Practice Test Uworld Flashcards

(48 cards)

1
Q

What’s the underlying pathophysiology of ARDS?

A

Damage to endothelial cells lining the pulmonary capillaries. Results in leakage of fluid into the alveoli (exudate)

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2
Q

What causes the damage to endothelial cell lining the pulmonary capillaries in ARDS?

A

Inflammatory cytokine and PMN. Also called diffuse alveolar damage (DAD).

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3
Q

Describe the CXR of an ARDS pt?

A

Diffuse bilateral pulmonary infiltrate

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4
Q

What are the characterisitcs of diabetic nephropathy?

A

Mesangial expansion, GM thickening and glomerular sclerosis. (hyaline deposits)

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5
Q

What’s Globus hystericus?

A

A lump in the thorat c/o PE findings or endo/rad signs. Can be triggered by emotions.

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6
Q

What normally prevents urate crystals from triggering an immune response?

A

A protective coating of Apolipoprotein E or Apolipoprotein B. When uric acid levels increase, bare crystals are exposed to IgG antibodies.

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7
Q

What characterizes endometriosis on histo?

A

Endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus.

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8
Q

Which vitamin is teratogenic

A

Vitamin A

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9
Q

What are the two treatments for Influenza A/B?

A

Zanamivir and Oseltamivir, both are influenza neuraminidase inhibitors, decreasing viral release

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10
Q

What’s DNA laddering?

A

Multiple DNA fragments in multiples of 180 base pairs. Indicative of APOPTOSIS.

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11
Q

What’s contact inhibition?

A

Cells get stuck in G1 if they get touched on all sides. Tells the cell there is no much space left.

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12
Q

What are the common side effects experienced by elderly patients on benzos?

A

Confusion, retrograde amnesia, and psychomotor retardation. More prone in the elderly because they are slower to metabilize benzo.

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13
Q

What are the 5 IV anesthetics?

A

Barbiturates (thiopental- inductio, very lipid soluble)
Benzodiazepines- Midazolam - most common for endoscopy.
Arylcyclohexylamines (KETAMINE) NMDA receptor blocker.
Opioids-
Propofol - ICU sedation, rapid anesthesia

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14
Q

What’s a somatic mutation?

A

An acquired alteration of somatic DNA. CANNOT be passed to offspring.

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15
Q

Describe incomplete penetrance?

A

Despite mutation, the gene sometimes produces associated trait.

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16
Q

What’s germline mosaicism?

A

Two or more genetically different gamete cell lines. Consider when a genetic mutation is identified on offspring but not the parents.

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17
Q

When do germline mosaicism mutations happen?

A

In embryonic stage. The earlier the more daughter cells affected.

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18
Q

Which interleukin is produces exclusively by T lymphocytes?

A

IL-2, it stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cells, B cells, NK cell, and MO.

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19
Q

What causes Molluscum contagiosum (flesh-colored dome lesions with central dimple)?

A

Caused by poxvirus, DS linear, largest DNA virus.

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20
Q

What’s at risk in anterior or posterior knee dislocation, besides the ligaments?

A

Polpiteal artery. Always check pulses distal to dislocation. The artery is deep within the fossa and fixed by muscles, making it suceptible to tearing by traction.

21
Q

What’s endometritis?

A

An infection of the uterus due to left over delivery tissue. Usually due to bacteroides species. Presents with lower ABD pain, fever and foul smelling vaginal discharge.

22
Q

What’s nummular eczema?

A

Usually due to harsh soaps and exposure to irritants. Presents with a coin-shaped pruritic erythematous patch.

23
Q

What’s the difference between schizophreniform disorder and schizophrenia?

A

Duration!!
less than 1 month = psychotic episode
1-6 months = schizophreniform
More than 6 months = schizophrenia

24
Q

What’s the most common cause of viral encephalitis?

A

HSV-1. Usually affects the temporal lobe. Present with fever, HA, malaise, and temporal lobe effects (seizures/personality changes)

25
Where is the deficiency in Acute intermittent Porphyria?
Due to a defect in HYDROXYMETHYLBILANE (HMB) SYNTHASE.
26
What's pleitropy?
One mutation with multiple simultaneous phenotypic effects.
27
What's polyploidy?
more than two complete sets of homologous chromosomes exist with a cell.
28
Does congesitve heart failure cause exudates or transudate pleural effusion?
TRANSUDATE (low protein/low LDH).
29
Who's protein rich, exudate or transudate?
Exudate
30
What's the primary test for hereditary spherocytosis?
Osmotic fragility test.
31
What risk is decreased by splenectomry in hereditary spherocytosis patients?
Gallstones formation.
32
What the most common association of Myesthenia Gravis?
Thymoma
33
What tumors are associated with RB1 mutations?
Retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma. Two hits needed. Either born with one deficient, acquire the second mutations. Or germ line defect with loss of heterogeneity.
34
What's the defect in DiGeorge syndrome?
Thymis aplasia due to THIRD PHARYNGEAL POUCH FAILURE.
35
Why is there hyperkalemia in DKA?
Acedimia drives K+/H+ exchangers and the insulin drive to push K+ into cells is missing. However the total body K+ is low.
36
Brain injury in premature infant
Intraventricular hemorrhage, most often from germinal matrix.
37
What type of cancers are found in head and neck? Cause?
Squamos cell carcinomas, strongly associated with alcohol and tobacco use. With local metastasis to cervical lymphnodes.
38
How do transmembrane proteins get anchored to PM?
palmitoylation.
39
Effects of nitro on preload and HR?
Decrease in preload (EDV) and increase in HR (reflex to decrease in CO)
40
Short stature, short fingers and hypocalcemia
Albright hereditary osteodystrophy. Autosomal dominant. Kidneys are resistant to PTH
41
What explains the differences between Duchenne's muscular dystrophy and Becker's muscular dystrophy?
Allelic heterogeneity. In Duchenne's there is a complete loss of function mutation. In Becker's there is a partial mutation, the protein is still partially functional.
42
What causes "bronze diabetes."?
HEMOCHROMATOSIS
43
What's the mutation in Bruton agammaglobulinemia?
BTK, needed for B cell maturation
44
What's the role of signal recognition particles?
These recognize 15-20 hydrophobic amino acid residues and target ribosomal complex to RER pores to carry out translation into the RER.
45
How can you have a low testosterone level in your nuts but not your body?
Failure of sertoli cells to make androgen binding proteins (ABP), they help maintain a locally high concentration of testosterone in the semiferous tubules, needed for sperm production.
46
Which ligament in the uterus goes through the inguinal canal?
The round ligament of the uterus (vestige of the gubernaculum).
47
What lab values do you expect in a pt with a PE?
Hypoximia, which drives the body to hyperventilate causing a respiratory alkalosis. Low O2 and CO2 are also observed.
48
What happens with rapid vancomycin infusions?
Widespread release of histamine from mast cells. Red man syndrome. THIS IS NOT AN IGE MEDIATED ALLERGIC RX.