortening
b There is horizontal extension
c The hanging wall moves up
d The footwall moves down

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Faults that typically move older rock on top of younger rock are
a Normal faults
b Thrust faults
c Strike-slip faults

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What kind of stress produces reverse faults?
a Compression
b Shear
c Extension

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A fault zone headwall is down relative to a footwall. It is a
a Reverse fault
b Normal fault
c Thrust fault
d Strike-slip fault

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A fault is compressional, with a dip of 70 degrees. It is a
a Normal fault
b Reverse fault
c Strike-slip fault
d Thrust fault

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Type of fold that might develop over a laccolith or salt intrusion
a Anticline
b Syncline
c Dome
d Monocline

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An eroded symmetrical fold reveals younger layers in the center. It is a(n)
a Anticline
b Syncline
c Dome
d Basin

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Transform faults may also be described as what kind of faults?
a Convergent faults
b Divergent faults
c Strike-slip faults
d Normal faults

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A structural basin is a special kind of
a Syncline
b Fault-block mountain
c Dome
d Anticline

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The San Andreas fault is what type of fault?
a Normal fault
b Reverse fault
c Strike-slip fault
d Thrust fault

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Eroded granite is covered by a horizontal layer of sandstone. This is a
a Unconformity
b Fault
c Fold
d Basin

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All of the following features mark plate boundaries except a Earthquakes b Volcanoes c Mountain chains d Stable cratons

Faults that move older rock on top of younger rocks should be called a Normal faults b Reverse faults c Thrust faults d Strike-slip faults

Which of these causes the most earthquakes? a Folding of rocks b Earth tides c Movement along fault zones d Magma movements in the crust e Underground nuclear tests

The order of arrival of seismic waves at a recording station is: Surface waves, then body waves a P waves, L waves, S waves b All waves arrive simultaneously c P waves, S waves, L waves d S waves, L waves, P waves

A quake of magnitude 4 is followed a day later by a quake of magnitude of 6. How many times larger were the amplitudes of the waves? a 100x b 900x c 2x d 30x e 60x

The amount of energy released by a magnitude 6 quake is how many times larger than that of a magnitude 4 quake? a 100x b 30x c 2x d 60x e 900x

What data is used to determine the seismic moment? a Greatest amplitude of any wave of the seismogram b The rigidity of the rocks, area of displacement, and amount of displacement c Greatest amplitude of the rayleigh waves d Greatest amplitude of the primary waves

The Loma Prieta Quake of 1989 was recorded as a magnitude 6.9 quake in the Santa Cruz Mountains. What was the magnitude recorded in Modesto? a 3.4 b 4.5 c 2.3 d 8.2 e 6.9

The Mercalli Intensity of the Loma Prieta Quake at the epicenter was above a 9 (IX). What was the Mercalli Intensity in the Modesto area? a 1-2 b 4-5 c 11 d 9

The intensity of a quake always becomes less at greater and greater distances from a quake: a False b True

If a structure with a particular natural period is hit by waves of a different period, which of the following will occur? a The shaking will probably decrease, with little damage b The shaking will be intensified, and damage will occur c Nothing will happen at all d The building will sink into the ground

The Mercalli Intensity is determined from: a Seismographs b Seismoscopes c Strong-motion accelerographs d Observations of building damage and shaking sensations

Some of the fatalities in the 1964 Alaska Quake occurred in California a False b True

All earthquakes in California have epicenters on the San Andreas Fault: a True b False

Group rupture can be a serious problem in quakes because: a So-called ‘lifelines’ must cross fault zones b Scarps are less likely to form at points of rupture c Shaking is always worse near ruptures d Liquefaction follows rupture lines

Tsunamis are generally only a local effect in quakes (within 10 miles of the epicenter): a False b True

The epicenter of a quake can be defined as: a The point on the fault plane where the earthquake begins b The point where waves from the quake reach the surface c The Richter Scale number of a quake d The are of worse damage in a quake

The wave that can pass through only solids: a Rayleigh b Secondary c None of these d Love e Primary

What is the minimum number of recording stations necessary to pinpoint the epicenter of an earthquake? a 1 b 3 c 12 d 100

What caused the greatest amount of damage in the San Francisco earthquake of 1906? a Fire b Shaking c Tsunami d Seiching e Ground rupture

What California earthquake caused the greatest change in architecture laws regarding earthquake safety? a 1933 Long Beach b 1971 Sylmar c 1857 Ft. Tejon d 1906 San Francisco e 1989 Loma Prieta

How many near-magnitude 8 quakes has California experienced in historic time (according to the instructor)? a 6 b 1 c 3 d None e 12

The elastic rebound theory a Explains folding of rocks b Explains the behavior of seismic waves c Involves the sudden release of progressively stored strain in rocks, causing movement along a fault d None of the preceding

The point within Earth where seismic waves originate is called the a Focus b Epicenter c Fault scarp d Fold

P waves are a Compressional b Transverse c Tensional

The Richter scale measures a Intensity b Magnitude c Damage and destruction caused by the earthquake d The number of people killed by the earthquake

A seismic gap is a The time between large earthquakes b A segment of an active fault where earthquakes have not occurred for a long time c The center of a plate where earthquakes rarely happen

What of the following is not true of tsunami? a Very long wavelength b High wave height in deep water c Very fast moving d Continued flooding after wave crest hits shore

Much of the northern midwestern states and all of Canada were covered with a very thick sheet of ice only about 18,000 years ago a True b False

What causes the most earthquakes? a Volcanic activity b Tectonic plate movements c Meteorite impacts d Human activities such as mining

In terms of total energy released, what was the most violent earthquake that has ever occurred in North America? a 1906 San Francisco b 1811 New Madrid c 1964 Alaska d 1994 Northridge

What is the first earthquake wave to arrive at a seismometer? a S waves b P waves c Surface waves d Rayleigh waves

Which type of seismic wave passes through the earth's core? a P waves b S waves c Surface waves d Love waves

What is the minimum number of recording stations necessary to pinpoint the epicenter of an earthquake? a 1 b 2 c 3 d 4

What is the point within the earth that marks the origin of an earthquake? a Epicenter b Focus (hypocenter) c Fault plane d Lithosphere

In order of arrival of seismic waves at a recording station is a S waves, P waves, surface waves b P waves, S waves, surface waves c Surface waves, P waves, S waves d P waves, surface waves, S waves

On the Richter scale, the difference between an earthquake of magnitude 5.0 and one of 7.0 means that the amplitude measured for the 7.0 is how many times greater than the 5.0? a 10 times b 100 times c 1000 times d 10000 times

On the Richter scale, the difference between an earthquake of magnitude 5.0 and one of 7.0 means that the energy release measured for the 7.0 is about how many times greater than the 5.0? a 10 times b 100 times c 1000 times d 32000 times

Earthquake zones associated with subducting plates at convergent boundaries are called a Rift zones b Benioff zones c Hot spots d Transform zones

The intensity of a quake is measured by using a Richter scale b Moment magnitude scale c Mercalli scale d Seismic magnitude scale

Earthquakes originating beneath the sea floor cannot generate tsunamis (due to lack of shear waves) a True b False

When removal of mass from the earth's surface (like ice sheets) results in crustal uplift, we call the process a Subsidence b Isostatic rebound c Plate tectonics d Convection

When does the magnetic field within igneous rocks develop? a During cooling below the Curie point b When rocks are subjected to high pressure c When rocks are formed by erosion d When lava erupts

Primary waves encountering a rock layer boundary within the earth may experience which of the following a Reflection b Refraction c Both reflection and refraction d Absorption

A seismic gap is a A region of quiet seismic activity that suggests an earthquake is overdue b A region where no earthquakes have occurred c A region that cause large earthquakes regularly d A gap in the fault line

What is the best description of the occurrence of giant quakes (8+ magnitude) in California? a Very frequent b Rare but possible c Impossible d Constant

Which of these is the best method for measuring large quakes (magnitude 7.5 and above)? a Richter scale b Moment magnitude scale c Mercalli scale d Local magnitude scale

The hot, slushy layer of the earth within the upper mantle a Outer core b Asthenosphere c Continental crust d Oceanic crust e Lithosphere

The boundary between the crust and the mantle is called a Lehmann discontinuity b Mohorovicic discontinuity c Gutenberg discontinuity

How do we know the outer core is liquid? a Surface waves can’t pass through it b P waves cannot pass through it c P and S waves both pass through it d S waves cannot pass through it

With increasing depth, the velocity of seismic waves tend to a Decrease b Increase c Remain the same

The Benioff Zone is now known to indicate the presence of a a Convergent boundary (subduction zone) b Transform boundary c Divergent boundary

When seismic waves encounter a boundary between two kinds of rock, they are altered in what ways? a Reflected b Velocity c All of these d Refracted

For millions of years the Central Valley of California has been sinking slowly as new sediments washed into it from the Sierra Nevada. This is an example of: a Mantle displacement b Isostatic readjustment c Crustal debasement d None of these

The magnetic minerals (natural compasses) in a non-deformed volcanic rock are aligned vertically. Where was the volcano located that produced this rock? a Somewhere in between b At the north magnetic pole c At the equator

Who discovered the inner core? a Adrija Mohorovicic b Alfred Wegener c Inge Lehmann d Beno Gutenberg

Primary (P) waves a Can’t travel through the earth’s interior b Can only travel through liquids c Can’t travel through the asthenosphere d Can travel through liquids, solids, and gases

The Earth’s magnetic field sometimes undergoes reversals when the north magnetic pole becomes the south magnetic pole a False b True

Seismic refraction is caused by a Seismic waves bending b A change in velocity of seismic waves c Sharp rock boundaries d All of the above e a. and b.

The S-wave shadow zone is evidence that a The core is made of iron and nickel b The inner core is solid c The outer core is fluid d The mantle behaves as ductile material

The boundary that separates the crust from the mantle is called the a Lithosphere b Asthenosphere c Mohorovicic discontinuity d None of the preceding

The core is probably composed mainly of a Silicon b Sulfur c Oxygen d Iron

The principle of continents being in a buoyant equilibrium is called a Subsidence b Isostasy c Convection d Rebound

Which of the following is not an example of the effects of isostasy? a Deep mountain rocks b Magnetic reversals c The postglacial rise of northeastern North America d Mountain ranges at subduction zones

The asthenosphere, a zone about 100 km thick, behaves in a a Solid, rigid manner b Liquid-like manner, but is solid c Gas-like manner d Brittle manner

Name given to the steeply sloping surface extending from depths of about 600 feet (200 meters) to more than 12000 ft (4000 m): a Continental rise b Continental shelf c Abyssal plain d Continental slope

Name given to the “canyons”, or fault valleys at the top of the mid-ocean ridges a Mid-ocean rift b Abyssal gully c Submarine canyon d Trench

How are submarine canyons and fans formed? a Dense salt-rich water sinking b Erosion by turbidity currents c Faulting in rift valleys

A sample of ocean sediment consists of ooze derived from plankton shells. It is a form of what kind of sediment? a Terrigenous sediment b Biogenous sediments c None of these d Hydrogenous sediments

Where do ophiolite sequences originate? a At transform boundaries b At divergent boundaries c At convergent boundaries

Which of these is not part of an ophiolite sequence? a Basalt sheet dikes b Serpentine or peridotite c Gabbro plutons d Pillow basalts e Granite plutons

Name given to a flat-topped volcano on the ocean floor: a Guyot b Seamount c Mudmound d Coral atoll

An island consists of a circular coral reef with a lagoon in the center. It is a(n) a Coral atoll b Fringing reef c Island coral d Barrier reef

Manganese nodules are a form of a Hydrogenous sediments b None of these c Biogenous sediments d Terrigenous sediment

Which is true of the continental shelf? a It is a shallow submarine platform at the edge of a continent b It inclines very gently seaward c It can vary in width d All of the preceding

Oceanic trenches are a Found along a passive continental margin b Associated with high heat flow c Characterized by large negative gravity anomalies d None of the above

Oceanic trenches a Are narrow, deep troughs b Run parallel to the edge of a continent or an island arc c Are often 8 to 10 kilometers deep d All of the preceding

Which is characteristic of mid-oceanic ridges? a Shallow-focus earthquakes b High heat flow c Basalt eruptions d All of the preceding

Reefs parallel to the shore but separated from it by wide, deep lagoons are called a Fringing reefs b Barrier reefs c Atolls d Lagoonal reefs

Pelagic sediment could be composed of a Fine-grained clay b Skeletons of microscopic c organisms d Volcanic ash e All of the preceding

What part of the continental margin marks the true edge of the continent? a Continental shelf b Continental slope c Continental rise d Abyssal plain

Distinctive rock sequences of basalt and marine sedimentary rock that may be slices of the ocean floor are a Guyots b Ophiolites c Seamounts d Fracture zones

Graded bedding results from what process? a Deposition of materials in a steady flow b Rapid deposition from a high-energy environment c Sorting of particles by size due to a decrease in current velocity d Sorting of particles by chemical composition

Continental drift was first suggested as a scientific hypothesis by: a Frederick Vine b The Glomar Challenger c Harry Hess d Alfred Wegener

Which of the following were early (1920’s) lines of evidence supporting continental drift? a Drilling of the sea floor b Magnetic stripes on the sea floor c Direct measurements of continental movement d Similarity of fossils on widely separated continents

The evidence of continental drift proves that the granitic continents are literally plowing through the ocean crust: a False b True

Name given to the supercontinent that existed 250 million years ago: a Rodinia b Pangea c Gondwana d Nuna

Continental drift is no longer a working hypothesis because: a It has been suspended (replaced) by the theory of plate tectonics b No strong evidence remains to support it c No mechanism has been demonstrated that allows it to happen d None of these

Regional uplift and the formation of basin and range topography indicate: a A continent is diverging bTwo continents are converging c A subduction zone is forming d A continent is beginning to form a transforming boundary

Harry Hess predicted which of the following as part of his seafloor spreading hypothesis? a None of these b Oceanic crust would be thicker at mid-ocean ridges, and thinner near continents c Oceanic crust would be thinner at mid-ocean ridges, and thicker at greater distances from the ridge d The oceanic crust formed at the edge of the continents e Oceanic crust formed in subduction zones

The Appalachian Mountains continue beneath the Atlantic Ocean to be exposed in Scotland and Scandinavia: a True b False

Glaciers once covered parts of the Sahara Desert and India: a True b False

Which of these features is found near convergent plate boundaries? a All of these b Forearc basin c Magmatic arc d Andesite volcanoes e Island arc

Magnetic ‘stripes’ on the seafloor are caused by: a Patterns of iron-secreting microorganisms on the seafloor b Differences in the basaltic magma erupted onto the seafloor c Radiation from the ionosphere d The striped record paleomagnetic reversals that take place as the sea floor is spreading

The volcanoes of the Cascades are active because they lie near: a Ocean-continent convergent boundary b A hot spot c A continent-continent collision d An ocean-ocean convergent boundary e A divergent boundary

Which kind of plate boundary formed the Hawaiian Islands? a Divergent b Transform c None of these, it is a hot spot d Convergent

Baja California may one day separate from the mainland, and eventually collide with Alaska. Such long-traveled landmasses are known as: a Faults b Supercontinents c Exotic terranes d Pangeas e Glacial terrain

The rocks of the Sierra Nevada originated in a convergent margin as a(n): a Magmatic arc b Accretionary wedge c Passive margin d Forearc basin

At convergent boundaries, plates come together, forming trenches and island arcs: a True b False

The Coast Ranges originated in a convergent margin as a(n): a Forearc basin b Passive margin c Accretionary wedge d Magmatic arc

California is presently influenced by all three kinds of plate boundaries (divergent, convergent, and transform): a True b False

Continents are usually subducted and melted at convergent boundaries: a True b False

A rift is a place where crust is forced back into the mantle: a True b False

The southern supercontinent is called a Gondwanaland b Pangara c Laurasia d Glossopteris

The sliding of oceanic lithosphere beneath a continent or island arc is called a Rotation b Tension c Subduction d Polar wandering

In cross section, the plates are part of a rigid outer shell of the Earth called the a Lithosphere b Asthenosphere c Crust d Mantle

The San Andreas fault in California is a a Normal fault b Reverse fault c Transform fault d Thrust fault

What would you most expect to find at ocean-ocean convergence? a Suture zone b Island arc c Midocean ridge d None of these

What would you most expect to find at ocean-continent convergence? a Magmatic arc b Suture zone c Island arc d Midocean ridge

What would you most expect to find at continent-continent convergence? a Magmatic arc b Suture zone c Island arc d Midocean ridge

Passive continental margins are created at a Divergent plate boundaries b Transform faults c Convergent plate boundaries

The Hawaiian Islands are thought to be the result of a Subduction b Midocean ridge volcanics c Mantle plumes d Ocean-ocean convergence

What causes reversals in the earth’s magnetic field? a Changes in the earth’s rotational speed b Movements of the earth’s outer core c Shifting tectonic plates d Variations in solar activity

Which of the following has the highest density? a Granite b Basalt c Water d Lead

What process forms submarine canyons? a Ocean currents carving the sea floor b Tectonic activity uplifting the ocean floor c Erosion by turbidity currents d Volcanic eruptions beneath the ocean

What is the distinguishing characteristic of lava extruded onto the sea floor? a It is typically high in silica b It solidifies quickly into pillow-like shapes c It is rich in gas bubbles d It forms large, steep-sided volcanoes

Which of these contributes to the sediment cover on the floor of the deep ocean basins? a Windblown dust b River runoff c Biological remains d All of the above

Passive continental margins have all of the following except a Little tectonic activity b Wide continental shelves c Active volcanic eruptions d Thick sediment accumulation

A typical rate of plate motion each year would be a 1-2 cm b 10-15 cm c 50-100 cm d 1-2 cm

What was the supercontinent that existed around 1 billion to 700 million years ago? a Gondwana b Pangaea c Rodinia d Laurasia

The earth's lithosphere is divided into two portions. One is the uppermost mantle. What is the other? a Outer core b Crust c Asthenosphere d Lower mantle

When geologists talk about dips, what are they talking about? a The angle of the rock layers relative to horizontal b The amount of fault movement c The thickness of a rock layer d The rate of erosion

The magnetic minerals in an undeformed lava flow are horizontal. The rock probably originated at a The earth’s core b The surface of the ocean c A divergent plate boundary d A convergent plate boundary

The portion of the plate boundary that lies between two offset portions of the mid-oceanic ridge crest is known as a a Rift valley b Transform fault c Subduction zone d Hot spot

The concept of Continental Drift was a(n) a Theory b Law c Hypothesis d Fact

The concept of Plate Tectonics should be considered a(n) a Theory b Law c Hypothesis d Fact

The Mohorovicic Discontinuity divides a The crust and mantle b The mantle and outer core c The lithosphere and asthenosphere d The inner core and outer core

A Benioff zone is usually associated with a Earthquakes at divergent boundaries b Earthquakes at transform boundaries c Earthquakes at convergent boundaries d Earthquakes at hot spots

The Hawaiian Islands are part of an island arc a True b False

California’s Coast Ranges formed as part of a forearc basin a True b False

No earthquakes happen in the U.S. east of the Rocky Mountains a True b False

Example in the world of a fold-thrust mountain range: a Himalayas b Grand Tetons c Kilimanjaro d Sierra Nevada

Example of a fault-block type mountain range a Alps b Himalayas c Sierra Nevada d Ural Mountains

The stable interior regions of most continents are called a Craton and shield b Mountain belt c Orogenic belt d Subduction zone

Geologically active parts of continents are called a Shields b Orogenic belt c Craton d Platform

The basement rocks of the craton and shield are generally a Very old b Don’t exist c Very young

Pangea began to break up about a 4.6 billion years ago b 1.7 billion years ago c 250 million years ago d 15 million years ago

Where was the Tethys Sea located? a Between Laurasia and Gondwana (when Pangea broke up) b Antarctica c Along the west coast of California d In southern Africa

What was the name of the earliest supercontinent, from about 1 billion years ago? a Pangea b Gondwana c Laurasia d Rodinia

A section of fault-bonded crust which has traveled from its point of origin a Mid-ocean rift b Supercontinent c Exotic terrane d Subduction zone

The mountain belt that forms the eastern part of North America is called the a Appalachians b North American Cordillera c Himalaya d Andes e Rockies

The portion of a continent that has been structurally stable for a prolonged period of time is called a(n) a Orogeny b Basin c Mountain belt d Craton

Folds and reverse faults in a mountain belt suggest a Crustal shortening b Tensional stress c Deep-water deposition of the sediment d All of the preceding

What type of plate boundary is most commonly associated with mountain building? a Divergent b Convergent c Transform

The likely reason that the Himalaya is much higher than the adjoining Tibetan Plateau is: a Heavy precipitation results in rapid erosion in the Himalaya b The crust of the Himalaya is less dense than that of the Tibetan Plateau c The Tibetan Plateau is being subducted d The mantle beneath the Himalaya is hotter than that beneath the Tibetan Plateau

To explain fold and thrust belts, simultaneous normal faulting, and how once deep-seated metamorphic rocks rise to an upper level in a mountain belt, geologist use a model called a Tectonism b Gravitational collapse and spreading c Orogeny d Faulting

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a mountain belt that formed through ocean-continent convergence? a Fold and thrust belts b Thick accumulation of marine sediment c Prevalence of normal faults over reverse faults d Metamorphism

Regional metamorphic rocks and plutonic rocks are most commonly associated with a The outer edge of the fold and thrust belt b The most intensely deformed portions of major mountain belts c Fault-block mountain ranges d The forearc basin of a convergent plate boundary

Which of the following is not an example of a mountain belt formed by continent-continent convergence? a Urals b Himalaya c Rockies d Alps

The concept of isostasy suggests that higher-elevation mountain ranges are underlain by a A thick root of continental crust b Dense oceanic crust c A shallow root of continental crust d A complex of normal faults

The detachment of part of the mantle portion of the lithosphere beneath a mountain belt is called a Gravitational collapse b Rifting c Lithospheric delamination d None of the preceding

Which is not a type of terrane? a Accumulated b Exotic c Suspect d Accreted

Which is a source for terranes? a Microcontinents b Fragments of distant continents c Island arcs d All of the preceding

Large areas of continental crust that have been stable for long periods of time and form the interior of continents are called a Orogenic belts b Shields c Plateaus d Terranes

Large areas of geologically complex rocks that have traveled great distances and have faulted boundaries? a Cratons b Terranes c Orogens d Plateaus

What is the primary underlying factor in all forms of mass wasting? a Climate b Water c Faulting d Gravity

What factor could lead to the formation of a slump/earthflow (complex movement)? a Oversteepening b Adding water to the slip plane c Overloading d All of these

What form of mass wasting is prevalent in permafrost areas? a Debris avalanche b Rockfalls c Solifluction processes d Soil creep

Which form of mass wasting probably moves more material than any other? a Solifluction processes b Debris avalanche c Rockfall d Soil creep

What form of mass wasting was involved in the 1925 Gros Ventre River disaster? a Solifluction processes b Debris avalanche c Rockfall d Soil creep

The pile of rocky debris at the base of cliffs in alpine areas is called a Talus b Rocky debris c Soil creep d Debris avalanche

What kind of mass-wasting is common in Yosemite Valley? a Rockfalls b Solifluction processes c Soil creep d Debris avalanche

What form of mass wasting occurs along a curving slip plane? a Rotational slide (slump) b Translational slide c Debris avalanche d Solifluction processes

Name given to the lumpy topography that often develops in areas of mass wasting: a Translational b Rockfalls c Hummocky d Rotational slide (slump)

Mudflows are a primary form of erosion and deposition in desert regions a False b True

Water is involved in all mass-wasting processes a False b True

Solifluction is a serious environmental problem in Florida and the tropics a True b False

Slumping and earthflows are a rare occurrence in California’s Coast Ranges a True b False

What is the slowest type of mass wasting process? a Debris flow b Rockslide c Creep d Rockfall e Avalanche

The largest landslide has taken place a On the sea floor b In the Andes c On active volcanoes d In the Himalaya

A descending mass moving downslope as a viscous fluid is referred to as a a Fall b Landslide c Flow d Slide

The driving force behind all mass wasting processes is a Gravity b Slope angle c Type of bedrock material d Presence of water e Vegetation

Flow of water-saturated soil over impermeable material is called a Solifluction b Flow c Slide d Creep

A flowing mixture of soil and water, usually moving down a channel, is called a(n) a Mudflow b Slide c Fall d Earthflow

An apron of falling rock fragments that accumulates at the base of a cliff is called a Bedrock b Regolith c Soil d Talus

How does construction destabilize a slope? a Adds weight to the top of the slope b Decreases water content of the slope c Adds weight to the bottom of the slope d Increases the shear strength of the slope

How can landslides be prevented during construction? a Build retaining walls b Cut steeper slopes c Install water drainage systems d Add vegetation e All but b.

Which of these statements best describes a slump? a A slow, consistent flow of earth material down a slope b A sudden, catastrophic movement of rock and soil c A rotational movement of a mass of earth along a curved surface d The gradual, downward movement of a large block of rock

The main controlling force in mass wasting: a Wind b Water c Gravity d Temperature

Solifluction lobes tend to develop during the ___ cycle a Summer b Spring c Winter d Freeze-thaw

Gradual, imperceptible downhill movement of regolith and soil downslope: a Creep b Landslide c Debris flow d Earthflow

Where is most of the world’s supply of fresh water stored? a Groundwater b Glacial ice c Rivers d Lakes

Water flowing in a straight line is said to have what kind of flow? a Turbulent b Whirlpooly c Rapids d Laminar

The slope of a river is also known as the a Baseflow b Discharge c Gradient d Headward erosion

Plants release water into the atmosphere in a process called a Evaporation b Respiration c Transpiration d Condensation

Deforestation (logging or wildfires) of a watershed tends to cause flood lagtime to a Remain the same b Increase c None of these d Decrease

What factors determine the velocity of a stream? a Volume of water b All of these c Gradient d Shape of the river channel

What value is characterized by multiplying the area of a channel by the average velocity of the water? a Capacity b Gradient c Discharge d Competency

The load of a stream has three components: the dissolved load, the bed load, and the: a Sand load b Clay load c Suspended load d Silt load

The measure of the maximum load a stream is capable of carrying is called a Capacity b Discharge c Gradient d Competency

If the capacity of a stream is exceeded, the stream will begin a Flooding b Eroding c Evaporating d Depositing

The diversion of the drainage of one stream because of headward erosion by another stream is known as a Stream piracy b Stream stealing c Stream burglary d Stream larceny

Floodplain tributaries that have difficulty entering main stream due to presence of natural levees: a Beheaded stream b Yahoo stream c Diversion stream d Yazoo stream

Areas of deposition on the insides of meanders are known as: a Oxbow b Meander cutoff c Cutbank d Point bar

A backswamp can form when a floodplain river overflows its banks a True b False

A stream with no unusual area of deposition or erosion is called a A graded stream b Competency stream c An equilibrium stream d Capacity stream

Name given to a delta with a smooth ‘D’-shaped outline (i.e. Nile delta): a River-dominated (birdfoot) b Tide-dominated c None of these d Wave-dominated (fan)

The drainage pattern that tends to form on horizontal layers of uniform rock: a Rectangular b Dendritic c Trellis d Deranged

The total area drained by a stream and its tributaries is called the a Hydrologic cycle b Tributary area c Divide d Drainage basin

Stream erosion and deposition are controlled primarily by a river’s a Velocity b Discharge c Gradient d Channel shape e Channel roughness

Hydraulic action, solution, and abrasion are all examples of stream a Erosion b Transportation c Deposition

Cobbles are more likely to be transported in a stream’s a Bed load b Suspended load c Dissolved load d All of the preceding

A river’s velocity ___ on the outside of a meander curve compared to the inside. a Higher b Equal c Lower

Sandbars deposited on the inside of meander curves are called a Dunes b Point bars c Cutbanks d None of the preceding

Which is not a drainage pattern? a Dendritic b Radial c Rectangular d Trellis e None of the preceding

The broad strip of land built up by sedimentation on either side of a stream channel is a A flood plain b A delta c An alluvial fan d A meander

The average time between floods of a given size is a The discharge b The gradient c The recurrence interval d The magnitude

A platform of sediment formed where a stream flows into standing water is a An alluvial fan b A delta c A meander d A flood plain

Which of these conditions may lead to slope failure (slumping)? a High water content in the soil b Shallow soil depth c Steep slopes with sparse vegetation d All of the above

Base level is a theoretical limit of downcutting of rivers a True b False

Yazoo tributary streams are very common in glaciated landscapes a True b False

A dendritic drainage pattern usually develops on uniform rock, such as horizontal sediments a True b False

You are in a boat on a river, and your altimeter reads 4,020 feet. After paddling for 5 days, you calculate that you have traveled 100 miles. Your altimeter now reads 4,370 feet. What is the stream's gradient in ft/mi? a 3.5 ft/mi b 7.5 ft/mi c 5.2 ft/mi d 3.0 ft/mi

Which of the following does not influence a river's velocity? a Gradient of the river b Discharge c The color of the water d Channel shape

When an area changes from being largely rural to mostly urban, the lagtime between precipitation and flooding a Increases b Decreases c Remains the same d Becomes unpredictable

The curving bends that characterize many rivers are called a Oxbows b Meanders c Confluences d Eddies

If a river develops entrenched meanders, what is the most likely cause? a Increased sediment load b Decreased velocity c Uplift of the land d Decreased erosion

What is the term for the surface in which a river has eroded to base level? a Floodplain b Delta c Riverbed d Base level

Rivers with tight meander loops commonly change their channel location by cutting through their meander necks. This is known as a Flooding b Oxbow formation c Meander cut-off d Erosion

What is the term we apply to the abandoned portion of the channel? a Meander loop b Oxbow lake c Cutoff d Distributary channel

What is the name given to stream patterns eroded into a landscape of tilted sedimentary rocks? a Radial drainage b Dendritic drainage c Trellis drainage d Rectangular drainage

What is the term applied to the mass of sediment deposited at the mouth of a river where the river enters a standing body of water? a Delta b Alluvial fan c Floodplain d Estuary

Which of the following terms describes a river that occupies multiple channels at the same point in its valley for at least part of the year? a Braided river b Meandering river c Radial river d Inverted river

The longitudinal pattern of a typical river generally shows that the gradient is a Steepest at the mouth b Steepest at the source c Constant throughout the river d Variable only during floods

What kind of delta forms when wave action is minimal? a River-dominated delta b Tide-dominated delta c Wave-dominated delta d Mixed-energy delta

If the capacity of a stream is exceeded, which of the following will occur? a The river will flood b The river will split into multiple smaller channels c The river will increase its velocity d Sediment will be deposited at the river’s mouth

What happens to the permeability as the grain size gets smaller? a Permeability increases b Permeability remains constant c Permeability decreases d Permeability becomes unpredictable

Permeable layers composed of materials such as sand that allow water movement are termed a Aquitard b Aquiclude c Aquifer d Permatard

The ability of a material to transmit groundwater is called a Porosity b Imporosity c Permeability d Aquiclude

Impermeable layers composed of materials such as clay that hinder or prevent water movement are termed a Artesian system b Aquitard c Aquifer d Permatard

The measure of the total volume of rock or sediment that consists of open spaces is known as a Porosity b Permeability c Impermeability d Cone of depression

A stream that intersects the groundwater table and therefore flows constantly by way of seepage into the channel is called a(n): a Losing (influent) stream b Antecedent river c Gaining (effluent) stream d Prograde river

When an aquiclude (aquitard) is situated above the main water table, a localized saturated zone may be created. What is it called? a Spring b Perched water table c Groundwater lens d Artesian system

What is the name given to the dip in the level of the groundwater around a well? a Cone of depression b Drawdown cone c Groundwater dip d Cone of transition

The groundwater table is always flat a False b True

The various dripstone and flowstone features in caverns are collectively called a Speloegenes b Dripstone c Speleothems d Flowstone

An irregular terrain punctuated with many sinkholes is said to exhibit ___ topography a Hummocky b Basin and range c Karst d Hilly

The permeability of a material is a good measure of its ability to transmit groundwater a True b False

The quantity of water stored as groundwater is far less than the amount found in lake and rivers a True b False

The capillary fringe is typically found immediately above the groundwater table a False b True

An effluent (gaining) stream is usually dry, except during floods and storms a False b True

Name given to wells which flow freely due to high pressure in the aquifer a Effluent b Fountain spring c Influent d Artesian

The subsurface zone in which all rock openings are filled with water is called the a Saturated zone b Water table c Unsaturated zone d Aquiclude

Porosity is a The percentage of a rock’s volume that is openings b The capacity of a rock to transmit a fluid c The ability of a sediment to retard water d None of the preceding

Permeability is a The percentage of a rock’s volume that is openings b The capacity of a rock to transmit a fluid c The ability of a sediment to retard water d None of the preceding

An aquifer is a A body of saturated rock or sediment through which water can move easily b A body of rock that retards the flow of groundwater c A body of rock that is impermeable

Which rock type would make the best aquifer? a Shale b Mudstone c Sandstone d All of the preceding

Which of the following determines how quickly groundwater flows? a Elevation b Water pressure c Permeability d All of the preceding

Groundwater flows a Always downhill b From areas of high hydraulic head to low hydraulic head c From high elevation to low elevation d From high permeability to low permeability

The drop in the water table around a pumped well is the a Drawdown b Hydraulic head c Porosity d Fluid potential

What is the name for a rock or sediment that yields ground water in usable quantities? a Aquiclude b Aquifer c Permeable rock d Recharge zone

What is the term applied to the zone above the water table? a Vadose zone b Saturation zone c Capillary fringe d Recharge zone

Which of the following rock types is most susceptible to ground water solution and is therefore the one that contains most caves? a Granite b Basalt c Limestone d Sandstone

What do we call the cone-shaped deposits of calcium carbonate found on the floors of caves? a Stalagmites b Stalactites c Speleothems d Flowstones

What is the term applied to large, circular to irregular holes open to the sky in regions of soluble bedrock? a Sinkholes b Karst valleys c Caves d Swallets

Which of the following rock types makes the best aquifer? a Shale b Granite c Sandstone d Limestone

Influent streams are those which a Lose water to the groundwater system b Gain water from the groundwater system c Flow year-round d Are found in desert regions

Artesian systems are those in which a Water is under pressure and rises to the surface naturally b The water in non-renewable c Water flows at a constant rate d The aquifer is unconfined

Karst topography may be indicated by the presence of a Glacial valleys b River deltas c Sinkholes and caves d Fault zones

The water table reflects the topography and is high under hills and depressed under valleys a True b False

Underground water is about 35 times as plentiful as fresh water (excluding glaciers) on land a True b False

Glaciers advanced across North America and Europe at least 4 times in the last 2 million years a False b True

Slight variations in the way the earth rotates may be a cause of ice ages a True b False

A bowl-shaped depression that is the source of most alpine glaciers a Cirque b Arete c Hanging valley d Horn

A sharp sawtooth ridge separating glacial valleys or cirques a Horn b Arete c Hanging valley d Cirque

What kind of moraine forms along the sides of a glacier as it flows down a valley? a Lateral b Medial c Recessional d Terminal

Lake that forms by being scooped out of bedrock by glaciers is called a Marginal lake b Kettle lake c Moraine lake d Glacial tarn

Name given to tributary valleys that stand high above glacial troughs, often ending in waterfalls or rapids: a Deranged streams b Perched valleys c Hanging valleys d Yazoo stream

Boulders (carried from miles away) littering the surface after a glacier’s passage are called a Exfoliation blocks b Xenoliths c Crazy boulders d Glacial erratics

Smooth elongated hills of bedrock that have a steeper slope facing away from the direction of ice advance a Exfoliation dome b Cirque c Roche moutonnee d Drumlin

Smooth elongated hills composed of till that have a steeper slope facing the direction of ice advance a Cirque b Exfoliation dome c Roche moutonnee d Drumlin

Depressions and lake formed when blocks of stagnant ice are buried and melted: a Marginal lakes b Kettles c Moraine lakes d Tarns

The snowline (trimline) divided a glacier into two parts: the zones of? a Accumulation/ablation b Abrasion/plucking c Cirque/horn d Bergschrund/crevasses

Permanent ice fields are not considered glaciers unless they show evidence of movement: a True b False

Glaciers once covered all of California and Nevada a False b True

The moraine that forms around the end of a glacier a Recessional b Lateral c Terminal d Medial

Alpine glaciation a Is a type of glacier b Exists where a large part of a continent is covered by glacial ice c Is found in mountainous regions d Is found only at high latitudes

Continental glaciation a Is found in mountainous regions b Only occurred during the last ice age c Is a glacier found in the subtropics of continents d Exists where a large part of a continent is covered by glacial ice

At present, about ___% of the land surface of the Earth is covered by glaciers a ½ b 1 c 2 d 10 e 33 f 50

Which is not a type of glacier? a Valley glacier b Ice sheet c Ice cap d Peak glacier

The boundary between the zone of accumulation and the zone of ablation of a glacier is called the a Firn b Equilibrium line c Ablation zone d Moraine

In a receding glacier, a Ice flows from lower elevations to high elevations b The terminus moves upvalley c The equilibrium line moves to a lower elevation d All of the preceding

In the interior of a glacier, beneath the rigid zone, movement occurs by a Basal sliding b Plastic flow c Passive sliding d Melting

How fast does the central part of a valley glacier move compared to the sides of the glacier? a Faster b Slower c At the same rate

Glacially carved valleys are usually ___ shaped a V b U c Y d All of the preceding

Which is not a type of moraine? a Medial b Terminal c Recessional d Ground e Esker

The last episode of extensive glaciation in North America was at its peak about ___ years ago a 2000 b 5000 c 10000 d 18000

During the ice ages, much of Nevada, Utah, and eastern California was covered by a Ice b Huge lakes c Deserts d The sea

Which of these describes the relative movement of mountain glaciers in the past 200 years? a They have steady advanced downslope b They have been relatively stable, showing no net movement c They have generally retreated, becoming shorter and thinner d They have shifted their flow direction from east-west to north-south

What is the shape of the cross-section of a glacial valley? a V-shaped b U-shaped c Wedge shaped d Flat-bottomed with near vertical sides

What causes the retreat of the ice in a glacier? a Reduced snowfall combined with increased melting b Changes in wind direction c Volcanic activity beneath the glacier d Earthquake-induced cracking of the ice

Where is the largest mass of glacial ice in the modern world? a The Alps b Greenland c Antarctica d The Canadian Rockies

Which of the following have been suggested as the causes of the glacial ages? a Changes in the moon’s orbit b Variations in earth’s orbit, volcanic dust, and continental drift c Human activity in prehistoric times d Shifts in the location of coral reefs

Moraines are hills made up of a Layered volcanic ash b Limestone deposits from meltwater c Unsorted sediment (till) dropped by glaciers d Wind-blown sand formed in deserts

What is the term used for the hill of till formed at the melting edge of a glacier? a Cirque b Drumlin c Terminal moraine d Esker

When glaciers are at their maximum, which of the following is also true? a Global sea level is higher b Global sea level is lower c Mountain ranges are shorter d Ocean currents flow more rapidly

The boundary between the zone of wastage and the zone of accumulation in a glacier is a The terminus line b The equilibrium line c The crevasse zone d The ablation point

In formerly glaciated terrain, which of these would have developed above glacial ice? a Aretes, horns, and cirques b Limestone caves c Desert dunes d River deltas

The lowest part of a glacier where ice is lost or melted is called the zone of wastage a The accumulation zone b The ablation zone c The calving line d The ice shelf

The movement of a valley glacier at its base is facilitated by the melting of the glacier that is caused by the weight of ice above. This movement is called a Plastic flow b Basal slip c Crevasse movement d Lateral sliding

Which of the following moraines is not characteristic of continental glaciations? a Lateral moraine b End (terminal) moraine c Ground moraine d Recessional moraine

A drumlin has a north-south orientation. The steepest face is on the north side. From which direction did the ice come from? a South b North c East d West

Lake Bonneville (Great Salt Lake) is an example of a(n) a Glacial lake b Pluvial lake c Volcanic crater lake d Karst lake

What is the dominant agent of erosion in a desert? a Mass wasting b Gravity c Glaciers d Water e Wind

Sand dunes oriented perpendicular to the dominant wind direction: a Transverse dune b Barchan dune c Beach dune d Longitudinal dune e Moon dune

A common topographic feature of the Basin and Range Province found at the base of mountains by the coalescence of several alluvial fans is the a Playa b Inselberg c Bajada d Pediment

Dry lakes in desert regions are called: a Salty lakes b Playas c Kettles d Tarns

What is the term applied to a blanket of wind deposited silt-sized particles? a Till b Outwash c Alluvial deposits d Loess

What is the name for the sand dune with the shape of the crescent moon? a Cookie cutter dune b Barchan dune c Moon dune d Brisket dune

Deserts that are formed on the leeward side of mountain ranges, such as the Sierra Nevada, as a result of a The great distance from the ocean effect b The rain shadow effect c Poor agricultural practices d The global circulation effect

The Basin and Range Province is characterized by a Fault controlled topography and internal drainages b Erosional basins c Plateaus, mesas, and monoclines d Vast sand seas

Desert rocks with flat, polished surfaces or faces formed by wind abrasion are called a Deflations b Pediments c Pavements d Ventifacts

Small rocky hills that are the remnants of buried mountain ranges in desert regions are called: a Playa b Inselbergs c Bajadas d Grabens e Horns

The defining characteristic of a desert is a Shifting sand dunes b High temperatures c Low rainfall d All of the preceding e None of the preceding

Which is characteristic of deserts? a Internal drainage b Limited rainfall c Flash floods d Slow chemical weathering e All of the preceding

The major difference between a mesa and a butte is one of a Shape b Elevation c Rock type d Size

The Basin and Range province covers almost all of a Utah b Nevada c Texas d Colorado

A very flat surface underlain by a dry lake bed of hard, mud-cracked clay is called a a Ventifact b Plateau c Playa d None of the preceding

Rocks with flat, wind-abraded surfaces are called a Ventifacts b Pediments c Bajadas d None of the preceding

The removal of clay, silt, and sand particles from the land surface by wind is called a Deflation b Depletion c Deposition d Abrasion

Which is not a type of dune? a Barchan b Transverse c Parabolic d Longitudinal e All of the preceding are dunes

A broad ramp of sediment formed at the base of mountains when alluvial fans merge is a A playa b A bajada c A pediment d An arroyo

A surface layer of closely packed pebbles is called a Desert varnish b Deflation c A blowout d Desert pavement

What is the dominant agent of erosion in a desert? a Wind (abrasion and deflation) b Running water (flash floods and sheetwash) c Glacial ice (moving ice sheets) d Chemical weathering (dissolution of minerals)

What is the term for the temporary lake formed where no outlet drains an intermountain valley? a Playa lake b Oasis c Laguna d Reservoir

Waves of oscillation (swells) tend to “touch bottom” at a depth: a 200 feet b 100 feet c 10 feet d A depth equal to ½ the wavelength

What type of shoreline will develop along coasts where sea level drops relative to land? a Emergent b Composite c Submergent d Stable

What are the characteristics of a shoreline shortly after submergence? a Many deltas and a muddy water b Deeply embayed with many islands c Many coral reefs d The presence of many wave cut terraces

A sandbar that connects a sea stack with the shoreline: a Tombolo b Hooked spit c Longshore bar d Barrier island

The movement of sand parallel to a shoreline is influenced by which of the following? a The construction of groins b Longshore currents c The angled approach of waves to the shore d All of these

Which of the following is an artificial feature of a coastline? a Groin b Cove c Arch d Sea stack e Hooked spit

If the sand piles up on the north side of a groin, in which direction is the longshore current moving? a West to east b North to south c South to north d East to west

Which best describes the conditions of coastlines in the United States? a The beaches are saturated with sand form increased soil erosion b Composition of sand is changing due to disturbances of land surfaces c Beaches are losing sand as a result of dam-building that prevents sediments from reaching the coast d Beaches are stable, getting neither wider or narrower

As wave-cut cliffs are eroded, remnants of more resistant rocks are left behind to form: a Tombolo b Barrier inlands c Coves d Sea stacks

The movement of sediment along the shore due to waves washing up the beach slope at an angle: a Beach drift (longshore transport) b Varsity drag c Longshore current d Longshore waves

The path a water particle makes as a wave passes in deep water is best described as a Elliptical b Orbital c Spherical d Linear

The surf zone is a The area in which waves break b Water less than one-half wavelength in depth c Where the longshore current flows d All of the preceding

The easiest method of escaping a rip current is to a Swim toward shore b Swim parallel to the shore c Swim away from the shore

Why is beach sediment typically quartz-rich sand? a Other minerals are not deposited on beaches b Quartz is the only mineral that can be sand-sized c Quartz is resistant to chemical weathering d None of the preceding

Longshore drift is a The movement of sediment parallel to shore when waves strike the shoreline at an angle b A type of rip current c A type of tide d The movement of waves

Which structures would interfere with longshore drift? a Jetties b Groins c Breakwaters d All of the preceding

What is the most common source of sand on beaches? a Sand from river sediment brought down to the ocean b Land next to the beach c Offshore sediments

Which would characterize an erosional coast? a Headlands b Sea cliffs c Stacks d Arches e All of the preceding

Which would characterize a depositional coast? a Headlands b Sea cliffs c Stacks d Arches e Barrier islands

A glacial valley drowned by rising sea level is a A fjord b An estuary c A tombolo d A headland

The storm surge of a hurricane is a The highest winds b The tallest waves c The dome of high water in the center of the hurricane d The area of high pressure within the storm

When waves enter the shallow coast and "touch bottom", they change from a wave of oscillation to a wave of a Oscillation to reflection b Translation to oscillation c Oscillation to translation d Diffraction to reflection

As waves approach a headland, they often bend and change direction. Such bending is called a Reflection b Refraction c Diffraction d Deflection

Structures built perpendicular to the coastline to conserve sand a Groins b Breakwaters c Seawalls d Jetties

The sandbar that connects a stack to the coast is known as a(n) a Spit b Tombolo c Baymouth bar d Barrier island

Sea level remains constant over the long term a True b False

A sandbar that crosses the opening of a bay a Baymouth bar b Tombolo c Spit d Barrier island

Terraces and wave-cut cliffs are evidence of a Submergent coastlines b Emergent coastlines c Stable sea levels d Tectonic inactivity

Drowned river valleys and fjords are evidence of a Emergent coastlines b Submergent coastlines c Recent volcanic activity d Desertification

Turbulence from normal ocean waves reaches all the way to the deep ocean floor a True b False

Barrier islands are permanent, stable features of coasts a True b False

Sand is moved along shorelines by way of a Longshore drift b Rip currents c Offshore winds d Downwelling

Waves erode coastlines by way of abrasion and a Hydraulic action b Chemical dissolution c Wind-blown deflation d Biological activity

Normal beach waves are generated by storms that may be hundreds of miles away a True b False

Emergent coasts can be caused by a drop in sea level a True b False

Waves of oscillation tend to “touch bottom” at a depth of a Equal to their amplitude b Half their wavelength c Twice their wavelength d One-tenth their wavelength

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