Practice Questions Flashcards

(317 cards)

1
Q

When using a drill, what is the first thing you must do?

A

Ensure the hole to be drilled is within the drills capacity

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2
Q

What safety gear must be worn with a grinder?

A

Eye or face protection

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3
Q

What size is the most common saw blade found in maint activities?

A

8 inch

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4
Q

How fast must a saw blade be moving before it contacts the material to be cut?

A

Full speed

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5
Q

What variation in pounds of pressure can become dangerous with an impact wrench?

A

5 Pounds of pressure

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6
Q

What is the most common type of sling used for lifting?

A

Wire rope

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7
Q

Hoist hooks must be replaced when what criteria is met?

A

15 percent excess in throat or 10 degree twist from plane

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8
Q

What meter is a 4 wire Kelvin digital ohmmeter used to test AIM-9 and AIM-120?

A

AMTEC 620

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9
Q

The maximum load for a MHU-141 is?

A

5,500 LBS

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10
Q

The steering system on an MHU-141 has a turning radius of how many inches?

A

200 Inches

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11
Q

The maximum load for a MHU-110 is?

A

15,000 LBS

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12
Q

The parking brakes on a 110 are applied to which wheels?

A

Four inboard rear

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13
Q

How many roller and chock assemblies are supplied with a 110?

A

20 rollers and 40 chocks

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14
Q

The maximum load for a MHU-226 is?

A

12,000 LBS

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15
Q

What ensures that HCU-6 pallets transfer smoothly to the aircraft?

A

An adjustable ramp

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16
Q

What can be used to secure pallets on a trailer?

A

MB-1 chains or tie-down straps

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17
Q

Moving muns from one base to another, or between organizational levels are considered?

A

Logistical movements

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18
Q

What kind of movement supports base ops?

A

Operational

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19
Q

What transport module has a 30 magazine capacity?

A

ALE-50

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20
Q

How often should positive locking on transport mods be checked?

A

After loading, unloading, and periodically between stops

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21
Q

Which lift truck has a manually extendable wheelbase?

A

MHU-83

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22
Q

What is the purpose of the transport beams?

A

To provide additional support and relieve hydraulic pressure from the arms

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23
Q

How many pounds can the MJ-1 lift?

A

3,000

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24
Q

How many pounds can the MHU-83 lift?

A

7,000

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25
When using an MHU-83 with fork adapters, what changes with its capacities?
It can only lift 6000 LBS now
26
What happens when you release the pedal on a hydrostatic drive?
The unit coasts to a stop very quickly
27
How many cubic of air per foot is needed to produce 100 psi for the MC-7 air compressor?
125
28
How long can an MC-7 run without refueling?
8 Hours
29
What is the maximum towing capacity for a bobtail, and at what speed?
40,000 LBS at 15 MPH
30
How many pounds can the MB-4 tow tractor push/pull?
140,000
31
What position should the differential lever be in while towing on dry road surfaces?
Unlocked
32
What range in a tractor should be selected while going down grades?
Low range
33
What is the purpose of the Johnson bar?
To test the brakes
34
What should you not do while backing a trailer?
Turn toward passenger side
35
What is the deepest water an rough-terrain forklift can traverse?
5 feet
36
What is the max speed of a forklift while operating around aircraft?
5 MPH
37
When can unfused weapons be transported on the tines of a forklift?
When the bomb body is strong enough to prevent damage, and long enough to be transported safely
38
When can powered equipment be stored in the same building as muns?
When it is fire resistant and the equipment is essential during day-to-day operations
39
What trailers can transport the MAC?
110 and 226
40
What is the TO for the MAC?
35D2-17-1
41
Which weapons replaceable assembly has no moving parts?
The storage container
42
Which weapons replaceable assembly merges ammo from all three bays in the container into a single stream?
Transfer unit
43
Which weapons replaceable assembly contains the flex drive?
Conveyor
44
What is the max number of rounds the UALS can hold?
2,100
45
Which part of the UALS allows loading into the aircraft?
Interface unit
46
What is not counted by the UALS during down/upload?
Damaged rounds
47
What does the bypass mode on the UALS allow?
The system to cycle without loading any items
48
What is the UALS inspection cycle?
Every 30 days while in use, and annually while in storage
49
Which device on the UALS prevents accidentally loading spent cartridges?
Empty space preclusion device
50
What tool is used when cycling the UALS manually?
1/2 inch speed wrench
51
Which 30mm ALS services the GPU-5/A gun pod?
GFU-8/E
52
Which part of the MAC can be used to raise the gantry to full height?
The ICB
53
What is the space requirement for the MAC?
50 x 100 FT
54
What component of the MAC is disassembled last?
Gantry
55
Which TO contains tie down procedures?
11-1-38
56
What does not apply to muns in transit?
Quantity distance
57
When can explosives be transported in POVs?
Never
58
When can explosive laden vehicles be left unattended?
During electrical storms
59
What may be omitted from explosive laden vehicles on base?
Placards for 1.4, compatibility group letters, placards if trying to avoid hostile attention
60
If a conflict is found in the 11-1-38, what do you use?
The written portion
61
What chapter of the 38 covers MHU-141 configurations?
Chapter 1
62
What is used to keep the 141 stable while loading?
Stabilizer jack
63
What are added to 40FT trailers to facilitate support of rounded muns?
Wooden rails
64
How many CGU-1 tie down straps can replace one MB-1 chain?
2
65
How often are couriers certified?
Annually
66
Which AF IMT is used to transfer missile warheads?
AF IMT 514
67
What is the most efficient psi for tools?
90 psi
68
Which publication covers general lifting procedures?
AFOSH 91-46
69
What is the function of the AN/PSM-37?
Measures electrical current for troubleshooting circuits
70
What is the max voltage the AN/PSM-37 can test?
1,000v alone, 5,000v with test prod
71
What is the max current the AN/PSM-37 can test?
1 amp, or 10 with a shunt
72
What is the max resistance the AN/PSM-37 can test?
100 mega ohms
73
What is the max capacity of a pair of rail extenders?
3,000 lbs
74
What is the nuclear load of an MHU-226?
8,000 lbs
75
What are the 3 types of trailers?
Vans, flatbed, rollerized
76
What is the actual length of a 40 ft trailer?
51 ft
77
What TO provides guidance for loading HCU-6/E pallets?
11N-45-51-B
78
What is the capacity of the BDU-33/MK-106 module?
40 or 80 rds
79
How many 2.75 in rockets can a RM transport?
60
80
What is the capacity difference between the ALE-40 and ALE-50?
the ALE-40 hold 40 chaff and flare mags and the ALE-50 holds 30 decoy modules
81
What must you do while unloading a module?
Use both hands for handling, one munition at a time
82
Which wheels are steerable on a lift truck?
Rear
83
What is the top speed of the MJ-1?
18 mph
84
Which pub lists the ppe required for operating an air compressor?
AFOSH 91-501
85
What is the turning radius of a bobtail?
22 feet
86
What is the towing capacity of the MB-4 tug?
140,000 lbs
87
What are the two tactical forklifts?
Rough terrain and all terrain
88
What should you do before shutting a forklift down?
let the engine run at half speed for 4-5 minutes
89
How far from combustible material should a lift be parked?
10 feet
90
What aircraft does the LALS service?
F-15, F-16, F-22
91
What are the 4 modes a LALS can be divided into?
Replenishment, transport, servicing, stowage
92
What are the 5 weapon receptacle assys on the LALS?
Storage container, transfer unit assy, conveyor, trailer, pneumatic system
93
What TO covers the UALS?
35D30-4-15-1
94
What are the two 30mm assys used by the air force?
GFU-7/E and GFU-10/E
95
What container houses 30mm LTCs?
CNU-309/E
96
What is the purpose of the restraint strap?
To keep bombs from turning while torque is applied
97
What regulates shipments of explosives in the US?
CFR-49
98
What website provides information on proper placarding?
JHCS
99
At the lowest level in the chain of command, who is allowed to interpret 11-1-38?
Muns flight chief
100
What test equipment requires nuclear certification?
Any device that is used to test a warhead or weapon
101
What are the tolerances for cable load binders?
85.75 to 87 inches
102
What TO authorizes using two CGU-1/B's in place of one MB-1 tie down?
11N-45-51C
103
How does the DOD ship weapons?
By truck or Air
104
What aircraft are normally used for shipments?
C-17 or C-130
105
What is an SST/SGT?
A specialized trailer for transport of nuclear weapons in the continental US
106
What is any movement inside the WSA?
Intra-area movement
107
What is any movement outside the WSA?
Outside WSA movement
108
What does the term "breakout" mean?
Removing weapons from a structure
109
What explosive is used to compare other explosives?
TNT
110
What describes the tendency of a substance to produce vapors?
Volatility
111
If an explosive does not react with its container or another explosive, what is it called?
Natural compatibility
112
What are the basic components of an explosive train?
Primer, booster, detonator, delay, bursting charge
113
What are the two ways a detonator can be activated?
Primer or impulse
114
What exp train causes det on impact?
Super quick
115
What are the 4 factors that control visibility of pyrotechnics?
Candlepower, color, weather, ambient light
116
What are the two effects of signals?
Light and smoke
117
How long does an AN-Mk6 mod 3 burn?
Approx 40 minutes
118
What candle power is the AN-Mk6 mod 3 rated at?
3,000
119
What day/night signal can be used one handed?
MK124 Mod 0
120
How many flares does the A/P 25S-1 contain?
7
121
At what height and how long does the A/P 25S-1 burn?
5 seconds at 300 ft
122
How long does the A/P 25S-5A burn?
9 seconds
123
What is the max height the M127A1 will reach, and at what candle power?
650-700 feet at 50,000 candlepower
124
What are the 5 assys of the M131 ground illumination signal?
Launcher, igniter, delay, parachute, illuminant
125
What ppe is required for handling MK50 mod 0 flares?
Butyl gloves and a protective mask
126
What are the 3 types of grenades?
Service, practice, training
127
What is the explosive filler for the M26 grenade?
Comp B
128
What is the filler agent for an M34 grenade?
15 oz of WP and a detonator
129
What grenades are used with the M1A2 grenade projection adapter?
Fragmentation
130
What grenades are used with the M2A1 grenade projection adapter?
Chemical
131
What compound is used to treat the floors for storage of chemical grenades?
Sodium silicate
132
How many ball bearings are in an M18A1 mine?
700
133
What is the effective kill range, dangerous range, and back blast range of an M18A1?
100 meters, 250 meters, 16 meters
134
If a deficiency is found when inspecting muns, what TO gives guidance on reporting?
00-35D-54
135
What are the time markers on time fuse?
Single band is 1 minute, double band is 5 minutes
136
What is the rate of deterioration of det cord?
20,000 to 21,000 fps
137
What is a M112 demo block?
1.25 lb block of C4 that is Mylar wrapped and has an adhesive strip on the back
138
What makes military dynamite different from commercial dynamite?
Military dynamite doesn't have nitroglycerin, and it doesn't sweat or freeze
139
What is an M60 igniter used for?
Igniting time fuse
140
What does the M1 clip do?
Holds det cord together
141
What is a flash vented squib used for?
Igniting pyrotechnics or incendiary compositions
142
What affects rate of deterioration?
Degree of confinement and loading density
143
What length of firing wire is issued?
500 ft
144
What is the difference between the ATU-35A/B and the ATU-35B/B?
The ATU-35B/B will not allow reinstallation of the safety cotter pin once it is retracted
145
Where can an M904 be installed and with what adapter?
Nose with T45 booster
146
Where can an M905 be installed and with what adapter?
Tail with T46 booster
147
What tail assembly are the FMU-54 fuzes used with
AIR
148
How many boosters are needed for nose and tail installation of an FMU-81?
Nose needs 4, tail needs only 1
149
Where does the FMU-139 get its power?
FZU-48B
150
Where does the FMU-139 get its power?
FZU-32
151
Where does the FMU-152 get its power?
FZU-55
152
What is special about the FMU-152?
It allows real time changes to be made by the pilot
153
How many knots are required to activate and FZU-32?
133
154
What is the only hazard associated with the DSU-33?
Thermal battery
155
What fuzes does the DSU-33 work with?
FMU-39 and FMU-152
156
What is the HOB of the DSU-33?
20 feet
157
What is the HOF for the FZU-39/B?
300-3,000 feet
158
What is the HOB of the FMU-113/B?
15 feet
159
What boosters does the FMU-113/B use?
FZU-2/B
160
What safety device is normally installed at time of manufacture?
Safety blocks
161
Which fuze is used by both the Air Force and the Navy?
FMU-139
162
Approx how much weight in the M117 is explosive?
45%
163
What are the two fin assys for the M117?
MAU-103 and BSU-93/B
164
Which spotting charge should be used if there is a danger of wildfire?
CXU-3A/B
165
What are the two spotting charges used for practice bombs?
CXU-3A/B and MK4 Mod 3
166
What SUU is used for the CBU-87?
SUU-65/B
167
What submunitions are in a CBU-87?
202 BLU-97 bomblets
168
What fuze does a CBU-87 use?
FZU-39/B
169
What is the difference between BLU-97/B and BLU-97A/B submunitions?
The BLU-97A/B has an all mechanical secondary firing system
170
What SUU is used for the CBU-89?
SUU-64
171
What is the difference between CBU-89 and CBU-87?
The CBU-89 does not have canted fins, an explosive bolt, or the same SUU
172
What bomblets does the CBU-89 carry?
72 BLU-91/B antitank and 22 BLU-92/B anti-personnel mines
173
How long does it take to arm the BLU-91 and BLU-92 submunitions?
Approx 2 minutes
174
How far do the triplines extend from a BLU-92/B?
40 feet
175
What SUU is used for the CBU-97?
SUU-66
176
What submunitions are in a CBU-97?
10 BLU-108/B
177
How many targets can a CBU-97 destroy?
Up to 40
178
What can be added to a CBU to give it guidance?
WCMD tail kit
179
What is the oldest cannon round in use by the Air Force?
20mm
180
What fuze does 20mm HEI ammunition use?
M505
181
What is bore safe?
A safety feature that prevents initiation while the projectile is still in the barrel of the cannon
182
What is the arming distance of the M505 fuze?
10-35 feet from the muzzle of the cannon
183
What TO can be consulted for color coding of ammunition?
11A-1-53
184
What container is used for 20mm, and how much can it hold?
M548 container can hold 200/250 cartridges, but functionally they hold one linked belt of 100
185
What cannon on the AC-130 uses 25mm?
GAU-12
186
What type of primers do 25mm use?
percussion
187
What fuze does the 25mm HEI round use?
M505
188
What are 25mm rounds packed in, and how many are in a container?
CNU-405/E, 80 to 100 rounds
189
What fuze does 30mm HEI ammunition use?
M505A3
190
What are 20mm cases made from?
Brass, older cases have been made from steel
191
What are 25mm cases made from?
Steel
192
What are 30mm cases made from?
Aluminum
193
What is the difference between the Honeywell and Aerojet projectiles?
The Honeywell projectile only has one rotating band
194
What container is used to store 30mm 36 rounds at a time?
M548
195
What container can hold 600 linked 30mm rounds?
CNU-309
196
What cannon uses 40mm on the AC-130 aircraft?
M2A1
197
What fuze doe the 40mm HEI round use?
FMU-54/B point detonating fuze
198
How is 40mm ammunition packaged?
4 4 round MK4, 5, or 6 clips are loaded into a MK1 ammunition box
199
How much does a fully loaded MK1 box weigh?
116 lbs
200
What cannon on the AC-130 is used to fire 105mm?
M102
201
What makes Air Force 105mm rounds different from conventional 105mm?
The AF needs the rounds to be crimped at the factory, meaning the powder charge cannot be changed
202
What fuze does the PGU-44/B HEI round use?
FMU-153/B PDF
203
What fuze does the PGU-45/B frag round use?
FMU-160/B Radar proximity
204
What is the HOB on the PGU-45/B, and how many fragments does it produce?
15 feet, 13,000
205
What fuze does the PGU-43/B TP round use?
M739A1
206
What is used to clear jams in the 105mm cannon?
105mm clearing cartridge
207
What is the maximum number of MJU-7 flares that an MJU-12 can hold?
15
208
What countermeasure consists of a towed decoy?
AN/ALE-50
209
What is the maximum number of decoys that can be carried on a B-1B?
8
210
What is done to chaff to maximize its effectiveness?
It is cut into different sized strips to match a broad amount of RF signals
211
What is the candlepower for aircraft parachute flares?
60,000 to 2,000,000
212
What is the average burning time of a LUU-1/B?
30 minutes
213
What color of light does a LUU-5/B produce?
Green
214
How man LUU flares can a SUU-25 hold?
8
215
Which impulse cart is used on the SUU-25?
ARD 863-1
216
Which impulse cart initiates the MJU-7/B?
BBU-36/B
217
Which impulse cart initiates the RR-170 chaff cartridge?
BBU-35/B
218
What light does a LUU-19 emit?
Near infrared
219
Which direction does the SUU-25E/A eject?
Rearward
220
What speed are SUU's ejected by impulse carts?
65 fps
221
What are the 4 types of tracking energy used in missiles?
Light, electroptical, radar, GPS-INS
222
What are the 3 sources that produce tracking energy?
Active, passive, semi-active
223
Which guidance system allows for fire and forget capability?
Active
224
Which guidance system does the target produce the energy?
Passive
225
Which guidance system comes from energy reflected off an outside source?
Semi-active
226
What are the 3 types of rocket motors in AF pgm's?
Dual, high, medium
227
What test set is used to test all LGB GCUs and CCGs?
TTU-373
228
Which WP of TO 11K10-2-7 or 11K20-2-7 is used for testing LGBs?
080 00
229
What test set is being used to replace the aging TTU-373?
TTU-595
230
What was designed as a efficient handling, loading, and storage system for the GBU-39?
BRU-61
231
How many GBU-39's can the BRU-61 hold?
4
232
What container is designed to hold one GBU-39?
CNU-659/E
233
How is testing done through a CNU-659/E?
An in container BIT cable
234
What container is designed to hold a fully loaded BRU-61 carriage?
CNU-660/E
235
What is required to move an empty BRU-61?
CNU-660/E
236
What is the inspection period on GBU-39's?
Bi-annually
237
What munition test set was designed to take place on many for maximum war fighter flexibility
AN/GYQ-79 CMBRE
238
What does box one of the AN/GYQ-79 contain?
Test adapter unit
239
What does box two of the AN/GYQ-79 contain?
Controller unit
240
What does box three of the AN/GYQ-79 contain?
Accessory unit
241
What component of the CMBRE test set is a self contained, ruggedized computer that is IBM compatible?
Digital computer system assembly (DCSA)
242
How many GBU configurations exist?
28
243
How many fins are fixed on a tail assy?
1
244
When does an ATA fuze detonate?
When it senses the target moving further away
245
When a control system adjust proportionately to the flight path of the target, what is it called?
Proportional navigation
246
What provides an interface between the BRU-61 and the AN/GYQ-79?
ADU-890
247
What test set is used in conjunction with the CMBRE to test AIM-120's and AIM-9X's?
ADU-891
248
What is the targeting pod used to supplement AGM-65's?
LANTIRN
249
What test kit is used to check EO guidance on AGM-65's?
AN/DSM-129
250
What test kit is used on AGM-65's when they are removed from aircraft?
AN/DSM-157
251
What is an IR test kit that can be used for the AGM-65D, G, and K?
SM-787/DSM
252
What AGM is designed to destroy radar installations?
AGM-88 HARM
253
What test set is used for the AGM-88 HARM?
AN/GSM-396
254
What is the NEW of an AGM-88?
42 lbs PBXN-107
255
What AGM is frequently used on RPA's?
AGM-114 Hellfire
256
Which AGM-114 uses a thermoberic filler?
AGM-114N
257
What are AGM-114's stored in?
CNU-317 container
258
How many gallons of fuel does the AGM-158 JASSM hold?
40 gallons of JP-10
259
What guidance does the JASSM use?
GPS aided INS with optional IR
260
What warhead does the JASSM carry?
WDU-42/B 1000 lbs
261
What fuze does the AGM-158 use?
FMU-156/B
262
What container is an AGM-158 stored in?
CNU-614/E
263
What gasses are used to cool the sensors on an AIM-9M?
Argon (9 hours) or Nitrogen (5.5 hours) via TMU-72/B
264
What is the effective range of an AIM-9M?
2-11 miles
265
What is the TMU-72/B charged to?
5100+/-100 PSIG
266
What test set is used for AIM-9M missiles?
TS-4044/D
267
What is used to fill the TMU-72A/B tanks?
GCU-30/E
268
What test set is used for the AIM-9X?
AN/GYQ-79 CMBRE
269
What test set is used for the AIM-120 missile?
TS-4108/G
270
What test set can be used in place of the DSM-99 and DSM-100?
AN/DSM-157
271
What is the AGM-88's effective range?
30 miles
272
What keeps the AIM-120's motor from becoming propulsive?
TIVS
273
What is the weight of the warhead in an AIM-120?
15 lbs
274
What is the range of saw blades for a circular saw?
4-14 inches
275
What are the minimum and maximum frame adjustments for the MHU-83?
70 in, 140 in
276
What is the maximum reach of the VR forklift at 45 degrees?
15 ft
277
What is the max load of a LALS?
2100
278
What is the maximum number of rounds the UALS can hold?
2100
279
What order must an MHU-110 be loaded and unloaded?
Front loaded first and unloaded last
280
What mode of transport does the DoD use when transporting nuclear weapons?
Air or truck
281
What are the 3 types of AF grenades?
Service, practice, and smoke
282
When is sealing wire removed from the M904 fuze?
Prior to takeoff
283
With electrical fuzes, what is used in place of arming wire?
BFD
284
What fuze only has one safety device installed through the safety release shaft?
FMU-124
285
What component is used to adapt an M series bomb nose fuze well?
Adapter booster
286
What keeps a M905A3 fuze in an unarmed position until fired?
A lock ring
287
What Fuze does the PGU-9 C/B use?
FMU-154/B
288
How many different KMU tail units are there?
18
289
What are the power requirements for the CMBRE?
115 VAC, 3 phase, 400 Hz
290
In what section of the AGM-114 are the wings located?
Propulsion section
291
What tester is used for the testing of solid fuel RM igniter bridge wire circuitry?
101-5BFG
292
What forklift is best for AUR missiles?
Swingmast
293
How far from explosives must a forklift be parked?
10 ft
294
What loading system is used to service the GPU-5 gun pod?
GFU-10
295
How much deflection should a properly tightened MB-1 chain have?
No more than 3/4 of an inch
296
What is the range of rates of deterioration of explosives?
3,200 fps to 28,000
297
What is required to move heavy mortars?
Trucks or tracked mortar carriers
298
In electrical fuzes, what replaces the arming vanes of a mechanical fuze?
Electric charging assy
299
What denotes that a M904 fuze is armed?
Full red or black A on red background
300
What fuzes are tail only?
M905, FMU-54, FMU-152
301
What conical fin does the M117 use?
MAU-103
302
What M series bomb is the BLU-126 identical to?
MK82
303
What does the SD-206 IR flare do?
Simulates a flare for training
304
What is the candle power range for parachute flares?
60,000 to 2,000,000 candlepower
305
How many flares can a SUU-25 hold?
8
306
How many GBU variants exist currently?
28
307
What does a JDAM consist of?
Tail assy, aerosurfaces, and an umbilical cover
308
What are the differences in the KMU sets?
Guidance software and physical interfaces
309
What is the overall weight of the CNU-614 container?
1120 lbs
310
What are the components of a basic explosive train?
Detonator, booster, bursting charge
311
What is the one difference between a 20mm and 25mm round?
The 25mm has an igniter booster
312
What explosive is used in the 105mm HE round?
Comp B
313
What impulse cart is used for the MJU-7/B flare?
BBU-36/B
314
What section of a guided bomb is referred to as the AFG?
Control section
315
What is not a benefit of off-axis delivery in a JDAM?
Increased range
316
What is the standoff range of the SDB?
40 nautical miles
317
What test set performs the AIM-9X ibit?
TS-4044