Practice Questions Flashcards

(64 cards)

1
Q

Why is Arrokoth not considered a dwarf planet?

A

it’s the wrong shape, must be circular

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2
Q

What is the 3 criteria that needs to be fulfilled to be considered a planet?

A
  1. Orbit its host star (the sun)
  2. Be round
  3. Clear its orbit (be big enough that its gravity clears away any other objects of similar size near orbit around sun
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3
Q

On the longest day of the year(solstice), where is the earth’s axis pointed toward?

A

toward the sun

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4
Q

Where can the planet Saturn be found?

A

ecliptic

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5
Q

What is the apparent path of the sun on the sky on June 21 as viewed from North Pole?

A

travels around the sky about 23 deg above horizon (that’s longest path possible and highest point is north pole)

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6
Q

What are moon phases?

A

As the moon orbits earth, we see different parts of moon illuminated by sun

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7
Q

On wednesday, the moon will be at first quarter, when will it rise?

A

at noon

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8
Q

Why are there not lunar eclipses every full moon?

A

the moon’s orbit around Earth is tilted relative to the ecliptic plane

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9
Q

What is our correct ‘cosmic address’ starting from smallest to largest?
A) Earth > Solar System > Local Group > Universe
B) Earth > Sun > Galaxy > Universe
C) Earth > Solar System > Milky Way > Universe
D) Earth > Moon > Sun > Universe

A

c

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10
Q

Which of the following is NOT a criterion for an object to be considered a planet?
A) Mostly round
B) Orbits a star
C) Has moons
D) Clears its orbit of debris

A

c

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11
Q

What is the defining feature of a Jovian planet?
A) Rocky surface
B) High temperature
C) Low mass
D) Gas or ice composition with many moons

A

d

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12
Q

Which planet has the strongest winds in the Solar System?
A) Uranus
B) Jupiter
C) Mars
D) Neptune

A

d

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13
Q

Which moon is the largest in the Solar System?
A) Earth’s Moon
B) Titan
C) Ganymede
D) Callisto

A

c

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14
Q

What is true about the moons of Uranus?
A) They orbit perpendicular to Uranus’ tilt
B) They orbit in line with Uranus’ 98° rotation
C) They are gaseous
D) They all have atmospheres

A

b

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15
Q

Which dwarf planet lies in the asteroid belt?
A) Pluto
B) Eris
C) Ceres
D) Haumea

A

c

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16
Q

Why is Pluto and Charon referred to as a “double planet”?
A) They are both in the asteroid belt
B) Charon is half Pluto’s size
C) They have identical orbits
D) Charon is a gas giant

A

b

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17
Q

What prevented the asteroids in the belt from forming a planet?
A) Low gravity
B) Proximity to the Sun
C) Tidal forces from Jupiter
D) Dense gas cloud

A

c

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18
Q

Which planet has no moons and a thin CO₂ atmosphere?
A) Mercury
B) Earth
C) Mars
D) Venus

A

d

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19
Q

Which planet has a “slushy” composition of water, ammonia, and methane?
A) Uranus
B) Saturn
C) Earth
D) Jupiter

A

a

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20
Q

Why is Earth’s moon considered unusual?
A) It’s not spherical
B) It has an iron core
C) It’s very large relative to Earth
D) It has a thick CO₂ atmosphere

A

c

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21
Q

Which planet’s slow backward rotation makes its day longer than its year?
A) Mars
B) Venus
C) Neptune
D) Mercury

A

b

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22
Q

How is the Kuiper Belt distinct from the asteroid belt?
A) It contains mostly rocky debris
B) It lies between Earth and Mars
C) It contains icy bodies beyond Neptune
D) It has higher density than the asteroid belt

A

c

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23
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes comets?
A) Stationary objects with circular orbits
B) Mostly rocky bodies that emit heat
C) Icy bodies with elliptical orbits that develop tails near the Sun
D) Former asteroids that gained mass

A

c

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24
Q

What was significant about the object Arrokoth?
A) It was the first exoplanet discovered
B) It crashed into Neptune’s rings
C) It was a Kuiper Belt object visited by New Horizons
D) It has a metal core

A

c

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25
Why do stars appear to move from east to west? A) Earth’s orbit B) Star movement C) Earth’s rotation D) Tilt of the ecliptic
c
26
What causes stars near the celestial poles to trace circular paths? A) Daily stellar precession B) Earth’s orbit C) Their own orbit around Earth D) Earth’s axial rotation viewed near poles
d
27
What distinguishes diurnal motion from orbital motion? A) Diurnal is seasonal; orbital is daily B) Diurnal is caused by the Moon’s gravity C) Diurnal is due to Earth’s rotation; orbital is due to Earth’s revolution D) Both describe lunar phases
c
28
diurnal motion
Diurnal motion is the daily apparent movement of stars, the Sun, Moon, and other celestial objects across the sky, caused by Earth's rotation on its axis. As Earth spins from west to east, the sky appears to rotate from east to west once every 24 hours.
29
What defines the celestial equator? A) Path of the Moon B) The Earth’s orbit C) Earth’s equator projected onto space D) The Sun’s rotation axis
c
30
The ecliptic represents: A) Earth’s equator in space B) The Moon’s path C) The Sun’s apparent path through the sky D) The Milky Way’s boundary
c
31
During the equinox, what is true about Earth’s orientation? A) It is tilted directly away from the Sun B) Axis points toward the ecliptic C) The tilt is neutral—equal day and night D) The Moon causes full shadows
c
32
Why do we see phases of the Moon? A) The Moon's shape changes B) Clouds obscure parts of it C) We see varying portions of the lit half due to orbital position D) The Moon’s rotation is uneven
c
33
Which phase immediately follows First Quarter? A) Full Moon B) Waxing Crescent C) Waxing Gibbous D) Waning Gibbous
c
34
What phase rises at midnight and sets at noon? A) Waning Gibbous B) First Quarter C) Full Moon D) Third Quarter
d
35
Why don’t solar and lunar eclipses occur every month? A) The Sun’s brightness varies B) Earth’s orbit wobbles C) The Moon’s orbit is tilted relative to the ecliptic D) There are too many clouds
c
36
What condition is necessary for a solar eclipse to occur? A) Full Moon B) Earth in between Moon and Sun C) Moon crossing the ecliptic at New Moon D) Moon is farthest from Earth
c
37
What is the visible difference between a total and annular eclipse? A) Total covers Sun completely; annular leaves a ring B) Annular shows no shadow C) Total eclipses are always partial D) Annular only occurs at solstice
a
38
Why does the Moon appear similar in size to the Sun during eclipses? A) The Moon is much hotter B) The Moon is closer but smaller C) The Sun is farther but much larger D) B and C
d
39
What defines the celestial sphere in observational astronomy? A) Imaginary sphere with Earth at center showing star positions B) Actual shell around the galaxy C) Solar system boundary D) Region visible only with telescopes
a
40
How do circumpolar stars behave at the North Pole? A) They rise and set rapidly B) They never appear C) They stay below the horizon D) They circle overhead continuously
d
41
A partial lunar eclipse differs from a full lunar eclipse because: A) The Moon is closer B) Only part of the Moon enters Earth’s shadow C) Earth is not tilted D) It only occurs in daylight
b
42
How does your latitude affect the stars you can see? A) All constellations are visible equally B) Latitude determines visible celestial hemisphere C) The Moon blocks constellations D) Latitude changes star colors
b
43
What does “zodiac constellation” refer to in astronomy? A) A mythological pattern B) A set of constellations along the ecliptic C) Constellations visible only during winter D) The brightest constellations in the Milky Way
b
44
Why is understanding angular size important in astronomy? A) Helps measure distance and scale of objects B) Explains Earth’s orbit C) Distinguishes gases from solids D) Predicts moon phases
a
45
What is one reason the Moon appears to “move” eastward against the stars each night? A) Retrograde motion B) Earth’s axis wobbles C) The Moon’s orbital motion around Earth D) Constellations are moving faster
c
46
Which ancient scientist correctly estimated Earth’s circumference using shadows? A) Ptolemy B) Galileo C) Eratosthenes D) Copernicus
c
47
Which problem did the geocentric model attempt to solve using epicycles? A) Lunar eclipses B) Star twinkling C) Retrograde motion D) Planetary distances
c
48
what are epicycles?
Epicycles were small circular orbits that planets were thought to move in, while those circles themselves orbited Earth along larger circles called **deferents** This idea was part of the **geocentric model** (Earth-centered universe) used by ancient astronomers like Ptolemy to explain complex motions like **retrograde motion** It was later replaced by the simpler **heliocentric model**.
49
What did Copernicus propose that challenged the geocentric model? A) Earth rotates around its axis B) The Sun is stationary C) Planets orbit the Sun in circles D) Orbits are ellipses
c
50
What critical data did Tycho Brahe provide? A) Laws of gravity B) Mathematical models of stars C) Precise naked-eye planetary measurements D) Telescopic images
c
51
What event convinced Tycho that the heavens change? A) Discovery of Neptune B) Appearance of sunspots C) Observation of a supernova D) Phases of Venus
c
52
What did Galileo observe that disproved celestial perfection? A) Sun’s corona B) Craters and mountains on the Moon C) Saturn’s rings D) Milky Way structure
b
53
How did the phases of Venus support heliocentrism? A) They never appeared in geocentric predictions B) Venus had no phases C) They aligned with Earth’s position D) Only a heliocentric model predicted all its phases
d
54
What does Kepler’s Second Law mean by “equal areas in equal times”? A) Planet speed is constant B) The orbit shrinks over time C) Area swept out by a planet is constant per time interval D) Planets form triangles in space
c
55
According to Kepler’s Third Law, as distance from the Sun increases, orbital period: A) Decreases B) Stays constant C) Increases nonlinearly D) Reverses direction
c
56
In Newton’s Second Law (F = ma), increasing mass with constant force results in: A) Greater acceleration B) No motion C) Lower acceleration D) Constant velocity
c More mass = harder to speed up = lower acceleration if the force stays the same.
57
Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation describes force as: A) Constant for all objects B) Proportional to mass and inversely to distance squared C) Equal to speed times mass D) Measured by escape velocity
b
58
What happens to the gravitational force if the distance between objects doubles? A) It quadruples B) It halves C) It remains the same D) It becomes one-quarter
d (use formula)
59
If the mass of one object is doubled, the gravitational force between two objects: A) Halves B) Doubles C) Quadruples D) Stays constant
b
60
Why do astronauts appear to float in orbit? A) There is no gravity in space B) They are weightless due to air pressure C) They are in continuous freefall D) They are pushed by solar wind
c
61
Which quantity combines mass, velocity, and orbital radius? A) Kinetic energy B) Angular momentum C) Acceleration D) Orbital force
b
62
Which observation proved not all objects orbit Earth? A) Sunspots B) Venus’ atmosphere C) Jupiter’s moons D) Saturn’s rings
c
63
Why did Copernicus’ model still have inaccuracies? A) It relied on elliptical orbits B) It rejected geocentrism C) It still used perfect circles for orbits D) It lacked data on comets
c
64
The term "semimajor axis" refers to: A) A planet’s orbital tilt B) Half the longest axis of an ellipse C) The radius of the planet D) The Earth-Moon distance
b