Practice Quizes Flashcards
(145 cards)
1
Q
What is the legislative goal of Alberta’s Occupational Health and Safety legislation?
A
To ensure a safe and healthy work environment for all workers.
2
Q
A proactive approach to safety involves:
1) The identification of hazards.
2) Regular worksite inspections.
3) Analysis of potentially hazardous situations.
4) Controlling hazards before they cause accidents.
5) All of the above.
A
5) All of the above.
3
Q
trained and who has sufficient experience to safely perform work without ________________.
1) Supervision
2) Tools
3) MSDS’s
4) Hazards
A
1) Supervision
4
Q
Which of the following respirators must have positive pressure in the face piece?
1) Gas mask.
2) Cartridge.
3) Dust mask.
4) Self-contained breathing apparatus.
A
4) Self-contained breathing apparatus.
5
Q
Which of the following is not a determinant for deciding which type of respiratory protection is needed?
1) Amount of contaminant.
2) Oxygen levels.
3) Comfort.
4) Length of exposure
A
3) Comfort.
6
Q
What is the minimum height at which fall protection is required?
1) 2.0m
2) 3.0m
3) 4.0m
4) 5.0m
A
2) 3.0m
7
Q
Which of the following will protect your eyes from volatile gases?
1) Supplied air breathing apparatus.
2) Safety glasses.
3) Safety goggles.
4) Welders goggles.
A
1) Supplied air breathing apparatus.
8
Q
How often must PPE be inspected?
1) At the beginning of each shift.
2) Once a week.
3) Before each use.
4) Once a month.
A
3) Before each use.
9
Q
What does the acronym WHMIS stand for?
1) Workplace Handling Materials Information System.
2) Worksite Hazardous Materials Information System.
3) Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System.
4) Workplace Hazardous Information System.
A
3) Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System.
10
Q
Why are some materials, such as explosives and radioactive materials, exempt from WHMIS?
1) They are controlled produces
2) They contain confidential ingredients
3) They have no MSDS
4) They are adequately covered under other legislation
A
4) They are adequately covered under other legislation
11
Q
Which Hazard class under WHMIS has many divisions?
1) Compressed Gasses
2) Flammable Material
3) Corrosive Material
4) Dangerously Reactive Material
A
2) Flammable Material
12
Q
Which of the following devices is not an energy isolating devices?
1) A pneumatic control valve
2) An electrical circuit breaker
3) A disconnect switch
4) A block valve.
A
1) A pneumatic control valve
13
Q
The standard devices used to isolate piping and vessels are:
1) Valves and blank flanges.
2) Valves and orifice plates.
3) Knockout vessels and blank flanges.
4) None of the above
A
1) Valves and blank flanges.
14
Q
When performing isolation on a motor driven pump, the recommended procedure is to isolate the:
1) Drainage valve first.
2) Driver last.
3) Driver first.
4) Drainage valve last.
A
3) Driver first.
15
Q
Which one of the following is not a legislative requirement for category F type fittings?
1) The manufacturer of the fitting must register the fitting with the regulating authority.
2) Fittings shall be permanently marked.
3) The fitting must be manufactured in Canada.
4) Level glasses should have adequate lighting to be read easily.
A
3) The fitting must be manufactured in Canada
16
Q
When discussing hazardous areas, which zone contains an explosive gas-air mixture that is continuously present or present for long periods?
1) Zone 0
2) Zone 1
3) Zone 2
4) Zone 3
A
1) Zone 0
17
Q
A turbine flow meter has just been brought into your shop and it requires maintenance. It was used to measure the flow of benzene, a known carcinogenic substance. Where should you go to obtain guidance on the selection of personal protective equipment?
1) Plant operators manual
2) turbine meter manual
3) MSDS for benzene
4) Occupational Health and Safety Act
A
3) MSDS for benzene
18
Q
Which one of these is not one of the safety requirements for operating a drill press in shop class?
1) Clamp all work firmly to the table.
2) Use lubricating oil for all drilling.
3) Remove the chuck key before turning on the motor.
4) Tie back all hair and loose clothing.
A
2)Use lubricating oil for all drilling.
19
Q
All of the following with one exception are considered to be non-cutting hand tools A) screwdrivers B) metal stamps C) cross peen hammer D) files
A
D) files
20
Q
This type of peen hammer is used for precise bending of plate or rod A) Ball Peen B) Cross Peen C) Straight Peen D) Dead Blow
A
C) Straight Peen
21
Q
From the following selection, which hammer is used when the most force is required A) Dead Blow B) Sledge C) Ball Peen D) Hand Hammer
A
B) Sledge
22
Q
This hammer is used in cases where swinging room for a conventional hammer isn't available A) Hand Hammer B) Sledge C) Dead Blow D) Soft faced
A
A) Hand Hammer
23
Q
This hammer can come with interchangeable material types of faces A) Sledge B) Deadblow C) Peen type hammers D) Soft faced
A
D) Soft faced
24
Q
From our lecture class, which of the following hammers would be permitted to directly strike instrument tubing? A) Ball Peen B) Sledge C) Hand Hammer D) Deadblow
A
D) Deadblow
25
```
What tool is used for creating holes in gasket material
A) Center Punch
B) Hole Punch
C) Uppercut Punch
D) Prick Punch
```
B) Hole Punch
26
```
From the lecture class, what tools is used for creating lettering and numbering for custom instrument tags
A) center punches
B) Drift Punches
C) Metal stamp punches
D) Jab Punches
```
C) Metal stamp punches
27
```
From the theory class what type of punch is used to finish driving a pin out through its hole
A) Counter Punch
B) Drift Punch
C) Center Punch
D) Prick Punch
E) Pin Punch
```
E) Pin Punch
28
From the theory class, what is another name for a drift punch?
A) Starting punch
B) Finishing Punch
C) Hook Punch
D) Straight Punch
A) Starting punch
29
```
These tools can be used to prevent punches or chisels from flying off erratically
A) good, stout gloves
B) punch tip mushroomers
C) Metal stamp orientators
D) chisel holder
```
D) chisel holder
30
```
When punching with metal stamps, what would be the best surface to stamp over?
A) Wood table
B) Anvil
C) Vise jaw
D) Concrete floor
```
B) Anvil
31
```
From the theory class, during which phase of Instrumentation would you most likely see stamping being carried out?
A) Design phase
B) Construction Phase
C) Commissioning Phase
D) Maintenance Phase
```
C) Commissioning Phase
32
```
This type of hammer can be used in conjunction with a hammer wrench
A) Dead Blow
B) Ball Peen
C) Soft Faced
D) Sledge
```
D) Sledge
33
When it is known that you will be striking your work in a vice, have it orientated so that the force of your blow will be directed towards the:
A) movable jaw
B) Fixed Jaw
C) You cant hammer anything clamped in the jaws. Place your work on the slide bar to hammer
B) Fixed Jaw
34
The max torque that should be applied to any vice handle would be
A) Just the amount you can apply with your own 2 hands
B) Whatever can be applied with the help of a dead blow hammer with a soft face struck off the vice handle
C) Whatever can be applied with the help of a ball peen hammer struck off the handle
D)Whatever can be applied by elongating the vice handle by placing a long pipe over top of the vice handle
A) Just the amount you can apply with your own 2 hands
35
```
This would most likely be the type of vice mounted to a tripod for mobile pipe threading
A) Machinist's vice
B) Utility Vice
C) Pipe Vice
D) Chain type pipe vice
```
D) Chain type pipe vice
36
```
This type of screwdriver can be commonly reconditioned in the case of wear or breakage
A) Clutch Head
B) Philips
C) Robertson
D) Flat blade
```
D) Flat blade
37
```
Average hacksaw blade length is usually how many inches long?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 12
D) 15
```
C) 12
38
```
The ___________ of hacksaw blade is the amount the cutting teeth are turned to one side from the center of the blade and the pattern used in turning the teeth
A) Pitch
B) Set
C) Kerf
D) Swarf
```
B) Set
39
```
As far as hacksaw blade material goes, one would pick a "flexible back" type for what type of cutting?
A)tool steel
B) cast iron
C) brass
D) aluminum
```
D) aluminum
40
```
The Best hacksaw blade selection for cutting structural steel would be one with:
A) 14 tpi
B) 18 tpi
C) 24 tpi
D) 32 tpi
```
A) 14 tpi
41
```
This hacksaw blade tooth count would be least prone to clogging
A) 14 tpi
B) 18 tpi
C) 24 tpi
D) 32 tpi
```
A) 14 tpi
42
When cutting off nuts from old stainless steel tubing for recycling, the best hacksaw blade choice would be:
A) 14 tpi
B) 18 tpi
C) 24 tpi
D) 32 tpi
D) 32 tpi
43
A hacksaw with a dull blade will create a smaller kerf than one that is new and sharp
A) True
B) False
A) True
44
```
When selecting a file for use in removing the maximum amount of material in the shortest amount of time, what "cut" type should one select
A) Rough cut
B) Coarse cut
C) Bastard cut
D) Smooth cut
```
A) Rough cut
45
```
This type of file "cut" would be selected for the nicest finish to the work
A) Rough
B) Coarse
C) Bastard
D) Smooth
E) Dead smooth
```
E) Dead smooth
46
When executing a heavy cut with a file, correct procedure would be to:
A) Use a diagonal approach to the work with a file with a 2 handed type grip
B) Use a sideways approach with the file using a 2 handed grip
C) Approach the work straight-on with the file using a two handed grip with the force applied only on the forward stroke
D) Approach the work straight-on with the file using a two handed grip with the force applied only on the return stroke
C) Approach the work straight-on with the file using a two handed grip with the force applied only on the forward stroke
47
```
For the best finish to the work using a given file one would use this technique
A) Draw Filing
B) Double Cutting
C) Cross cutting
D) Rounding
```
A) Draw Filing
48
```
The correct technical term for when a file's teeth get clogged up with material is called:
A) Clogging
B) Pinning
C) Encumbrance
D) Tooth blockage
```
B) Pinning
49
```
The correct technical term for the tool used to clean out material clogging between file teeth is called a:
A) File brush
B) File cross cut
C) File card
D) File tooth cleaner thingamabob
```
C) File card
50
```
Pliers 1 – Of the following pliers, the best choice for use where space is limited would be the:
A) Pump plier
B) Needle nose plier
C) Lineman's plier
D) Vise grip plier
```
B) Needle nose plier
51
```
Pliers 2 – The following plier would be used where the tightest grip possible would be needed:
A) Slip joint plier
B) Needle nose pliers
C) Diagonal cutting pliers
D) Vise grip pliers
```
D) Vise grip pliers
52
```
Pliers 3 – As per the class lesson, from this selection of pliers which type would be very heavily used by electricians for general purpose use, cutting, and for twisting wires?
A) Slip joint plier
B) Vise grip pliers
C) Lineman's pliers
D) Needle nose pliers
```
C) Lineman's pliers
53
```
Chisels 1 - As per the class lesson, if a technician was to select any one type of chisel for their tool box, it should probably be a ________ chisel
A) Cold
B) Cape
C) Diamond
D) Rivet Buster
```
A) Cold
54
Abrasives 1 – It would be acceptable to fit a grinding disc rated for 8000 rpm to a grinder that spins at 15000 rpm
False
55
Abrasives 2 – Lapping is the process of:
A) Grinding two surfaces together so that their shapes conform to each other
B) Using acid on a metal surface to flatten it
C) Using sandpaper in decreasing coarseness in order to
A) Grinding two surfaces together so that their shapes conform to each other
56
```
Drilling 1 – Drill bits can be sized using this system
A) Fractional
B) Numerical
C) Letters
D) Metric
E) All of the above
```
E) All of the above
57
Drilling 2 – The type of drill bit that is designed to grabbed in between drill chuck jaws are called:
A) Straight shank bit
B) Tapered shank bit
C) Chuck-able bit
A) Straight shank bit
58
```
rilling 3 – The correct term for the "channels" that are supplied on drill bits to allow for cut material removal is:
A) Tangs
B) Chords
C) Flutes
D) Swarf channels
```
C) Flutes
59
Drilling 4 – this type of drill bit requires the use of a drift for its removal from a spindle
A) Straight shank bit
B) Tapered shank bit
C) Chuck-able bit
B) Tapered shank bit
60
Drilling 5 – even when using a properly aligned drill press, this should be done to the material before fixing it in the vise and drilling to prevent "walking" of the bit
A) Annealing the work piece metal using a torch to soften it
B) Hardening the work piece metal using a torch to harden it
C) Accurately apply a center punch mark to the work
D) Nothing. This is a drill press and they always drill perfectly straight
C) Accurately apply a center punch mark to the work
61
Drilling 6 – when drilling a hole in preparation for tapping female threads, the drill bit should always be __________ than the machine screw that is to be fit into the hole
A) Smaller
B) Larger
A) Smaller
62
Drilling 9 – A drill bit is found to be not as effective as it once was and upon inspection the bit is showing excessive wear at the corners of its cutting edges. The most likely culprit causing this problem would be:
A) Spindle speed is too high
B) Too much feed pressure was applied to the handle
C) Too much lip clearance
A) Spindle speed is too high
63
Drilling 10 – with a sensitive drill press, how is the feed rate set for drilling?
A) Setting the feed value for the mechanized feeder
B) Manually applying enough force to the feed lever so that the action of the bit can be felt
C) All sensitive drill presses come equipped with an automated feed adjuster that requires no input at all
B) Manually applying enough force to the feed lever so that the action of the bit can be felt
64
```
Thread cutting 1 – once the appropriate sized hole is drilled into the material, the best type of tap to start internal threads would be a ______________ type
A) Taper
B) Plug
C) Bottoming
D) Chaser
```
A) Taper
65
```
Thread cutting 2 – to finish threading a hole for internal threads, use this type of tap:
A) Taper
B) Plug
C) Bottoming
D) Chaser
```
C) Bottoming
66
Thread cutting 5 – It's a good idea to periodically back the die or tap a quarter turn or so to break the chips when cutting harder materials like steel
A) True
67
What is a control valve?
A) A final control element
B) The device that implements the strategy dictated by the controller
C) A device that manipulates flow
D) All components in an assembly used to manipulate flow including actuator and positioner
E) All of the above
E) All of the above
68
```
A device that is mounted on the actuator to complement the actuator's function and make it a complete operating unit
A) Accessory
B) Final control element
C) Controller
D) Relay
```
A) Accessory
69
```
A pneumatic , hydraulic or electrically powered device that supplies force and motion to open or close a valve
A) Positioner
B) Actuator
C) Final control element
D) Volume booster
```
B) Actuator
70
```
Technical term for the rate of flow through a valve under stated conditions
A) Gain
B) Valve characteristic
C) Valve sizing
D) Valve capacity
```
D) Valve capacity
71
```
The range through which an input signal can be varied upon reversal of direction, without observing an observable change in the output signal is caused by:
A) Friction
B) Dead time
C) Dead band
D) Hysteresis
```
C) Dead band
72
```
The most common type of final control element found in industry would be a:
A) Control valve
B) Damper/louver
C) Variable speed drive pump
D) On off switching devices
```
A) Control valve
73
When talking about a valve's characteristic, we are referring to:
A) The valve's closure member's % of positon vs. the actual % of flow rate
B) The physical orientation of how the valve is mounted in the line
C) Actual position of the closure member vs. the input signal in the valve
D) The effects of loop gain upon the valve
A) The valve's closure member's % of positon vs. the actual % of flow rate
74
```
A part of the valve assembly used to seal against leakage around the valve disk or stem
A) Bushing
B) Cage
C) Packing
D) Actuator
```
C) Packing
75
```
A position controller that is mechanically connected to a moving part of a final control element or its actuator and automatically adjusts its output to the actuator to maintain a desired position in proportion to the input signal
A) Relay
B) Volume booster
C) Positioner
D) Travel indicator
```
C) Positioner
76
```
Another name for the excessive friction caused by overtightened packing and its resultant dead band is:
A) Shaft wind up
B) Hysteresis
C) Stiction
D) Stem force
```
C) Stiction
77
```
The internal components of a valve that modulate the flow of the controlled fluid. The parts of the valve that are in contact with the process:
A) Valve body
B) Cage
C) Bonnet
D) Trim
```
D) Trim
78
```
Can be encased in the yoke or the actuator that moves the actuator stem in a direction opposite to that created by diaphragm pressure
A) Diaphragm casing
B) Yoke
C) Packing box
D) Spring
```
D) Spring
79
```
The portion of the valve that contains the packing box and stem seal and can guide the stem:
A) Valve body
B) Bonnet
C) Bushing
D) Cage
```
B) Bonnet
80
```
On some globe valves this is the part of the trim that surrounds the closure member and can provide flow characterization and/or a sealing surface and provides stability for the plug
A) Bonnet
B) Casing
C) Cage
D) Yoke cylinder
```
C) Cage
81
```
An example of a characterized cage for a globe valve be:
A) Quick opening
B) Linear
C) Equal percentage
D) All of the above
```
D) All of the above
82
```
In a globe valve, the closure member is usually called a:
A) Seat
B) Plug
C) Disc
D) Ball
```
B) Plug
83
When the word "assembly" is used in conjunction alongside terms like actuator, bonnet, valve, or control valve (ie…actuator assembly) it refers to all the parts that come "assembled" with that particular part
A) True
B) False
A) True
84
```
The main pressure boundary of the valve that also provides the pipe connecting ends, the fluid flow passageway, and supports the seating surfaces and the valve closure member
Correct Answer
A) Valve body
B) Valve assembly
C) Control valve assembly
D) Actuator assembly
```
A) Valve body
85
```
This term is a broad ranging generalization for the closure member of either a reciprocating or rotary valve:
A) Plug
B) Port
C) Globe
D) Disc
```
A) Plug
86
```
With a rotary valve, this is used to convert liner actuator motion into rotary motion. Usually this part connected to the rotary valve shaft by close tolerance splines. In class I referred to this part as the "control horn"
A) Actuator lever
B) Valve stem
C) Actuator stem
D) Stem connector
```
A) Actuator lever
87
```
This is the flow control orifice of a control valve:
A) Plug
B) Port
C) Control valve hole
D) Vena contracta
```
B) Port
88
All rotary valves have the ability to work in a reverse flow applicationsd
A) True
B) False
C) It depends on the style of valve, some might require actuator modification to operate properly
C) It depends on the style of valve, some might require actuator modification to operate properly
89
This type of removable flange is can be used if the valve body material is prohibitly expensive. It fits over the valve body flow connection and is generally held in place by means of a retaining ring.
A) Wafer connection
B) Ring-type-joint flange
C) Separable flange
C) Separable flange
90
This rigidly connects the valve body to the actuator
A) Actuator fork
B) Yoke
C) Valve fork
B) Yoke
91
```
This type of ball valve employs a complete spherical closure member with a flow passage that can equal or match the pipe inner diameter
A) Segmented ball valve
B) V- notch ball valve
C) Eccentric ball valve
D) Full ball valve
```
D) Full ball valve
92
```
This type of ball valve enables the ability for varying the size and shape of the flow stream – kind of like what a globe valve can do
A) Twin port ball valve
B) V- notch ball valve
C) Eccentric ball valve
D) Full ball valve
```
B) V- notch ball valve
93
```
As per the theory lecture, a butterfly valve that is generally designed more for throttling as opposed for tight shutoff would be referred to a____________ type:
A) Swing through
B) Lined
C) Eccentric
D) Dynamically designed
```
A) Swing through
94
```
As per the theory lecture, a butterfly valve designed mostly for tight shut-off applications is called a _____________ type:
A) Swing through
B) Lined
C) Eccentric
D) Dynamically designed
```
B) Lined
95
```
High dynamic torque can limit the movement of this disc type in a butterfly valve to 60 degrees and under…vastly limiting the useful control range
A) Swing through disk
B) Dynamically designed
C) Eccentric disk
D) Conventional disk
```
D) Conventional disk
96
```
A valve positioner would require this in order to process the actual positioning of a control valve. Can be a mechanical coupling in some positioners or a magnetic sensor in others
A) Closure member guide
B) Feedback signal
C) Spring rate
D) Actuator lever
```
B) Feedback signal
97
```
The term used for describing how much force is required to compress a spring a certain distance
A) Actuator rating
B) Spring compressibility
C) Bench set
D) Spring rate
```
D) Spring rate
98
```
This is the technical name for the wafer style valve body
A) Separable flange type
B) Threaded
C) Oreo Cookie
D) Flangeless Valve
```
D) Flangeless Valve
99
```
The term used for the calibration of a valve actuator before it is to be put into service:
A) Travel indicator adjustment
B) Flow characteristic modification
C) Bench se
D) Spring rate
```
C) Bench set
100
```
An actuator in which power is supplied in either direction
A) Double acting
B) Reverse acting
C) Direct acting
D) Position actuated
```
A) Double acting
101
```
Of the following valves, which one should have the highest recovery
A) Full port ball
B) Plug valve
C) Conventional globe
D) Cage guided globe
```
A) Full port ball
102
```
Of the following valves, which one should have the lowest recovery?
A) Full port ball
B) V-ball
C) Conventional globe
D) Knife gate
```
C) Conventional globe
103
```
Instability in the control system for the input to a control valve. Usually observed as repeatable cycling or oscillating from zero to full signal
A) Calibration cycle
B) Calibration curve
C) Hunting
D) Stem unbalance
```
C) Hunting
104
```
The point of highest velocity and lowest static pressure within the valve (where cavitation starts)
Correct Answer
A) Vena contracta
B) Vena expanda
C) Flashing point
D) Cavitation point
```
A) Vena contracta
105
```
The following globe valve body style is the simplest and most commonly used:
A) Three way
B) Full port globe
C) Single port
D) Double ported
```
C) Single port
106
Given a pressure within a pipeline, which style of globe valve would require the largest actuator (provide the most thrust) to operate normally?
A) Single ported, seat sealed plug
B) Cage guided balanced plug
C) Double ported
A) Single ported, seat sealed plug
107
The following type of globe valve should have the highest capacity for as given pipeline size (allowing for the highest flow through)
A) Single ported, seat sealed plug
B) Cage guided balanced plug
C) Double ported
C) Double ported
108
```
The type of valve body would be required for the purpose of mixing or diverting:
A) Single ported, seat sealed plug
B) Cage guided balanced plug
C) Double ported
D) Three way
```
D) Three way
109
```
This type of valve body would require the least amount of space within a pipeline
A) Full port ball
B) Segmental ball
C) Butterfly
D) Globe
```
C) Butterfly
110
```
This type of valve connection is used frequently for small valves under 2" and is generally the most economical
A) Socket Welded
B) Butt welded
C) Flanged
D) Threaded or screwed
```
D) Threaded or screwed
111
```
valve requiring frequent maintenance and removal from a pipeline should have which type of end connections?
A) Socket Welded
B) Butt welded
C) Flanged
D) Threaded or screwed
```
C) Flanged
112
```
This type of valve end connection would be most prone to leakage and is therefore used in lower pressure applications
A) Socket welded
B) Butt welded
C) Flanged
D) Threaded or screwed
```
D) Threaded or screwed
113
```
Removable bonnets are usually found on which type of valve?
A) Linear/ reciprocating
B) Butterfly valve
C) Rotary valve
D) Ball valve
```
A) Linear/ reciprocating
114
An extended bonnet is usually an indication of ______________?
A) That the valve is of the rotary variety
B) That the valve uses graphite packing
C) The valve is used in extreme temperature applications
D) The valve is used for high thrust applications
C) The valve is used in extreme temperature applications
115
```
These types of bonnets are used when no leakage from the valve stem can be tolerated
A) Extended
B) Standard bonnet
C) Bellows seal
D) Enviro-seal bonnet
```
C) Bellows seal
116
PTFE packing is not a good choice for very low temperature applications because of what reason
A) Loss of lubricity at low temps.
B) Breakdown of PTFE materials at low temps
C) Frost on the valve stem can chew away at the packing
D) None of the above. PTFE is highly recommended for low temperature applications
C) Frost on the valve stem can chew away at the packing
117
his type of packing would be used for very high temperatures
A) Graphite
B) PTFE
C) Kalrez
A) Graphite
118
```
From the packing selection below, which type would pose the highest amount of friction onto the valve stem?
A) Single PTFE V-ring
B) Enviro-seal PTFE
C) Enviro-seal duplex
D) Enviro-seal Graphite ULF
```
D) Enviro-seal Graphite ULF
119
The most common type of actuator in use today due to its simplicity and dependability is the:
A) Pneumatically operated
B) Hydraulically operated
C) Electrically operated (stepper motor type)
A) Pneumatically operated
120
```
Of the pneumatically operated actuators listed here, which would have the ability to supply the most thrust with the most speed over the largest travel path for a given reciprocating valve?
A) Diaphragm and spring
B) Linear piston
C) Rack and pinion
D) Hydraulic
```
B) Linear piston
121
```
From the theory class presentation, which type of rotary actuator would employ they largest spring size for a given line size?
A) Electric
B) Scotch yoke
C) Rack and pinion
D) Diaphragm
```
B) Scotch yoke
122
```
This device is used on valves that have very large actuators in order to speed up their response times
A) Valve positioner
B) I/P
C) Solenoid
D) Volume booster
```
D) Volume booster
123
```
This device is usually installed inline within the input signal tubing right before the actuator casing to ensure the valve fails to it safe positon in case of loss of power
A) Valve positioner
B) I/P
C) Solenoid
D) Volume booster
```
C) Solenoid
124
```
In some plants it can be common to see redundant amounts of these devices installed inline within the input signal tubing right before the actuator casing to ensure the valve wont operate unless all parts of the plant are running satisfactorily
A) Valve positioner
B) I/P
C) Solenoid
D) Volume booster
```
C) Solenoid
125
True or False, it is best common practice to use nested bushings instead of swages for reducing or expanding from different pipe sizes
A) True
B) FALSE
B) FALSE
126
```
Stainless steel general purpose tubing with a size designation of ½" will have a true O.D of:
Question options:
A) 3/8"
B) ½"
C) 5/8"
D) ¾"
```
B) ½"
127
Which of the following is not a true advantage of using tube over threaded pipe for a given application?
Question options:
A) Tube is generally easier to bend because of its thinner walls, but still exhibits great strength
B) Usually tube requires less fittings than pipe would, therefore less leak points
C) The flow inside of tubing should be more streamlined than pipe, therefore less pressure drops
D) Tube fabrication is always cheaper than pipe in regards to material costs
D) Tube fabrication is always cheaper than pipe in regards to material costs
128
```
The main difference between tube and pipe is defined by:
Question options:
A) Tube is bendable where pipe is not
B) The way each is sized and rated
C) Pipe is thread-able where tube is not
D) The materials in which they are made
```
Pipe is thread-able where tube
129
```
When marking tube for bend placement, one should use a sharp tool to scribe the line right into the tube's surface
Question options:
A) True
B) FALSE
C) Depends on the application
```
False
130
When positioning the tube (all the previous bends are to the left of the benders) within the bender, what marks have to line up before bending a 90?
Question options:
A) The zeros on both the radius block and the lever guide
B) The 90 or L mark on the lever guide with the mark on the tubing
C) The R mark on the lever guide and the mark on the tubing
D) A & B
D) A & B
131
The ferrels that join to tubing should always be harder than the tube itself
Question options:
A) True
B) FALSE
C) Depends on the application
True
132
Per the theory class, the only difference between a branch tee and a run tee is the orientation of the pipe end with regard to the two tube ends
Question options:
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
True
133
Per the lab class, why is it so important to mark the tubing at the top of the finger tightened nut before swaging?
Question options:
A) To make sure the "L" dimension is correct
B) To show that the fitting has been turned its proper required swaging rotation
C) To ensure the tube has been properly bottomed out in the fitting
D) To indicate where to place the no-go gauge
C) To ensure the tube has been properly bottomed out in the fitting
134
One should expect to see some tube spring back after doing a 90 bend, therefore a good amount to over bend to compensate for this is around:
Question options:
A) 1˚
B) 2˚
C) 3˚
D) 4˚
C) 3˚
135
The radius imparted on a 3/8" 90 tube bend should be how large?
Question options:
A) 7/16"
B) 9/16"
C) 11/16"
D) 15/16"
D) 15/16"
136
A flattened bend in tubing is usually the result of which of the following?
Question options:
A) Tube slippage in the bender
B) The wall of the tubing is too thin
C) The mandrel is too far forward in the tube
D) Trying to bend to short of a radius or bending tube too small for the right bender size
D) Trying to bend to short of a radius or bending tube too small for the right bender size
137
It is customary tubing practice to use fittings made of different material than that of which the tubing is made
Question options:
A) True
B) FALSE
False
138
Of the following tube materials, which would be able to be used over the largest temperature range?
Question options:
A) 316 stainless steel
B) Carbon steel
C) Hastalloy C-276
D) Titanium
A) 316 stainless steel
139
Which of the following stainless steel tubes is not suitable for gas service?
Question options:
A) ¼" 0.028 wall
B) ¼" 0.035 wall
C) 3/8" 0.035 wall
D) ½" 0.035 wall
½" 0.035 wall
140
At 260˚C, 316 ss tubing's pressure rating would be around what amount compared to its pressure rating at room temperature?
Question options:
A) 110%
B) 100%
C) 90%
D) 85%
90%
141
When cutting tube with a hacksaw, one would select a blade that has how many teeth per inch?
Question options:
A) 10
B) 12
C) 18
D) 32
D) 32
142
Assembly and tightening from ¼" to 1" tube fitting sizes within a fitting (swaging) require that we turn the nut how many times past finger tight?
Question options:
A) ¼
B) ½
C) 1
D) 1 ¼
E) 2
1 ¼
143
Using a gap gauge (no-go gauge) should only be used in this case:
Question options:
A) Any time a fitting has been retightened
B) Before the fitting has been made-up swaged onto the tubing
C) Only after the initial make up (swaging)
D) They usually aren't considered to be dependable at any time
C) Only after the initial make up (swaging)
144
Some companies require that all tubing used during construction is traceable back to the original factory and even the batch that it was part of. This number is usually stamped on the wall of the tubing and is called the:
Question options:
A) Batch code
B) Heat code (HCT)
C) Tracing number
D) Quality code
Heat code (HCT)
145
his is the most common type of thread used for joining tube fittings to pipe in Canada:
Question options:
A) NPT
B) British Standard
C) SAE Straight
D) Metric
A) NPT
