Practice Questions - Amazon AWS Certified SAP on AWS - Specialty PAS-C01 Flashcards

Question

A company runs its SAP Business Suite on SAP HANA systems on AWS. The company's production SAP ERP Central Component (SAP ECC) system uses an x1e.32xlarge (memory optimized) Amazon EC2 instance and is 3.5 TB in size. Because of expected future growth, the company needs to resize the production system to use a u-* EC2 High Memory instance. The company must resize the system as quickly as possible and must minimize downtime during the resize activities. Which solution will meet these requirements? A. Resize the instance by using the AWS Management Console or the AWS CLI. B. Create an AMI of the source system. Launch a new EC2 High Memory instance that is based on that AMI. C. Launch a new EC2 High Memory instance. Install and configure SAP HANA on the new instance by using AWS Launch Wizard for SAP. Use SAP HANA system replication to migrate the data to the new instance. D. Launch a new EC2 High Memory instance. Install and configure SAP HANA on the new instance by using AWS Launch Wizard for SAP. Use SAP HANA backup and restore to back up the source system directly to Amazon S3 and to migrate the data to the new instance.

Answer 1

C C is the correct answer because SAP HANA system replication minimizes downtime during the migration process by synchronizing the source and target systems. This is significantly faster than creating an AMI (option B) or performing a backup and restore (option D), both of which require significant downtime. Option A is incorrect because resizing an instance in place doesn't address the need for a different instance type (u-* instead of x1e).

Answer 2

D The discussion indicates that option D, using a VPC endpoint service with an IAM role, is the most secure solution. This approach provides the most granular control over access, limiting access to only the specific ETL instances with the correct IAM role. Options A, B, and C rely on network-level ACLs or security groups, which are less restrictive and offer less granular control compared to IAM-based access control. While options A and B offer some level of security through network segmentation, they still allow broader access than option D. Option C is vulnerable as it only protects the NLB, and not the entire system behind it, leaving room for potential vulnerabilities. Therefore, D offers the most protection by tightly controlling access at the instance level using IAM roles, minimizing the risk of the ODP services being used as an attack vector.

Answer 3

A, C, E A is correct because keeping frequently accessed data (last 2 years) on a fast, hot tier like an SAP HANA-certified EC2 instance ensures quick access for critical reports. B is incorrect because moving frequently accessed data to SAP ILM with SAP IQ introduces latency; it's better suited for less frequently accessed data. C is correct because using SAP HANA dynamic tiering to move less frequently accessed data (3-6 years old) to a warm tier on Amazon EFS provides a balance between cost and access time. Amazon EFS is a suitable warm tier storage option for SAP HANA. D is incorrect because data aging alone doesn't define the storage tier. A storage tier (like warm) needs to be explicitly chosen. E is correct because Amazon S3 is a cost-effective cold storage solution for rarely accessed data (over 6 years old), meeting the long-term archival requirement. SAP Data Hub can be used for data management and integration with S3. F is incorrect because while SAP BW NLS with Apache Hadoop can be used for long-term storage, it's less straightforward to integrate with SAP HANA compared to the other options and less cost effective than S3 for this scenario.

Answer 4

D The discussion indicates that option D is the most cost-effective solution. Option B uses a single 2400GB volume which, while meeting the storage requirements, may be more expensive than using two smaller volumes in RAID 0. Option A and C use io1 and io2 volumes respectively, which are more expensive than gp3 volumes for this use case. Option D uses two 1200GB gp3 volumes in RAID 0, providing the necessary 9000 IOPS (4500 IOPS per volume * 2 volumes) at a lower cost than other options.

Answer 5

C The correct answer is C because the system copy procedure requires administrative access to the database to perform its tasks, such as exporting or backing up the data. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they relate to operating system or SAP system users, not the database administrator credentials required for database-level operations during the system copy.

Answer 6

B The correct answer is B because the problem stems from the dynamic nature of public IP addresses assigned to EC2 instances. When the EC2 instance is stopped and restarted, it receives a new public IP address. Therefore, the SAProuter configuration, which likely used the original public IP address, becomes invalid after the restart. An Elastic IP address remains associated with the instance even after restarts, solving the connectivity problem. Option A is incorrect because moving to a private subnet doesn't address the root cause—the changing public IP. While using a NAT gateway is good practice for security, it's not necessary to resolve the immediate problem of the changing IP address. Option C is incorrect because opening all ports to all sources from 0.0.0.0/0 is extremely insecure and not a best practice for resolving the issue. It exposes the SAProuter to unnecessary risks. Option D is incorrect because using the private IP address will not work for external connectivity, which is what SAP Support requires. SAProuter needs a publicly accessible IP address to connect.

Answer 7

B The correct answer is B because it utilizes SAP HANA system replication. This method minimizes downtime by synchronizing data between the on-premises system and the AWS system before a switchover. Once synchronization is complete, the AWS system becomes primary with minimal disruption. Options A and C involve taking a full backup and restoring it, which will result in significant downtime. Option D, using an SAP Software Provisioning Manager export, is also likely to cause substantial downtime due to the length of the export and import process.

Answer 8

D The discussion indicates that option D is the most cost-effective solution. Option A is ruled out because Glacier Deep Archive retrieval times exceed the 10-hour requirement. Option B is deemed expensive due to using S3 Standard storage initially. Option C is less cost-effective than D because it uses S3 One Zone-IA, which offers less durability than S3 Standard-IA. Option D balances cost and performance by using S3 Standard-IA for readily available backups and transitioning older backups to S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval, which offers retrieval within the specified timeframe.

Answer 9

C The discussion indicates that option C, utilizing Amazon AppFlow, Amazon QuickSight, and Amazon Forecast, requires the least custom development. Options B and D necessitate more complex setups and integrations (SAP LT Replication, SAP Data Services, SAP ODP Framework), involving significant configuration and potentially custom code. Option A, using AWS AppSync, is not specifically designed for large-scale data extraction from SAP S/4HANA and might be less efficient than AppFlow for this purpose. Therefore, option C provides the most straightforward and low-effort solution meeting all requirements.

Answer 10

D The correct answer is D because overlay IP addresses must be outside the VPC's CIDR block. Options A and C use IP addresses (10.0.0.50, 10.0.0.52, 10.0.0.54) that fall within the 10.0.0.0/24 CIDR range, making them invalid. Option B uses a private IP range (192.168.0.0/16), which while outside the VPC's CIDR, is also generally a private range and is not recommended for this scenario. Option D correctly uses IP addresses (192.168.0.50, 192.168.0.52, 192.168.0.54) outside the VPC's CIDR block. While a private IP range, it's sufficiently outside the defined VPC range to avoid conflicts and is a commonly used range for overlay IP addresses when not explicitly allocating public IPs.

Answer 11

B The best answer is B. While D might seem cost-effective due to the lower cost of gp3 volumes, the question doesn't specify that the volumes are striped or arranged in a RAID configuration to achieve the necessary 27,000 IOPS. Option B explicitly states that the volumes are striped, allowing them to combine their IOPS. Each 3TB gp2 volume provides a maximum of approximately 9,000 IOPS, and three volumes striped together would meet the 27,000 IOPS requirement. Options A and C are not cost-effective because they provide significantly more storage than needed (9TB and 1TB respectively). Option C is also incorrect because gp3 volumes have a maximum IOPS limit of 16,000, not enough to meet the 27,000 IOPS requirement. Therefore, B is the most accurate and practical solution.

Answer 12

B The correct answer is B because changing the EC2 instance type requires stopping the instance, resulting in SAP system downtime. However, changing the EBS volume type can be done online without requiring a system stop. Option A is incorrect because EBS volume type changes can generally be performed without downtime. Option C is incorrect because changing the EC2 instance type necessitates downtime. Option D is incorrect because only the EC2 instance type change requires downtime.

Answer 13

B The most cost-effective solution is B because SAP HANA system replication with data preload provides fast recovery with minimal additional resource consumption. While option A is less complex, recovery time is significantly longer. Option C is designed for both high availability and disaster recovery, adding unnecessary complexity and cost for a single-region solution. Option D introduces the additional cost and complexity of AWS Elastic Disaster Recovery, which is not required for a high-availability solution within a single region. Although some commenters raised concerns about the cost of data preload requiring a similarly sized standby instance, the overall speed and reduced downtime associated with this method outweigh the cost of the larger instance in the context of the question's focus on *most* cost-effective.

Answer 14

D The discussion section overwhelmingly supports option D as the most cost-effective solution. Options A, B, and C utilize more expensive storage tiers (gp2, io1) for the archive destination than option D, which uses the cost-optimized Cold HDD (sc1) EBS volumes. While performance is a factor in choosing storage, the question prioritizes cost-effectiveness and doesn't specify performance requirements. Using S3 for backups and Glacier for long-term archival is a common and cost-effective strategy regardless of the chosen archive destination.

Answer 15

C, D The correct answers are C and D because they address cost optimization without compromising performance and availability. C: Choosing an EC2 Instance Savings Plan based on workload analysis offers significant cost savings without impacting performance. This leverages existing usage patterns for better pricing. D: Stopping non-production EC2 instances and SAP systems outside business hours significantly reduces costs without affecting production. Using EventBridge for scheduling is more flexible and efficient than other options. A is incorrect because scaling down non-production EC2 instance sizes without analyzing workload might negatively impact performance if the chosen size is too small. B is incorrect because it only stops and starts SAP systems, not the underlying EC2 instances which would still incur costs. Also, CloudWatch, while useful, is not ideal for scheduling tasks that need complex conditions such as outside business hours. E is incorrect because it doesn't consider the crucial distinction between production and non-production environments. Stopping production systems would be disastrous. Additionally, it utilizes Systems Manager for scheduling, which is less flexible than EventBridge for managing complex scheduling requirements.

Answer 16

BCD B. Attach a secondary elastic network interface to each instance for the internal communications between nodes. This provides a dedicated network interface for internal node communication, isolating it from other traffic. C. Attach a secondary elastic network interface to each instance for the storage communications. This isolates storage traffic from other network traffic, enhancing security and performance. D. Configure a security group with rules that allow only TCP connections within the security group on the ports that are assigned for the internal network connections. Associate the security group with the appropriate elastic network interface on each instance. This restricts access to the internal network to only authorized instances within the security group, ensuring isolation. A is incorrect because while Network Firewalls provide network-level isolation, they are not as granular as security groups for isolating specific network zones within a subnet. E is incorrect because it only addresses client network isolation, not internal or storage. F is incorrect because NVMe connections are handled at the instance level and don't require special security group rules at the network level; storage isolation is achieved using option C and potentially additional mechanisms like dedicated storage subnets.

Answer 17

BDF The correct answer is BDF because: * **B:** The SAProuter needs to be accessible from the internet for SAP support to connect. A public subnet allows this, and an Elastic IP provides a static, public IP address for consistent connectivity. A private subnet would not be accessible from the internet. * **D:** A specific security group is crucial for securing the SAProuter instance. It must allow inbound traffic on TCP port 3299 (the standard port for SAProuter communication) to allow SAP support to connect. Option E is incorrect because it explicitly *denies* this necessary inbound traffic. * **F:** Secure Network Communication (SNC) is a recommended security protocol for SAP system communication, enhancing the security of the connection to SAP Support. Options A and C are incorrect because they involve private subnets (A) or an overlay IP address (C), both of which would prevent the SAProuter from being accessible to the public internet. Option E is incorrect because it would block necessary inbound connections.

Answer 18

C, D DISCUSSION: The correct answers are C and D. Option C addresses high availability by deploying the production system across two Availability Zones in the primary region and disaster recovery by deploying the DR system in a separate region. Option D uses Amazon EFS, the correct service for a shared file system, ensuring data consistency between the production and DR environments. Option A is incorrect because it doesn't provide sufficient geographic separation for disaster recovery. Option B is incorrect because it places both systems in the same region. Option E is incorrect because EBS is not suitable for shared file systems; EFS is better suited for this purpose. AWS Backup alone in option E wouldn't meet the RTO and RPO requirements specified.

Answer 19

A and B The correct answer is A and B because: A: Instance tagging is crucial for identifying the instances within the SUSE Linux Enterprise High Availability Extension cluster on AWS. This allows the HA solution to correctly manage and monitor the cluster nodes. The provided link in the discussion supports this. B: An overlay IP address outside the VPC CIDR range is necessary for accessing the active instance in the cluster. This avoids conflicts within the VPC's internal addressing scheme. The discussion provides a link confirming this. Options C and E are incorrect because using an IP address *within* the VPC CIDR range for HA cluster communication is not best practice, and can lead to conflicts and complicate management. Options D is incorrect because Elastic IPs are not typically used for intra-cluster communication in this scenario. An overlay IP address provides better control and flexibility within the HA cluster.

Answer 20

A The best answer is A. Using AWS Launch Wizard with AWS Service Catalog provides a streamlined, automated process for deploying SAP S/4HANA systems. This minimizes manual intervention and operational overhead. The Service Catalog allows for controlled access for the project team without granting excessive permissions. Option B is less efficient because it involves creating and managing EBS snapshots, adding extra steps compared to the more integrated Launch Wizard approach. Options C and D use custom AMIs which require more manual steps to create and manage compared to the automated approach of A. They also lack the fine-grained access control provided by Service Catalog.

Answer 21

B The correct answer is B because changing the instance type from Xen-based to KVM-based can change the hardware key, especially if the SAP kernel patch level is low (as in option B). A lower patch level often means older, less compatible components, making a hardware key change more likely during a virtualization type switch. This necessitates a new SAP license. Option A is incorrect because changing instance types between Xen and KVM is possible and frequently done. Option C is less likely because a higher patch level might be more compatible; however, a hardware key change is still possible in this scenario. Option D is incorrect because an instance type change does not automatically require a new license. The trigger is the hardware key change associated with a low patch level and the virtualization platform change.

Answer 22

A and E The correct answer is A and E because: * **A:** The EFS needs to allow inbound traffic on port 2049 (NFS) from the EC2 instances to receive mount requests. This is necessary for the EC2 instances to connect to and use the EFS. * **E:** While security groups are stateful, explicitly allowing outbound traffic from the EC2 instances to the EFS on port 2049 is best practice to ensure connectivity. Although the return traffic might be implicitly allowed, explicitly defining the outbound rule provides clarity and better control over network traffic. Option B is incorrect because EFS doesn't initiate connections; it responds to requests from the EC2 instances. Option C is incorrect because it focuses on outbound access from the EFS perspective, which is not required. Option D is incorrect because while inbound access on the EC2 instances might seem relevant, it is the outbound connection initiated by the EC2 instance that is crucial for mounting the EFS.

Answer 23

A A is correct because it uses a pilot light DR system, which is the most cost-effective approach for meeting the specified RPO and RTO requirements. A pilot light system only requires a small, minimally provisioned system in the DR region, significantly reducing costs compared to a full-sized system (option B). Options C and D do not offer the same cost-effectiveness and speed of recovery as A. Option C uses a smaller secondary system in the primary region, which doesn't address the cross-region DR requirement efficiently. Option D, using S3 CRR for backups, would have a significantly longer RTO than the required 120 minutes.

Answer 24

A The discussion highlights option A as the most cost-effective solution. Options B, C, and D are incorrect for the following reasons: * **B:** This option is not cost-effective because it requires resizing the DR environment from 500 GB to 6 TB after a disaster, leading to significant downtime and potential cost overruns. The small initial size also makes meeting the 5-minute RPO highly unlikely. * **C:** While this option meets the RPO and RTO requirements, it's less cost-effective than A due to the provisioning of a full 6 TB DR environment, which is continuously idle. * **D:** This option fails to meet the requirement of failing over to a secondary AWS Region, a key policy stipulation.

Answer 25

B The correct answer is B because creating a RAID 0 configuration with several EBS volumes allows for striping, which significantly increases IOPS. This directly addresses the problem of insufficient IOPS from a single EBS volume. A is incorrect because instance store is volatile and unsuitable for persistent database storage. C is irrelevant to IOPS; auto-scaling addresses availability and scalability, not storage performance. D is incorrect because placement groups improve network latency between instances, not storage IOPS.

Answer 26

C The correct answer is C because it provides a highly available and low-maintenance solution. Using NAT Gateways eliminates the need for managing and maintaining individual NAT instances, which reduces administrative overhead. Placing a NAT Gateway in each Availability Zone ensures high availability, as the failure of one AZ won't impact the other. Routing from the private subnets to the NAT Gateways in their respective Availability Zones is the correct configuration for accessing the internet. Option A is incorrect because while it provides high availability across AZs, using NAT instances requires more management and maintenance compared to NAT Gateways. Option B is incorrect because it routes the public subnet traffic through the NAT Gateway, which is unnecessary and inefficient. Option D is incorrect because it introduces a single point of failure by centralizing the NAT instance in a third Availability Zone. If that AZ fails, internet access for all private instances will be disrupted.

Answer 27

B The best option is B because placing the SAP HANA instances in a cluster placement group ensures they are located within the same high-bandwidth segment of the network, resulting in higher TCP/IP throughput between the nodes. While ENA Express offers high bandwidth, it doesn't guarantee the same level of optimized network performance between instances as a cluster placement group. Capacity Reservations further enhance performance predictability and resource availability. Option A uses default tenancy, which doesn't optimize network placement. Options C and D are designed for different purposes; spread placement groups distribute instances across multiple availability zones for high availability, while partition placement groups isolate instances for high-performance computing tasks which isn't the primary goal here. The question focuses on maximizing throughput between the three SAP HANA nodes within a single availability zone.

Answer 28

A The correct answer is A because it addresses both requirements: minimizing downtime and preventing inbound internet access. A Multi-AZ solution with synchronous replication ensures high availability by replicating data across Availability Zones, minimizing downtime in case of an AZ failure. Using private subnets prevents inbound internet access, enhancing security. Option B is incorrect because a Single-AZ solution offers no redundancy and is vulnerable to outages. Option C is incorrect because it describes a manual failover mechanism, which is not efficient and increases downtime. Option D is incorrect because it uses public subnets, exposing the system to the internet.

Answer 29

B B is the correct answer because Amazon Aurora Serverless automatically scales the database resources (storage, CPU, and memory) based on the workload. This directly addresses the requirement for automatic scaling to minimize costs during low-demand periods and maintain performance during high-demand periods. A is incorrect because while burstable performance EC2 instances offer some cost savings, they don't provide the automatic scaling needed for the database. SAP HANA single-node deployments also lack the inherent scalability of Aurora Serverless. C is incorrect because while ECS Service Auto Scaling can scale the number of containers, it doesn't directly manage the database's internal scaling of resources. Furthermore, HyperSQL is not a commonly used database for SAP Commerce, and this approach lacks the managed service benefits of Aurora. D is incorrect because while an RDS for MySQL DB cluster offers high availability and the ability to scale by adding instances, it requires manual intervention to scale resources, unlike the automatic scaling of Aurora Serverless. It also doesn't inherently minimize costs during low-demand periods as effectively as Aurora Serverless.

Answer 30

B The correct answer is B because the AWS Launch Wizard for SAP is specifically designed to quickly and easily deploy SAP systems on AWS, including S/4HANA, in a Multi-AZ configuration. It handles the sizing, configuration, and deployment of the necessary AWS resources, eliminating the need for manual provisioning. Option A, while useful, is not as quick as a dedicated tool for SAP deployments. Option C, using CloudFormation, requires creating and testing templates, which takes more time than using a pre-built tool like the Launch Wizard. Option D, manual deployment, is the slowest and most error-prone method.

Answer 31

D The correct answer is D because using Oracle Cross-Platform Transportable Tablespaces (XTTS) minimizes downtime during migration. Options A and B are incorrect because they don't offer the minimal downtime required. Option C is incorrect because it will result in unacceptable downtime.

Answer 32

B The correct answer is B because it correctly addresses cross-account access to the KMS key. Cross-account access requires both a key policy in the production account (where the key resides) and an IAM role in the non-production account to grant the necessary permissions. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they either incorrectly suggest importing the KMS key (A), don't create the necessary IAM role in the non-production account (C), or use an asymmetric key which is unnecessary for this scenario (A and D). Symmetric keys are generally simpler and more efficient for this use case.

Answer 33

A, B, C The correct answer is A, B, and C because: A: Disabling source/destination checks allows traffic to be routed correctly even if it originates from or is destined for an IP address that's not directly on the interface. This is often necessary for complex networking setups like Pacemaker clusters. B: Security groups act as firewalls. If the necessary ports for database communication aren't open in the security group rules, the application servers won't be able to reach the database. C: If the application servers and the database cluster are in different subnets, a route table entry is needed to direct traffic to the overlay IP address. Without this, the traffic won't know how to reach the database. D is incorrect: While it's good practice to keep related resources in the same subnet when possible, it's not strictly necessary and doesn't directly address the issue of the overlay IP not being reachable. This would only avoid a routing issue but not fix the existing one. E is incorrect: A failover and tailback test the HA configuration. While this is useful for general troubleshooting, it's unlikely to directly resolve an IP address routing problem. F is incorrect: The choice of bare metal vs. VM instances is irrelevant to the specific routing problem at hand.

Answer 34

C The best solution is C because it enables communication between the production and non-production VPCs without creating additional SAP transport directories (thus avoiding extra costs). While a transit gateway incurs hourly charges, direct VPC peering within the same Availability Zone is free for data transfer (as of May 2021). Options A and B introduce additional work and/or costs, and option D is likely to result in a failed deployment as the root cause of the problem is the inability to access the transport directory across VPCs.

Answer 35

B The correct answer is B because AWS Transit Gateway is designed for connecting large numbers of VPCs and on-premises networks in a highly scalable and manageable way. It avoids the complexity and limitations of VPC peering for many VPCs and provides a central point of connectivity for all locations including different AWS Regions and the on-premises environment via the existing Direct Connect connection. Option A (VPC peering) is not scalable for more than 25 VPCs and becomes complex to manage. Option C (Network Load Balancer) is for distributing traffic across multiple instances within a VPC, not for connecting different VPCs and on-premises environments. Option D (Direct Connect gateway and private VIFs) would require a large number of VIFs, making it less scalable and more complex than using Transit Gateway.

Answer 36

B The correct answer is B because the problem stems from the ALB distributing traffic between the two Web Dispatchers, disrupting session persistence. Enabling session stickiness (affinity) on the ALB ensures that requests from a single user are consistently routed to the same Web Dispatcher, maintaining session continuity. Option A is incorrect because configuring session stickiness on the Web Dispatchers themselves won't solve the problem if the ALB is already distributing requests inconsistently between them. Option C and D are irrelevant to the session management issue; they concern traffic routing between the Web Dispatchers rather than persistent session handling for individual users.

Answer 37

B The most operationally efficient solution is B because it leverages AWS KMS for server-side encryption, which is inherently more secure and efficient than client-side encryption (option A). Option C uses AWS Storage Gateway, adding an unnecessary layer of complexity. Option D is incorrect because it attempts to manage decryption permissions using object ACLs, which is not the intended use of object ACLs and is less efficient and secure than managing permissions through KMS key policies. Option B directly integrates encryption and access control management within the backup process using the recommended AWS service for key management.

Answer 38

D The discussion strongly indicates that option D is the most cost-effective solution. It leverages S3, a highly available and durable storage service, and uses an S3 lifecycle policy to automatically move less frequently accessed data to the cheaper S3 Glacier storage tier based on the company's retention policy. This approach balances accessibility and cost. Option A uses Storage Gateway Volume Gateway, which adds cost and complexity compared to the direct integration of option D. Option B is inefficient, involving tape drives and immediate archival to Glacier Deep Archive, which makes retrieval costly and slow. Option C is also costly due to frequent hourly snapshots directly to Glacier, bypassing the cost-effective tiered storage approach of S3 and S3 Glacier. Storing the same images in multiple regions is also redundant and increases cost unnecessarily unless a specific geographic disaster recovery strategy is needed.

Answer 39

B The correct answer is B because the provided discussion explicitly states that a root cause of long-running backups is high throughput in the connection between the AWS Backint agent and S3. The solution is to adjust the `UploadChannelSize` parameter in the configuration file. Increasing this value, based on the EC2 instance and storage, can improve the backup speed. Option A is incorrect because network connectivity is assumed to already be working (the problem is slow transfer speed, not connectivity). Options C and D are incorrect because they address restore parameters and compression, respectively, neither of which directly addresses the problem of slow upload speeds due to high throughput.

Answer 40

A and D A is correct because a cluster placement group ensures that instances are placed close together, minimizing network latency. D is correct because enhanced networking provides improved network performance compared to standard networking. B is incorrect because spread placement groups are designed to distribute instances across multiple availability zones, which would increase latency. C is incorrect because partition placement groups are used for specific workloads and not necessarily optimized for low-latency communication between nodes. E is incorrect because while increased network throughput is beneficial, it's less crucial than low latency for in-memory databases like SAP HANA, and the question doesn't specify that the current instance type doesn't meet the requirements. The existing infrastructure may be sufficient if properly configured with A and D.

Answer 41

A A is the correct answer because it provides a high-bandwidth, low-latency primary connection (Direct Connect) with a resilient backup (Site-to-Site VPN). This meets all stated requirements. B is incorrect because while LAGs can increase bandwidth, they don't inherently provide the backup connectivity required. Multiple Direct Connect connections without a LAG would be unnecessarily expensive. C is incorrect because EFS is not suitable for migrating large databases quickly and efficiently. The copying process via a cron job would be very slow and prone to interruptions. D is incorrect because Site-to-Site VPNs generally have lower bandwidth and higher latency than Direct Connect, making them unsuitable as the primary connection for migrating large databases. While redundancy is provided, the primary connection's performance would be inadequate.

Answer 42

B, D The correct answers are B and D. The discussion indicates that the overlay IP address for high availability of the ASCS instance should be outside the production VPC CIDR range. This eliminates options A and C. Further, a Network Load Balancer (NLB), not an Application Load Balancer (ALB), is appropriate for this scenario because NLB handles network traffic, while ALB is designed for HTTP traffic. This eliminates option E. Therefore, options B and D, which correctly specify an overlay IP address outside the VPC CIDR range and use a Network Load Balancer, are the correct choices.

Answer 43

B The most likely cause of an `AccessDenied` error when backing up to an S3 bucket from an EC2 instance using the AWS Backint Agent is insufficient permissions. Option B directly addresses this by assigning an IAM role with the necessary permissions to the EC2 instance. This ensures the instance has the authority to write data to the specified S3 bucket. Option A is incorrect because operating system-level permissions are not relevant to accessing an S3 bucket; AWS access control is managed through IAM. Options C and D are incorrect because they deal with configuration parameters that are not directly related to permission issues. While incorrect configuration could cause problems, the `AccessDenied` error strongly points to a permissions issue.

Answer 44

A A is the correct answer because AWS Transit Gateway is designed for large-scale, multi-account network connectivity. It offers scalability and reliability for connecting hundreds of accounts, unlike VPC peering which becomes complex and less manageable at that scale. Option B (VPC peering) is not scalable for hundreds of accounts and would lead to a complex and hard-to-manage network. Option C (Transit VPC) is less scalable and more complex to manage than a Transit Gateway for a large number of accounts. Option D (VPC Link) is not suitable for this scenario as it's designed for connecting to other AWS services, not for complex cross-VPC communication between many accounts.

Answer 45

C The discussion highlights that option C is the most cost-effective and efficient. Options A and D are less efficient because they involve migrating and converting all systems, including unnecessary data from the non-SAP system. Option B is less efficient because it doesn't leverage the selective data transition approach for the initial system migration. Option C efficiently uses DMO with System Move for the initial system, leveraging selective data transition for the acquisitions, minimizing data migration and cost.

Answer 46

B The best solution is B because enabling versioning prevents accidental deletion by preserving previous versions of the files. MFA adds an extra layer of security, requiring two-factor authentication for any actions on the bucket, further reducing the risk of accidental deletion. Option A is incorrect because preventing all deletions on the entire S3 bucket is overly restrictive and could hinder other necessary operations. Option C is incorrect because while signed cookies can control access, they don't prevent accidental deletion by an authorized user. Option D is incorrect because moving files to Glacier is for archiving and retrieval is slower than needed for frequent testing and analysis. It doesn't directly prevent accidental deletion of the files in the primary S3 bucket.

Answer 47

B, E Option B is correct because it uses synchronous replication within the eu-central-1 region (low latency) for high availability and asynchronous replication for the disaster recovery site in eu-west-1 (high latency). Synchronous replication is suitable for high availability within a low-latency region, ensuring data consistency. Asynchronous replication is appropriate for disaster recovery across regions with higher latency, prioritizing data availability over strict consistency. Option E is correct for similar reasons to B. It uses synchronous replication (SYNCMEM, a variant of synchronous) within the eu-central-1 region and asynchronous replication for disaster recovery in eu-west-1. Option A is incorrect because it uses synchronous replication across regions with high latency, which is not suitable. Synchronous replication requires low latency for reliable operation. Option C is incorrect because while it addresses high availability within the region, it uses backups for disaster recovery instead of SAP HANA system replication, which was a requirement. Option D is incorrect because it uses asynchronous replication within a high-latency (inter-region) configuration for the DR setup, which could lead to significant data loss in a failure scenario. It also places all the secondary systems in a single region.

Answer 48

B and E The correct answers are B and E because: * **B. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) Provisioned OPS SSD (io1, io2):** Provisioned IOPS SSDs (io1 and io2) offer high performance and low latency, making them suitable for the demanding I/O requirements of SAP HANA databases, particularly for data and log volumes which require fast read/write speeds. * **E. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) General Purpose SSD (gp2, gp3):** General Purpose SSDs (gp2 and gp3) provide a balance of performance and cost-effectiveness. While not as high-performance as io1/io2, they are still a viable option for storing SAP HANA data and log volumes, especially when considering cost optimization. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because: * **A. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) Throughput Optimized HDD (st1):** HDDs are significantly slower than SSDs and are not recommended for the demanding I/O needs of SAP HANA. * **C. Amazon S3:** Amazon S3 is an object storage service, not a block storage service suitable for directly mounting and accessing SAP HANA data and log volumes. It's more appropriate for backups and archiving. * **D. Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS):** Amazon EFS is a network file system, not a block storage service, and is also not suitable for the direct storage of SAP HANA data and log volumes. It is better suited for shared file systems.

Answer 49

D The discussion highlights that option D is the best solution because it minimizes downtime for SAP S/4HANA and SAP BW/4HANA. SAP HANA system replication allows near-zero downtime migration by replicating data to the AWS system, and the use of SAP Software Provisioning Manager for SAP Solution Manager is efficient. Reinstalling the Web Dispatcher is necessary due to the OS change. Options A, B, and C are less suitable because they involve backup and restore, which leads to significant downtime compared to replication. While option C uses a combination of methods, it still results in more downtime for S/4HANA and BW/4HANA than option D. Option A tries to use Software Provisioning Manager for all systems which isn't ideal for minimizing downtime of the primary systems (S/4HANA and BW/4HANA).

Answer 50

C The discussion indicates that option C, utilizing Cross Platform Transportable Tablespaces (XTTS), is the fastest method. This is because XTTS allows for efficient transfer of the Oracle database by moving tablespaces individually, minimizing downtime and data transfer time compared to full backups. The other options have significant drawbacks: A involves a full system copy which is time-consuming. B uses a full backup which is slower than XTTS and Data Guard replication, while still requiring a final replication step during the migration window. D uses AWS SMS which, while convenient, is not optimized for this specific type of migration from IBM Power to AWS. The heterogeneous nature of the migration rules out solutions that rely on features unsuitable for this transition. The consensus in the discussion points to C as the optimal solution for speed and efficiency in this scenario.

Answer 51

A The correct answer is A because gp3 volumes offer the ability to independently adjust IOPS and storage capacity, making them cost-effective for various workloads. While io2 volumes also allow IOPS adjustment, gp3 is generally more cost-effective. Option B, Amazon EFS Standard-IA, is designed for infrequent access and is not suitable for a database requiring high IOPS. Option C, Amazon FSx for Windows File Server, is a file system and not a suitable database storage solution. Option D, io2 volumes, provides high performance but at a higher cost than gp3 for this use case.

Answer 52

A A is correct because Network ACLs (NACLs) operate at the subnet level, controlling traffic entering and leaving subnets. By modifying the NACLs associated with public subnets to deny access from the offending IP address block, the company will prevent all traffic from that block from reaching the VPC. B is incorrect because Security Groups are associated with individual EC2 instances, not entire subnets. Blocking access at the Security Group level would only prevent access to specific instances, not the entire VPC, leaving other SAP applications potentially vulnerable. C is incorrect because IAM manages user access to AWS services, not network traffic. It is not the appropriate tool to control IP address access to a VPC. D is incorrect because configuring the OS firewall only affects the individual EC2 instance where it is applied. This solution is not suitable for denying access to the entire VPC from the offending IP address block.

Answer 53

B The correct answer is B because the AWS Data Provider for SAP needs permission to retrieve metric statistics from CloudWatch. The `cloudwatch:GetMetricStatistics` action allows this retrieval. Option A is incorrect because `cloudwatch:ListMetrics` only lists available metrics, it doesn't retrieve their data. Option C is incorrect because `cloudwatch:GetMetricStream` is used for retrieving metrics to a different location, not directly for the SAP application's use. Option D is incorrect because `cloudwatch:DescribeAlarmsForMetric` deals with CloudWatch alarms, not the retrieval of metric data itself.

Answer 54

B, C The correct answer is B and C because: * **B. Set up an AWS Site-to-Site VPN connection between the company’s on-premises network and AWS:** This fulfills the requirement of allowing on-premises end users to access SAP systems over the internet securely. A VPN provides a secure, encrypted connection. * **C. Separate the application server and the database server by using different VPCs:** This best meets the requirement of isolating the application and database servers while minimizing communication costs. Different VPCs provide the strongest isolation, and traffic between them would use AWS's internal, highly optimized network, minimizing cost compared to traversing the public internet. Option A is incorrect because a Network Load Balancer is not required to meet the stated criteria, it adds unnecessary complexity and cost. Option D is incorrect because while using different subnets and security groups within the same VPC provides *some* isolation, it's less robust than using separate VPCs. It does not minimize communication costs as effectively. Option E is incorrect because AWS Direct Connect is a more expensive solution compared to a Site-to-Site VPN. While Direct Connect offers higher bandwidth, it's not needed given the requirement is to make the SAP systems accessible over the internet, not for extremely high-bandwidth connections. The discussion highlights the cost factor as a key consideration.

Answer 55

D AWS Config is the most appropriate service for monitoring the compliance of AWS resources against defined configurations. However, it lacks built-in functionality to directly assess the compliance of SAP system parameters. Option D correctly addresses this by using managed rules for the readily-auditable AWS configurations and custom rules for the SAP-specific parameter checks. Amazon EventBridge and SNS provide the necessary automated notification system for deviations from the established standards. Option A is incorrect because AWS AppConfig is designed for application configuration management, not for auditing security compliance across various AWS services. Option B is incorrect because it fails to address the requirement for custom rules to monitor SAP system parameters. Option C is incorrect because AWS Trusted Advisor is primarily designed for best practice recommendations and not for detailed, automated compliance monitoring with custom rule creation capabilities.

Answer 56

C The correct answer is C because it fulfills all the high availability requirements while maintaining a single VPC for easier management. Distributing components across multiple Availability Zones ensures redundancy and protection against AZ failures. Using different subnets within each AZ further enhances isolation and reduces the impact of a single subnet outage. Options A and B only utilize a single AZ, making them vulnerable to a single point of failure. Options B and D incorrectly use two VPCs, increasing complexity and hindering efficient network communication.

Answer 57

D Amazon FSx for Windows File Server is the correct answer because the question specifies that the applications are based on Windows operating systems and the company is performing a lift-and-shift migration. Amazon FSx for Windows File Server is a fully managed service that provides file storage compatible with Windows environments, making it the ideal solution for this scenario. Option A, Amazon EBS, is incorrect because it's a block storage service, not a file storage service. Option B, AWS Storage Gateway, is incorrect because it's designed to connect on-premises storage to the cloud, not to directly host files in the cloud. Option C, Amazon EFS, is incorrect because while it's a file storage service, it's not optimized for Windows environments in the same way that Amazon FSx for Windows File Server is.

Answer 58

A. Throughput Optimized HDD (st1) Throughput Optimized HDD (st1) is the most cost-effective option for this scenario because it offers a balance of performance and cost. While SSDs (io2 and gp3) offer faster performance, the primary requirement is cost-effectiveness for storing backups before moving them to S3. The backup process doesn't require the extremely high IOPS of an io2 volume, and gp3, while a good general-purpose option, is likely more expensive than st1 for this large-volume, sequential write operation. Cold HDD (sc1) is designed for infrequent access and is unsuitable for backups that need to be written relatively quickly. The st1 volume type is optimized for sequential workloads, which is ideal for writing large database backups.

Answer 59

D The correct answer is D because routing traffic to an EC2 instance based on an overlay IP address requires manipulating the route table at the VPC level. The overlay IP address is the destination for the route, and the target should be the Elastic Network Interface (ENI) of the active SAP HANA EC2 instance. This ensures that all traffic destined for the overlay IP address is directed to the correct instance. Option A is incorrect because using the private IP address as the target in the route table is not appropriate for an overlay IP address. The overlay IP is a virtual IP and is not directly associated with a private IP. Option B is incorrect because security groups manage inbound and outbound traffic based on ports and protocols, not routing at the network level. They don't handle directing traffic to different instances based on an overlay IP. Option C is incorrect because Network ACLs operate at the subnet level and are not the appropriate mechanism to handle routing traffic based on an overlay IP address. They filter traffic, not route it between instances.

Answer 60

D The correct answer is D because the problem indicates a failure of the instance status check and network connection refusal, suggesting an issue with the instance's drivers. Option A is incorrect because rebooting the instance will not address the underlying driver issue. Option B is incorrect because an instance limit increase is irrelevant to a single instance failing a status check and network connection. Option C is incorrect because while creating a support ticket might eventually resolve the issue, it's less direct and less efficient than first ensuring the source system has necessary drivers. Installing the missing drivers on the source system (D), re-synchronizing the migration, and then relaunching the instance directly addresses the likely root cause of the problem.

Answer 61

A, C A and C are the correct answers because they directly address the database migration from SQL Server to SAP HANA within the context of an SAP NetWeaver system move to AWS. * **A. SAP HANA classical migration:** This method is suitable for migrating from a non-HANA database (like SQL Server) to SAP HANA. It often involves an upgrade step followed by the database migration. * **C. SAP Software Update Manager (SUM) Database Migration Option (DMO) with System Move:** SUM DMO provides a comprehensive approach to migrating the database as part of a larger system landscape change, which includes moving to AWS in this scenario. B is incorrect because system replication is primarily for high availability and disaster recovery, not for initial database migration. D is incorrect as a backup and restore is unsuitable for migrating complex SAP systems. E is incorrect because it's used for copying similar systems; this scenario involves a database type change.

Answer 62

C The correct answer is C because SAP HANA dynamic tiering is an integrated component of the SAP HANA database designed for managing warm data in an extended store. It allows for online data storage, enabling queries and updates, and supports storing up to five times more data in the warm tier than the hot tier. Options A and D involve moving data outside the SAP HANA database to S3, violating the requirement for an integrated solution. Option B, an SAP HANA extension node, doesn't specifically address warm data management in the way described.

Answer 63

A The correct answer is A because SAP kernel versions 7.45 and later are compatible with IMDSv2. Applying the IMDSv2-only restriction without this compatibility would likely cause an SAP outage. Option B is incorrect because Nitro-based instances are not directly relevant to IMDSv1/v2 compatibility. Option C is incorrect as the AWS Data Provider for SAP is unrelated to IMDS version compatibility. Option D is incorrect because stopping the instances is unnecessary and disruptive; upgrading the SAP kernel is the necessary preparatory step.

Answer 64

B, C The correct answers are B and C because: * **B. Migrate the SAP HANA database to an EC2 High Memory instance with a larger number of available vCPUs:** The problem is CPU saturation, not memory or I/O. A larger instance with more vCPUs directly addresses this issue by providing more processing power to handle peak query loads. * **C. Move to a scale-out architecture for SAP HANA with at least three x1.16xlarge instances:** While scaling up (B) is generally preferred first, the persistent 100% CPU utilization suggests that even a larger single instance might eventually hit a bottleneck. A scale-out architecture distributes the workload across multiple instances, improving scalability and resilience. The incorrect answers are: * **A. Reduce the global_allocation_limit parameter to 1,120 GiB:** This is incorrect because the problem is CPU utilization, not memory allocation. Reducing the memory limit will not address the CPU bottleneck. * **D. Modify the Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume type from General Purpose to Provisioned IOPS for all SAP HANA data volumes:** This is unnecessary because I/O wait times are not increasing, indicating that storage is not the bottleneck. * **E. Change to a supported compute optimized instance type for SAP HANA:** This is incorrect because SAP HANA does not certify compute-optimized instances for in-memory databases. Memory-optimized instances (r*, x*, u*) are the appropriate choice.

Answer 65

C The correct answer is C because the SAP license key is tied to a hardware key generated from the system's hardware and OS configuration. In virtualized environments like Amazon EC2, these parameters can change, invalidating the key. Setting the `SLIC_HW_VERSION` environment variable ensures a consistent hardware key, preventing future license invalidations. Options A and D are incorrect because they don't address the root cause of the hardware key changing. Option B is incorrect because it's a workaround, not a permanent solution, and repeatedly obtaining new licenses is inefficient.

Answer 66

B The correct answer is B because a change in hypervisor (from Xen to Nitro) can alter the MAC address of the network interface. SAP licenses are often tied to the MAC address, rendering the existing license invalid after the hypervisor change. Option A is incorrect because the instance ID typically does not change with an EC2 generation update. Option C is incorrect because incompatibility between the SAP JVM and a new instance type would likely manifest as a different error, not specifically a license issue. Option D is incorrect because EC2 generation changes are supported; however, the underlying change in hypervisor and associated MAC address is what causes the license problem.

Answer 67

D Security groups operate at the instance level and network ACLs operate at the subnet level. Neither of these can filter traffic based on FQDNs. AWS WAF (Web Application Firewall) is designed to protect web applications from attacks and does not support FQDN filtering for outbound traffic. Only AWS Network Firewall allows for filtering outbound traffic based on FQDNs, fulfilling the requirement of the allow list policy and the SaaS provider's limitation to only providing FQDNs. Therefore, deploying an AWS Network Firewall and configuring an outbound rule to allow only the specified FQDN is the correct solution.

Answer 68

D The correct answer is D because it addresses the requirement for greater than 60% availability while acknowledging the constraints of the existing infrastructure. Option D utilizes an Auto Scaling group across two Availability Zones with a minimum of four servers. This ensures that even if one entire Availability Zone fails, at least four servers remain operational (meeting the 60% availability requirement). Option A is incorrect because partition placement groups do not inherently provide the same level of high availability as Availability Zones. Option B is incorrect because the problem statement specifies only two Availability Zones are available. Option C, while seemingly reasonable, lacks the automated scaling and recovery provided by an Auto Scaling group; if a server failure occurs, it does not automatically replace failed instances.

Answer 69

C The correct answer is C because Oracle databases for SAP workloads on AWS require Oracle Enterprise Linux. Options A and B are incorrect because they use SUSE Linux, which is not supported by Oracle for SAP on AWS. Option D is incorrect because it uses a sequential export/import process, which would lead to more downtime compared to the parallel approach in option C. The parallel export/import method in option C minimizes downtime.

Answer 70

A The most cost-effective option is A because it leverages backups stored in S3, which is generally a less expensive storage solution than using EBS (option D) or maintaining a continuously replicated secondary instance (options B and C). Options B and C are more expensive because they require a constantly running secondary instance, even if it's less powerful (option B). The company's tolerance for a longer RTO and RPO makes restoring from backups a viable and cost-effective solution.

Answer 71

D The discussion strongly suggests that option D is the correct answer. Multiple users point to AWS and SAP documentation indicating that this error message often arises when the SAP HANA system in multi-tenant container mode isn't correctly added to SAP HANA Studio, specifically noting the need to select "multiple container mode." Options A, B, and C address potential issues with the Backint agent configuration and permissions, which are not the root cause indicated by the error message and the overwhelming consensus in the discussion.

Answer 72

B The best option is B because it automates the process of stopping and starting the non-critical instances using Amazon EventBridge and CloudWatch. This requires the least administrative effort compared to manual intervention (C) or changing the entire storage type (D). Option A is not the best choice because it introduces the risk of instance interruptions if there is insufficient spot instance capacity available. Option C requires manual intervention and significant administrative overhead. Option D would negatively impact performance and is not a cost-effective solution for non-critical systems.

Answer 73

D The correct answer is D because it balances cost savings with necessary capacity. Four Reserved Instances cover the base workload, providing a significant cost discount compared to on-demand pricing. Two On-Demand Instances are added only for the two peak usage days, addressing the high-importance, non-reschedulable workloads without the commitment or potential risks associated with Reserved Instances for this variable use. Option A is incorrect because Spot Instances are unpredictable and could be interrupted during peak processing, jeopardizing critical payroll and credit data operations. Option B is too expensive as it continuously uses six instances, even during periods of lower demand. Option C is also unnecessarily expensive since only four instances are required for regular operation.

Answer 74

A The discussion highlights option A as the most likely correct answer. While option B uses CloudEndure, it doesn't guarantee a pre-reserved capacity at the required size; it only promises a smaller instance which needs scaling during DR, potentially delaying RTO. Option C, while using a hot standby, may not be the most cost-effective. Option D, relying on backups and point-in-time recovery, would likely exceed the required RPO and RTO. Option A leverages SAP HANA system replication for near real-time replication, utilizes a single EC2 instance for both QA and production (cost optimization), and allows for a relatively quick failover by shutting down QA. The use of a single instance implies a guaranteed capacity reservation.

Answer 75

A A is correct because changing the instance type of an EC2 instance requires stopping the instance first. Since the PAS is running on the EC2 instance, the SAP system must be stopped before stopping the instance to avoid data corruption or system instability. After changing the instance type, the instance and the SAP system can be restarted. B is incorrect because changing the instance type while the instance is running is generally not supported and may lead to data loss or system failure. C is incorrect because terminating the instance permanently deletes it. The goal is to scale up, not destroy and recreate the instance. D is incorrect because the provided AWS CLI command contains a typo ("c5a.2xlargel" instead of "c5a.2xlarge") and also attempts to modify the instance type while the instance is running, which is unreliable and potentially destructive.

Answer 76

C The correct answer is C because the error message indicates an access and authorization problem with Amazon CloudWatch and Amazon EC2 instances, not a connectivity issue or a missing agent. The AWS Data Provider for SAP needs appropriate IAM permissions to access these services. Creating an IAM role with the necessary permissions and attaching it to the EC2 instances grants the required access. Option A is incorrect because while the CloudWatch agent is used for monitoring, the error is specifically about authorization, not the absence of the agent. Option B is incorrect because it focuses on manual installation, which is not the root cause of the authorization problem. Option D is incorrect because the Systems Manager Agent is unrelated to the access and authorization error; the problem lies in the IAM permissions required by the Data Provider.

Answer 77

C The most cost-effective solution is to use AWS Site-to-Site VPN to connect the on-premises network to the AWS environment and connect the POC systems to the existing on-premises SAP Solution Manager and SAProuter. This avoids the cost of setting up and maintaining additional SAP Solution Manager and SAProuter instances in AWS. Options A and B involve unnecessary additional infrastructure costs. Option D is irrelevant to monitoring and connecting to SAP Support.

Answer 78

C, D, F The discussion section overwhelmingly indicates that options C, D, and F are the correct choices. These options address the core problem: the lack of sufficient performance metrics for SAP support. * **C. Enable detailed monitoring for Amazon CloudWatch on each Amazon EC2 instance where SAP workloads are running:** This provides the necessary performance data that SAP support requires to troubleshoot the issue. * **D. Install, configure, and run the AWS Data Provider for SAP on each Amazon EC2 instance where SAP workloads are running:** This ensures that relevant SAP performance data is collected and readily available for analysis. * **F. Enable SAP enhanced monitoring through a SAPOSCOL enhanced function:** This enhances the monitoring capabilities within the SAP system itself, providing further crucial data to SAP support. Options A, B, and E are incorrect because: * **A. Buy an SAP license from AWS. Ensure that the SAP license is installed:** This is unrelated to the lack of performance metrics. The company already has SAP licenses; the problem is monitoring, not licensing. * **B. Select only an AWS Migration Acceleration Program (MAP) certified managed service provider (MSP):** While helpful for migrations, this doesn't directly solve the problem of missing performance metrics for SAP support. * **E. Integrate AWS Systems Manager with SAP Solution Manager to provide alerts about SAP parameter configuration drift:** This addresses configuration issues, but not the immediate need for performance data to resolve the reported performance problem.

Answer 79

D The correct answer is D because using an overlay IP address outside the VPC's CIDR block, combined with dynamic route table updates, provides the necessary high availability for the SAP S/4HANA system. This setup allows for seamless failover to the active node in the cluster without disrupting external access. Option A is incorrect because reassigning a secondary private IP address manually is not a scalable or automated solution for high availability. Option B is incorrect because while Elastic IPs can be remapped, this process is not integrated with the cluster's failover mechanism and may introduce downtime. Option C is incorrect because using a public IP address for inter-instance communication within a private subnet is not best practice and increases security risks.

Answer 80

D The best option is D because it meets the RPO and RTO requirements cost-effectively without requiring changes to existing SAP HANA backup parameters. Option D utilizes asynchronous replication (ASYNC) for the SAP HANA database, which is suitable for achieving a 15-minute RPO. CloudEndure is used for the application servers, providing continuous replication. Finally, DataSync ensures real-time synchronization of the NFS file shares. Options A and B are incorrect because they require changing the SAP HANA log backup frequency, violating the requirement to not modify existing parameters. Option C is less cost-effective because CloudEndure replication for the entire environment, including the database, may be more expensive than using a combination of ASYNC replication and CloudEndure for only the application servers. Additionally, the consistency of the database replication with CloudEndure might not be guaranteed to meet the specified RPO.

Answer 81

B B is correct because AWS DataSync is specifically designed for efficient and secure data transfer between on-premises systems and AWS services, including NFS and Amazon EFS. It supports scheduling and encryption, fulfilling all the requirements. A is incorrect because rsync, while useful for file synchronization, lacks the built-in features for scheduling and encryption required for this scenario at the scale and frequency needed. It would require significant custom scripting and potentially additional tools to meet all the requirements. C is incorrect because AWS Snowcone is suitable for transferring large amounts of data offline but is not appropriate for frequent, scheduled, bidirectional synchronization. It is not a real-time solution. D is incorrect because while AWS Direct Connect provides a dedicated network connection, it doesn't directly handle file synchronization. It would require additional software and configuration to achieve the necessary functionality.

Answer 82

C The correct answer is C because: AWS does not support AIX. Oracle requires Oracle Linux for both the database and SAP NetWeaver application servers. Option C fulfills this requirement with a heterogeneous migration (changing the OS from AIX to Oracle Linux), minimizing changes while maintaining compatibility. Option A is incorrect because while using a dedicated host can sometimes simplify migration, it's not necessary in this scenario and doesn't address the core incompatibility of AIX on AWS. Option B is incorrect because AIX is not supported on AWS. Option D is incorrect because Windows is not the recommended or supported operating system for this SAP and Oracle Database configuration.

Answer 83

C C is correct because it automates the process of moving infrequently accessed files to a cheaper storage tier (EFS Standard-IA) within the EFS file system. This minimizes administrative overhead compared to manually scanning and deleting files (A), which is time-consuming and error-prone. Options B and D involve moving data to S3 Glacier and Glacier Deep Archive, respectively, which are designed for archival storage with slower retrieval times, directly conflicting with the requirement for quick access during installations, updates, and system refreshes. The Glacier vault lock in option D further restricts access and is inappropriate for files needing frequent retrieval.

Answer 84

A, C The correct answers are A and C because the AWS Launch Wizard for SAP requires the SAP software to be pre-uploaded to an Amazon S3 bucket. This involves downloading the software from the SAP Support Portal (option A) and uploading it to S3. The S3 file path must then be formatted correctly according to Launch Wizard's specifications (option C). Option B is incorrect because the Launch Wizard doesn't automatically download the software using S-user credentials. Option D is incorrect because while CloudFormation can deploy SAP landscapes, the question specifically asks about using the Launch Wizard. Option E is incorrect because the Launch Wizard handles EC2 instance provisioning as part of its automated deployment process; manually provisioning them beforehand is unnecessary and contradicts the automation goal.

Answer 85

B The correct answer is B because it addresses the unreliable internet connectivity by using AWS Snowball Edge for physical data transfer. SUM DMO with System Move efficiently migrates and converts the database to SAP HANA in a single step, minimizing downtime. Option A is incorrect because relying on an unreliable internet connection for SAP HANA system replication is risky and likely to fail. Option C is incorrect because while using Snowball Edge is a good approach for the network limitations, using system replication with initialization through backup and restore is less efficient than using SUM DMO with System Move for database conversion. Option D is incorrect because Amazon EFS is a network file system and wouldn't solve the problem of unreliable internet connectivity between the remote location and AWS. Using Snowball Edge, a physical device, is necessary in this scenario.

Answer 86

C The correct answer is C because it uses VPC endpoints for Amazon CloudWatch and Amazon EC2. This ensures that no traffic leaves the Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) and therefore does not traverse the public internet, fulfilling the key security requirement. The IAM policy is correctly scoped to only grant the necessary permissions (following the principle of least privilege), preventing unnecessary access. Option A is incorrect because it uses REST calls to public endpoints, violating the requirement of not allowing any system information to traverse the public internet. Option B is incorrect because it uses a NAT gateway, which, while improving security compared to direct public access, is less secure than VPC endpoints. Option D is incorrect because it grants "all actions" for all EC2 resources, violating the principle of least privilege and significantly increasing security risk. This is a far broader permission set than necessary.

Answer 87

C and E The correct answer is C and E because: * **C. Use an overlay IP address as a virtual IP address:** This is crucial for high availability. The virtual IP address should be configured to float between the primary and secondary nodes. When a failover occurs, the virtual IP address automatically moves to the secondary node, ensuring continuous application access. * **E. Choose an overlay IP address outside the VPC CIDR block that hosts the application and the database:** This avoids IP address conflicts within the VPC. Using an IP address outside the VPC's CIDR range prevents potential clashes with other resources and ensures the virtual IP is uniquely addressable. Option A is incorrect because a secondary IP address on the primary node doesn't solve the failover access issue; the VIP needs to switch to the secondary node. Option B is incorrect because the VIP should not be associated with only one node (primary or secondary). Option D is also incorrect for the same reason; it ties the VIP to a specific node and thus negates the high availability setup.

Practice Questions - Amazon AWS Certified SAP on AWS - Specialty PAS-C01 Flashcards

(130 cards)