Practice Questions Flashcards

(86 cards)

1
Q

What is the goal of passive lymphatic techniques?

A

Mobilize lymph and increase circulation

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2
Q

What are some characteristics of LN in diseased states?

A

Fixed, enlarged, growing together, hard, non-tender

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3
Q

What results from a dysfunctional lymphatic system?

A

Edema

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4
Q

What does Virchow’s node indicate?

A

Thoracic or abdominal malignancy

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5
Q

What does a hardened supratrochlear node indicate?

A

Syphillis

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6
Q

What should you always do before treating the lymphatic system?

A

Open the thoracic inlet

At end of tx too

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7
Q

What is the correct order of lymphatic tx?

A

Open thoracic inlet, region 1 (thoracic) region 2 (abdomen) region 3 and 4 (treat worst first), region 5 (head and neck) and end with thoracic inlet

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8
Q

What are the lymph organs/tissues

A

Spleen, liver, thymus, tonsils, appendix, GI lymph tissue, pulm lymph tissue

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9
Q

What are some contraindications to lymphatic txs?

A

early carcinoma, metastatic CA, bacterial infection fever over 102 without Abs, osseous fracture, abscess

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10
Q

Abdominal pumping rate?

A

20-30 cycles/mn

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11
Q

Thoracic pumping rate?

A

100 cycles/mn

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12
Q

Pedal pumping rate?

A

100 cycles/mn, look for fluid wave for checking movement of nose

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13
Q

Where does palm contact sacrum during sacral rocking?

A

sacral base

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14
Q

Which lymphatic tx has you contact the TMJ and ramus of the mandible

A

Galbraith’s technique/mandibular technique

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15
Q

What 4 muscles make up rotator cuff group?

A

SITS

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16
Q

Four joints of the shoulder

A

Glenohumeral, AC, SC, scapulothoracic

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17
Q

Movements seen at the clavicle during SC joint abduction

A

Abduction (shrugging shoulders upward)

Distal end of clavicle moves superiorly and proximal end moves inferiorly

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18
Q

Movement at SC during flexion

A

Flexion (reaching forward) - distal end of clavicle moves ant and prox end moves post on the sternum

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19
Q

Muscles involved in protraction and retraction of scapula?

A

Protraction (away from spine) - serratus anterior

Retraction (towards the spine) - trapezius, rhomboids

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20
Q

Most likely type of shoulder dislocation?

A

Anterior

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21
Q

Muscle tested in drop arm test?

A

Supraspinatus

complete drop of the arm means a complete tear of muscle, partial drop = partial tear

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22
Q

Which muscle strength testing ratings involve gravity?

A

3-5 keep gravity alive

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23
Q

Which muscle strength test involves the pt internally rotating and adducting the arm?

A

Lift off test for subscapularis

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24
Q

Which muscles allow you to abduct your arm?

A

First 15 degrees - supraspinatus

After 15 - deltoid

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25
Positive Hawking's test?
Rotator cuff tendonitis or subacromial bursa impingement
26
What is O'Brien test used for?
Test for labral pathology/tears | SLAP (superior labral tear from anterior to posterior)
27
Difference between active and passive?
Passive - dr does | Active - pt does
28
What is carrying angle?
5-15 degrees Valgus is greater than 15 Varus is less than 5
29
Normal ROM elbow
Flexion - 150 Extension - 0 to -5 Sup and pron - 90
30
Positive tinel test?
Numbness or tingling along path of nerve
31
Location of pain with golfer's elbow?
Pain at medial epicondyle - attachment site for flexors
32
Clinical name for little league elbow?
Medial apophysistis
33
Nursemaid's elbow
Dislocation of radial head from annular ligament
34
In pronation, what is movement of ulna?
Pronation with ulnar abduction | supination with ulnar adduction
35
In supination, what is movement of radial head?
Supination radial head glides ant Pronation radial head glides post P with P
36
Positive Finkelstein's test indicates
Indicates DeQuervain's Tensosynovitis
37
What does Allen test for?
Used to test for ulnar and radial artery patency
38
In wrist flexion, what happens to carpal bones?
Flex - glide dorsally | Extension - glide anteriorly (ventally)
39
When hand adducts, what does ulna do?
Hand adducts, ulna abducts | Hand abducts, ulna adducts
40
What ligament are you testing during valgus?
Stability of ulnar or medial collateral ligament
41
5 landmarks of hip?
``` ASIS Iliac crest Greater trochanter pubic tubercle Ischial tuberosity ```
42
Borders of femoral triangle?
Superior - inguinal ligament Medial - adductor longus Lateral - sartorius
43
Positive trendelenberg sign indicates?
Gluteus medius weakness or superior gluteal n dysf on the weight bearing side ie. If you stand on right leg and left hip drops, that is a positive right trendelenberg and the problem is the right gluteus medius
44
Ober's test indicates?
IT band tightness
45
What type of pathology do you expect with injury to central hip compartment?
Central compartment path - labral tears, loose bodies, osteochondral defects
46
Which muscles make up lateral hip compartment?
gluteus med, min and IT band
47
Which test is a good one to start off assessing hip joint?
Log roll - indicates general hip pathology
48
During which test do you articulate the hip through abduction, flexion, adduction and rotation?
Scour test has you articulate the hip in a figure 8 pattern
49
What does positive straight leg test indicate?
First 15 degrees pain - lumbar pathology | After 15 degrees - lateral compartment pathology
50
How would you document a normal strength testing of the iliopsoas?
5/5 bilaterally (iliopssoas muscle)
51
Which nerve can piriformis sometimes irritate?
Sciatic n
52
Which compartment can be tested by Patrick's FABER test and the Thomas test?
Anterior or iliopsoas compartment
53
What part of the hip bone really hurst when you sit down hard? (sits bone)
Ischial tuberosity
54
What is the normal Q angle?
15
55
What do you call it when Q angle is greater than normal?
genu Valgus
56
What three compartments are affected in unhappy triad? | aka O'Donahue's triad?
ACL, MCL and medial meniscus
57
Nerve being tested during strength testing of knee flexors? (Hamstrings)
Knee flexion - hamstrings - sciatic n (L5-S1)
58
What does positive patellar laxity test indicate?
Previous patellar dislocation or severe instability
59
Positive sign during patellar glide test
Crepitus - rice crispies
60
Which collateral ligament tested during varus stress testing?
Lateral CL
61
How do you perform a McMurray's test for evaluating the medial meniscus?
pt supine, hip and knee flexed | externally rotate tibia and apply valgus load as knee is extended
62
What position for Apley distraction test?
prone
63
3 tests to evaluate ACL
Pivot shift anterior drawer Lachmans
64
2 tests involve dr sitting on pt foot?
Anterior and posterior drawer
65
Type of force applied during the pivot shift test and the reverse pivot shift test?
Valgus force while extending the knee
66
Which muscle is being tested with the Garrick's test?
Popliteus
67
What nerve can be injured with a proximal fibular head dysfxn?
Superficial fibular (peroneal) n
68
Lateral longitudinal arch?
Metatarsals 4, 5 Cuboid Calcaneus
69
3 tendons in Tarsal tunnel
Tibialis post Flexor digitorum longus Flexor hallucis longus
70
Normal ROM dorsiflexion and plantarflexion
Dorsi - 15-20 | Plantar - 50-65
71
3 movements assoc with foot pronation?
Dorsiflexion Eversion aBduction
72
3 movements assoc with foot supination
Plantarflexion Inversion aDduction
73
Which nerve supplies the extensor hallucis longus m and how would you document a normal strength testing finding
Deep fibular n (L5) | 5/5 bilateral extensor hallucis longus
74
Nerve root for Achilles reflex and how would you document normal finding?
S1 | 2/4 BL Achilles
75
If you perform ankle dorsiflexion test and pt is able to dorsiflex when knee is bent to 90, what muscle is responsible for problems when leg is extended?
gastroc | If can't dorsiflex when knee is bent - soleus
76
What direction do you compress calf during Moses sign and what would positive sign indicate?
Anterior compression | Positive sign DVT of post tibial v
77
Pain when doing squeeze test indicates what?
Syndesmosis pathology or a high ankle sprain
78
Thompson test, pt has absent plantar flexion. What does that indicate?
Squeeze back of calf and foot doesn't plantarflex | Rupture or tear of Achilles tendon
79
When pt has a ant tibia on talus dysnfxn, what position does foot like to live in?
Ankle prefers dorsiflexion, restricted in posterior glide of tibia on talus, so restricted in plantarflexion
80
Posterior lateral malleolus dysfxn is restricted to what?
Malleolus prefers to glide posteriorly, which means it is restricted in gliding anteriorly
81
Describe findings for an eversion calcaneus dysfxn
Eversion calcaneus somatic dysfunction that is restricted to inversion
82
What tendon is responsible for a Jones fracture?
Fibularis brevis - inserting on 5th metatarsal
83
Where does abd CA drain to and where is this spot located?
Virchow's node | Left supraclavicular space
84
What position to examine inguinal nodes?
Frog leg position
85
Main pumps of the lymphatic system?
Thoracoabdominal and pelvic diaphragm
86
Name a tx you would do on upper extremity
Effleurage