practice test missed Q's Flashcards
(98 cards)
1
Q
Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion?
A
Frontal Plane
2
Q
Which nutrient has the highest thermic effect?
A
Protein
3
Q
Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system?
A
Erector spinae
4
Q
What is a regression for the box jump-up with stabilization?
A
Squat jump with stabilization
5
Q
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise?
A
Transverse plane box jump-down
6
Q
What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn?
A
sprain
7
Q
What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes?
A
Appearance imagery
8
Q
Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?
A
It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
9
Q
A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform?
A
standing cobra
10
Q
What are the end products of the electron transport chain?
A
ATP and water
11
Q
Which of the following is a component of quickness training?
A
assessment of visual stimuli
12
Q
You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?
A
15-60 seconds
13
Q
Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site?
A
Troponin
14
Q
Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity?
A
vitamin A
15
Q
Which feature of a food label would enable a client to assess the nutrient composition of a food product?
A
The nutrition facts panel
16
Q
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?
A
Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
17
Q
Which behavior change technique allows individuals to identify external triggers that lead them to behave in certain ways?
A
self-monitoring
18
Q
Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?
A
lateral subsystem
19
Q
abdominal skinfold location?
A
A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
20
Q
If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat (not necessarily total calories), what type of exercise should they do?
A
Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes
21
Q
Roderick, an NASM-CPT, has submitted his application to be a personal trainer through the website of a large health club company. What will provide the best opportunity to get noticed by the hiring manager?
A
Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person
22
Q
Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client’s emotional considerations?
A
self-efficacy
23
Q
Which of the following terms can be defined as relating to one side of the body?
A
unilateral
24
Q
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?
A
10%
25
Apart from energy intake and physical activity, which of the following factors also influence weight management?
hormones and meds
26
What is adaptive thermogenesis?
Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake
27
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?
Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
28
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?
Pro-shuttle
29
What is the superior boundary of the core?
Diaphragm
30
Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?
Exercise is intense
31
What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1?
Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss
32
Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint?
Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
33
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?
0-60 sec
34
Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw?
Latissimus dorsi
35
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?
Thyroid function
36
Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training?
Injury history
37
Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?
Change in direction
38
The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?
Alveolar sacs
39
Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short-duration (10 to 90 second) high-intensity anaerobic activities?
Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power.
40
A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases?
Phase 1
41
before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through?
gluconeogenesis
42
What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?
To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.
43
What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in the client with PAD?
Leg Pain
Peripheral artery disease: A circulatory condition in which narrowed blood vessels reduce blood flow to the limbs.
44
Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?
Right Ventricle
The right atrium receives oxygen-poor blood from the body and pumps it to the right ventricle.
The right ventricle pumps the oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.
The left atrium receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs and pumps it to the left ventricle.
The left ventricle pumps the oxygen-rich blood to the body.
45
Beth is considering opportunities for how to begin her career as a fitness professional. If her primary goal is to earn a stable income by helping clients reach their fitness goals, which of the following would provide the best option?
Working for a premium health club company
46
shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following?
Tissue overload
47
What is glycogen?
The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
Glucose (aka blood sugar) is the primary form in which carbohydrates are transported in the body. It is easily broken down and used to supply energy. Stored as glycogen in the muscles or liver.
48
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?
stretch-shortening cycle
49
Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?
multiplanar jump w/ stabilization
50
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
back ext
51
Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following?
Providing psychological benefits
52
In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component?
resistance training
53
Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are disposed of in a secure manner?
confidentiality
54
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?
Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
55
What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?
140 bpm
add 0 after intensity
56
Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?
Multifidus
57
how many sets of SAQ drills for older adults?
1 or 2 sets
58
Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water?
60%
59
What is acidosis in muscle?
A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
60
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?
Gluteus medius
61
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?
Select one:
depth jump
62
What is cardiac output?
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
63
What are triglycerides?
The stored form of fat
64
Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever?
third class
First-class levers are ones that have the fulcrum placed between the load and effort. Second-class levers are ones that have load in between the fulcrum and effort. Third-class levers are ones that have effort in between the fulcrum and load.
65
Flexibility is defined as the following:
Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
66
Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure?
Duodenum of the small intestine
From the small intestine, undigested food (and some water) travels to the large intestine through a muscular ring or valve that prevents food from returning to the small intestine. By the time food reaches the large intestine, the work of absorbing nutrients is nearly finished.
67
Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration?
Select one:
a.
Suspended bodyweight training
b.
Kettlebell
c.
Medicine ball
d.
Resistance band
medicine ball
68
Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?
Select one:
a.
Core stability
b.
Power development
c.
Force production
d.
Landing mechanics
landing mechanics
69
What is the purpose of the intervertebral discs?
Select one:
a.
They support most of the body's weight and are attached to many back muscles.
b.
They act as shock absorbers.
c.
They provide support for the head.
d.
They minimize movement of the spine.
They act as shock absorbers.
70
What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction?
Select one:
a.
Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
b.
Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
c.
Activation of the intercalated discs
d.
Activation of sarcomeres
Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
71
The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?
Select one:
a.
Somatosensation
b.
Vision
c.
Vestibular senses
d.
Strength
strength
72
A client who has been training consistently for over a year has indicated that he wants to find more efficient ways to exercise at home. Which type of social support does he need?
Select one:
a.
Instrumental support
b.
Companionship support
c.
Emotional support
d.
Informational support
Informational support
73
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?
Select one:
a.
Power
b.
Muscular strength
c.
Aerobic fitness
d.
Flexibility
power
74
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?
Select one:
a.
Muscle imbalance
b.
Reciprocal inhibition
c.
Stretch-shortening cycle
d.
Length-tension relationship
Reciprocal inhibition
75
What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?
Select one:
a.
Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
b.
Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
c.
Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
d.
Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
76
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?
Select one:
a.
Beta-oxidation
b.
Acidosis
c.
Glycolysis
d.
Ketosis
beta-oxidation
77
What is end-diastolic volume?
Select one:
a.
The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
b.
The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
c.
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
d.
The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
78
Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability?
Select one:
a.
Strength machines
b.
Resistance bands
c.
Terra-Core
d.
Suspended bodyweight training
strength machines
79
The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
a.
The built environment
b.
The manufactured environment
c.
The constructed environment
d.
The assembled environment
built in environment
80
Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action?
Select one:
a.
Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
b.
Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula
c.
Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction
d.
The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion
Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
81
What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)?
Select one:
a.
Histidine, threonine, and phenylalanine
b.
Methionine, tryptophan, and lysine
c.
Valine, leucine, and isoleucine
d.
Alanine, glutamine, and tyrosine
Valine, leucine, and isoleucine
82
When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility?
Select one:
a.
Sports drills
b.
Active stretches
c.
Dynamic stretches
d.
Self-myofascial techniques
d.
Self-myofascial techniques
83
Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost?
Select one:
a.
Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
b.
Type 2 diabetes
c.
Type 1 diabetes
d.
Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
84
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?
Select one:
a.
0 to 15 seconds
b.
60 to 90 seconds
c.
15 to 60 seconds
d.
90 to 120 seconds
15 to 60 seconds
85
For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?
Select one:
a.
Body fat loss
b.
Muscle mass atrophy
c.
Decreased volume and intensity
d.
Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss
Body fat loss
86
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?
Select one:
a.
Back muscles only
b.
Local and global muscles
c.
Global muscles
d.
Local muscles
Local muscles
87
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?
Select one:
a.
Core power
b.
Core endurance
c.
Core strength
d.
Core stability
Core strength
88
Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?
Select one:
a.
Anterior oblique subsystem
b.
Deep longitudinal subsystem
c.
Posterior oblique subsystem
d.
Lateral subsystem
Lateral subsystem
89
What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise?
Select one:
a.
Use of heavy weights
b.
Slow and controlled movements
c.
Stabilization of the LPHC
d.
A faster tempo, similar to daily life
A faster tempo, similar to daily life
90
Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?
Select one:
a.
Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual
b.
Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual
c.
Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
d.
The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual
Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
91
Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements?
Select one:
a.
Inversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction
b.
Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction
c.
Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
d.
Eversion, plantar flexion, and ankle abduction
Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
92
If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate?
Select one:
a.
The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation.
b.
The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
c.
The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle.
d.
The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA.
The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
93
What are the three categories within the lipid family?
Select one:
a.
Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols
b.
Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s
c.
Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats
d.
Saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol
Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols
94
Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?
Select one:
a.
Frontal plane
b.
Thoracic spine
c.
Lumbar spine
d.
Sagittal plane
thoracic spine
95
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?
Select one:
a.
Movement assessments
b.
Body composition assessments
c.
PAR-Q+
d.
Strength assessments
Feedback
The correct answer is: Movement assessments
96
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?
Select one:
a.
Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
b.
Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods.
c.
It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
d.
Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
97
During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?
Select one:
a.
Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction
b.
Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
c.
Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction
d.
Pull the elbows into extension
Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction
98
