PRACTICE TEST POOL D

Question 1

A developer is planning a new convention center, which will include over 30 conference rooms of all sizes. The team is interested in pursuing WELL certification, and is considering a displacement ventilation system for the conference rooms. In which of the following ways can the project team demonstrate adequate system performance for a ventilation system?

A. Perform a computational fluid dynamics analysis
B. Perform an ASHRAE 90.1 energy model
C. Provide IWBI with monthly preventative maintenance reports and any corrective action once the building is occupied
D. Provide ventilation calculations that demonstrate each space will receive at least 30% more than the ASHRAE minimum requirements.

Answer 1

A. Perform a computational fluid dynamics analysis
This is the correct answer.

Part 2 Feature 21 Displacement Ventilation requires either a Computational fluid dynamics analysis or the displacement ventilation system to meet ASHRAE 55-2013 (Thermal Environmental Conditions for Human Occupancy) for comfort for at least 75% of all regularly occupied spaces.

Question 2

The presence of pests in indoor environments can have negative health implications for humans. Specifically, the bodies, feces, and saliva of pests contain allergens that can trigger what reaction:

A. Cardiovascular disease
B. Fatigue
C. Autoimmune disorders
D. Asthma

Answer 2

D. Asthma
This is the correct answer.

The bodies, feces and saliva of pests and dust mites contain allergens that can trigger asthma and allergic reactions in susceptible individuals.

Question 3

Which of the following strategies for pest control meet the requirements of Feature 22 Pest Control?

A. Store all perishables in cabinets or drawers
B. Ensure that all indoor garbage cans greater than 113 liters (30 gallons) have a lid
C. Ensure that all outdoor garbage cans greater than 113 liters (30 gallons) have a lid
D. Place all indoor garbage cans greater than 113 liters (30 gallons) at least 7.5 m (25 ft) from doors to the exterior or operable windows

Answer 3

B. Ensure that all indoor garbage cans greater than 113 liters (30 gallons) have a lid
This is the correct answer.

All indoor garbage cans, both less than and greater than 113 liters (30 gallons), are required to have lids per Feature 22 Pest Control.

Question 4

What is the primary reason to introduce activated carbon filters to the main air ducts of an existing building?

A. To reduce VOCs in the indoor air
B. To reduce HVAC noise from vibration
C. To reduce energy demand
D. To increase thermal comfort

Answer 4

A. To reduce VOCs in the indoor air
This is the correct answer.

Activated carbon filters are used to reduce VOCs in indoor air.

Question 5

Which of the following buildings should use ultraviolet germicidal irradiation for advanced air sanitation?

A. Any building greater than 2 stories
B. Any building with a central ventilation system
C. A building with 29 occupants distributed in 2 spaces
D. A 1 story building with 5 occupants

Answer 5

C. A building with 29 occupants distributed in 2 spaces
This is the correct answer.

Ultraviolet germicidal irradiation (UVGI) is recommended for spaces with greater than 10 occupants that use recirculated air. Photocatalytic oxidation is another acceptable strategy of Feature 23 Advanced Air Purification, Part 2.

Question 6

In buildings with more than 10 occupants that use recirculated air, which of the following are strategies to implement air sanitation?

A. Ultraviolet germicidal irradiation and carbon filters
B. Carbon filters and photocatalytic oxidation
C. Photocatalytic oxidation and MERV 13 filters
D. Ultraviolet germicidal irradiation and photocatalytic oxidation

Answer 6

D. Ultraviolet germicidal irradiation and photocatalytic oxidation
This is the correct answer.

These are the correct options for Feature 23 Advanced Air Purification, Part 2 Air Sanitation.

Question 7

What regular documentation is required for WELL project teams to demonstrate that air purification strategies are in proper operation?

A. Annual records of filtration/sanitation maintenance
B. Monthly records of filtration/sanitation maintenance
C. Annual letters from third party inspectors that air filtration/sanitation systems are in place
D. Monthly letters from third party inspectors that air filtration/sanitation systems are in place

Answer 7

A. Annual records of filtration/sanitation maintenance
This is the correct answer.

Projects must provide IWBI with annual records of filtration/sanitation maintenance.

Question 8

Under what circumstance should combustion-based space heaters be allowed in regularly occupied spaces?

A. When they have automatic shut-off timers with a maximum of 15 minute cycles
B. Combustion-based space heaters should never be allowed in regularly occupied spaces
C. When they are located within 7.5 m (25 ft) of an exterior door
D. When they are located on an exterior wall and directly vented to the outside.

Answer 8

B. Combustion-based space heaters should never be allowed in regularly occupied spaces
This is the correct answer.

Combustion-based fireplaces, stoves, space-heaters, ranges and ovens are forbidden in regularly occupied spaces, per Feature 24 Combustion Minimization, Part 1: Appliance and Heater Combustion Ban.

Question 9

Which substance has 210 times the binding affinity for hemoglobin compared to oxygen, and is toxic to humans?

A. Nickel
B. Chlorine
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Methane

Answer 9

C. Carbon monoxide
This is the correct answer.

Because carbon monoxide bonds to hemoglobin more readily than oxygen, it prevents oxygen from being delivered to parts of the body, leading to hypoxia. Hypoxia can cause nausea, loss of consciousness, and death.

Question 10

The phthalates (plasticizers) DEHP, DBP, BBP, DINP, DIDP and DNOP are limited to 0.01% (100 ppm) in flooring and wall coverings according to which of the follow Features?

A. Feature 26 Enhanced Material Safety
B. Feature 04 VOC Reduction
C. Feature 11 Fundamental Material Safety
D. Feature 25 Toxic Material Reduction

Answer 10

D. Feature 25 Toxic Material Reduction
This is the correct answer.

Feature 25 Toxic Material Safety, Part 3: Phthalate (Plasticizers) Limitation sets limits for phthalates in flooring, wall coverings, and plumbing.

Question 11

How can exposure to flame-retardant chemicals be dangerous to human health?

A. They bioaccumulate in fat and result in food chain contamination, including human milk
B. They make asthma and respiratory irritation worse
C. They attach to hemoglobin more readily than oxygen and cause hypoxia
D. They cause skin irritation and rashes

Answer 11

A. They bioaccumulate in fat and result in food chain contamination, including human milk
This is the correct answer.

Per the feature introduction, flame-retardant chemicals can bioaccumulate in fat and result in food chain contamination, including human milk.

Question 12

Which of the following is NOT a component in which urea-formaldehyde must be limited to a maximum of 100 ppm according to Feature 25 Toxic Material Reduction?

A. Thermal insulation
B. Laminating adhesives and resins
C. Paints
D. Furniture

Answer 12

C. Paints
This is the correct answer.

Urea-formaldehyde presence is only limited in furniture and composite wood products, laminating adhesives and resins, and thermal insulation.

Question 13

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable third party verification that demonstrates Feature 26 Enhanced Material Safety, Part 1: Precautionary Material Selection?

A. Cradle to Cradle™ Material Health Score
B. GreenScreen® Benchmark
C. Living Building Challenge Materials Petal
D. Living Product Challenge label E. Declare Label

Answer 13

C. Living Building Challenge Materials Petal
This is the correct answer.

This option was removed in 4/27/2017 addenda, and the above options added.

Question 14

What is the key to continuously delivering high quality water?

A. Testing for metals in water
B. Maintaining additives in water
C. Implementing and maintaining appropriate water filters
D. Monitoring contaminants in water

Answer 14

C. Implementing and maintaining appropriate water filters
This is the correct answer.

While routine testing helps to keep track of potential pollutants, sampling alone cannot guarantee the elimination of all risk. Disruptions to water supply, droughts, flooding and construction and infrastructure changes can temporarily affect water quality.

Question 15

What are three options that can be used for water treatment to achieve Feature 36 Water Treatment?

A. Carbon filters, sediment filters, and UV sanitization
B. Infrared filters, carbon filters, and sediment filters
C. UV sanitization, water ionizers, and carbon filters
D. Sediment filters, infrared filters, and water ionizers

Answer 15

A. Carbon filters, sediment filters, and UV sanitization
This is the correct answer.

this only applies to water for human ‘consumption’ (like drinking water), NOT showers and baths that only incur human ‘contact’.

Question 16

Water quality maintenance is used to verify that the selected filtration/sanitation system chosen for a project continues to operate as designed. Projects must annually provide IWBI with record-keeping for a minimum of what time period, including evidence that the filter and/or sanitizer has been properly maintained as per the manufacturer’s recommendation?

A. A minimum of 10 months
B. A minimum of 2 years
C. A minimum of 1 year
D. A minimum of 3 years

Answer 16

D. A minimum of 3 years
This is the correct answer.

Part 4: Water Quality Maintenance

Question 17

To promote proper hydration, what is the maximum distance all parts of regularly occupied floor space should be from water dispensers?

A. Every 10m (32ft)
B. Every 30m (100ft)
C. Every 50m (165ft)
D. Every 100m (330ft)

Answer 17

B. Every 30m (100ft)
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 37 Drinking Water Promotion. At least one dispenser must be located within 30 m (100 ft) of all parts of regularly occupied floor space (minimum one per floor).

Question 18

Which member of the project team is responsible for providing letters of assurance to document the promotion of drinking water access?

A. Architect
B. WELL Assessor
C. Tenant and Facility manager
D. Project Team

Answer 18

A. Architect
This is the correct answer.

Refer to Appendix D: Feature Types and Verification Methods

Question 19

Lead, arsenic, glyphosate, atrazine and microbes are examples of what?

A. Water pollution
B. Water contaminants
C. Water additives
D. Water ingredients

Answer 19

B. Water contaminants

This is the correct answer.

Question 20

The following Features are rated as preconditions for which building types?

Feature 30 Fundamental water quality
Feature 31 Inorganic contaminants
Feature 32 Organic contaminants
Feature 33 Agricultural contaminants
Feature 34 Public water additives

A. Core and shell, new and existing buildings
B. New and existing interiors, new and existing buildings
C. New and existing interiors, core and shell
D. New and existing buildings, new and existing interiors, core and shell

Answer 20

D. New and existing buildings, new and existing interiors, core and shell
This is the correct answer.

Question 21

Which of the following are rated as Optimizations for new buildings?

A. Feature 35 Periodic water quality testing, Feature 36 Water treatment, and Feature 37 Drinking water promotion
B. Feature 34 Public water additives, Feature 36 Water treatment, and Feature 37 Drinking water promotion
C. Feature 35 Periodic water quality testing, Feature 32 Organic contaminants, and Feature 36 Water treatment
D. Feature 33 Agricultural contaminants, Feature 31 Inorganic contaminants, and Feature 32 Organic contaminants

Answer 21

A. Feature 35 Periodic water quality testing, Feature 36 Water treatment, and Feature 37 Drinking water promotion
This is the correct answer.

Question 22

In order to meet the requirements of Feature 47 Serving Sizes, what must be true of all circular plates served to customers?

A. All circular plates must have a diameter no larger than 9 inches (23)
B. All circular plates must have a diameter no larger than 9.5 inches (24)
C. All circular plates must have a diameter no larger than 10 inches (25 cm)
D. All circular plates must have a diameter no larger than 10.5 inches (26)

Answer 22

C. All circular plates must have a diameter no larger than 10 inches (25 cm)
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 47 Serving Sizes, Part 2: Dishware

Circular plates: the diameter of a plate is no larger than 10 in [25 cm]
Non-circular plates: the total surface area of a plate does not exceed 79 in² [507 cm²]
Bowls are no larger than 16 oz [473 mL]
Cups are no larger than 16 oz [473 mL]

Question 23

In order to meet the requirements of Feature 47 Serving Sizes, what must be true of all non-circular plates served to customers?

A. The total surface area of the plate must not exceed 69in2 (445 cm2)
B. The total surface area of the plate must not exceed 70in2 (450 cm2)
C. The total surface area of the plate must not exceed 79in2 (507 cm2)
D. The total surface area of the plate must not exceed 80in2 (516 cm2)

Answer 23

C. The total surface area of the plate must not exceed 79in2 (507 cm2)
This is the correct answer.

Circular plates: the diameter of a plate is no larger than 10 in [25 cm]
Non-circular plates: the total surface area of a plate does not exceed 79 in² [507 cm²]
Bowls are no larger than 16 oz [473 mL]
Cups are no larger than 16 oz [473 mL]

Question 24

The owner of a building has asked the cafeteria to focus on healthy options for the building occupants. In order to reduce the likelihood of unintended overeating and to encourage healthier eating habits, what should the maximum cup size be for beverages served on a daily basis?

A. 296 mL (10 oz)
B. 240 mL (8 oz)
C. 480 mL (16 oz)
D. 355 mL (12 oz)

Answer 24

C. 480 mL (16 oz)
This is the correct answer.

Review Feature 47 Serving Sizes, Part 2: Dishware

Question 25

In order to meet the requirements of Feature 48 Special Diets, what must be true of a catered event? A. Prior to the catering event, employees and clients must submit all dietary preferences B. Peanut-free, Gluten-free, and Vegetarian options must be available if they are requested C. All religious dietary restrictions must be adhered to D. All food must be labeled for the most common food allergies

Answer 25

B. Peanut-free, Gluten-free, and Vegetarian options must be available if they are requested This is the correct answer. All meals or catered events must include a Lactose Free option, Gluten Free option, Peanut free option, Egg Free option, vegan or vegetarian options if an employee specifically requests an alternative.

Question 26

An employee with a food allergy or dietary restriction in a WELL-Certified building can request to have any of the following food options except: A. Gluten-free option B. Sugar-free option C. Vegan option D. Egg-free option

Answer 26

B. Sugar-free option This is the correct answer. All meals or catered events must include a Lactose Free option, Gluten Free option, Peanut free option, Egg Free option, and both vegan and vegetarian options.

Question 27

In order to meet the requirements of Feature 49 Responsible Food Production, which of the following must be true about produce sold or distributed on site on a daily basis? A. Must be federally certified organic (based on country) B. Must be color coded per food labeling laws C. Must be labeled with the USDA organic label (country-equivalent) and Free-trade label (country-equivalent) D. Must be labeled to indicate the presence of GMOs (genetically modified organisms)

Answer 27

A. Must be federally certified organic (based on country) | This is the correct answer.

Question 28

Which of the following labels for all meat, egg, and dairy products sold or distributed on site are required by Feature 49 Responsible Food Production? A. Federally Certified Organic and Fair Trade certified B. Fair Trade Certified only C. Federally Certified Organic and Humane Certified D. Humane Certified only

Answer 28

C. Federally Certified Organic and Humane Certified This is the correct answer. Review Feature 49 Responsible Food Production.

Question 29

For a project to comply with Feature 51 Food Production, a garden space or greenhouse of what size and location must be provided for all building occupants? A. 1 ft2 (0.1 m2) per occupant within 0.5 mi (0.8 km) of the project boundary B. 3 ft2 (0.3 m2) per occupant within 1 mi (1.6 km) of the project boundary C. 5 ft2 (0.5 m2) per occupant within 1 mi (1.6 km) of the project boundary D. 2 ft2 (0.2 m2) per occupant within 1.5 mi (2.4 km) of the project boundary

Answer 29

A. 1 ft2 (0.1 m2) per occupant within 0.5 mi (0.8 km) of the project boundary Review Feature 51 Food Production. A space of at least 0.1 m2 (1 ft2 per occupant (no more than 70 m2 [754 ft2] maximum is required) is allocated within 0.8 km (0.5 mi) of the project boundary for one or a combination of garden space or greenhouse containing food-being plants.

Question 30

Which WELL Feature requires that certain Light Reflectance Values (LRV) are met for ceilings, vertical surfaces, and furniture? A. Feature 78 Reverberation Time B. Feature 62 Daylight Modeling C. Feature 59 Surface Design D. Feature 58 Color Quality

Answer 30

C. Feature 59 Surface Design | This is the correct answer.

Question 31

A project team is pursuing Feature 60 Automated Shading and Dimming Controls. Which windows need to have shading devices that automatically engage when light sensors indicate that sunlight could contribute to glare at workstations? A. Windows in all regularly occupied areas B. Windows on the side of the building that gets more than 60% of direct sun exposure throughout the day C. All windows larger than 0.55 m2 (6 ft2) D. Windows without external shading fins

Answer 31

C. All windows larger than 0.55 m2 (6 ft2) | This is the correct answer.

Question 32

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of automated controls for shading devices? A. Ensures the systems operate as intended B. Contributes to comfort without disrupting occupants from other tasks C. Contributes to energy reduction D. Helps regulate circadian cycle

Answer 32

D. Helps regulate circadian cycle | This is the correct answer.

Question 33

A lighting designer is finalizing the controls specifications for all lighting in a new office building. The designer should ensure that all fixtures except decorative fixtures are programmed to automatically dim to what level when the zone is unoccupied? A. 20% or less B. 50% or less C. 10% or less D. 25% or less

Answer 33

A. 20% or less | This is the correct answer.

Question 34

In all major workspaces, how should all lighting except decorative fixtures be controlled to meet the requirements of Feature 60 Automated Shading and Dimming Controls, Part 2: Responsive Light Control? A. Use occupancy sensors to dim to 20% or less when the zone is unoccupied, and engage automatic shading devices when light sensors indicate that sunlight could contribute to glare B. Be programmed to dim continuously in response to daylight, and engage automatic shading devices when light sensors indicate that sunlight could contribute to glare C. Use occupancy sensors to dim to 20% or less when the zone is unoccupied, and be programmed to dim continuously in response to daylight D. Use occupancy sensors to dim to 50% or less when the zone is unoccupied, and be programmed to dim continuously in response to daylight

Answer 34

C. Use occupancy sensors to dim to 20% or less when the zone is unoccupied, and be programmed to dim continuously in response to daylight This is correct

Question 35

The requirement that 75% of all workstations be within 7.5 m (25 ft) of an atrium or window with views to the exterior is included in which WELL Feature? A. Feature 63 Daylighting Fenestration B. Feature 61 Right To Light C. Feature 73 Ergonomics: visual and physical D. Feature 87 Beauty and Design I

Answer 35

B. Feature 61 Right To Light | This is the correct answer.

Question 36

At an existing library building, the facility manager is tasked with assessing the current layout against the requirements of Feature 61 Right to Light, Part 1: Lease Depth. Which of the following metrics should the facility manager use in the calculations? A. Number of building occupants B. Number of desks C. Number of regularly occupied seats within 7.5m (25 ft) of view windows D. Area of regularly occupied spaces within 7.5m (25 ft) of view windows

Answer 36

D. Area of regularly occupied spaces within 7.5m (25 ft) of view windows This is the correct answer. The facility manager should calculate 75% of the area of all regularly occupied spaces within 7.5m (25 ft) of view windows.

Question 37

Which of the following Features sets the minimum distances from windows to regularly occupied spaces? A. Feature 61 Right to Light B. Feature 63 Daylighting Fenestration C. Feature 53 Visual Lighting Design D. Feature 57 Low-Glare Workstation Design

Answer 37

A. Feature 61 Right to Light This is the correct answer. To ensure that daylight is maximized within buildings, this feature sets minimum distances from windows to regularly occupied spaces. - WELL Building Standard, Feature 61

Question 38

Which of the following terms refers to minimum levels of natural lighting in spaces? A. Transmissivity B. Visible transmittance C. Annual sunlight exposure D. Spatial daylight autonomy

Answer 38

D. Spatial daylight autonomy | This is the correct answer.

Question 39

To comply with the requirements of Feature 62 Daylight Modeling, what is the maximum total time per year that up to 10% of regularly occupied space can receive more than 1,000 lux (93 fc)? A. 200 hours B. 250 hours C. 300 hours D. 350 hours

Answer 39

B. 250 hours | This is the correct answer.

Question 40

A new corporate headquarters building is being constructed in a dense urban area. During the design phase, lighting simulations demonstrate that 40% of regularly occupied space receives at least 300 lux (28 fc) for over 50% of operating hours each year. What should the designers change to meet WELL Building requirements for spatial daylight autonomy? A. Increase window area to ensure that 50% of regularly occupied space is reached by natural lightv B. Introduce light shelves to increase minimum lux received to 400 lux C. Include light wells to ensure that 60% of regularly occupied space is reached by natural light D. Change building orientation to ensure that natural light reaches regularly occupied space for more than 60% of operating hours each year

Answer 40

C. Include light wells to ensure that 60% of regularly occupied space is reached by natural light This is the correct answer. For Feature 62 Daylight Modeling, 55% of the space must receive at least 300 lux (28 fc) of sunlight for at least 50% of operating hours each year.

Question 41

Out of the recommended weekly workouts, how many should be muscle training, according to The American College of Sports Medicine? A. Once a week B. At least 4 per week C. At least 2 per week D. Every day

Answer 41

C. At least 2 per week This is the correct answer. The American College of Sports Medicine, among others, recommends that all healthy adults engage in at least 30 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity five days per week, and muscle-strengthening activities at least two days per week.

Question 42

Feature 67 requires pedestrian amenities like a bench or a drinking fountain at projects of what size? A. Sites with buildings over 4 stories above ground B. Sites in which the building takes up less than 75% of the total lot size C. Sites with at least 46.5 m2 (500 ft2) of open space D. Sites of any size

Answer 42

B. Sites in which the building takes up less than 75% of the total lot size This is the correct answer.

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT a contributor to growing physical inactivity rates around the world? A. Modern transportation B. Sedentary jobs C. Longer lifespans D. Labor saving conveniences

Answer 43

C. Longer lifespans This is the correct answer. Review the Fitness Concept, Background. Modern transportation, labor saving conveniences and sedentary jobs have created an environment in which millions of people fail to achieve the minimum level of activity necessary to help prevent type 2 diabetes, metabolic syndrome, obesity, heart disease and other chronic conditions.

Question 44

A project team has decided to pursue Feature 71 Active Furnishings with several desk-top height adjustment stands. To what other WELL Feature could these contribute? A. Feature 70 Fitness Equipment B. Feature 72 Accessible Design C. Feature 73 Ergonomics: Visual and Physical D. Feature 64 Interior Fitness Circulation

Answer 44

C. Feature 73 Ergonomics: Visual and Physical | This is correct.

Question 45

The average adult obtains how many minutes of moderate to vigorous intensity physical activity? A. 5 Minutes per day B. 10 Minutes per day C. 6-10 Minutes per day D. 15 Minutes per day

Answer 45

C. 6-10 Minutes per day This is the correct answer. Review Fitness Feature, Background: An average adult obtains only 6-10 minutes of moderate to vigorous intensity physical activity a day.“ WELL Building Standard

Question 46

Physical inactivity is estimated to be responsible for what percentage of heart disease? A. 30% B. 50% C. 9% D. 15%

Answer 46

A. 30% This is the correct answer. Review Fitness Feature, Background Physical inactivity is an independent risk factor for numerous chronic diseases and is estimated to be responsible for 30% of ischemic heart disease.

Question 47

According to Feature 71 Active Furnishings, which of the following should be available for at least 60% of workstations? A. Adjustable height standing desk B. Treadmill desk C. Wellness ball chair D. Portable desk pedal

Answer 47

A. Adjustable height standing desk This is correct. See Part 2: Prevalent Standing Desks. Other acceptable alternatives are standard desk with desk-top height adjustment stand, and pairs of fixed-height desks of standing and seated heights (which need not be located adjacent to each other).

Question 48

Muscle-strengthening exercise equipment should be provided in a quantity that would allow use by what percentage of regular building occupants? A. 1% B. 3% C. 5% D. 7%

Answer 48

A. 1% This is the correct answer. Equipment may be provided in the interior fitness space free of charge, or in a shared gym or similar physical activity space located within 200 m [650 ft] of the WELL project boundary.

Question 49

For the mechanical equipment sound levels to meet the WELL Building Standard, what is the maximum noise criteria (NC) allowed for enclosed offices? A. 40 B. 35 C. 30 D. 20

Answer 49

B. 35 | This is the correct answer.

Question 50

Which of the following best describes homeothermy? A. Maintaining body core heat through internal means and regulated by the cerebellum B. Stabling of external body temperature regardless of internal influence and regulated by the amygdala C. The balancing of heat gains and losses to maintain the body's core temperature within its narrow range, 36-38 degrees C [97-100 degrees F], and regulated by the hypothalamus D. Controlling body core temperature through internal means and regulated by the thalamus

Answer 50

C. The balancing of heat gains and losses to maintain the body's core temperature within its narrow range, 36-38 degrees C [97-100 degrees F], and regulated by the hypothalamus This is the correct answer.

Question 51

Feature 83 Radiant Thermal Comfort can be achieved through the use of radiant heating and cooling elements, independent of ventilation systems, in which two space types? A. Lobbies and offices B. Conference rooms and teleconference rooms C. Offices and conference rooms D. Stairways and lobbies

Answer 51

A. Lobbies and offices | This is the correct answer.

Question 52

Which of the following is used to achieve Feature 76 Thermal Comfort through either the Standard Comfort Zone or the Adaptive Comfort Zone? A. ASHRAE Standard 60 B. ASHRAE Standard 55 C. ASHRAE Standard 30 D. ASHRAE Standard 45

Answer 52

B. ASHRAE Standard 55 | This is the correct answer.

Question 53

The WELL Building Standard states that for natural thermal adaptation all spaces in naturally-ventilated projects meet which of the following criteria? A. ASHRAE Standard 60-2013 Section 5.1, Adaptive Comfort Model B. ASHRAE Standard 55-2013 Section 5.4, Adaptive Comfort Model C. ASHRAE Standard 30-2013 Section 5.2, Adaptive Comfort Model D. ASHRAE Standard 45-2013 Section 5.5, Adaptive Comfort Model

Answer 53

B. ASHRAE Standard 55-2013 Section 5.4, Adaptive Comfort Model This is the correct answer.

Question 54

Which of the following is most likely to trigger eye, nose and throat irritation, nausea, and headaches? A. Excessively strong or distinct odors B. Excessively hot or cold temperatures C. Excessively loud or distinct noise D. Excessive visual effects

Answer 54

A. Excessively strong or distinct odors | This is the correct answer.

Question 55

Strong odors can be kept from migrating to workspaces by utilizing negative pressurization, interstitial rooms, hallways, self-closing doors, and what other separation method? A. Thicker doors B. Fans C. Storage Rooms D. Vestibules

Answer 55

D. Vestibules | This is the correct answer.

Question 56

Reverberation time, or RT60, is a metric that describes the length of time taken for a sound to decay from its original level by which of the following? A. by 30 dB B. by 45 dB C. by 60 dB D. by 55 dB

Answer 56

C. by 60 dB | This is the correct answer.

Question 57

In spaces with high reverberation times, why are there higher levels of ambient noise? A. Sounds take longer to dissipate B. The space is filled with louder noises C. Sounds do not take as long to dissipate D. The noises are increased due to echoing of the space

Answer 57

A. Sounds take longer to dissipate | This is the correct answer.

Question 58

What is the maximum reverberation time (RT60) for a conference room? A. 0.8 seconds B. 0.7 seconds C. 0.5 seconds D. 0.6 seconds

Answer 58

D. 0.6 seconds | This is the correct answer.

Question 59

What document is produced with the consent of stakeholders detailing the buildings health-oriented mission? A. Directory of tenants B. Listing of the Project Management team C. Building layout D. Development plan

Answer 59

D. Development plan This is the correct answer. The development plan incorporates: a. Building site selection, taking into account public transportation. b. WELL Concepts of air, water, nourishment, light, fitness, comfort and mind. c. Plans for implementation of the above analyses and decisions. Operations and maintenance plans for facility managers and building policy requirements related to wellness.

Question 60

Once construction is complete, the designers, managers and facilities staff must tour the building as a group. Who else needs to tour the building with the group? A. City officials B. Owners C. Cleaning crew D. New tenants

Answer 60

B. Owners | This is the correct answer.

Question 61

Why are post-occupancy surveys useful? A. City officials require the building space to be at least 85% full with tenants. B. They are needed because the city needs to know the number of tenants in a building space. C. They measure the extent to which a building is effectively promoting and protecting the health and comfort needs of its occupants. D. Management is able to track the empty office space and fill with new tenants

Answer 61

C. They measure the extent to which a building is effectively promoting and protecting the health and comfort needs of its occupants. This is the correct answer.

Question 62

Aggregate results from post-occupancy surveys are reported within 30 days to which of the following groups? A. Engineers that worked on the project B. City officials C. Internal Revenue Service D. Building owners and managers

Answer 62

D. Building owners and managers | This is the correct answer.

Question 63

Feature 87 Beauty and Design I requires features intended for which of the following? A. Celebration of culture B. Celebration of seasons C. Celebration of local artists D. Celebration of diversity

Answer 63

A. Celebration of culture This is the correct answer. Review Feature 87 Beauty and Design I, Part 1: Beauty and Mindful Design. Projects must contain features intended for: a. Human delight b. Celebration of culture c. Celebration of spirit d. Celebration of place e. Meaningful integration of public art

Question 64

The idea that humans have an affinity towards the natural world, is referred to as which of the following terms? A. Celebration of culture B. Nature Syncing C. Celebration of nature D. Biophilia

Answer 64

D. Biophilia This is the correct answer. Review Feature 88 Biophilia I Qualitative, Intro

Question 65

A biophilia plan is developed that describes how the project incorporates nature through environmental elements and lighting. What other component should the biophilia plan address? A. Building design B. Having an organic garden available C. Space layout D. Elements of artistic work

Answer 65

C. Space layout | This is the correct answer.

Question 66

Healthy work environments should be designed to mitigate stress and which of the following? A. Optimize productivity B. Have organic food options available C. Promote better communication with management D. Promote local artists

Answer 66

A. Optimize productivity | This is the correct answer.

Question 67

High-quality sleep is essential to good health. Which of the following requirements should be met for Feature 90 Healthy Sleep Policy? A. Employees should not begin work until 10:00am B. For non-shift work, an organizational cap should be set at midnight for late night work and communications. C. Employees should not be On-call during the week D. Employees should be provided with a monitor to track their REM sleep

Answer 67

B. For non-shift work, an organizational cap should be set at midnight for late night work and communications. This is the correct answer.

Question 68

At a non-profit with 200 employees, annual Occupant Indoor Environmental Quality surveys are administered to a representative sample of 30% of the employees. Which WELL Concept requires that the survey results are delivered to IWBI within 30 days? A. Mind B. Comfort C. Fitness D. Air

Answer 68

A. Mind | This is the correct answer.

Question 69

Which of the following is NOT a porous high-touch surface that requires more frequent and thorough cleaning? A. Fabric wallcoverings B. Towels C. Rugs D. Upholstered furniture covers

Answer 69

A. Fabric wallcoverings This is the correct answer. Review Table A1: High-Touch Surfaces Porous materials include rugs, upholstered furniture covers, fabric curtains, towels, and bedding (linens, pillow cases and comforter.)

Question 70

The WELL Building Standard v1 shares multiple similarities with the LEED v4 Rating Systems. Which of the following LEED v4 credits is most similar to WELL Feature 56 Solar Glare Control? A. EQ Credit Daylight B. EQ Credit Quality Views C. EQ Credit Interior Lighting D. EQ Credit Enhanced Commissioning

Answer 70

A. EQ Credit Daylight This is the correct answer. Review Appendix E: LEED v4 Similarities

Question 71

Which of the following WELL Features is a Precondition of certification for New and Existing Buildings? A. Feature 98 Organizational Transparency B. Feature 73 Ergonomics: Visual and Physical C. Feature 89 Adaptable Spaces D. Feature 37 Drinking Water Promotion

Answer 71

B. Feature 73 Ergonomics: Visual and Physical This is the correct answer. Feature 73 Ergonomics: Visual and Physical is a Precondition for New and Existing Buildings.

Question 72

Creating a distraction-free, productive environment is the intent of which WELL Concept? A. Mind B. Light C. Comfort D. Fitness

Answer 72

C. Comfort | This is the correct answer.

Question 73

Minimizing disruption to the body's circadian rhythm is the intent of which WELL Concept? A. Mind B. Light C. Comfort D. Fitness

Answer 73

B. Light | This is the correct answer.

Question 74

Which of the following organizations is a public benefit corporation whose mission is to improve human health and well-being through the built Environment? A. Green Business Certification Inc (GBCI) B. Delos Living LLC C. International WELL Building Institute (IWBI) D. U.S. Green Building Council (USGBC)

Answer 74

C. International WELL Building Institute (IWBI) | This is the correct answer.

Question 75

IWBI was established pursuant to which of the following commitments? A. Clinton Global Initiative B. COP21 C. Montreal Protocol D. Kyoto Protocol

Answer 75

A. Clinton Global Initiative | This is the correct answer.

Question 76

How many Optimizations are required for WELL Core and Shell Silver Certification? A. 40% of applicable Optimizations B. One per Concept C. 80% of applicable Optimizations D. None

Answer 76

D. None This is the correct answer. WELL v1 Building Standard Silver Certification requires all preconditions; and no optimizations. WELL v1 Building Standard Gold Certification requires all preconditions AND 40% of optimizations. WELL v1 Building Standard Platinum Certification requires all preconditions AND 80% of optimizations.

Question 77

What percent of WELL Preconditions must be met in order to achieve Silver Certification? A. 75% B. 90% C. 95% D. 100%

Answer 77

D. 100% This is the correct answer. For certification or compliance to be awarded, all applicable preconditions must be met.

Question 78

Which of the following WELL Features would benefit from the addition of indoor plantings? A. Feature 89 Adaptable Spaces and Feature 100 Biophilia II Quantitative B. Feature 34 Public Water Additives and Feature 40 Food Allergies C. Feature 14 Air Infiltration Management and Feature 59 Surface Design D. Feature 86 Post-occupancy surveys and Feature 87 Beauty and design I

Answer 78

A. Feature 89 Adaptable Spaces and Feature 100 Biophilia II Quantitative This is the correct answer. Feature 89 Adaptable Spaces, Part 2: Privacy and Feature Biophilia II Quantitative, Part 2: Indoor Biophilia both include options for adding plants to meet the requirements of the Feature.

Question 79

Which of the following Nourishment Features most benefit the dietary needs of buildings occupants with gluten allergies? A. Feature 44 Nutritional Information and Feature 45 Food Advertising B. Feature 40 Food Allergies and Feature 48 Special Diets C. Feature 42 Food Contamination and Feature 52 Mindful Eating D. Feature 49 Responsible Food Production and Feature 50 Food Storage

Answer 79

B. Feature 40 Food Allergies and Feature 48 Special Diets This is the correct answer. Feature 40 Food Allergies and Feature 48 Special Diets both include requirements dedicated towards labeling gluten-containing foods and gluten-free food alternatives.

Question 80

Which of the following Air Features includes a requirement for Visual Inspection? A. Feature 4 VOC Reduction B. Feature 13 Air Flush C. Feature 16 Humidity Control D. Feature 22 Pest Control

Answer 80

D. Feature 22 Pest Control This is the correct answer. Features 4 and 13 only require Letters of Assurance. Feature 16 Humidity Control requires a Spot Check, but not a Visual Inspection.

Question 81

Which of the following Comfort Features includes a requirement for Letters of Assurance from the MEP? A. Feature 74 Exterior Noise Intrusion B. Feature 76 Thermal Comfort C. Feature 79 Sound Masking D. Feature 81 Sound Barriers

Answer 81

B. Feature 76 Thermal Comfort | This is the correct answer.

Question 82

Which of the following Comfort Features requires a Policy Document? A. Feature 29 Cleaning Equipment B. Feature 35 Periodic Water Quality Testing C. Feature 54 Circadian Lighting Design D. Feature 82 Individual Thermal Control

Answer 82

D. Feature 82 Individual Thermal Control This is the correct answer. Refer to Appendix D: Feature Types and Verification Methods. Policy Document needed for Feature 82 Part 1: Free Address.

Question 83

A Commissioning Agent is preparing the project commissioning report. Which WELL Features should the report cover? A. Feature 3 Ventilation Effectiveness and Feature 14 Air Infiltration Management B. Feature 7 Construction Pollution Management and Feature 53 Visual Lighting Design C. Feature 14 Air Infiltration Management and Feature 53 Visual Lighting Design D. Feature 3 Ventilation Effectiveness and Feature 7 Construction Pollution Management

Answer 83

A. Feature 3 Ventilation Effectiveness and Feature 14 Air Infiltration Management This is the correct answer.

Question 84

Which WELL Feature has the most similarities with LEED v4 Credit Daylight? A. Feature 61 Right to Light B. Feature 56 Solar Glare Control C. Feature 58 Color Quality D. Feature 62 Daylight Modeling

Answer 84

B. Feature 56 Solar Glare Control | This is the correct answer.

Question 85

Which LEED v4 credit has the most similarities with WELL Feature 14 Air Infiltration Management? A. EA Credit Enhanced Commissioning (Option 2) B. EQ Credit Indoor Air Quality Assessment C. EQ Credit Thermal Comfort D. EQ Prerequisite Minimum Indoor Air Quality Performance

Answer 85

A. EA Credit Enhanced Commissioning (Option 2) | This is the correct answer.

Question 86

In order to comply with Feature 26 Enhanced Material Safety, 25% of products (by cost) must be certified under which of the following standards? A. Cradle to CradleTM B. GreenScreenB Benchmark I C. California Air Resources Board D. Green Seal

Answer 86

A. Cradle to CradleTM This is the correct answer. At least 25% of products by cost (including furnishings, built-in furniture, all interior finishes and finish materials) must be either Cradle to CradleTM certified or have no GreenScreen prohibited substances, as verified by a qualified PhD toxicologist or Certified Industrial Hygienist.

Question 87

Which of the following WELL Features promotes the use of products that have been independently verified to be free of many suspected hazards? A. Feature 26 Enhanced Material Safety B. Feature 07 Construction Pollution Management C. Feature 11 Fundamental Material Safety D. Feature 28 Cleanable Environment

Answer 87

A. Feature 26 Enhanced Material Safety This is the correct answer. Feature 26 Enhanced Material Safety promotes the use of products that are free of many suspected hazards by requiring that at least 25% of products by cost are Cradle to Cradle™ Material Health Certified or have no GreenScreen® prohibited substances.

Question 88

An urban development has recently completed construction, and new tenants are moving in. The project team is tabulating all products (including furnishings, furniture, and finishes) to report for Feature 26 Enhanced Material Safety. What metric should the project team use to report compliance? A. either weight or cost B. weight C. volume D. cost

Answer 88

D. cost This is the correct answer. Feature 26 Enhanced Material Safety is based on product cost and not product weight or product volume.

Question 89

Pesticide compounds that have contaminated groundwater through agricultural and stormwater runoff have been linked to kidney, thyroid, gastrointestinal and what other health problem? A. Heart attacks B. Reproductive difficulties C. High blood pressure D. Lung cancer

Answer 89

B. Reproductive difficulties

Question 90

According to Feature 51 Food Production, which of the following is NOT provided to grow and maintain a garden space? A. Planting medium B. Gardening tools C. Exterior lighting D. Irrigation

Answer 90

C. Exterior lighting This is the correct answer. Review Feature 51 Food Production

Question 91

For no more than what percentage of regularly occupied space should annual sunlight exposure (ASE1000,250) be achieved? A. 10% B. 15% C. 80% D. 90%

Answer 91

A. 10% | This is the correct answer.

Question 92

Which of the following terms describes the percentage of space in which the light level from direct sun alone exceeds a pre-defined threshold?v A. Transmissivity B. Visible transmittance C. Annual sunlight exposure D. Spatial daylight autonomy

Answer 92

C. Annual sunlight exposure This is the correct answer. Review Appendix A: Glossary. Definition of Annual Sunlight Exposure

Question 93

Which of the following strategies would a WELL project team use to promote the use of stairs in a building of 4 floors? A. Neighborhood walkability B. Reimbursement for gym memberships C. Locating stairs close to the building entrance and lobby D. Limit elevator operating hours

Answer 93

C. Locating stairs close to the building entrance and lobby This is the correct answer. Feature 64 Interior Fitness Circulation, Part 2: Stair Promotion requires that in projects of 2 to 4 floors, at least 1 staircase: a. is located within 7.5 m (25 ft) of the entrance to the building or edge of its lobby b. is clearly visible from the main entrance to the project, or located visually before any elevators present upon entering from the main entrance c. has a stair width set at a minimum of 1.4 m (56 in) between handrails, or the width allowable by local code.

Question 94

What is a specific cause reported for employee's acoustic dissatisfaction in an open office according to Feature 79 Sound Masking? A. Listening to the HVAC system B. Overhearing private conversations C. Echoing of sound D. Hearing noise from the building exterior

Answer 94

B. Overhearing private conversations | This is the correct answer.

Question 95

When sound masking systems are used in open office spaces, sound levels must fall within which range? A. 40-42 dBA when measured from the nearest workspace B. 35-38 dBA when measured from the nearest workspace C. 30-32 dBA when measured from the nearest workspace D. 45-48 dBA when measured from the nearest workspace

Answer 95

D. 45-48 dBA when measured from the nearest workspace | This is the correct answer.

Question 96

What is the average value that determines the absorptive properties of materials? A. The sound absorption coefficient (SAC) B. The noise reduction coefficient (NRC) C. The sound reduction coefficient (SRC) D. The noise absorption coefficient (NAC)

Answer 96

B. The noise reduction coefficient (NRC) | This is the correct answer.

Question 97

What is one of the main stressors of business travel, according to Feature 91 Business Travel? A. Increased personal spending B. Healthy dietary option may not be readily available C. Increased workload upon return D. Airport delays

Answer 97

C. Increased workload upon return | This is the correct answer.

Question 98

To improve the overall health and satisfaction of workers and their families, employers should provide which of the following health benefits to employees? A. On-call pharmacist for medical advice B. Flexible spending accounts C. Gym inside the office building D. On-site child care

Answer 98

B. Flexible spending accounts This is the correct answer. Review Feature 92 Building Health Policy

Question 99

Employers should provide which of the following to nursing mothers? A. Ability to work remotely for 6 months B. Break times of at least 15 minutes, every 3 hours C. On-call doctor for any questions that may arise D. On-site childcare

Answer 99

B. Break times of at least 15 minutes, every 3 hours | This is the correct answer.v

Question 100

Which WELL Feature has the most similarities with LEED v4 SS Credit Open Space? A. Feature 66 Structured Fitness Opportunities B. Feature 64 Interior Fitness Circulation C. Feature 68 Physical Activity Spaces D. Feature 69 Active Transportation Support

Answer 100

C. Feature 68 Physical Activity Spaces | This is the correct answer.