Practice Questions Flashcards
(500 cards)
1
Q
On a Cat III approach, below AH what conditions must be met?
A
GOM CH 5;
No Auto-throttle faults and LAND 3 on FMA.
2
Q
Where is the DOD Flight Information Publications (FLIP) DVD stored on the aircraft?
A
GOM CH 7;
Storage compartment on the first observers side wall console.
3
Q
Can a flight be released to an airport without an available TAF?
A
GOM CH 5;
Yes, if a reasonable trend is noted and whether is at or above minimums. Note: one METAR report does not established a reasonable trend and is not acceptable for release.
4
Q
The first officer is PF and has yet to complete consolidation. ATIS is reporting divisibility as 1100 m. What must be considered?
A
GOM CH 5:
To convert X3.28 equals feet (1100 m X 3.28 equals 3608)
The first officer cannot conduct the approach unless the visibility is 4000’ and auto brake 3 or greater must be used. The FO cannot conduct an approach at:
1 - at special airports visibility <
2 - visibility < 3/4 mile
3 - contaminated runway
4 - breaking action < good
5 - XW > 15 kts
6 - Windshear
7 - PIC determines it prudent. 
5
Q
If the director of operations delegates the functions of initiating continuing diverting and terminating flights to flight following personnel, does flight following also bear the responsibility of those functions? 
A
GOM CH 5:
No, the DO can delegate authority, but they cannot assign responsibility .
6
Q
What are the required documents in the trip envelope at the completion of a trip?
A
GOM CH 5:
1: aircraft log (yellow and pink copies)
2: weight & balance load sheet
3: fuel receipts
4: flight release/flight plan (including weather, signed, pilot route certification, and any handwritten amendments)
5: hazmat form
6: plotting charts
7: permit to pro
8: ground security
9: all receipts and invoices 
7
Q
Minimum required fuel calculations are based on what four factors?
A
GOM CH 5:
1: fuel to destination (origin to destination with one missed approach and go-around.)
2: alternate fuel (destination to furthest alternate)
3: additional fuel (deemed necessary by PIC and flight follower)
4: reserve fuel (45 minutes reserve fuel based on cruise fuel consumption, used within US)
8
Q
What minimum climb gradient must be maintained when conducting a departure procedure designed under TERPS criteria when no gradient is specified?
A
GOM CH 5:
200 feet per nautical mile .
To find climate for a minimum climb of 350’/nautical mile
Divide ground speed by 60
Multiply by climb rate.
Ex: GS =185/60x350 =1,079 fpm
9
Q
When determining that the aircraft gross weight is suitable for takeoff, which three weight limits must be considered?
A
GOM CH 5:
- Max structural TOGW
- Landing gross weight
- Takeoff performance
10
Q
When is a new TLR required prior to departure?
A
AOM VOL I PERF:
When actual OAT > max temp
When actual OAT > 10° below POAT
When actual QNH > .10 below PQNH
When actual T/O weight > than 10,000 pounds below PTOW
When actual T/O weight > wait listed in the PTOW plus table
When performance limiting MEL/CDL exists that is not in remarks section .
11
Q
When requesting a LIVE calculation, what must be provided to flight following?
A
AOM VOL I PERF:
Desired runway
Runway surface condition
ATIS
ZFW
Fuel on board
TOGW CG
12
Q
Your TLR has a notification”SLUS-LEVEL 2” in the remarked section. What depth of slush has been planned by the flight follower?
A
AOM VOL I PERF:
More than 1/8 of an inch up to 1/4 inch 
13
Q
After entering the thrust limit from Aerodata, there are dashed lines present on the takeoff page. What do you do?
A
AOM VOL I PERF:
The FMC cannot generate speeds based on ZFW, thrust and flaps or no runway has been entered. All performance entries must be stopped, and the lack of speeds must be resolved before flight.
14
Q
Who may perform the exterior safety check?
A
AOM VOL I NP:
Normally the FO or IRP. However if crewmembers arrive separately, the first crew member to arrive at the aircraft will complete the exterior and interior safety checks and establish electrical power. Note: the exterior preflight will not be performed until the safety inspection and preliminary heartbeat preparations have been completed
15
Q
When is the exterior safety check accomplished?
A
AOM VOL I NP:
On every flight before entering the airplane to ascertain the obviously unsafe conditions exist
16
Q
What is the maximum misalignment permitted on the pylon alignment stripe when conducting the exterior inspection?
A
AOM VOL I NP:
1/2 of the paint stripe
17
Q
What is the minimum amount of brake pin that can be visible when conducting the exterior inspection?
A
AOM VOL I NP:
Checking brake where pants is not part of our inspection
18
Q
When conducting an exterior inspection must a flashlight be carried during daylight hours?
A
AOM VOL I NP:
Yes
19
Q
For DHL flights, who assumes responsibility for accomplishing the final walk around?
A
AOM VOL I NP:
The loadmaster will assume responsibility for accomplishing the final walk around to ensure that all the cargo doors are closed and secured, and that no damage occurred during fueling or loading or may not have been visible on the IRP did the initial walk around.
20
Q
What are the memory items for engine fire on the ground?
A
QRH Back Cover:
Fuel control switch cut off
Warning: do not proceed until engine shutdown has occurred
If fire indication persist after engine shutdown:
Engine fire switch pull
Engine fire switch rotate
After a momentary delay:
Engine fire switch rotate to other bottle
Discharge second bottle, regardless of fire indication .
21
Q
What are the memory items for a multiple engine failure in flight?
A
QRH Page 6-7:
Fuel control switches: confirm cut off then RUN
EGT: monitor
If EGT rapidly approaches the takeoff EGT limit, repeat step one as necessary.
NOTE: do not manually abort the start if EGT turns red. EGT turns red when EGT exceeds the start limit line (lower red line). Auto start discontinue the current start attempt before EGT reaches the multiple engine in flight start limit (upper red line.)
(For a PW engine)
CONT ignition switch ON
Fuel control switches: confirm, cut off then RUN
EGT: monitor
If EGT rapidly approaches the takeoff EGT limit, repeat step 2 as necessary
22
Q
You have arrived on stand. Parking brake is set engines 1,2 and 3 are shut down and engine 4 is running as you await the connection of ground power. Suddenly, the marshal gives you the signal for a fire on engine four with no master fire warning eliminated. What recall items should be accomplished?
A
QRH 8-6:
Fire engine tail pipe
Fuel control switch: cutoff
23
Q
A hung start occurs after starter, cut-out, as indicated by the engine failing to accelerate 90 seconds after fuel control switch place to RUN. What recall items should be accomplished?
A
QRH 7-18
Hung start (Autostart after starter cut out )
Fuel control switch: cut-off .
24
Q
An engine has failed in flight. N1 rotation and oil pressure are indicated. The EICAS message ENG 1 FAIL appears. What recall items should be accomplished?
A
QRH 7-4
There are no recall items for an engine failure, reference the ENG1,2,3,4 Fail (single engine ).
25
What are the memory items for EICAS message ENG 1 auto start?
QRH 7-3
Fuel control switch: cut off
26
What are the memory items for the engine limit/surge/stall condition?
QRH 7-11
Thrust lever: Retard
Retard until indication stays within normal limits, or return to normal, or the thrust lever is closed.
27
What are the memory items for the EICAS message FIRE MAIN DECK?
QRH 8-7
Done the oxygen mask
Establish crew communication
28
What are the memory items for the EICAS message CABIN ALTITUDE?
QRH 2-8
Dawn, the oxygen mask
Established crew communications
29
Same question as number 28
Same answer as number 28 
30
What are the memory items for EICAS message FIRE WHEEL WELL?
QRH 8-8
when extending or retracting the landing gear do not exceed the EXTEND limit speed 270/. 82M.
Landing gear lever: DOWN
this attempt to remove and extinguish the fire source. 
31
Who is responsible for notifying the FAA when a PIC utilizes his emergency authority?
GOM CH 8
The DO must forward a written report to the FAA within 10 days after the flight is completed
32
What is the correct radio phrase to indicate a condition of urgency?
GOM CH 8
Pan, pan, pan
33
What is the correct radio phrase to indicate a condition of distress
GOM CH 8
Mayday, Mayday, Mayday
34
What are some indications that you have encountered volcanic ash in flight?
GOM ch 8
1: smoky or acrid odor that can smell like electrical smoke burned dust or sulfur
2: See a haze develop within the airplane. Just can’t settle on surfaces.
3: experience changing engine conditions, surging, torturing from the tailpipe and flame out can occur. Engine temperatures can change unexpectedly in a white glow can appear at the engine inlets.
4: a decrease or radically fluctuating indicated air speed.
5: changes in cabin pressure, including loss of cabin pressure.
6: phenomenon similar to Saint Elmo’s fire or glow. Blue colored sparks can appear to flow up the outside of the windshield or a white glow can appear at the leading edges of the wings or at the front of the engine inlets.
7: landing lights will cast sharp distinct shadows.
35
What must a person consider before using a halon fire extinguisher in an enclosed area?
GOM CH 8
A PBE must be dawned prior to discharging a halon fire extinguisher in a confined space
36
What is the time of useful consciousness at 35,000 feet without using supplemental oxygen?
GOM CH 8
30 to 60 seconds
37
What must be entered into the logbook, following an overweight landing?
GOM CH 8
1: aircraft weight
2: rate of descent at touchdown
38
Should supernumerary oxygen be deployed for smoke in the cabin?
GOM CH 8
No, unless the cabin altitude is greater than 14,000 feet
39
You have been assigned to a basic crew twice within a particular 30 day. What is the maximum number of hours that you may fly in that 30 day period?
GOM CH 3
100 hours
40
To whom can the director of operations delegate his responsibility for initiation, operation, diversion and termination of a flight?
GOM CH 5
The DO can delegate authority, but they cannot assign responsibility .
41
When operating outside the United States, international civil, aviation organization, ICAO standard procedures apply, except when a country files a statement of differences with the ICAO. Where can these differences be found?
JEPP PUBBS
Jefferson airway manuals. FD Pro under “Air Traffic Control State Rules and Procedures” tab for that country.
E.G: select Europe/Europe Airway Manual/Air Traffic Control tab: State Rules and Procedures Europe select country E. G. Germany.
42
What are the B – 44 fuel requirements?
GOM CH 5
Initial destination:
1: fly to and land at the airport, to which released, including one instrument approach and missed approach.
2: fly for 10% of total time from origin airport and land initial destination.
3: fly to and land at the most distant initial destination, alternate airport.
4: fly for 30 minutes at 1500 feet above the initial destination alternate airport.
Intended destination:
1: fly to land at the intended destination, one instrument approach and missed approach.
2: fly for 10% from release point to intended destination.
3: fly to and land at the most distant intended destination, alternate airport.
4: fly for 30 minutes at 1500 feet above the intended destination, alternate airport.
43
What were the B – 43 fuel requirements?
GOM CH 5
1: flight to airport for which released
2: fly for 10% of the portion of the en-route time (between departure and airport for which released) in Class II navigation.
3: fly to and land at the most distant alternate.
4: fly for 45 minutes at normal cruise consumption
(Class II Nav is when the aircraft position cannot be reliably fixed at least once each hour)
44
May a flight be released under the rules for No Suitable Alternate if there is an alternate available within two hours that is unusable because of weather forecast?
GOM CH 5
No, Kalita does not utilize the fuel provision of FAR 121.645(c)
45
Under B 43 and B 44, what deviations from flight plan must be reported to flight following?
GOM CH 5
1: ETA exceeds 15 minutes
2: Cruise altitude, various more than 4000 feet from flight plan
3: A deviation of more than 100 NM.
46
When are you considered “Established” on course? 
GOM CH 6 & GOM CH 2
1: within half scale deflection of the ILS or VOR or within +/-5° of the NDB bearing .
2: when it is within 2NM of the course center line (RNAV or RNP operations ).
47
Who is responsible for determining the entry requirements for a particular country?
GOM CH 6
The PIC
48
Where can the entry requirements (required permits, customs, and immigration procedures, etc) for a particular host country be found?
GOM CH 6 / JEPP PUBS
JEFFERSON AIRWAY MANUAL (PUBS/EUROPE AIRWAY MANUAL FOR EUROPE, ENTRY REQUIREMENTS ).
49
When do you need a permit to proceed?
GOM CH 6
Tech stop at a US airport without meeting the full inspection requirements of a normal entry. Note: the crew does not initiate the form, they receive it from customs.
4copies for:
1: local customs office
2: trip envelope
3: customs document package
4: Loadmaster’s Cargo Services Document envelope .
50
How must a flight crew determine the appropriate holding speeds for a given country?
FD PRO
Jefferson airway manual (Jepps/pubs/Europe/general airway manual/air traffic control/flight procedures/holding procedures Doc 8168
51
When operating outside the US and clear to a point with no routing specified, what action must be taken by the flight crew?
GOM CH 6
Clarify the routing or use phraseology indicating “ cleared present position direct to_________”.
52
When verifying routing on the flight plan consisting of CLASS II segments, what specific check is required in addition to the checks performed on all international flights?
GOM CH 6
Coordinates must be checked against charts or the NAT track message.
53
List three examples of observed or encountered phenomena requiring a special air report to ATS.
GOM CH 6
1: moderate turbulence
2: severe turbulence
3: moderate icing
4: severe icing
5: thunderstorm
6: thunderstorm with hail
7: severe mountain wave
8: heavy dust or sandstorms
9: volcanic ash cloud
10: observed volcanic activity
54
When would you NOT use CMV(converted meteorological visibility)?
GOM CH 5 and QRH AP-4
OK for used during preflight planning, but should not be used:
1: when reported RVR is available
2: calculating T/O minima
3: RVR minima less than 800 m
55
What does the term “NOSIG” meanwhile found in the METAR?
(I did not find a reference in the GOM)
no significant change for the next two hours
56
Can a flight be released based on a METAR?
GOM CH 5
Yes, if a reasonable trend is noted and whether is at or above minimum. Note: one METAR report does not establish a reasonable trend. That is not acceptable for release.
57
You are unable to see the required visual cues at decision height on an approach. Are you obligated to proceed to your filed alternate?
GOM CH 5
No, the destination alternate is just a planning exercise to ensure you have available fuel to divert to a suitable airport.
58
You have used CPDLC to request a weather deviation and have yet to receive an ATC response.
Based on analysis of the radar returns, you elect to deviate 20 miles south of track. What do you do?
New NAT PROCEDURES
Maintain your altitude until 5 miles south of track.
From 0 to 179°, if you turn right climb 300 feet.
From 180 to 359°, if you turn right to send 300 feet.
South climb and north descend.
59
You are unable to maintain your altitude while in oceanic airspace and cannot obtain a clearance for a lower altitude. What do you do?
New NAT PROCEDURES
1: turn at least 30° off track
2: maintain altitude as long as possible, select ENG OUT on FMS
3: establish on the offset descent to altitude which differs by 500 feet
4: broadcast on 121.5 and 123.45
5: turn on exterior lights
6: keep transponder on squaw 7700
7: contact ATC via CPDLC or voice
60
You are at your release point and you were unable to communicate with the company to coordinate your release when dispatch under B044, what do you do?
GOM CH. 5
Divert to the originally released airport (initial destination).
61
In the event, a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the mist approach point, what is expected of the pilot in regards to vertical and lateral maneuvering?
GOM CH 5
Proceed to the mist approach point and then fly the maneuver. Climbs are acceptable
62
Unless otherwise, listed on the chart, the maximum speed for IRF turning departure is________, with a minimum bank angle of_________.
GOM CH 6
290 kts and 15° 
63
Whenever a clearance is received en-route during non-radar operations, what flight plan and notations must be made by the flight crew?
GOM CH 6
Right to Clarence, time and frequency on the flight plan
64
Certain locations in the world have been identified by IATA as having less than reliable air traffic control services. Is there any additional procedures required?
GOM CH 6
All flights monitoring and broadcasting positions, altitude, and directions/route of flight on the common frequency.
65
Describe the check required after passing a waypoint in Class II airspace. What is being determined by this check?
GOM CH 6
10 minute check, accuracy of the LRN and verifies that the next coordinates are correct and the aircraft is tracking to that position.
66
In several areas, such as over the Andes in South America, the MEA‘ s for en-route segments may be well above the engine out capabilities of the particular aircraft and weight. Is Kalitta Air authorized to traverse such route? If so, are there any special provisions that must be met? Explain.
GOM CH 6 & FAR 121.191 & FAR 121.193
Yes, you must have escape routes or reduce aircraft weight .
67
While flying in less developed areas, and after receiving a” direct via” off airway routing what altitude should be consulted on the en route chart to ensure Obstacle Clarence requirements can be met? What type of terrain clarence does that altitude afford? 
GOM CH 6
Grid MORA 1000’/2000’ in mountainous terrain.
68
What is the engine failure air procedure in VMC if an engine fails after V1?
AOM VOL I PERF
Climb straight ahead to 1000 feet AFE, turn to a Nav Aid or HDG, return to land, visually or complete IMC procedure.l
69
Often the transition level is shown on Jefferson approach charges “ by ATC” . Although the controller should announce the transition level in the circumstances, they often do not. What are some indicators that a flight has been cleared through a transition level?
GOM CH 6
When cleared to an altitude or given an altimeter setting.
70
When conducting a course reversal procedure outside the United States, what must be done to assure obstruction Clarence?
GOM CH 5
Unlike in the US, the course reversal procedure must be flown exactly as depicted on the chart.
71
Generally, speaking, to which altitude should the altitude correction procedure of GOM chapter 6 be applied? What altitudes should not be corrected?
GOM CH5, 5-36
1: must make an altitude correction to the ”at or above” & ”at or below” altitudes on all designated segments, for all published procedures, and runways at:
A: US airport on temp at or below cold temp restriction
B: international airports on Tampa at or below -30°C
2: pilots must be cleared by ATC to apply temp compensation to an ATC assigned altitude
3: must report cold temp corrected altitudes to ATC whenever applied.
72
According to Geo M chapter 6, what are some of the effects of operating at the higher than normal true air speeds associated with high altitude Airport operations?
GOM CH 6
1: increased turn, Rady
2: aircraft will seem fast
3: higher descent
4: possible “Sink Rate”
5: possible heart break
6: missed approach client capability problems
7: pressurization schedule will be modified
73
What is the minimum fuel temperature and what should be done if the fuel temperature decreases below the limit?
QRH 12-15
3° above the freezing point of the fuel being used.
Increase air speed, climb/descent, divert to a warmer air mass
74
How do you identify the fuel freeze point for the type of fuel being used?
AOM VOL I limitations or QRH 12
Consult the limitation section or QRH
75
Describe the ICAO ground handling signal for a brake fire
GOM CH. 6
Rapid horizontal figure 8 motion with either arm pointing at the source of the fire
76
If the SELCAL does not test on the initial contact, what steps shall the flight crew take prior to initiating a constant listening, watch?
GOM CH6
1: verify SELCAL code
2: verify HF gain max or increase
3: verify squelch min
4: request new test
77
In regard to communicating with controllers outside of the US, what for recommendations should be used by crewmembers in order to avoid miscommunications?
GOM CH6
1: use standard ICAO physiology
2: speak clearly and slow
3: anticipate ATC commands
4: obtain assistance from all crew members, including supernumaries.
78
After receipt of a “conditional clearance” the PNF should?
AOM VIL I SP
Print the ATC UPLINK page and place the print out where both pilots can see it until the clearence has been complied with.
If print unavailable: leave the ATC UPLINK page displayed until the clearance has been complied with.
79
What is the correct response to a “cleared route clearance” uplink?
AOM VIL I SP
1: send a ”standby” downlink message
2: print the uplink message
3: after review of the message, accept or reject the clearence
4: if accepted, load the FMS
5: review legs page, don’t close discontinuity
6: execute
(if print unavailable, load, but do not execute review then accept/reject then execute)
80
Except on the North Atlantic, what is required at the ASTU boundary when using ADS–C?
AOM VIL I SP SP-58
Manually send one ATC position report at the boundary to initiate ADS-C services.
In NOPAC send a report to Tokyo and SFO .
81
Under what condition would you select ADS OFF?
AOM VOL I SP
Only when asked by ATC
82
When reporting by ADS – C only, can flight cruise remove non-compulsory ATC waypoints?
GOLD MANUAL
NO, BECAUSE INSERT OR DELETION OF NON-ATC WAY (e.g. midpoints) into the system may trigger an ADS – C waypoint change event report to ATC.
Note: if you are ADS – C and under radar control you may select a beam points without issue.
83
What does ADS – B stand for?
GOM CH5
Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast 
84
How do you turn ADS – B off?
AOM VOL II CH 11
Select the transponder to STBY
ADS – B is on whenever the transponder is on
85
What must supernumeraries be briefed on and who must brief them?
AOM VOL I NP
1: passenger signs
2: seatbelt use
3: oxygen
4: sterile cockpit below 10,000 feet
5: emergency exits and procedures
6: other exits
7: smoking
8: electronic devices
9: emergency procedures, and equipment, including procedures for extended overwater operations (if applicable)
10: seat back upright and tray table, stowed for takeoff and landing
86
What will cause the Main Deck Signaling System to activate automatically?
AOM VOL II CH 1
Depressurization or cargo compartment smoke/fire
87
What must a supernumerary do prior to entering the Main Deck?
VOL I Limitations
Carry a portable oxygen bottle with a smoke combat mask
Notify the operating crew
88
What is indicated by the EICAS message > EMER LIGHTS?
AOM VOL II CH 1
1: the emergency light switch is not armed
2: switch is armed and lights have activated
89
What are the wind limits when operating the main cargo door?
AOK VIL I Limitations
Door operating – 40 kts
Door open – 65 kts
90
When do the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT, sign, automatically illuminate, regardless of switch position?
VOL II CH 1
When oxygen is on
91
What is the max differential pressure (relief valve) for takeoff and landing?
AOM VOL I Limitations
9.4/.11 psi
92
The AFT CARGO HT switch TEMP legend is illuminated. Is AFT cargo heat available?
AOM VOL II CH 2 & QRH CH 2
Yes, it will cycle at a higher temperature
93
Can the APU provide bleed air and flight? If so, up to what altitude?
AOM VOL II CH 7
Yes, for one pack up to 15,000 feet
94
What will cause an engine bleed air SYS FAULT light to illuminate?
AOM VOL II CH 2
1: over-pressure
2: over-temperature (PRV & HP will close)
3: PRV or HP OPEN when commanded closed
95
What will cost the cabin altitude indicator on the primary EICAS to turn Amber?
AOM VOL II CH 2
Cabin altitude in the caution range (above 8500 feet)
96
The LLCAFR switch is in FWD LOW and the customer has requested a temperature of 4°C to 8°C for perishable cargo. What is the condition of the equipment cooling system?
AOM VOL II CH8
Closed loop
97
Which systems are available with the engine bleed valve closed and no fault is detected?
AOM VOL II CH 2
1: reversing and anti-ice. Note: what would cause it not to work?
2: PRVS failed closed
3: PRV closed due to a bleed air overheat
4: HP bleed valve failed open
5: start valve not closed
98
Under what condition may the # 1or #2 window heat be in operative?
AOM VOL I Limitations
1: provided operation is not predicated on flights into known or forecast icing conditions
2: windshield air (anti-fogging) systems are operating and remaining #1 and #2 window heaters are operative.
99
While in flight Nelle anti-ice must be on when?
AOM VOL I Limitations
1: TAT is 10°C or below and visible moisture in any form is present
2: prior to reducing thrust for descent in icing conditions (with visible moisture, and TAT< 10° including SAT< 40°C).
100
While in flight wing anti-ice must be on when?
AOL VOL I SP
AD 2011-16-02 requires its use below 22,000 feet in ice conditions (visible moisture and TAT less than 10°C, including SAT less than -40°C).
The wing anti-system may be used as a deicer or anti-ice in flight only. The primary method is to use it as a deicer by allowing ice to accumulate before turning on wing anti-ice.
101
Where is the windshield washer reservoir located?
AOM VOL II CH 3
Behind the door in the books storage area on the captains side panel
102
When are the 4 pitot-static probes heated?
AOM VOL II CH 3
When any engine is operating
103
When are the TAT probes heated?
AOM VOL II CH 3
When airborne
104
When can the auto pilot be engaged after takeoff?
AOM VOL I CH Limitations
Above 400 feet
105
VNAV is armed for takeoff at 400 feet AFE, the auto throttle mode changes to THR REF. What change occurs to the N1 indicators on the primary EICAS?
AOM VOL II CH 7
The reference N1changes from green to magenta
106
When the pitch mode is VNAV PTH, what changes will occur to the auto throttle and pitch modes when speed intervene is selected with the legacy FMC? What about the NG FMC?
VOL II CH 4
NG FMC Will remain in VNAV PTH and SPD.
The legacy FMC we don’t care about .
107
Will AILERON trim operate with an auto pilot engaged?
VOL I Limitations
Yes, but it is prohibited
108
What are the minimum and maximum glide slope angles?
VOL I Limitations
ILS 2.5°/3.25° or RNAV 2.75°/3.5°
109
What will occur in cruise flight with an auto pilot engaged and the PM inadvertently touches the trim switch instead of the push to talk switch?
VOL II CH 9
Auto pilot will disengage
110
When using FLCH SPD as the pitch mode on takeoff (VNAV DID NOT CAPTURE) is it necessary to push the THR button to select climb thrust?
VOL II CH 4
No, they changed below occur at the specific (flaps or altitude) programmed on the takeoff page of the FMC.
Note: in the simulator, you must push the THR button.
111
If VNAV is armed for takeoff, what would be the indicated FMA pitch mode change at 400 feet AFE?
VOL II CH 4
VNAV SPD
112
If LNAV is armed in flight, at what cross track distance will it become active?
VOL I CH 4
2.5 nm
113
What is the restriction on the center VHF with an operational ACARS system?
VOL I Limitations
Center radio not available for voice communication
114
When is an ACARS in-range report required to be manually sent?
VOL I SP
1: 30 minutes prior to arrival when unable to contact the ground station on an AMC flight.
2: 30 minutes prior to arrival when a maintenance item is or will be entered in the logbook.
115
When should HF radios not be used?
VOL I Limitations & NP
1: during refueling
2: do not turn the same frequencies as inadvertent damage may occur to the unused HF radio
116
How would you verify that the ACARS state is BEGIN or WAIT?
VOL I NP
Check DISCRETE page on the ACARS menu.
117
What must be done to communicate directly with the mechanic who is operating the start valve for a manual (wrench) start?
VOL II CH 5
1: the service enter phone must be selected on
2: FLT must be selected on the audio panel
3: the mechanic must plug into the headset jack at the nacelle
118
With 121.5 selected in the Rt VHF, can the receiver volume for that radio be turned off?
VOL II CH 5
No
119
What is indicated by the EICAS advisory > RADIO TRANSMIT?
VOL II CH 5
In-flight VHF or HF radio continuously keyed for 30 seconds
120
How can we tune DATA into the C VHF? 
VOL II CH 5
Selected a frequency higher/lower than those in the voice range
121
What buses are powered with one & two external power available but not on?
VOL II CH 6
EXT PWR 1 ground handling bus
EXT PWR 2 main deck, cargo handling bus
122
The battery switch is on and the standby power selector is in AUTO. No external power is available. You are starting the APU. Is the APU standby bus powered?
VOL II CH 6
No. Starting the APU removes power from the APU standby bus.
All items powered by the Main Batt except the starter
123
Which battery is required to start the APU?
VOL II CH 6
Both batteries are required to start the APU
124
How can a DCIR be opened?
VOL II 6
By opening the AC Bus Switch
125
While conducting the interior preflight, you notice that the number two generator FIELD OFF light is illuminated. How can you reset it?
VOL II CH 6
1: Cycle the generator control switch off and then on
2: Turn off the generator control switch, and then use the guarded field switch on the overhead maintenance panel to close the field.
126
Which electrical bus isolation occurs during autoland?
VOL II CH 6
AC & DC buses 1, 2 & 3 are automatically isolated to provide an independent power source for each auto pilot. AC bus 4 powers the sync bus and pick up any other AC bus if Gen fails.
127
The number four generator is deferred. Can a category III approach be conducted?
QRH AP-8
Yes
128
The #1 APU generator is still inoperative. External power is not available. What must be done to power the fueling panel?
Fuel Service Manual CH 3 Pg 3-5
Position the Main Battery Switch to ON, standby power switch to OFF and refuel power switch at the left-wing refueling bay to BATTERY.
129
Before starting engines with the #1 APU generator inop, what must be done to pressurize the #4 hydraulic system?
MEL 24-21-2A
Select demand pump to AUTO for engine start and pushback .
130
When must continuous ignition be used?
VOL I Limitations
1: heavy rain
2: standing water
3: severe turbulence
4: volcanic ash
5: icing conditions 
131
With an EEC in alternate mode (ALTN) when should takeoff thrust be set?
VOL I CH 2
After brake release
132
What does the EICAS memo message APU RUNNING mean.
VOL II CH 2
APU is at 95% and electrical and pneumatics are available .
133
With the auto ignition selector in SINGLE (GE) what happens on the ground?
VOL II CH 7
EEC alternates the igniters one and two after every second ground start .
134
With the auto ignition selector in SINGLE (GE) what happens in flight?
VOL II CH 7
1: select both for in-flight start or flame out.
2: selected igniter operates when N2 drops below 50%
3: igniter operates when trailing edge flaps out of up
135
When will standby ignition turn on if the switch is in NORM?
VOL II CH 7
1: with loss of a power
2: power will be supplied to both igniters
136
Under what conditions would a start attempt be aborted (P&W)?
VOL I SP
1: no EGT within 20 seconds
2: high initial fuel, flow and rapidly approaching EGT start limit 535°C (GE 750 degrees Celsius)
3: EGT start limit exceeded
4: no N1 by 40% N2
5: no oil pressure by 40% N2
6: N2 not stabilized by idle within 90 seconds from fuel switch to run.
7: pneumatic or electrical interruption
8: EICAS display disruption
9: engine tailpipe fire with no fire warning
137
If the maximum continuous EGT limit is exceeded, what is indicated? On takeoff?
VOL II CH 7
Inhibited for five minutes after TOGA is pushed. The entire EGT gauge will turn amber (indicator will turn red if max EGT is exceeded).
138
Would a main cargo fire arming the main deck fire switch does what?
VOL II CH 8
1: pack 2 & 3 shut down
2: pack 1 reduces to 600 CFM to flight deck only.
3: shut down all airflow to main deck and lower compartments
4: master trim air valve closed
5: equipment cooling closed loop mode
6: enables main deck fire suppression
Note: if pack 1not operating, Pack 2 still shuts down and pack 3 operates with dump valve to restrict airflow .
139
Is the engine fire detection “AND” or “OR” logic?
VOL II CH 8
And logic
140
Which event will cost the engine fire detection system to configure itself in OR logic?
Is there a cockpit indication?
VOL II CH 8
Fail of one of the detection loops during a self test. This will generate a status message.
141
What does EICAS message >DET FIRE/OHT 1 mean?
VOL II CH 8
Both loop A and loop B for engine one have failed
142
Describe what occurs when an engine fire switch is pulled
Closest the Spar valve
Closest the engine valve
Closest the bleed air valve
Trips off generator
Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the engine driven pump
The pressurizes the engine driven pump
Arms, both fire extinguishers
The demand pump will operate with the switch in AUTO
143
Which conditions will unlock the engine fire switch?
VOL II CH8
Engine fire
Fuel control switch in cutoff
Push the override switch beneath the fire switch
During a fire test
144
After a fire test pass, which two systems are no longer being monitored by the aircraft?
VOL II CH 8
Wheel well loop
Bleed duct leak detector
145
How many overheat loops are installed for the APU?
VOL II CH 8
No overheat detection
146
IF have the outboard ailerons fail to “ unlock” during approach, are there any restrictions on landing?
QRH CH 9
Crosswind limit 20 kts
147
What causes the outboard ailerons to unlock?
VOL II CH 9
Low air speed (< 238 kts)
148
How would you select flaps one using the alternate flap system?
VOL II CH 9
You cannot select Flaps 1 with the alternate system, all leading edge flaps are extended at the same time.
149
Moving the flap handle to a selected position will cause the flaps to move as long as either hydraulic (primary mode) or electric (secondary mode) power is available to the aircraft. Having said that, why is there an alternate flap system?
VOL II CH 9
In the event the flap handle fails or all three flap control computer FCC are failed.
150
What does the EICAS message “ speed brakes EXT” mean?
VOL II CH 9
Speed brake lever is aft of arm and;
Two or more thrust levers are forward of closed position
RA is between 800’ and 15’
Flaps in landing position .
151
What occurs when the speed brake lever is extended to the flight detent position?
VOL II CH 9
Two middle spoilers extended to the full position
Two inboard spoilers extend to the mid position
152
The flaps are not to be extended above what altitude?
VOL I Limitations
20,000 feet
153
When are the stab trim switches on the control wheel inhibited
VOL II CH 9
Multiple autopilots engaged.
154
What is the maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captains and FO‘s altitude display for RVSM operations?
VOL I Limitations
200 feet
155
In addition to attitude and vertical speed information what does the IRU selected by the captain provide?
VOL II CH 10
Information to the autobrake system .
156
On which range of the ND can you display all airports, all waypoints and all VOR’s?
VOL II CH 10
40 miles
157
Which of the instrument source selectors will automatically transfer?
VOL II CH 10
EIU
158
Selecting the ARPT button on the EFIS control panel does what?
VOL II CH 10, 11, 16F
All airports within the selected range would at least one hard surface runway 6000 feet or greater
159
For all aircraft except N782CK, what is the UP orientation of each ND mode?
VOL II CH 10
Map is track up
Plan is true north up
VOR & APP are heading up
160
What is the maximum allowable on-the-ground altitude display differences for operations in RVSM?
VOL I CH L
SL to 5000’: 35’
5000 to 10,000’: 40’
75’ between CA or FO and field elevation
161
Operations for using QFE are?
VOL I CH Limitations
Prohibited
162
Which pages are available on the CDU with a dual FMC failure?
VOL II CH 11
LPN: LEGS-PROG-NAV- RAD
163
Weather radar information can be displayed on all ND modes, except?
VOL II CH 11
Plan
VOR centered
APP centered
164
The NG FMC has a field on the VNAV CRZ page with the title RECMD. What does it display?
VOL II CH 16F & NG FMS Guide
The most economical altitude to fly for the next 500 miles based on gross weight, selected speed option, and constant altitude based on entered winds and forecast temperature.
165
You have been given a clearance to fly heading of 090° to intercept J121 to HTO. Procedurally what will you enter in the FMC?
VOL II CH 11
RTE page, put J121 at L1
RTE page, put HTO at R1
Verify route on legs page
Push EXEC
166
When does the FMC have approach logic?
VOL II CH 11
After passing the first waypoint on the published approach
Within 25 miles of the runway threshold
Below 2000 feet above airport elevation
VFR approach and sequence passed the FAF
167
What safeguard is applied when the FMC has approach logic and the pitch mode is VNAV space PTH?
VOL II CH 11
Loss of the path will cost the aircraft to do a level fly off
168
Can class II navigation be conducted with a dual FMC failure?
VOL II CH 11
Yes
169
When programming the NG FMC prior to departure, on what page can the update sources by view and if desired disabled or enabled?
VOL II CH 16F
NAV OPTIONS page
170
When programming the NG FMC prior to departure, which airports are entered on the ALTN page?
VOL II CH16F
ETP AIRPORT
If no ETP airport, the destination alternate
171
External power is connected, but not selected on. The filler comes up to you and asks if he can fuel since power is not on. Can he?
VOL II CH 12 or VOL 6
Yes, the fueling panel receives power from the ground handling bus
172
When must the CWT override/jettison pumps be switched off?
VOL II CH 12 or QRH 12
If the FUEL LOW CTR L/R message is displayed
173
Can you reset a tripped fuel pump circuit breaker?
QRH 12
Do not reset a tripped fuel pump circuit breaker
174
What is the fuel freeze point of Jet A?
QRH 12
-40°C
175
How can you verify that the fueling panel door is closed from the cockpit?
VOL II CH 12
The pre-select fuel valve will no longer appear on the fuel synoptic
176
What is the conditional minimum ramp fuel (excluding ballast)?
VOL I CH Limitations
53,000 pounds
177
What is the standard minimum ramp fuel?
VOL I CH L
72,000 pounds
178
When is the only time that the fuel system will automatically balance the fuel tanks?
VOL II CH 12
During fuel jettison for tanks, 2 and 3
179
On aircraft equipped with an electric scavenge pump, what causes the pump to activate?
VOL II CH 12
When reserve tanks 2 & 3 transfer to the respective main tanks at 40,200 pounds.
180
With the loss of systems two and three, why is there a speed additive for the approach?
VOL II CH 13 & QRH 13
Stabilizer trim is inoperative
Elevator field is inoperative
All auto pilots are inoperative
181
What will cause the man pump 2 or 3 to operate when the switch is in AUTO?
VOL II CH 13
Low pressure from the EDP
Fuel control switch in cutoff
182
What will cause #1 or #4 demand pump to operate when the switch is in AUTO?
VOL II CH 13
Low pressure from the EDP
On the ground flaps in transit
In flight flaps out of up
Fuel control switch in cutoff
183
Does unlatching the EDP switch close its respective shut off valve?
VOL II CH 13
No
184
The hydraulic quantity on the STATUS page shows 00. The EICAS message HYD PRESS ENG is displayed. The SYS FAULT light is not illuminated. Do you have any hydraulic pressure from the system available? Why?
VOL II CH 13
Yes
The ADP draws supply from the reservoir bottom, the EDP draw supply from a level above the bottom. The system indicated zero because the indicator is indexed to the EDP.
185
What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch?
Vol I ch NP
RF not displayed, minimum quantity .80
186
Where can you confirm the hydraulic quantity?
VOL II CH 13
Status page
Hydraulic synoptic page
187
What does the EICAS message ”HYD CONTROL” mean?
VOL II CH 13 / QRH 13
HYD control system inop
HYD indication may be inop
Demand pump may not operate under high demand
Demand pump must be placed to ON to ensure system pressure will be available during high demand .
188
With the #4 aux pump on and providing pressure will the HYD SYS fault light be off or on?
VOL I CH NP
OFF
189
What is the maximum takeoff weight when operating with the gear extended?
VOL I CH Limitations
720,000 pounds
190
On take of role when does RTO arm?
VOL II CH 14
85 kts
191
Auto brakes operate using which brake control system?
VOL II CH 14
Only the normal brake system (4 HYD system)
192
RTO breaking will provide what deceleration rate?
VOL II CH 14
RTO is not based on deceleration rate, it will give you max breaking
193
At what tiller angle will the body gear begin to aid in turning the aircraft?
VOL II CH 14
20 degrees
194
Where can you read alternate brake pressure?
VOL II CH 14
Alternate brake pressure cannot be read
195
The number four hydraulic system is in operative. How can the parking brake be held until trucks are in place?
VOL II CH 14
Pressurize hydraulic system #1 with the ADP or AUX pump
196
What does the brake torque limiting system do?
VOL II CH 14
Sensors to detect excessive torque during braking to prevent damage to the landing gear .
1: normal brakes: excessive torque releases pressure to that wheel
2: alternate brakes: excessive torque releases pressure to laterally paired wheels
197
From engine start to shut down, what is the primary means of alerting cruise to non-normal conditions or improper configurations?
VOL II CH 15
EICAS alert messages: advisory – cautions – warning
198
With multiple EICAS messages present what will assure that all memo messages are displayed?
VOL II CH 15
Pushing CANC button when the last EICAS page is displayed
199
When are the fire bell and master warning lights inhibited?
VOL II CH 15
V1 until 400’ or 25 seconds after V1.
200
When does the takeoff configuration warning activate?
VOL II CH 15
Either 2 or 3 N1 is 70% or more and air speed less than V1
1: flaps not intake of range
2: speed brake lever not in down detent
3: stabilizer not intake of range
4: parking brake set
5: body gear not centered
201
In what phase of flight would you receive the GPWS alert “ DON’T SINK”.
VOL II CH 15
An altitude loss after takeoff or go around, with flaps and or gear up
202
When is the Windshear alert system (not PWS) active?
VOL II CH 15
Rotation to 1500’
Predictive windshear on ground:
1: WXR selected to EFIS control panel and radar in any mode other than test
2: automatically at 60% to 70% N1
In flight: operates automatically below 2300’
203
What will cause the EICAS message CONFIG GEAR to display?
VOL II CH 15
The Landing gear is not down and locked and
1: any thrust level closed and radio altimeter <800’
2: flap lever in landing position(flap 25 or 30)
204
What range must be selected to use the TAWS look-ahead-terrain, alerting system for navigation?
VOL I CH Limitations
We do not use the terrain display for navigation
205
When carrying Class 1 explosive material on a DOD flight, the captain must ensure what information is included in the remarks section of the flight plan?
GOM Appendix H
1: proper shipping name
2: classification
3: net explosive weight
206
Where is the DOD flight information publication (FLIP) DVD stored on the aircraft?
GOM CH 9
Buy the laptop computer with the other DVD discs or in a separate CD case
207
Who is the final authority when conducting simultaneous fueling and cargo loading at a military installation?
GOM CH 7
The wing or base Commander
208
When operating an AMC contracted flight when must the destination airfield be notified?
GOM CH 7
30 minutes from ETA
209
When operating an AMC contracted flight where is the appropriate facility and frequency for contact prior to arrival found?
GOM CH 7
In the Flight Plan or Charter Alert
210
Under operating fundamentals of Kalita air flight operations will be conducted in a manner that ensures what 4 things?
GOM CH 3
Safety for personnel, cargo, and equipment
Schedule (integrity and reliability)
Customer satisfaction
Efficiency economy 
211
Prior to each departure, the PIC must obtain adequate knowledge of the following subjects
GOM CH 4
Weather
Navigation authorities
Communication
Terrain and obstructions
Minimum safe flight levels
Pertinent ATC procedures (terminal areas arrival departure, holding an instrument approaches)
Physical layout of each airport
NOTAMS
212
Same as 212
Same as 212
213
Whom may determine whether a pre-departure briefing for a special airport is needed?
GOM CH. 5
DO or assistant DO
Chief pilot or assistant chief pilot
Director of safety
214
When is a loading checklist required?
GOM CH 5
Any time cargo is loaded or loaded or reconfigured
215
Where must cargo aircraft only (dangerous goods) be loaded?
GOM CH H
Main deck accessible by crew
216
When operating under special permit 7573 or 9551 who may be on board?
GOM CH H
Only required crew members, maintenance, FAA, Load Masters, reps of cargo or designated for ensuring compliance
217
After loading the final numbers in the CDU you get an EICAS message >STAB GREENBAND, what are some reasons for this?
QRH CH 9
Airplane
Gross weight entry
CG entry
Takeoff thrust entry
218
Can we depart before our ETD? for DHL?
DHL GUIDE/AOM CH 5
Not more than 20 minutes
DHL not early but within 15 minutes
With approval
219
Are there any limitations for taxing out with 3 engines? 2 engines?
AOM VOL I NP
Less than 726,000 pounds start 4,1 and 2
Less than 660,000 pounds start 4 and 1
220
Can you be dispatched with less than 72,000 pounds of fuel?
AOM VOL I Limitations
Requires approval from the DO or chief pilot
221
FAPIC uses his emergency authority and it’s requested to submit a report to the requesting ATC facility when must this be implemented by?
GOM CH 8
48 hours
222
Are hazmat shipping labels required to be seen on ULD’s?
GOM CH H, H-60
Yes, they are required. However, if the tag is verified by the loadmaster/station representative when the cargo is loaded, it need not be visible after loading. If transporting under the terms of an exemption approval or special permit, no ULD tag is required.
223
When inspecting the PBE, which color is the indicator when it is no longer serviceable?
VOL II CH 1
Pink (it indicates the seal has been broken)
224
Who is responsible for ensuring the doors page synoptic is displayed during preflight?
VOL I NP
First officer
225
When conducting a preflight when will the Yaw damper switch INOP light extinguish?
VOL I NP
When the first IRU aligns
226
The MDSS TURB Switch Remains illuminated for how long after being pushed?
VOL I NP
90 seconds
227
What should you see during the STBY PWR check?
VOL I NP
Captain PFD, ND, left CDU and upper EICAS are powered
BAT DISCH MAIN
BAT DISCH APU
228
What is the procedure for all EFIS/EICAS screens going blank?
QRH CH 10 CH 0 (unannunciated checklists)
Pull the appropriate breakers, wait five seconds and reset .
EIU left or EIU center CB: P7-1 F-9, F10
229
Once activated, how long will an electric scavenge pump operate?
VOL II CH 12
120 minutes or until CTR tank is empty
230
When must the PIC declare a fuel emergency to ATC?
GOM CH. 5
When fuel at landing predicted to be less than planned fuel reserve
231
If a PIC rejects for a non-mechanical reason is a logbook entry required?
GOM CH 5
Yes
232
What is ICAO emergency fuel?
GOM CH 5
When the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome, where a safe landing can be made, is less than the planned fuel reserve.
233
What is the difference between distress and urgency?
GOM CH 5
Distress – grave and imminent danger “ Mayday Mayday Mayday”
Urgency – urgency message concerning the safety of the ship “ pan pan pan”
234
What is the pilot response to a “ CAUTION, OBSTACLE” or ” CAUTION, TERRAIN”?
QRH CH 16
Correct flight path or airplane configuration
Auto pilot: disconnect
Auto throttle: disconnect
Thrust: maximum (apply aggressively)
Pitch attitude: rotate to 20° and roll wings level
Speed brakes: retract
If terrain remains a threat continue rotation up to the pitch limit indicator or stick shaker or initial buffet. Do not change gear or flap configuration and monitor radar altimeter for terrain clearence.
235
GPWS alerts are provided for what seven categories of event events?
VOL II CH 15
Excessive decent rate
Excessive terrain closure rate
Descent after T/O or GA
Unsafe terrain clearance gear
Unsafe, terrain clearance flap
Below glideslope deviation
Altitude advisories
Winshear
236
When directed by the QRH, pushing the ground proximity (GND PROX) flap override (OVRD) switch does what?
VOL II CH 15
Inhibits “too low flaps” warning
237
TAWS Green indicates what altitude? Amber? Red?
VOL II CH 15
Dotted green: Terrain 2000’ below to 500’ below (250’ w/GS)
Dotted Amber: 500’ below to 2000’ above (250’ w/GS)
Dotted red: > 2000’ above
Solid amber: look-ahead, Terrain Caution
Solid red: look ahead, Terrain Warning
238
Can crew members except another carriers NOTOC form?
GOM CH H
Yes
239
How much dry ice is allowed to be carried on board?
GOM CH H
Depends on sublimation rate and PACK configuration
240
What is the minimum RVR allowed for takeoff? How many centerline lights should you see at 500 RVR?
GOM CH 5
500 feet or 150 m
10 lights
241
Under low visibility conditions, how would you determine when you have 2000 feet of runway remaining?
AOM Appendix A Cat II/III/Operations Page A 2-6
Runway edge lights change from white to yellow for the last 2000 feet.
(centerline lights will alternate between red and white the last 3000 feet.).
242
Where can you find the complex special engine fail procedure for GUA/MGGT runway 02, if you wanted to study it before receiving the TLR?
VOL I CH Perf
Aero data performance handbook
243
With PACKS in HI FLOW, how much extra fuel burn will you have?
VOL II CH 2 2-17
.3% per pack compared to ECON mode
244
Why is it important to check fields 10 and 18 on the flight plan strip?
GOM CH 9
Field 10 is equipment qualifier in the ATC filing strip
Field 18 is performance based navigation (PBN) qualifier, RNP values
245
Who is responsible for determining aircraft disinfection procedures prior to entering a country?
GOM CH 6 & ROB Bulletin
The captain is responsible and the mechanic, loadmaster or supernumerary will carry it out
246
Can you dispose of the insecticide canister prior to landing, if needed?
(ROB)
No, the cans must be made available to the quarantine inspector upon arrival
247
What code should never be put in the transponder?
GOM CH 5
7777 / this code is reserved for military interceptor operations
248
Can we do circling approaches?
GOM CH 5
No, we are not authorized
249
How close to the destination airport does one need to be to accept a visual approach?
GOM CH 5
Within 35 miles of the destination airport and visual contact established
250
Where do we find the authorized geographic areas of en route operations?
OPS SPECS)
B050
251
Can we operate in NO FIR areas?
GOM CH 6
No
252
What are some considerations of an operating in NON-WGS 84 compliant areas?
GOM CH 6
LNAV and VNAV may not be used
Runways airports, waypoints NAVaids may not be as depicted on the map display or agree with the GPS
This can affect RNP during RNAV approaches.
253
Can we operate on performance based communications and surveillance (PBCS) tracks?
GOM CH 6
The 747 and 777 fleet meets all requirements to use the PBCS tracks in the NAT HLA
254
After coast out and radar service terminated, at what point do we squawk 2000?
NAT DOC 007
30 minutes after entry into NAT airspace or after exiting a radar service area
255
When operating out of VHHH and using runway 7L and 7R, can we use a NADP to departure?
JEPP VHHH AIRPORT BRIEFING REF page
NADP one or NADP2 for all takeoffs. But depending on the time of day, we will need to do a NADP one.
256
How can we derive alternate airport weather minimums?
GOM CH 5
Condition A: add 400’ to the MDA or DA and 1 SM or 1600 m
Condition B: add 200’ to the MDA or DA of the two approaches and 1/2 SM or 800 m to the higher mins
Condition C: CAT II ceiling of 300’ and 3/4 SM or RVR 4000’ or 1200 m
Condition D: CAT III ceiling of 200’ and 1/2 SM or RVR 1800’ or 550 m
257
For purposes of condition reporting an airplane performance, a runway is considered contaminated when?
GOM CH 5
25% of the runway surface area is covered by frost, ice and any depth of snow and slush or water greater than 1/8” or 3 mm .
258
What is the minimum weather for a circling maneuver?
GOM CH 5, 5-137
1000 feet or visibility > 3 SM and WX above published landing minima (whichever is higher)
Min maneuvering altitude, 1000’ HAA. Stay above 1000’ until a normal descent right can be made.
259
What must be considered before an approach below 3/4mile or RVR 4000?
GOM CH 4/AOM VOL I
Destination runway prior to takeoff at least 115% of the runway field length required
Runway markings or centerline lights must be operational
For un-forecasts WX the PIC must not begin to final approach unless the runway length needed is determined prior to the approach
FO must have more than 100 hours as SIC
Autobrake 3 or 4 used and allow Autobrakes to decelerate to 20 kts or less
260
If mid and rollout RVR reports are unavailable for a CAT II approach, what is the minimum RVR requirement?
OPS Spec C060
TDZ must be at least 1400 RVR
261
On a CAT III approach with the far end RVR reporting, is far and RVR controlling?
AOM VOL I Appendix A Cat III/III Operations
CAT III requires three transmissometers. Touchdown and midfield are both controlling. The rollout RVR is required, but is advisory only.
262
In an ICAO country if the PIC declares “minimum fuel”, can they expect priority handling?
GOM CH 5
No, this is not an emergency. It tells ATC aerodrome options have been reduced to a specific airport of intended landing. Pilots should not expect any form of priority handling.
263
What do we need for alternate IFR weather minimums?
GOM CH 5 & C 055
Condition A: add 400’ to the MDA or DA and 1 SM or 1600 m
Condition B: add 200’ to the MDA or DA of the two approaches and 1/2 SM or 800 m to the higher mins
Condition C: CAT II ceiling of 300’ and 3/4 SM or RVR 4000’ or 1200 m
Condition D:CAT III ceiling of 200’ and 1/2 SM or RVR 1800’ or 550 m
264
Where can we use a single long range navigation system (LRNS)?
OPS Spec B 054
North Atlantic blue spruce routes, West Atlantic, Caribbean, Gulf of Mexico
265
ICAO route codes A, B, G and R are used for what type of ATS routes?
GOM CH 6
Routes which form part of the original networks of ATS routes. They are not area navigation routes
266
The letter U used as route designator “ UPPER” is normally in conjunction with what type of airspace?
GOM CH 6
Class a airspace at or above the transition level
267
En-route we must be able to maintain how many feet of obstacle clearance?
GOM CH 6
1000’ obstacle clearance within 5 SM on each side of the route or clear all terrain by 2000’.
Off-airway routes: 1000 feet or 2000 feet in mountainous terrain.
268
When selecting a transition for an approach procedure what is an important consideration regarding altitude constraint on the transition?
GOM CH 5
Clearance via ASTAR authorizes the aircraft to follow the STAR lateral track only. With a clearance published altitude restrictions above the assigned altitude remain mandatory unless specifically canceled by ATC.
269
Can we operate in areas where barometric pressure is missing or above 31.00?
GOM CH 5
Yes, but flights are restricted to VFR weather
270
If ATC has modified the filed flight plan, you will receive a “ CLEARED ROUTE CLEARANCE” or “ CLEARED TO … (position) VIA ROUTE CLEARANCE”, are there any restrictions after loading the DCL?
AOM VOL I SP
All crew members must review the message and check the legs page. Print from the CA CDU.
Load the uplink and both pilots must review the data before executing.
Do not close the discontinuity.
271
What is the minimum battery charge on your IPAD EFT when reporting for duty?
GOM CH 5
80%
272
When will the runway turn-off lights extinguish with the switch selected on?
AOM VOL II
When the air/ground system is in air mode
273
In AUTO the FASTEN SEATBELT sign will illuminate when?
AOM VOL. II CH 1
Landing gear, not up
Flap lever not up
Aircraft altitude < 10,300’
Cabin > 10,000’
Supernumerary oxygen on
274
If DC power fails, emergency lights are powered by which battery source?
AOM VOL II CH 1
Powered by remote batteries. Charge maintained by DC Bus 4 and will provide at least 15 minutes of operation.
275
The PBE has an operating duration of ______ minutes, and can be used to an altitude of_____.
AOM VOL II CH 1
15 minutes at 40,000‘
276
When is the MDSS automatically activated?
AOM VOL II CH 1
Depressurization
Cargo compartment smoke or fire
277
Once activated, how long will the MDSS remain on?
AOM VOL II CH 1
Will remain active until the triggering condition is corrected
278
What is the width of the wing gear?
AOM VOL II CH 1
36’ 1”
279
What is the minimum taxi with?
No reference
We believe it’s 50’
280
How do you make a 180° turn on 153 foot wide runway?
FCTM CH 2
Taxi so the wing gear tires are close to the runway edge and stop the plane
Hold tiller to max angle and release the brakes
Add thrust on outboard side, maintaining 5 to 10 kts
Use light intermittent breaking on the inside main gear
281
How many escape descent devices (reels) are there on a BCF?
AOM VOL II CH 1
BCF: 6
Freighter: 8
282
The minimum pavement for a 180° turn is?
AOM VOL II CH 1
With body gear steering 153’
Without body gear steering 170’
283
What are the three types of hydroplaning?
GOM CH 5
Dynamic: film of water 1/10 of an inch or greater is present
Viscous: film of water 100th of an inch is trapped between the tire and runway
Reverted rubber: locked wheel skid on a wet runway
284
With an operating anti-skid system which type of Hydro planing do we need to worry about?
AOM VOL II 14
Reverted rubber as the anti-skid would release brake pressure if a skid was detected
285
With a tire pressure of 220 psi what would be the approximate hydroplaning speed?
E6B
At a standard day 133 kts
286
What are the two types of push button switches?
AOM VOL II CH 1
Alternate action
Momentary action
287
Name the location of the flight deck access lights
AOM VOL II CH 1
Threshold light at L1
Left side wall, light forward of L1
Upper deck lights above crew access ladder
Upper deck dome lights
Main equipment center lights
288
What does the IRS ON BAT mean? How much time do you have?
AOM VOL II CH 11
IRS is on back up power (APU hot batt bus)
Center IRU will operate on DC power for five minutes then shut down
L & R IRU will operate for 30 minutes
289
During preflight you notice a Field Off Light illuminated on the overhead maintenance panel what might be the problem?
AOM VOL II CH 6 & Ch 8
Generator field open
Fire switch pulled
290
Normally equipment cooling comes on when on the ground? In flight?
And where does the air go? What about an STBY or OVRD?
AOM VOL II CH 2
Uses internal fans to direct air from inside the lower fuselage into the equipment racks, air is ducted overboard through the ground exhaust valve .
Above 50° the Ground Exhaust Valve is OPEN and Inboard Exhaust Valve is CLOSED.
Below 50° the Ground Exhaust Valve is CLOSED and Inboard Exhaust Valve OPEN.
In flight: Ground Exhaust Valve is CLOSED and Inboard Exhaust Valve is OPEN.
STBY: will force the Ground Exhaust Valve CLOSED and Inboard Exhaust Valve OPEN.
OVRD: cooling system operates in reverse flow, using differential pressure to exhaust air through Smoke/Override Valve.
291
If cabin pressure becomes excessive, two pressure relief valves open. Which pack shuts down to assist in relieving excess cabin pressure? Is it available once pressurization returns to normal?
AOM VOL II CH 2
PACK 2 shuts down to relieve excessive cabin pressure
It resets when cabin pressure relief close.
292
With a left-wing DUCT OVERHEAT will the #2 Hydraulic Demand Pump operate?
AOM VOL II CH 13
On the GE aircraft yes, because system 2 & 3 are electric pumps.
On the PW aircraft, NO.
293
With Master Trim Air switch OFF, upper deck zone, crew rest zone and main cargo zone receive pack outlet air at the same temperature commanded by which TEMP selector?
AOM VOL II CH 2
Flight tech temp selector
294
Aft Cargo Heat is provided by bleed air from which duct?
AOM VOL II CH 2
Center Duct
295
Cabin Altitude, use inputs from which sources to calculate a cabin pressurization schedule?
AOM VOL II CH 2
Ambient pressure
Flight plan data from the FMC
296
After an overpressurization event, when will PACK 2 reset?
AOM VOL II CH 2
When the cabin pressure relief valve closes
297
When the bleed air over temperature switch opens the control logic will close which valves?
AOM VOL II CH 2
PRV and HP shut off valves
298
What will cause a PACK valve to close?
AOM VOL II CH 2
Overheat
Pack temperature controller fault
299
If you have only one Equipment Cooling Fan is carriage of perishables or animals allowed?
MEL CH 21
It depends on the aircraft, those with lower lobe A/C will still be able to control cargo compartment temperatures.
Reference: MEL 21–99, 21–50 8–2, 21–50 8–6.
300
With a left bleed duct is isolated due to a bleed leak. What systems are affected?
AOM VOL II CH 2
Hydraulic demand pump 1 inop: leading edge flaps operate electrically
Wing anti-ice inop
Pack 1 inop
301
Which conditions will cause a zone system (SYS) fault light?
AOM VOL II CH 2
Zone duct overheat
Zone temp control fault
Master trim air valve failed closed
Trim air switch off
Master trim, air valve closed and PACK air continues to flow
302
Bleed air is available for NAI operation with the engine bleed air switch ON or OFF except when?
AOM VOL II CH 2
PRV failed closed
PRV closed due to a bleed air overheat
Start valve not closed
303
Bleed air is available for reverse thrust operation with the bleed air switch to ON or OFF, except when?
AOM VOL II CH 2
PRV failed closed
PRV closed due to a bleed air overheat
Start valve not closed
304
If you receive a PACK 2 status message after pushback, what would you do?
MEL CH 4
Prior to engine start have it fixed or deferred
After engine start, we are considered in flight
305
Do you have to do a cross-bleed start from the supplemental procedures for a delayed engine start with the APU off? Why not?
AOM VOL I NP
No, there is sufficient duct pressure
Reference the delayed engine start procedure
306
On the ground, which condition must be met to configure equipment cooling for flight?
AOM CH 2 CH 2
One or more engines on each wing are operating
307
What does the EICAS message EQUIPMENT COOLING mean on the ground?
How can you configure for flight mode?
QRH CH 2
The ground exhaust valve is not in the commanded position
Airflow is insufficient
Overheat sensed
Position EQUIP cooling selector to STBY
308
With the PRV closed for an overheat is NAI available?
QRH CH 2
No
309
The forward cargo compartment receives heat how?
AOM VOL II CH 2
Heated air is exhausted from the E&E compartment
310
If both isolation valves are closed, what do you lose?
AOM VOL II CH 2
Trim air (temp zones operate in back up without trim air)
Aft cargo heat
Cargo smoke detection
Potable water pressurization
PACK 2
311
With a PRV valve deferred, are you restricted from flight into known icing conditions?
MEL CH 36
It depends on whether it is deferred closed or open .
If it is deferred closed, yes
If it is deferred open, no
312
Is known icing and forecast icing the same thing?
AIM CH 7
No icing is actual ice observed on an aircraft
Forecast icing indicates it might happen
313
With engine bleed valve closed, NACELLE ANTI-ICE BLEED AIR IS SUPPLIED BY WHICH BLEED?
AOM VOL II CH 3
IP bleed only
Note: IP is 8 stage and HP is 14 stage .
314
When is wing anti-ice inhibited?
AOM VOL II CH 3
On the ground and in-flight when leading edge flaps are extended
315
What is the procedure for descending into icing conditions near convective weather?
AOM VOL I SP
For GE engines
Nacelle anti-ice switches ON
Pack high flow switch ON
Below 22,000 feet wing anti-ice switches ON
316
You are in the Commonwealth of independence states and you need to be deiced. They are using ARTIKA 200 fluid, are there any additional procedures?
DEICING/ANTI-ICING MANUAL CH 4 P4-5
ARTIKA 200 is not approved for use on KA aircraft.
A pre-takeoff contamination check is required after the application of any military fluid or ARTIKA 100.
317
With the PRV closed due to an overheat is NAI available?
QRH CH 3
No
318
What does the EICAS message? > WAI LEFT indicate?
QRH CH 3
WAI Valve Left is not in the commanded position
319
The >ANTI-ICE NAC EICAS message indicate what?
QRH CH 3
Any anti anti-system on and TAT > 12°C and ice detector does not detect ice.
320
How does the NAI valve indicate open?
AOM VOL II CH 7
Green NAI on the Primary EICAS
321
What’s the difference between a pre-takeoff contamination check and a pre-takeoff check?
DE-ICING/ANTI-ICING MANUAL CH 3
Pre-takeoff check: conducted within the aircraft hold overtime
Pre-takeoff contamination check: conducted within five minutes of beginning takeoff, only if the whole overtime has not been exceeded by more than 50%
322
Do we have to select MAX power for takeoff after being deiced?
AOM VOL I CH SP
Do not use reduced thrust (assumed temperatures) for takeoff.
TO 1 or TO 2 are permitted .
323
You need to deice at KDOV, can you utilize MIL – SPEC deicing fluid?
If so, are there any additional procedures needed?
DE-ICING/ANTI-ICING MANUAL MILITARY FLUIDS
Military fluids do not meet the specifications for determining all overtime. A pre-deck of contamination check must be made.
324
What does the EICAS message > ICING mean?
QRH CH 3 & VOL II CH 3
Ice detector, detect ice in flight and wing or engine anti-ice switch is off
325
What are the indications that the NAI and WAI are on?
AOM VOL II CH 3
NAI and/or WAI is displayed on the EICAS.
326
When must continuous ignition beyond?
AOM VOL I CH Limitations
Heavy rain
Standing water
Volcanic ash
Severe turbulence
Icing conditions
327
Who is responsible to ensure a deicing vendor is on the Approved Deicing Vendor List (ADVL)?
If they are not on the list, can they be trained on site?
DEICING/ANTI-ICING MANUAL CH 3 and 5
Kalitta Quality Assurance Manager
PIC IS RESPONSIBLE TO CONTACT OCC TO VERIFY THE VENDOR STATUS. IF NOT APPROVED, TRAIN THE PERSONNEL ON KA PROCEDURES, AND REQUIREMENTS IN CHAPTER 6 OF THE DEICE MANUAL.
328
you are in the commonwealth of independent states and you need to be deiced. They are using ARTIKA fluid. Are there any additional procedures?
HOLD OVER APP and DEICING/ANTI-ICING MANUAL CH 4
need to do a pre-takeoff contamination check
Artika 200 is not approved on KA aircraft
329
When in VNAV which speed will the airplane fly when reaching the T/D symbol?
AOM VOL II CH 2
The speed entered in the FMC descent page
When possible we default to ECON
330
Can you increase the descent rate by the use of speed brakes when the active pitch mode is VNAV Path?
AOM VOL II CH 11
No
331
When is the speed (SPD) switch active and operative?
AOM VOL II CH 4
From 400 feet after takeoff until landing
V/S, ALT or G/S
FLCH
TOGA
332
When does VNAV activate if armed?
AOM VOL II CH 10
Active route
Performance entered
Above 400‘
333
Describe the functions of the THR button. Light illuminated. Light extinguished.
AOM VOL II CH 4
Light extinguished:
Operative from 400 feet
During climb changes to armed climb limit or MCT (eng out)
Light illuminated:
ALT or V/S changes A/T mode to THR REF when CLB, CLB1, CLB2, CRZ or CON
ALT or V/S and flaps in landing, changes A/T mode to GA or FLARE
334
Name some reasons, the auto throttles would disengage
AOM VOL II CH 10
EEC in ALTN
Both FMC’s fail
Two or more engines shut down
Reverse thrust lever raised
Fault in active auto throttle mode
Note: when FMC master switch switched, but can be reactivated
335
What type of mode is VNAV?
Pitch mode
336
Descent Direct (DES DIR) on the VNAV descent page does what?
NG FMS CH 3
Deletes all descent constraints above the MCP altitude window
337
Is it possible to have only one off-side tuning light on?
AOM VOL II CH 5
No
It indicates the radio tuning panel is being used to tune a radio, not normally associated with that tuning panel .
The radio normally associated with the panel is being tuned by another radio .
338
What happens if a VHF radio has a stuck mic on the ground?
AOM VOL II CH 5
A VHF radio transmitting for longer than 35 seconds is disabled
339
When is an En-Route Delay required to be sent?
AOM VOL I SP
WHEN THE FLIGHT TIME EXCEEDS THE PROJECTED FLIGHT PLAN TIME BY MORE THAN FIVE MINUTES .
This should be done for every five minute delay.
340
The cargo interphone system provides what?
AOM VOL II CH 5
Communication between the flight deck, load personnel and ground crew .
Cargo system can be connected to the flight interphone system with the cargo/cabin interphone switch
341
Describe the steps necessary to receive a SATCOM call.
AOM VOL II CH 11
SAT L transmitter select switch: push
CDU manual function key: push
SAT (LSK): push
Answer (LSK): push
342
Explain how to tune the HF radio as required by the FO preflight.
AOM VOL I CH NP
Tune VOLMET or UTC
Turn each radio to a different frequency and transmit, listen for a side tone
343
The oxygen mask microphone is enabled when?
AOM VOL II CH 1
It depends on the aircraft
With the left O2 panel door open
With the OXY/boom switch on the audio panel
344
The offside tuning light on an RTU indicates what?
AOM VOL II CH 5
The radio is being tuned by a panel, not normally associated with that radio
345
Can you do a proper HF radio check without tuning the radio?
AOM VOL II CH 5
No
346
How do you make a SATCOM call to a number not in the directory?
AOM VOL II CH 5
SAT L transmitter: push
CDU manual function key: push
SAT (LSK): push
Access code: plus or 00 (this is interchangeable)
Country code: 1 for USA and Canada, 49 for Germany, 86 for China
Area/city code: 2 to 4 digits 734 for Detroit 69 for Frankfurt
Number: 7–10 digits
347
What activates the O2 microphone?
See earlier question
348
How do you reset to boom – Mike after the O2 Mike has been activated?
AOM VOL II CH 1
Close the O2 left panel door and reset the oxy on flag
349
You have a cold, dead airplane; Can it be loaded and fueled without somewhat entering the cockpit?
AOM VOL II CH 6
The Ground Handling Bus must be powered by External Power 1 or APU GEN 1
350
When is the electric synoptic inhibited?
AOM VOL II CH 6
During autoland
351
During an autoland when do the A/C and D/C buses isolate?
AOM VOL II CH 6
Below 1500’
352
What normally powers the main standby bus?
AOM VOL II CH 6
AC Bus 3
353
With the BATT switch ON, standby power selector in AUTO and AC Bus 3 unpowered, the main standby bus is powered by which source?
AOM VOL II CH 6
AC Bus 1 if AC Bus 1 has power .
By the Main Standby Inverter powered through the Main Hot Battery Bus.
354
Where does the ground service bus get its power from?
AOM VOL II CH 6
AC Bus 1
On the ground AC Bus 1 can be connected to the ground handling bus .
355
With the battery charger unpowered the main battery will power the main standby bus for a minimum of how long?
AOM VOL II CH 6
30 minutes
356
What are the power sources for the ground service bus?
AOM VOL II CH 6
AC Bus 1
On the ground AC Bus 1 can be connected to the ground handling bus .
357
With the APU generator 1 inoperative and no external power available what system or systems will be affected?
AOM VOL II CH 6 pg 6-12 & 6-13
Auxiliary hydraulic pump 4
Fueling system
Lower cargo handling equipment, and compartment lights
358
What are the reasons for disconnecting the IDG per the QRH?
QRH CH 6
For GE engines:
Low oil pressure
High oil temp
GCB open due to uncorrectable generator frequency
P&W engines:
Low oil pressure
High oil temp (book does not say if it automatically disconnects)
359
Will the IDG ever disconnect automatically?
AOM VOL II CH 6
GE: high oil temp
P&W: not sure but we think so
360
A generator drive light (IDG) indicates what?
See a previous question
361
During load shedding what are some EICAS messages that may show depending on fuel panel?
AOM VOL II CH 6
Fuel OVRD CTR L pump
Fuel OVRD pumps 2 and 3 FWD
FWD fuel pumps 2 and 3
362
While adjusting your seat electrically, there’s a spark coming from below the seat what’s the fastest way to remove the power supply of that seat?
AOM VOL II CH 1
Turn the master switch off
363
Can you do a CAT III approach with an engine generator DMI’d?
QRH AP
Yes
364
If number 4 generator is deferred which generator powers the SYNC BUS during a CAT III approach?
(we did not find this answer)
We believe all three generators stay on the SYNC bus
365
What does the BAT position on the STBY power switch do?
AOM VOL II CH 6
Powers main batt bus through the main hot battery bus
Powers APU batt bus through the APU hot battery bus
Powers, main and APU standby buses through their respective hot batt bus and standby inverters
Disable main and APU battery chargers
366
Name the items on the ground handling bus
AOM VOL II CH 6
AUX hydraulic pump four
Fuel system
Lower cargo handling equipment, and compartment lights
367
Name the items on the ground service bus
AOM VOL II CH 6
Main and APU battery chargers
Fuel pumps for APU start
Upper deck doors
Flight deck, flood, navigation, and service lights
Miscellaneous service outlets, and equipment
368
How many utility buses are there?
AOM VOL II CH 6
4
369
Selecting the BATT switch to ON does what specifically?
AOM VOL II CH 6
Allows the:
Main battery available as back up power source for main battery bus and main standby bus
APU battery available as backup source for APU battery bus and APU standby bus
370
How are the captain and FO transfer buses powered? How are they backed up?
AOM VOL II CH 6
Captains transfer bus: by AC bus 3
FO transfer bus: by AC Bus 2
Backed up by: AC Bus 1
371
What information must be recorded in the aircraft logbook and the event log after an engine failure/shutdown?
GOM CH 8 8-23
Engine operating condition prior to shut down (i.e. stable, surging, etc)
Engine condition after shutdown, including oil pressure
Total flight time that engine was windmilling . Also note the duration of time engine, windmilled without oil pressure or was below five psi for Pratt or 10 PSI for GE.
Any other engine operating parameters exceeded during this flight
If the engine was shut down with the firewall shutoff
The following items should be recorded workload permitting
Time of failure or shutdown
Phase of flight
Flight conditions, and status of related systems (e.g.; ignition, anti-ice, etc)
Related caution or warning indications
Restart attempts
372
Can APU be started in flight?
AOM VOL II CH 7
No
373
Moving the fuel control switch to cut off does what?
AOM VOL II CH 7
Closest spar valve, engine valve, and metering valve
removes igniter power
Demand pump to operate when the man pump selector in auto
Unlocks engine fire switch
374
During an in-flight auto start what EGT limitation is limiting?
QRH CH 7 pg 7-30
Take off EGT limit (GE: 960/P&W650)
375
How is the engine oil cooled?
AOM VOL II CH 7
Buy fuel as it flows through the fuel/oil heat exchanger
376
What happens when the oil filter becomes saturated with contaminants?
AOM VOL II CH 7
Oil bypasses the filter, then returns to the oil reservoir
377
Where is the engine oil quantity measured?
AOM VOL II CH 7
Oil reservoir/tank
378
Describe the APU start sequence
AOM VOL II CH 7
Rotate APU selector momentarily to start
APU fuel valve and inlet door simultaneously open
Starter engagement occurs when inlet door is fully open
Start sequence with ignition, light off, and acceleration to rated speed
APU running displayed when N1 exceeds 95%
379
What is normal N1 and N2 idle?
(we did not find the answer, but we believe this is correct)
N1: 25%
N2: 65%
380
Where does STBY ignition receive its power from and why do we keep it in NORM?
AOM VOL II CH 7
AC power system supplies power to the selected igniters
If AC power fails, the standby power system provides power continuously to both igniters unless the ignition selector is in 1 or 2.
381
The fuel control switch when placed to RUN with auto star ON does what?
With auto start OFF?
AOM VOL II CH 7
Auto start on:
Open spar valve
Opens fuel valve
ECC sequences start valve, fuel metering valve and igniter.
Auto start off:
Opens spar valve
Opens fuel valve
Energizes igniters
382
Approach idle is selected in flight when?
AOM VOL II CH 7
Continuous ignition ON
Nacelle anti-ice ON
Flaps in landing position
It will be maintained until five seconds after touchdown; also selected during thrust reverse.
383
If anEEC automatically switches to ALT mode, do you lose auto throttles?
Why?
AOM VOL II CH 7
Yes
Alternate mode does not provide thrust limiting at max N1.
Max N1will be reached at a TL position less than full forward.
384
What is the reason for approach idle?
AOM VOL II CH 7
It decreases acceleration time for a go around
385
When does approach idle change back to ground idle?
AOM VOL II CH 7
Maintain until five seconds after touchdown
386
Does the APU auto shut down for a fire or do you have to pull the fire switch?
AOM VOL II CH 7
Automatically
387
How long does the APU run after selecting it to OFF?
Why?
AOM VOL II CH 7
60 seconds for cooling
388
When starting the APU of a TR, what happens if the TR overheats?
AOM VOL II CH 16 in aircraft 700 differences
If utility Bus 4 is not powered the starter is automatically supplied by the APU battery.
(During start all items transferred to the main battery except the starter)
389
If we use auto start for an in-flight relight, what EGT limit should be used?
How many start attempts?
AOM VOL II CH 7
Takeoff limit
EEC will attempt to start the engine until it’s stabilize at idle or the fuel control switch is in cut off
390
What are some of the thrust reference modes that can be displayed on the primary EICAS?
AOM VOL II CH 7
TO / TO1 / TO2 / D–TO / CLB / CLB1 / CLB2 / CON / CRZ / GA
391
With the auto start ON, what actions are commanded by moving the fuel control switch to RUN?
AOM VOL II CH 7
See a previous question
392
What would cause an increase of oil quantity during cruise flight?
AOM VOL II CH 7
Indicator malfunction or leaking fuel/oil heat exchanger
393
Where is the engine oil pressure measured?
AOM VOL II CH 7
Upstream of the engine
394
Where is the engine oil temperature measured?
AOM VOL II CH 7
Downstream of the engine
395
Can the APU fire bottle be discharged from the ground?
AOM VOL II CH 8
Yes, in the right body gear wheel well
396
Where are the fire detection and extinguishing systems for which areas of the airplane?
AOM VOL II CH 8
Engines
APU
Cargo compartment
Lavatory
Detection: wheelwells
Overheat: bleed duct leak detectors
397
How can the fire bell be silenced?
AOM VOL II CH 8
Extinguish the fire
Pushing either MW/caution reset (we will horn will continue to sound)
Pulling the APU fire control switch and right wheel well
398
Is the main deck, cargo compartment “AND” or “OR” logic configuration?
AOM VOL II CH 8
AND logic
399
When are the engine and APU detector loops monitored for faults?
AOM VOL II CH 8
When power is first applied
Continuously testing of engine and APU detection system .
400
If the cargo smoke detectors are configured for a single loop operation due to a fault, automatic testing of the system is conducted when?
AOM VOL II CH 8
System will start auto testing every 60 minutes
401
For engine fire on the ground, why do we wait for a positive engine shut down before proceeding?
(we did not find a reference for the answer, but this makes sense)
To ensure the fuel is shut off before proceeding
402
When the main cargo ARM switch is pushed what occurs?
AOM VOL II CH 8
Packs 2 and 3 shuts down
Pack one goes to 600 CFM into the flight deck only
Shutdown of all airflow to main deck and lower compartments
Master trim, air valve closed
Equipment cooling closed loop mode
Enables main deck fire suppression
403
There are fire detection, and protection systems for which areas of the aircraft?
See a previous question
404
What does the EICAS message > DET FIRE APU indicate?
AOM VOL II CH 8
APU fire detection loops A or B have failed
405
Pulling the engine fire handle does what?
AOM VOL II CH 8
Closest spar valve
Closest engine valve
Closest engine, bleed air valve
Trips off the generator
Shuts off hydraulic fluid to engine driven pump
Deep pressurize engine driven pump
Arms, both fire extinguishers
406
Pushing the main cargo aft/Ford firearm switch does what?
See a previous question
407
Memory item for engine fire on the ground
QRH BACK COVER
1. Fuel control switch (AE): cut off
WARNING: do not proceed until engine shutdown has occurred
If fire indication persists after engine shut down
2. Engine fire switch (AE): Pull
3. Engine fire switch (AE): Rotate
After a momentary delay
4. Engine fire switch (AE): Rotate to other bottle
Discharged the second fire bottle, regardless of fire indications
408
Engine 4 is running, while starting engine 1, number 4 generator drops off-line, do you have fire detection or protection or both?
(we did not find the answer)
Yes, APU bat bus for detection and hot battery bus for protection
409
What is being tested when pushing a squib test button?
AOM VOL II CH 8
Test 1: checks all bottle, A squibs
Test 2: checks all bottle B squibs
Test 3: checks all forward squibs
Test 4: checks the aft squibs
410
What are the indication a fire bottle has been discharged or has low pressure?
AOM VOL II CH 8
EICAS: BTL LO or CGO BTL DISCH
BTL Discharge Amber Light
411
What will release the engine fire handle?
AOM VOL II CH 8
When an engine fire
Fuel control switch in cutoff
Push the override switch beneath the fire switch
412
When configuring the CDU for takeoff what is considered reasonable when comparing the FMC generated stabilizer trim to the ACARS or TLR stabilizer trim table?
AOM VOL II PERF
Two units
413
With the auto pilot engaged will operation of the alternate trim switches, cause the auto pilot to disconnect?
AOM VOL II CH 9
No, they override the AP trim commands and do not cause this engagement
414
Is asymmetric flat protection available in ALTN mode?
AOM VOL II CH 9
No
415
Will the flap lever operate with the ALTN flap switch armed?
AOM VOL II CH 9
No
416
What will happen if the alternate stabilizer trim, switches and control wheel switches are held in opposite directions?
AOM VOL II CH 9
No trim is commanded
417
If automatic stabilizer trim, cut out occurs how is hydraulic power restored to the related control module?
AOM VOL II CH 9
The related cut out switch must be placed ON
418
Control column trip cut off function does not affect which form of trim actuation?
AOM VOL II CH 9
Alternate trim inputs
419
What system allows router control to be regained if a jam occurs?
AOM VOL II CH 9
420
What will cause the > SPEEDBRAKES EXT EICAS message to display?
AOM VOL II CH 9
Speed, brake, lever aft of arm and:
Two or more thrust levels forward of closed position
RA between 800’ and 15’
Flaps in landing position
421
With EICAS advisory message SPEEDBRAKE AUTO displayed moving the speedbrake lever to the ARM position could cause what to occur?
AOM VOL II CH 9
Inadvertent spoiler extension in flight or no spoiler extension on the ground
422
What are the basic functions of the flap control units?
AOM VOL II CH 9
Primary control
Secondary control
Indication and annunciation
Trailing edge flap symmetry (primary and secondary mode)
Flap load relief (primary only)
Flat position information
423
The flap control units provide load relief protection at what flap setting?
AOM VOL II CH 9
Flat 25 and 30
424
When will the raising runway on the PFD move toward the airplane symbol?
AOM VOL II CH 10
Below 200 feet RA
425
When will the speed brakes automatically extend on landing if they are not armed?
AOM VOL II CH 9
With the main gear on the ground and engine two or four thrust lever raised to idle
426
How many spoilers does the airplane have? Flight (speedbrake)? Roll? Ground?
AOM VOL II CH 9
12 total or six on each wing
Flight: four in board each wing
Roll: five outboard each wing
Ground: six on each wing
427
Speed brakes should be limited to no more than flaps ______ , to avoid _____ ?
FCTM CH 4 P-4-13
Flaps five to avoid buffeting
428
What causes the speedbrakes to deploy on landing when armed? Not armed?
AOM VOL II CH 9
Armed: after landing if engine 1 and 3 thrust levers near close, and main landing touchdown.
Not armed: engine 2 or 3 thrust levers raised to idle.
429
430
With both primary and secondary control of the flaps, what is the purpose of the alternate flap switch?
AOM VOL II CH 9
All 3 FCUs fail or the flap handle does not work.
431
Urine reverse thrust which leading edge flap groups automatically retract?
Does the flap indicator change to reflect in transit?
AOM VOL II CH 9
Inboard and midspan leading edge flaps
Yes
432
Does the EICAS message> FLAP LOAD RELIEF require a logbook write up?
FRM EICAS ALERT & STATUS MESSAGES F
Flap load relief is a status message so depending on when we receive this; yes
Flap relief is an advisory message. No write up is required.
433
What does the EICAS message?> SPEDBRAKE EXT mean?
AOM VOL II CH 9
See a previous question
434
Which spoiler panels have position indicators?
What are the indications on the old status page on the ground? In flight?
AOM VOL II CH 9
Left-wing: 4th spoiler panel in from wingtip (indicates flight spoiler, speed break and ground spoiler).
Right wing: outboard, most spoiler panel (indicates for flight spoiler and ground spoiler)
435
When does the green band turn on?
AOM VOL II CH 9
The FMC’s use entered CG, GW and Takeoff Thrust to calculate correct greenband .
(the system is being deactivated)
436
The FO’s PFD and ND are powered from which BUS?
AOM VOL II CH 6
First officer’s transfer bus
(which is powered by AC Bus two)
437
At what altitude will flap maneuvering speeds not be displayed?
AOM VOL II CH 9
Above 20,000’
438
What degree of bank is indicated by the scale marks displayed on the PFD?
AOM VOL II CH 10
0/10/20/30/45°
439
When will the rising terrain on the PFD move towards the airplane symbol?
SEE A PREVIOUS QUESTION
Below 200 feet RA
440
What do the angle of attack vanes measure?
AOM VOL II CH 10
Airplane angle of attack relative to the air mass
441
What is the power source for the standby attitude indicator?
AOM VOL II CH 10
Main battery
442
How can the command airspeed bug (CAB) be controlled?
AOM VOL II CH 10
MCP or FMC
443
With TERR displayed on the ND, what does the amber color displayed indicate?
AOM COL II CH 15
Dotted Amber: terrain 500 feet below to 2000 feet above aircraft altitude
(250’)w/ GD
Solid amber: look ahead, terrain, caution
444
Where is the ILS frequency and inbound course displayed?
AOM VOL II CH 11
PSD, ND and NAVRad page .
445
When is the pitch limit indicator (PLI) on the PFD not displayed?
AOM VOL II CH 10
When the flaps are up
Although we know this not to be 100% true as sometimes it will display with the flaps up .
446
Which ND modes select “TRACK UP”? “HEADING UP”?
AOM VOL II CH 10
Track up: map mode
Heading up: VOR and APP mode
447
Turbulence is displayed on radar when selected and… ?
AOM VOL II CH 11
Select 40 nautical miles or less
448
How many IRUs? How many FMSs? How many LRNs?
AOM VOL II CH 11
3 IRUs
2 FMSs
5 LRNs
449
If you lose the right, IRU, what indications will be on the ND in the lower right corner?
AOM VOL II CH 10, 10 - 70
For the FO IRS (C) or for the CA IRS (L) with a flashing green box for 10 seconds.
450
Which three things do the IRUs give us?
AOM VOL II CH 10
Attitude picture, heading, VS and airspeed trend arrow
HATSWAP
H: heading
Eight: altitude
T: track
S: speed
W: wind
A: Acceleration
P: position
Autobrake info from CA selected IRU
451
What is the indication a failed? EIU has not auto transferred?
AOM VOL II CH 10
No data on the PFD or ND
452
What is the meaning of the green air speed trend arrow?
AOM VOL II CH 10
Indicates predicted airspeed in 10 seconds based on current acceleration or deacceleration
453
How can an active HOLD be identified on the ND?
AOM VOL II CH 10
Pattern increases to correct size when entering holding
454
How do we monitor a NDB when conducting an approach?
GOM CH 5
With an Aural identification, we must monitor the entire approach .
455
When does the rising runway first appear on the ND?
AOM VOL II CH 10 P 10-10
Below 1000’ RA
456
When configuring the CDU for takeoff what N1 or EPR requires additional review and verification that will take of data request parameters were entered correctly?
AOM VOL PERF
90% N1 or 1.20 EPR
457
When descending in hours of darkness or IMC conditions and not established on an approach procedure, what must descent rates be limited to?
GOM CH. 5
Within 5000 feet AGL: 2000 FPM
Within 2000 feet AGL: 1000 FPM
458
What should you do if you lose an FMC?
QRH CH 11
Run the QRH and confirm positive aircraft control. Think heading select and altitude hold.
459
Can or should you take off with the fuel imbalance EICAS message showing?
AOM VOL II CH 12
If the fuel imbalance is within limits, yes you should. The EICAS message will stay shown until the imbalance is within 1000 pounds.
460
Main tanks two and three override/jettison pumps will drain their respective tanks to what standpipe level?
AOM VOL II CH 12
7000 pounds
461
If A/C power is unavailable, how is fuel supplied to the APU?
AOM VOL II CH 12
Dedicated DC pump in main tank 2.
462
How is fuel Jettison verified?
AOM VOL II CH 12 P-12-16
By observing decreasing tank quantities
463
When do reserve tank 2 and 3 transfer fuel?
AOM VOL II CH. 12
40,200 pounds
464
When are transfer valves 1 and 4 used?
AOM VOL II CH 12
During fuel jettison
In a non-normal procedure if both boost pumps fail in main tanks 1 or 4.
465
At what fuel quantity can we expect to go to ”tank-to-engine”?
APM VOL II CH 12
Approximately 117,000 pounds
466
When should the CWT pumps switches be turned on? Off?
AOM VOL II CH NP
On: When CWT contains more than 17,000 pounds of fuel
Off: When fuel low CTR L or R message is displayed and QTY is approx 7000 pounds in climb “pitch 5°”
On: when fuel OVRD CTR message and tank QTY is 4000 pounds or more
Off: when fuel low CTR L or R space message is displayed and QTY is approx 3000 pounds in cruise
467
What does the EICAS message FUEL TANK/ENGINE indicate?
AOM VOL I NP
Fuel QTY in tank 2 and 3 are less than or equal to tank 1 and 4.
468
Before preflight, what are the indications on the fuel pump switches?
AOM VOL I NP
Main Pump Press lights illuminated
Except for Main 2 aft pump with electric scavenged pump or main 2 or 3 with Hydromechanical pumps.
Override 2, 3 and Center Pumps off .
469
Fuel temperature is measured from which tank?
AOM VOL II CH 12
Main tank 1
470
Would 360,000 pounds of fuel load on the airplane described the fuel configuration from engine start to flap retraction.
AOM VOL II CH 12
Engine start: CWT all engines.
Flaps extended: CWT provides fuel to engines 1 and 4 and main pumps supplies fuel to engine 2 and 3.
Flaps retracted CWT all engines .
471
Which two ways do we verify fuel in the respective tank if there is a fuel tank quantity indicator DMI‘d?
MEL 28 28-41-1
De-fuel the associated tank and service with a known quantity (this will never happen).
Use the associated tank measuring stick and the fueling servicing manual .
472
Do you get a beeper if you forget to turn off the CWT FUEL PRESS L & R EICAS message?
AOM VOL II CH 12
I didn’t find the answer, but being it is an advisory message I will say no
473
What does the EICAS message > FUEL IMBALANCE mean?
AOM VOL II CH 12
Fuel difference is 6000 pounds between inboard and outboard main tanks after Fuel Tank/ENG message .
474
What provides fuel pressure to the APU with no A/C power?
AOM VOL II CH 12
Dedicated DC pump in main tank 2
475
Can the fuel jettison valves be opened on the ground?
AOM VOL II CH 12
Yes
476
With system 4 unpressurized, can you set the parking brake?
VOL II CH 14
Use Hyd System 1 Demand Pump
The book says sufficient pressure is stored in the accumulator to sit and hold the parking brake. However, this is not true! If you set the parking brake with pressure available, the accumulator pressure will hold the brakes for a period of time, but it will eventually bleed off
477
When will man pumps 1 and 4 operate in AUTO?
AOM VOL II CH 13
Low press from EDP
On the ground, flaps in transit
In flight, flaps out of UP
Fuel control switch in cutoff
478
If the hydraulic quantity interface module fails because of an over voltage condition, what false indications might be experienced?
AOM VOL II CH 13
Hydraulic SYS fault, light flashing on and off
HYD QTY LOW advisory message, appearing and disappearing
EICAS hydraulic, quantity indications, decreasing and increasing
479
Why is bleed air used to pressurize the hydraulic reservoirs?
AOM VOL II CH 13
To prevent pump cavitation
To ensure positive flow during high demand
480
Will RF display on the hydraulic synoptic in flight?
AOM VOL II CH 13
No
481
Why do we pressurize hydraulic system 4 first?
AOM VOL II CH 13
You preclude transfer of hydraulic fluid from system 1 or 2 into system 4
482
Hydraulic system 1 provides power to which aircraft components?
AOM VOL II CH 13
Center auto pilot
Left outboard and inboard aileron
Left outboard elevator (and INBD)
Upper Rudder
Nose and body gear steering
Nose and body gear retraction
Inboard trailing edge flaps
Alternate brakes
483
How are the hydraulic demand pumps powered?
AOM VOL II CH 13 & CH 16
For GE aircraft: 1 and 4 are air driven and 2 and 3 are electric
For P&W aircraft: all four systems are air driven
484
Which components are lost with a loss of hydraulic system #1?
QRH CH 13
Center auto pilot
Left outboard elevator
Nose and body gear steering
Nose and body gear retraction
System 1 alternate brake source
For P&W aircraft: thrust reverser #1
485
Which hydraulic demand pumps are electric? Air?
See a previous question
486
You are landing with number one hydraulic system in operative. Are there any concerns?
QRH CH 13
Pitch control is reduced
Allow extra time for flap extension
Allow extra time for alternate gear extension
Will need a tow-in, no nose or body gear steering
P&W aircraft the #1 TR
Enable CAT II or CAT III approaches
487
Can you run the #4 AUX hydraulic pump with a GPU plugged in and power available?
AOM VOL II CH 6
Yes, the ground handling bus is powered
488
Which BUS is the #4 AUX hydraulic pump on?
AOM VOL II CH 6
External power #1 or APU generator #1 ground handling bus .
489
The hydraulic demand pumps come on when? Specifically, which one?
AOM VOL II CH 13
Old pumps when pump output pressure is low or fuel control switch is in cutoff .
1 &4: in addition to the above: on the ground, flaps in transit, in flight, flaps out of UP .
490
You have one brake deactivated using the capped line method. Are there any performance issues and if so, how would they be applied?
MEL 32, 3-41-1B
Aerodata System will account for associated performance penalties.
491
Pushing Rudder pedals fully will turn the nose wheel how many degrees in either direction?
AOM VOL II CH 14
7° in either direction
492
During alternate gear extension, what pulls the down locks into the locked position?
AOM VOL II CH 14
Gravity and air loads extend the gear and springs pull the down locks into the locked position.
493
What is the maximum fuel temperature allowed?
AOM VOL II CH L
+54°C
494
Nose gear extension provides signals to which systems?
AOM VOL II CH 14
Stall warning and nose gear steering systems
495
How does the brake torque system work with alternate brakes?
AOM VOL II CH 14
Excessive torque releases pressure to laterally lpaired wheels
496
When is the BTMS accurate?
QRK PI.1-13
10 to 15 minutes after aircraft has come to a complete stop or in flight with gear retraction
497
Is reverse thrust considered with the brake cooling schedule?
AQRH PI. 1-13
No
498
What will disarm the autobrakes?
AOM VOL II CH 14
Pedal breaking applied
Either thrust lever advanced after landing
Speed brake moved from full up position after they have been deployed
Disarm or OFF selected on the autobrake selector
Autobrake fault
Normal anti-skid system fault
Loss of normal brake pressure
499
With a loss of hydraulic system #4 how is the operation of the autobrake system affected?
AOM VOL II CH 14
Auto brakes are inop
500
One tire on the BTMS indicate two are there any special procedures?
QRH PI. 1-13
No
