Practice Test Flashcards
(236 cards)
1
Q
Which condition uses the rule of 3’s: More than 3 hours, more than 3 days a week, for more than 3 months?
A
Colic
2
Q
What is the criteria for a child to have enuresis?
A
Child over 5- 2x a week for 3 months
3
Q
Most common cause of encopresis?
A
Constipation (90%)
4
Q
What is the definition of failure to thrive (FTT)?
A
Weight less than 5th percentile on multiple occasions or weight deceleration that crosses two major percentile lines.
5
Q
Most common primary nephrotic syndrome and between what ages does it occur?
A
Minimal Change Nephrotic Syndrome (Ages 1-8)
6
Q
Test of choice for voiding dysfunctions ?
A
Voiding Cystourethrogram
7
Q
What specific gravity is required for a 1+ protein on dipstick to be considered proteinuria and what if it is higher than that?
A
A. Less than or equal to 1.015
B. Needs to be 2+ if higher
8
Q
What conditions should imaging be done for a child with a UTI?
A
A. Kids with 1st UTI before age 5
B. Febrile UTI
C. Recurring UTI
D. Male with UTI
9
Q
What is heme-positive urine caused by and what do each of these indicate?
A
A. Hemoglobin – Hemolytic anemia
B. Myoglobinuria – Skeletal muscle injury
10
Q
A child comes in with his foreskin trapped behind the glans penis, what is this condition and how is it treated?
A
Paraphimosis – Emergent circumcision
11
Q
Which pediatric orthopedic condition is more common in females?
A
Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
12
Q
What tests would you perform on a child with idiopathic osteonecrosis of the femoral head and what sign is seen on x-ray?
A
A. Barlow’s test – Dislocation test
B. Ortolani test – Relocation test
C. Crescent sign
13
Q
What is the most common cause of sudden hip pain and limp in children ?
A
Transient Synovitis of the Hip
14
Q
What condition would you expect to see in an overweight child who is having a painful limp and how common is this
A
A. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)
B. Most common adolescent hip disorder
15
Q
What is the most common cause of “toeing in” ?
A
Internal tibial torsion
16
Q
What is the most common type of salter-Harris fracture?
A
Type II – 75%
17
Q
What condition is known as the 100 day cough and requires treatment of everyone in the family?
A
Pertussis
18
Q
A child comes in to urgent care with a barking cough, what would you expect to see on x-ray?
A
Steeple sign
19
Q
What is a medical condition has fallen in incidence due to HiB vaccination and what would you see on x-ray
A
A. Epiglottitis
B. Thumb sign
20
Q
A patient has fatty white stools and recurrent respiratory infections. What test would you order to confirm your diagnosis and what disease are you testing for?
A
A. Sweat chloride test
B. Cystic Fibrosis
21
Q
What medication could be good to try in a child who has asthma and why?
A
Trial of PPI’s since Asthma and GERD are commonly connected
22
Q
What types of foreign bodies in the nose are you very concerned with and why?
A
A. Batteries
B. Magnets
C. Septal perforation
23
Q
When would you see a ground glass appearance on CXR in an infant and what are they lacking?
A
A. Hyaline Membrane Disease
B. Surfactant
24
Q
What is the most common craniofacial anomaly?
A
Cleft lift and palate
25
What is an esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula?
A. Connection of the esophagus to the trachea and a false pouch instead of an esophagus
26
An infant comes in who projectile vomits after being fed but is continuously hungry, what would you expect to find on an upper GI series and on physical exam?
A. String sign
| B. Olive shaped mass in RUQ
27
Abdominal x-ray shows a “double bubble sign”. What is causing this sign?
Ladd bands have caused a volvulus which is showing air in the duodenum and stomach only
28
What condition would present with currant jelly stool and a bulls eye or target sign?
Intussusception
29
What disease involves an absence of ganglion cells in the distal rectum and colon and what sign would be present on DRE?
A. Hirschsprungs Disease
| B. Squirt Sign
30
What type of hernia is most common in children and which type is most dangerous?
A. Umbilical
| B. Diaphragmatic
31
A child presents after a possible untreated ear infection. When you look at him you immediately notice that one of his ears is “sticking out”. What condition do you immediately need to consider?
Mastoiditis
32
What physical finding would you expect to see in a child with Erythemia infectiosum?
Slapped cheek appearance
33
A child presents to your office with a 4 day history of high fever that finally stopped last night. The child now has a rash. What do you think is going on with them?
Roseola
34
What condition can cause a potential life threatening formation of a pseudo membrane in the posteriod pharynx?
Diphtheria
35
What is the most common congenital heart disease?
Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
36
What physical finding would you expect upon auscultation of a patient with an atrial septal defect?
Widely split S1/S2 through inspiration and expiration
37
What condition would you expect to find a continuous “machinery murmur” and how is it treated?
A. Patent ductus arteriosus
| B. Indomethacin
38
What condition would you expect to find a difference of more than 10mmHg between the upper and lower extremities?
Coarctation of aorta
39
What disease is treated with high dose aspirin and puts a child at risk for coronary artery aneurysm?
Kawasaki Disease
40
What is the most common nutritional deficiency in children?
Iron deficiency
41
What is the most common malignancy in children?
Leukemia – 33%
42
What is the most common abdominal tumor in children?
Wilms tumor
43
What type of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis involves a quotidian fever pattern with a rash?
Systemic
44
What condition involving a deletion in chromosome 22 causes low PTH and Ca levels?
DiGeorge Syndrome
45
What disorder involves a female phenotype with an XY genotype?
Androgen Insensitivity
46
What is a cephalohematoma?
Blood between the periosteum and the bone due to difficult labor or delivery with suction or forceps.
47
What condition is caused by a brachial plexus injury at birth?
Erb Palsy
48
Why is it dangerous for cat ladies to become pregnant?
Toxoplasmosis Gondii
49
What are the three components of atopy?
A. Asthma
B. Allergic Rhinitis
C. Atopic Dematitis
50
What is the most common allergic disorder and what are some physical exam findings you would see?
A. Allergic rhinoconjunctivitis
B. Allergic shiners
C. Transverse nasal crease
D. Cobblestoning of the posterior pharynx
51
What are the most common causes of anaphylaxis in children, adults, and elderly?
A. Children – Food
B. Adults – Venom
C. Elderly – Medication
52
What immunologic disease requires daily prophylactic antibiotic and antifungal agents?
Chronic granulomatous disease
53
What is the most common neurologic disorder of infants and young children?
Febrile seizures
54
What is considered abnormal head size?
2 standard deviations above or below normal
55
What is the most common cause of hypertension in children (according to the lecture) ?
Vesicoureteral Reflux
56
What is the age is considered pediatrics?
newborn to 21
57
What is recommended frequency of well visits?
1-2 weeks, then
| 2, 4, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 and 24, then annually
58
How do you check growth development?
Physical Exam
Growth Charts
Milestones
59
What is the overall goal of pediatrics?
Disease Prevention and health promotion
60
What factors affect development?
Physical, Cognitive, Social, Environmental, and Diseases
61
What components of a history is important?
Maternal health
Gestational age at bar
Apgar, Hospital course
Meds and allergies
Immunizations
Family history
Social history
62
When do you start checking BP in kids?
3 and check annually
63
When does a child triple its birth weight?
within a year
64
When does a child achieve two-thirds of brain size?
by 2 1/2- 3 years
65
How does the WHO chart kids up to 36 months of age?
Length for age
Weight for age
Head circumference for age
Weight for length
66
How does the CDC chart kids from 2 to 20 years?
Stature for age
Weight for age
BMI for age
Weight for Stature (2 to 5 yrs)
67
What is Hypertension in children?
Systolic or Diastolic BP equal to or above the 95th percentile measured on 3 occasions.
68
Newborn HR and RR?
HR: 120-160
RR: 40-60
T: 36.5- 37.5 rectally
69
6 Months HR and RR?
HR: 110-160
RR: 24-38
70
1 year HR and RR?
HR: 90-150
RR: 22-30
71
3 year HR and RR?
HR: 80-125
RR: 22-20
72
What O2 sat is dangerous?
less than 93%
73
What is considered a temperature?
>100.5
74
What are considered vital signs?
ht, wt, head circumference, BMI, BP
75
What are the common diagnoses detected on WCC?
Failure to thrive
Sensory Deficits (no tracking, no no loud stimuli)
Congenital Heart Defects
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Cerebral Palsy
Musculoskeletal disorders
76
What are the components of a newborn PE?
Complete PE
Circumcision
Screen for Congenital heart disease w/ pulse ox after 24 hr and before discharge
77
What do you want to review with parents in terms of a newborn schedule?
feeding
sleeping
diapering
bathing
78
What should you be checking on the 1st week visit?
Monitor weight- Should regain or exceed birth weight by 2 weeks
Postpartum Depression
79
How long should you exclusively breastfeed according to the AAP?
6 months
| then add complementary food
80
What important milestones would you expect from a 2 month old?
Turning head to sounds
Eyes able to follow people
81
What important milestones would you expect from a 4 month old?
Holds head up unsupported
Recognizes people
82
What important milestones would you expect from a 6 month old?
Responds to name
Crawls
Pass between hands
83
What important milestones would you expect from a 9 month old?
Stands while holding on
Understands "no"
Plays peek-a-boo
84
What important milestones would you expect from a 12 month old?
Says mama and dada
Grazing
Takes a few steps without holding on
Can switch from breastfeeding to whole milk
85
What important milestones would you expect from an 18 month old?
Uses single words
Walks alone
Helps dress themselves
86
What important milestones would expect from a 3 year old?
Shows affection
Rides a tricycle
Plays make believe
87
What important milestones would you expect from a 4 year old?
Correct grammar
Hops on 1 foot
Understands counting
88
What important milestones would you expect from a 5 year old?
Uses future tense
uses fork, spoon and table knife
Toilets
Understands money and time
89
What important milestones can you expect in a 2 year old?
Can switch from whole to skim milk
Avoid choking by sitting down
Toilet readiness
90
When adding food at 6 months what is it best to start with?
thin consistency
91
What is considered baby food?
```
Cereal
Fruits
Veggies
Meat
Snacks
```
92
What age does a baby go through a night without being fed?
6 months
93
How do children 6 to 10 years of age attempt goals?
Achievement by trial and error, goal- directed
94
What can be difficult about adolescence (11-21 years of age)?
Puberty (girls 10 ends at 14 , guys 11 ends at 16)
Struggle for identity, independence and eventually intimacy
95
What scale do you use for sexual maturity?
Tanner stage
I- Preadolescence, no hair
II-Sparse pigmented, long straight along labia and base of penis with breast budding
III-Darker courser curlier, continued enlargement of boobs
IV-Adult but decreased distribution, Areola and papilla form in secondary mound
V- Adult in quantity and type and medial spread to thighs with mature female breasts
96
What are the priorities for the Middle childhood and adolescence visits?
School bullying, academics and sports
Mental health, self esteem, temper and independence
Nutrition and Development
Oral Health
Safety
97
What Screening Tests should be done 24 hours after birth?
Newborn Metabolic Screening
98
What screening tests should be done at 12 months?
Hematocrit or hemoglobin (risk assessment at 15 and 30 months)
Lead Screening
99
What screening test should be started at age 3 and checked periodically?
(BP)
| Visual Acuity
100
When should you screen for hearing?
after birth and then at age 4
101
When should you do dyslipidemia screening?
once between 9-11 and again between 17-21
102
When do you start screening for STI's?
HIV between 16 and 18 and if sexually active then annually
103
How long do you stay in rear facing car seats?
age 2 (cant sit up front til 13)
104
When will kids have most of their baby teeth?
age 3 should have 20 teeth
105
When will a kid start showing teeth?
between 4 months and 15 months
106
When can you expect permanent teeth?
5-7 years start and ends by age 13-14 yrs.
107
According to CA what is the most chronic disease in children?
Dental Caries. brush with fluoridated toothpaste
108
When should kids get a fluoride varnish?
6 months to 5 years and then every 3-6 months
109
How much screen time is recommended?
avoid before age 2 and limit 2 hours for children and teens
110
What is the leading cause of death in children and adolescents after 1st year of life?
Injuries
111
When should you be screening for depression?
ages 11 to 21 (also screen for alcohol and drug use)
112
What is your work up for enuresis?
H&P and UA/UC
113
How do you treat enuresis?
```
education
limit liquids
wake child at night
bed wetting alarms
desmopressin
```
114
What is encopresis?
repeated passage of stool into inappropriate places by child who is older than 4 years old
115
How do you work up and treat enopresis?
H&P with DRE
| educate, behavioral strategies, tx constipation
116
When does colic usually peak?
age 2-3 months
117
What is a common feeding problem?
food refusal due to pain or frightening
118
When is a feeding problem getting severe?
failure to thrive
119
When do kids usually have nightmares?
ages 3-5
120
When does Sleep walking occur?
Ages 4-8
121
What happens to the body during a night terror?
Increased HR and RR, sweating, screaming and thrashing
122
When are temper tantrums common?
ages 1-4
123
How frequent do temper tantrums happen?
once a week in 50-80% of kids ages 1-4
124
When does the anterior fontanelle usually close?
18 months- 2 years
125
When does the posterior fontanelle close?
Within 1-2 days
126
Baby has unequal red reflexes?
Congenital cataracts maybe, punt to optho
127
What are the components of a cardiovascular PE?
```
auscultation of murmurs
Skin color
Assess Perfusion
Assess Respiratory Effort
O2 stats pre and post ductal
```
128
What are the components of the lung PE?
Auscultation
| Observe for: Retractions, grunting, nasal flaring and rate
129
What are common Lung findings?
```
Transient tachypnea of the newborn
Neonatal pneumonia
Meconium aspiration syndrome
pneumothorax
Hyaline membrane disease
```
130
What are the components of the Abd exam?
palpate, ubilical cord, abd wall defects
131
What are normal findings on a GU exam?
Female:
Vernix and discharge may be present
Male:
Palpate testes
Check urethral meatus position
132
What is the rooting reflex?
brush face and face will turn to you
133
What is the galant reflex?
tickle side and baby will curl to that side
134
What are the risk factors or having a jaundice baby?
```
Premature
Breast feeding
Illness/sepsis
ABO incompatibility
G6PD deficiency
```
135
What is preterm considered?
less than 34 weeks
136
What is late preterm considered?
35-36/37 weeks
137
What is term considered?
37-42 weeks
138
What is post term considered?
>42 weeks
139
What are you looking at for gestational age assessment?
```
Skin texture
Lanugo
Plantaer markings
Joint mobility
Eyes/ears
Genitalia and breast development
Tone and posture
```
140
What should your newborn screening involve?
```
Hearing
Hyperbilirubinemia
Metabolic state screen
Critical Congential Heart Disease
Infection
Hypoglycemia
(SGA/LGA, prematurity, diabetic moms, sepsis, maternal beta blocker use)
```
141
Symptoms of Sepsis?
```
tachycardia and tachypnea
Respiratory distress
Low tone
Poor feeding
HYpoglycemia
apnea
lethargy
temp instability
hyperbilirubinemia
pallor
```
142
What procedures are parental consent NOT needed for?
```
Substance abuse treatment
STI screening
Pregnancy prevention and care
Sometimes abortion
Mental health care
Emergency care
```
143
What is the purpose of Well checks in adolescence?
Reduce morbidity and premature mortality, both during adolescence and in later years
Major components:
Screening, Counseling to reduce risk, Providing immunizations and giving general health guidance
144
What are the major causes of Morbidity in adol?
```
Mostly psychosocial and often correlate with poverty
unintended pregnancy
STI's
Substance abuse
Smoking
Dropping out of school
Depression
Homelessness and Physical violence
```
145
What are some common mental health red flags?
Excessive sleeping: insomnia
Loss of self esteem
Abandonment or loss of interested in favorite activities
Unexpected and dramatic declines in academic performance
Weight loss & loss of appetite
Personality shifts and changes
146
What are common issues that arise during puberty?
Anemia (girls, Fe)
Gynecomastia (50% boys 13)
Acne (opened and closed comodones)
Psychological changes (depression- girls, pre-frontal cortex impulse)
Gynecologic issues (anovulatory, AUB)
MSK (strains,sprains, asynchronous growth of body parts)
Myopia (growth of axial diameter of the eye)
Scoliosis
STI's ( high risk, incrased columnar epithelial cells on exocervix)
147
What is the definition of delayed puberty?
Absence or incomplete development of secondary sexual characteristics by an age at which 95% of children of that sex & culture have initiated sexual maturation
148
How would you evaluate delayed puberty?
Look at growth velocity
Tanner stages
X-ray of L hand and wrist to check skeletal maturation
Pelvic or testicular US, brain MRI, hormone testing and karotyping
149
What is included in a targeted history for sports physical?
PMH- chronic disease, prior surgery, hx heat-related illness, menstraul hx
Past injuries, LOC
Cardio HX- dyspnea, chest pain, syncope, palpitations, lightheadedness
Family hx- sudden death, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, marfan syndrome, QT syndrome, pacemaker or defibrillator
150
What is included in the sports physical examination?
```
vitals- BMI, BP, HR
HEENT- visual acuity, hearing
Cardiac- murmurs
Lung- wheezing
Abd- organomegaly
MSk- 2 minute screening exam for weakness, ROM, previous injury
Neuro- hx concussion
Skin- contagious infx
```
151
What are the components of a 2 minute sports physical/
1. stand straight, facing forward
2. Move neck in all directions
3. Shrug shoulders against resistance
4. Hold arms out to side against resistance
5. Hold arms out to side w/ elbows bent raise & lower
6. Hold arms out, completely bend & straighten elbows
7. Bend elbows 90 then pronate & supinate forearms
8. Make a fist, clench, then spread fingers
9. Squat and duck-walk for 4 steps forward
10. Stand straight, facing back
11. Bend forward w/ knees straight, touch toes
12. Stand on heels, then on top-toes
152
What do you get if you have a normal sports physical?
Full clearance for participation
Clearance to participate with limitations
Exclusion from participating pending further evaluation
153
What is the female athlete triad?
Eating disorder
menstrual dysfunction
low bone density
154
What sports and complications are related to the female athlete triad?
```
Running, Dance, gymnastics
Fractures
Arrhythmias
Hyopglycemia
seizures
resp. failure
```
155
What are the typical CBC findings in an early infection?
leukocytosis with neutrophil response
156
What are the typical CBC findings in a viral infection?
neutrophil response is transient followed by increased lymphocytes
157
What are the typical CBC findings in a bacterial infection?
Greater neutrophil counts (left shift with increased # immature cells)
158
When would you order a peripheral blood smear?
to detect abnormalities in form and function
confirmatory test like leukemia and sickle cell disease
Adjunct in evaluation of anemia
159
What information can you get from a urinalysis?
```
pH
Specific gravity
Protein
Glucose
Nitrite
Ketone
Bilirubin
Blood
Leukocytes
```
160
Lumbar punctures are gold standard tests for what?
meningitis or encephalitits (always get CX)
161
What are normal LP values?
Pressure: 70-200 mm H20
Leukocytes:
162
What are the LP results of bacterical meningitis?
increased pressure
leukocytes: 200-20,000 (mostly PMN's)
Preotein: > 50
163
What are the LP results of viral meningitis?
Pressure: normal or slightly raised
Leukocytes: 100-1,000 (mostly lymphocytes or monocytes)
protein: normal or slightly increased
164
Gold standard for UTI?
urine culture with antibiotic sensitivites
165
What are rapid tests usually testing?
antigens
166
When do you use rapid tests?
for preliminary diagnosis,
| Strep, Influenza, Monospot
167
What are serologic tests looking at?
immune response , development of antibodies like HIV,Lyme, HSV, Hep
168
What are molecular tests looking at?
Genetic diseases, dna sequencing via polymerase chain reaction
used to determine carrier status..Examples:
CF, Fragile X, Huntington
169
What hormones are you testing for?
```
HCG
FSH
TSH
Prolactin
LH
DHEA-S
Estradiol
Testosterone
```
170
What can you use ultrasound on?
Abd (mass, appendicitis)
Pelvic (PCOS)
Scrotal
Ultrasound-guided imaging
171
When are CT's usually used?
primary modality in acute or emergent situations
172
When are MRI's used?
test of choice for CNS abnormalities, Non invasive but time consuming and sedation sometimes required
173
How do you work up a fever?
Febrile infants
174
How often do you do an APGAR test?
1 minute and 5 minute
175
What is the most likely cause of conjunctivitis on day 1?
Chemical Irritation
176
What is the most likely cause of conjunctivitis on days 2-7?
Gonorrhea
177
What is the most likely cause conjunctivitis past day 7?
Chlamydia
178
What is the most likely cause of conjunctivitis after 3 weeks?
Herpes
179
What drops do you give directly after birth to prevent opthalmia neonatium?
Erythromycin ointment and Silver nitrate
180
What screening tests do you need to do before discharge?
```
PKU
Biotinidase
Beta- thalassemia
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
Galactosemia
Hypothyriodism
homocysteinuria
cystic fibrosis
```
181
Who gets the Hep b vaccine?
Every baby but those whose mothers are HbsAg- positive will get HBIG
182
How many babies are born jaundice?
60%
183
Do cephalohematoma's cross suture lines?
NO, they don't cross suture lines
184
What is a common shoulder dystocia and what are the complications?
Erbs Palsy, Cant abduct shoulder, cant externally rotate shoulder or supinate arm
185
What is the most common hernia in babies?
umbilical hernias
186
What are umbilical hernias sometimes associated with?
Congenital hypothyroidism
187
What is commonly seen in patients with the absence of an iris?
Wilms tumor
188
Opening of the urethra on ventral surface?
Hypospadias
189
Opening of the urethra on dorsal surface?
epispadias
190
What is most likely happening when a kid has exercise intolerance and squats to decrease right to left shunting?
Tet Spell
191
What are the components of Tetralogy of fallot?
Bi-ventricular origin of the aorta
Large VSD
Obstruction to pulmonary blood flow
RVH
192
Holosystolic murmur heard at lower sternal border?
Ventricular Septal Defect
193
Most common congenital heart lesion?
VSD
194
Loud pulmonic S2 and xray shows increased vascular markings?
VSD
195
Fixed wide splitting of S2 and chest XRAY shows increased vascular markings and cardiomegaly
Atrial Septal Defect
196
Most common atrial septal defect?
Ositum secundum (central atrial septum)
197
What commonly causes dysrhytmias and paradoxical emboli DVT?
ASD
198
Machinery like murmur, wide pulse pressure. bounding pulses?
Patent Ductuc Arteriosus
199
EKG shows Left ventricular dysfunction and failure?
Patent Ductus Arteriosus
200
How do you close a patent ductus arteriosus?
indomethacin
201
Severe CHF and Resp. Distress within first few months, Differential pressure and reduced pulses with rib notchings, EKG LVH?
Coarctation of the aorta
202
What conditions are commonly seen with Coarctation of the aorta
turner syndrome
203
failure to pass meconium in first 72 hours of life?
Hirchsprung Disease
204
How do you confirm Hirchsprung?
Full thickness biopsy showing lack of ganglionic cells
205
What is commonly seen with imperforate anus?
```
V-vertebral anomalies
A- anal atresia
L- limb anomalies
C- cardiovascular anomalies
T- tracheoesphageal fistula
E- Esophageal atresia
R- Renal anomalies
```
206
Persistent, multiple air bubbles, bowel looped obstruction?
volvulus
207
Sudden onset, telescope on ultrasound?
intussuception
208
Grade 2-3 midsystolic Crescendo Decresendo murmur on upper LSD, S2 widely split through inspiration/ expiration?
ASD
209
Systolic thrill-suprasternal
Early systolic click upper LSB
Crescendo decresencdo upper LSB radiating towards clavicle and louder with inspriation?
Pulmonic Stenosis
210
chorioretinitis, hydroscephalus, and multiple ring- enhancing lesions on CT caused by Toxoplasma gondii?
toxoplasmosis
211
Best initial and accurate test for toxoplasmosis?
Initial IgM
| Accurate PCR
212
Treat for toxo?
pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine
213
Rash on the palms and soles, snuffles, frontal bossing, hutchinson eighth nerve palsy and saddle nose
Syphilis
214
Best initial and accurate test for syphilis?
Initial VDRL
| Accurate FTA ABS or dark field microscopy
215
Treat syphilis?
penicillin
216
Periventricular calcifications with microencephaly, chorioretinitie, hearing loss, and petechiae?
CMV
217
Best initial ad accurate test for CMV?
initial- urine or saliva viral titers
| Most accurate is urine or saliva PCR for viral DNA
218
Treat CMV?
ganiciclovir with signs of end organ damage
219
PDA, cataracts, deafness, hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenia, blueberry muffin rash, and hyperbilirubinemia
Rubella
220
Best initial and accurate test for rubella?
maternal IgM status. TX supportive
221
Week 1: shock and DIC
Week 2: Vesicular skin lesions
Week 3: encephalitits
Herpes
222
Best initial and most accurate test for Herpes?
Initial is tzanck smear and most accurate is PCR
223
Multiple highly pruritic vesicular rash that begins on face, possible fever and malaise
Varicella zoster virus
224
Diagnostic test for for varicella?
tzanck smear showing multinucleated giant cells and most accurate test is viral culture
225
The 3 C's: cough, coryza and conjunctivitis with a koplik spot (grayish macule on buccal surface)
Rubeola or measles (parmyxovirus)
226
How do you diagnose rubeola or measles?
IgM antibodies
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parvovirus b19?
fifth disease (erythema infectiosum)
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Roseola
Herpesvirus types 6 and 7
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Mumps
paramyxovirus, fever precedes classic parotid gland swelling with poissibe orchitis
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When do you get MMR vaccine?
1st dose 12-15 months then 2nd atleast 28 days after (4-6 years of age)
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When do you get pertussis vaccine?
DTap: 2, 4, 6, 15-18 months, 4-6 years
| Accelerated 1st three doses at 6, 10, and 14 weeks; 4th dose given 6-12 months after 3rd dose; 5th dose age 4-6 years
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Meningococcal vaccine
kids aged 11-12 years with a booster at age 16 ages (HIV 2 doses, 2 months apart)
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Zoster Vaccine
single dose for adults 60 years of age and older
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Influenza virus
approved 6 months and older, live virus for 2-49 who aren't pregnant
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HPV
4 or 2 for females
2 for males
HPV is 4 doses begins at 11 and 12
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Prevnar vaccine
Routine vaccination: 4-dose series at ages 2, 4, and 6 months and at age 12-15 months
