Practice questions Flashcards

1
Q

factor h and I inhibit the ____

A

alternative pathway

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2
Q

carboxypeptidases degrade ___

A

C3a and C5a

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3
Q

C1 esterase inhibitor blocks ____

A

C1r and C1s

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4
Q

what is hereditary angioneurmtic edema

A

absence of C1 esterase inhibitor and often triggering of the complement system

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5
Q

LPS triggers the ______ pathway

A

alternative complement innate pathway

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6
Q

what are the three components of the acute inflammatory reaction?

A

plasma proteins, plasma fluid and neutrophils

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7
Q

what is J chain made by?

A

plasma cells

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8
Q

what part of the IgM fixes complement?

A

constant region

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9
Q

what cells are PRRs on?

A

macrophages; therefore PRRs activate phagocytosis

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10
Q

TAP

A

MHC I

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11
Q

affinity

A

one antibody combining site for a single antigenic determity

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12
Q

where are peyers patches

A

lamina propria of gut

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13
Q

neutrophils and macrophages Fc recognizes ____

A

bound IgG

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14
Q

TLRs recognize ____

A

PAMPs

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15
Q

an IgG molecule has

A

two identical kappa or lambda chains

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16
Q

antibodies against ABO are ____

A

IgM

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17
Q

chemokine Il8 is most important for which step of leukocyte extravasation?

A

activation

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18
Q

do gamma delta T cells undergo extensive selection in thymus

A

no

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19
Q

defensins

A

oxygen independent factors produced by macrophages and neutrophils to kill microbes and eukaryotic cells ; mostly in neutrophils

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20
Q

desensitization via injection is less effective for ragweed than bee sting because

A

blocking antibody is less likely to bind the allergen

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21
Q

flare

A

vasodilation and blood flow incr

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22
Q

wheel

A

edema resulting from histamine-induced capillary permeability

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23
Q

what is the main dif between asthma and allergic rhinitis

A

asthma affects lower respiratory ; allergic rhinitis affects upper respiratory tract

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24
Q

mast cells and basophils both have

A

histamine-containing granules

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25
mast cells and basophils both have
histamine-containing granules
26
direct coombs
RBC
27
indirect coombs
serum
28
Rh +
Dd or DD
29
Rh -
dd (recessive)
30
D is
Dominant
31
only ____ determines the Rh+ or - phenotype
D/d
32
antibodies can be formed against everything except _____
d (null allele) | antibodies form against D, C, c, E, e
33
___ is by far the most immunogenic of the Rh blood group system
D
34
antibodies to ABO are ____
IgM
35
antibodies to ABO are ____
IgM
36
isograft
to twin brother
37
what type of hypersensitivity is SLE
III
38
what are the pathogenic cytokines for SLE
type 1 interferons
39
is diabetes B or T cell mediated?
T cell mediated
40
what kind of Th response is diabetes?
Th1 and type 4 hypersensitivity
41
what are the main pathogenic cytokines in RA
TNF alpha and Il6
42
B cell mediated autoimmune conditions
SLE, myasthenia gravis
43
what disease is due to stimulating autoantibodies
graves
44
what disease is due to blocking antibodies
myasthenia gravis
45
ICOS
inducible costimulatory molecule; not present in resting T cells, only in activated T cells and is especially important for Tfh (Tfh have CXCR5 and ICOS to help travel to germinal centers and help B cells)
46
where is ICOS-L
APC
47
mixed lymphocyte reaction
determine how strong a potential transplant recipients immune system will react to donor organ
48
why do drug resistant bacteria have lower fitness?
the drugs will target necessary aspects of replication/life cycle; therefore, in order to avoid drug toxicity, it must have modified one of its own critical functions, therefore making it have lower fitness as compared to WT in hospitals tho, many patients are on antibiotics and so the WT is wiped out in most of them, and then the drug resistant bacteria can flourish
49
what is iron important for
rapid bacterial growth
50
major scavengers of apoptotic cells
maacrophages
51
cross-presentation
activation of CD8+ T cells, recognizing MHC I, of dendritic cell Ag generated in eptithelial cell
52
what kind of antigen does cross presentation present
exogenous antigen
53
enterococcus faecalis
gram positive bacteria that causes nosocomial infections that are VRE; takes advantage of antibiotics to displace commensal strains with antibiotic resistant pathogens
54
c diff
spore forming; anaerobic; gram +; can be found in healthy indv; often secondary to antibiotic use;
55
conformational determinants are recognized by
B cells
56
linear determinants are recognized by
B and T cells
57
What kind of determinants can B cells recognize?
conformational and linear
58
What kind of determinants can T cells recognize?
only linear
59
Microbial superantigens bind multiple T cell receptors via the
beta chain
60
typically, how many HLA haplotypes are possible in children of same father and mother?
4
61
What does the association constant determine
the STRENGTH of antigen binding to antibody
62
acute infections characterized by
neutrophils
63
chronic infections characterized by
macrophages
64
what diseases can CGD handle?
strep and hemophilus
65
what diseases can't CGD handle?
staph, eccoli, candida albicans
66
antigen receptor editing contributes to what kind of tolerance
central
67
macrophages make
IL12 and nitric oxide and Il8 and IL1
68
whats imp abt Salmonella Typhimurium
type 3 secretion system
69
classic example of necessary
HIV and development of AIDS
70
what chain do super antigens bind to?
B