Practice Tests

Question 1

Which Act was passed by Congress regarding extra-label drug use that was aimed to alleviate some of the barriers veterinarians faced when they must prescribe human drugs for patients, and when they must use a drug that was not approved for a particular species of patient?
a. The Animal Medical Drug Clarification Act
b. The Medical and Therapeutic Dispensing Act
c. The Animal Medicinal Dispensation Act
d. The Pharmaceutical Adaption Act

Answer 1

a. The Animal Medical Drug Clarification Act

(The animal Medical Clarification Act has made it legal to prescribe a human drug, such as insulin, for a veterinary patient. It has also made it acceptable to use a veterinary specific drug on a species of animal for which it has not been approved by the FDA when no other veterinary drug for the same condition is available.)

Question 2

When is conducting a background check on an applicant permissible?
a. When the applicant has given explicit permission
b. When the applicant has submitted an applicant
c. When the applicant has signed the application for employment
d. When the applicant has been hired

Answer 2

a. When the applicant has given explicit permission

Question 3

Why is it important for managers of a veterinary practice to strictly enforce practice standards related to telephone communications?
a. It prevents clients from receiving inaccurate information
b. It encourages staff to resolve customer service issues creatively
c. It maintains the quality and consistency of customer service
d. It increases staff efficiency and productivity

Answer 3

c. It maintains the quality and consistency of customer service

Question 4

Sending a copy of a pet’s lab results to the owner provides which benefit?
a. Internal marketing
b. External marketing
c. Thorough treatment protocols
d. Documentation beyond the patient record

Answer 4

a. Internal marketing

Question 5

How frequently should staff meetings be held?
a. Once a month for general interest meetings
b. Whenever there is a problem to address
c. Weekly as time permits
d. On a regular basis

Answer 5

d. On a regular basis

(Approximately once a month or once a quarter depending on the size of the hospital. Larger hospitals tend to have more department meetings than general interest meetings.)

Question 6

What is customer experience management (CEM)?
a. A process of creating an experience that is positive and memorable
b. A plan for reputation management in the marketing strategy
c. A planned survey process for client satisfaction
d. A process of gathering data about client preferences

Answer 6

a. A process of creating an experience that is positive and memorable

(CEM is a proactive process of creating an experience that is positive and memorable. Customer relation management is a proactive process of gathering data about client preferences and activities to better target products and services relevant to their needs.)

Question 7

In which situation would it be beneficial to apply the economic order quantity (EOQ) formula?
a. When ordering manufacturer or seasonal specials
b. When ordering new products for the first time
c. When ordering new equipment
d. When ordering regularly used products

Answer 7

d. When ordering regularly used products

Question 8

Which of the statements about the Sherman Antitrust Act is NOT true?
a. The Act restrains interstate commerce with routine inspections of both cargo and the documentation of the shipment’s source.
b. The Act preserves the underlying principle that our nation shall function under a competitive business economy.
c. The Department of Justice has a wide degree of interpretation and application of the law.
d. Labor unions are legislatively exempted for the Act.

Answer 8

a. The Act restrains interstate commerce with routine inspections of both cargo and the documentation of the shipment’s source.

All federal and state anti-trust legislation contains statutes with a basic unifying principle that is to ensure economic freedom for competitors and consumers. They are considered the Magna Carta of free enterprise.

Question 9

Which tax to employers NOT withhold from employee paychecks?
a. Medicare tax
b. Federal Unemployment Tax Act (FUTA)
c. Income Tax
d. Social Security tax

Answer 9

b. Federal Unemployment Tax Act (FUTA)

Question 10

Who. owns the patient medical record?
a. The client or pet owner who authorized treatment for a patient at the patient list
b. The attending medical professionals or the hospital in which they are employed or practicing

Answer 10

b. The attending medical professionals or the hospital in which they are employed or practicing

Question 11

Which statement is NOT trust regarding the Americans with Disabilities Act?
a. It prohibits the discrimination against any qualified person with a disability.
b. It covers employees who require a position to be created for them to stay unemployed.
c. It applies to employers who have 15 or more employees.
d. It does not permit employers to ask employees about the existence, nature, or severity of a disability.

Answer 11

b. It covers employees who require a position to be created for them to stay employed.

Question 12

If an employee has health insurance through the practice, what assures the employee of the opportunity for continuing health coverage after quitting or being terminated?
a. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
b. Medicare
c. Social Security
d. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Answer 12

a. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act

Question 13

There are four basic groups for tacking expenses including Personnel, Variable/COGS, and Fixed/Administrative. What is the fourth group?
a. Occupancy/Facility
b. Short-term/Long-term Liabilities
c. DVM Commission
d. Interest expense

Answer 13

a. Occupancy/Facility

It is often beneficial to group certain expenses for simplicity in identifying trends instead of listing each individual line item expense separately.

Question 14

Your practice purchased a digital radiography machine for $65,000. The calculated costs per a 2-view series is $82 for staff time, supplies, and maintenance directly related to the service. You have decided to charge $230 for a two view radiograph. How many 2-view series will your practice need to take to break even on the investment of the machine?
a. 439
b. 619
c. 298
d. 283

Answer 14

a. 439

Question 15

The Pregnancy Discrimination Act makes it clear that discrimination on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions constitutes unlawful sex discrimination under the Civil Rights Act. However, an employer may take the welfare of a fetus into account when deciding to permit a pregnant employee to remain on the job or perform specific job functions. True or False?

Answer 15

False

*The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 makes it clear that discrimination on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions constitutes unlawful sex discrimination under the Civil Rights Act. The basic principle of the act is that women affected by pregnancy and related conditions must be treated the same as other applicants and employees, on the basis of their ability or inability to work.

An employer may not take fetal welfare into account when deciding whether to permit a pregnant employee to remain on the job (but the pregnant employee should be advised of any workplace hazards that could affect her pregnancy).*

Question 16

In relation to the Federal Unemployment Tax Act, why should a practice manager maintain excellent employee records for employees who quit?
a. Because high number of claims will only trigger an audit of the records.
b. Because it is part of a manager’s job duties
c. Because the law requires that the records be kept for five years from the last day of employment.
d. Because it is often the manager’s responsibility to refute unjustified unemployment claims.

Answer 16

d. Because it is often the manager’s responsibility to refute unjustified unemployment claims.

Question 17

Which statement is true regarding the marketing benefits of a practice participating in community service and community activities?
a. It accounts for all of the goodwill necessary in a marketing plan.
b. It meets 50% of the marketing budget for advertising.
c. It provided a blend of external marketing, client education, and advertising.
d. It meets all the practice’s external marketing needs.

Answer 17

c. It provides a blend of external marketing, client education, and advertising.

Question 18

Which formula represents the number of lost clients per year?
a. Clients who cancel + clients requesting transfer of records + clients who no-who
b. Active clients this year + new clients this year - active clients this year
c. Active clients last year - active clients this year
d. Clients requesting transfer of records + inactive client records

Answer 18

b. Active clients last year + new clients this year - active clients this year

Question 19

When is OSHA training required for newly hired employees?
a. Immediately after the benefits waiting period is over
b. On the first day of work
c. As soon as there is an opening in the team training cycle
d. Before the employee is allowed to perform work

Answer 19

d. Before the employee is allowed to perform work

Question 20

In regards to capacity to contract, such as a pet owner contracting with a practice to treat their pet, there are three basic situations where legitimacy regarding the capacity to make a valid contract would be questioned. Which element below is NOT one of those situations?
a. A minor under the state common law rules
b. A person not listed as the legal owner of the pet
c. Intoxication or substance abuse
d. Mental disability

Answer 20

b. A person not listed as the legal owner of the pet

Question 21

What is the maximum number of mass text messages that a practice should send to clients per month to avoid the messages being considered spam?
a. 5 per month
b. 4 per month
c. 2 per month
d. 10 per month

Answer 21

c. 2 per month

Question 22

Which pre-employment screening is NOT legal?
a. Drug test
b. Background check
c. Polygraph test
d. Aptitude test

Answer 22

c. Polygraph test

Question 23

When expenses are stated as a percentage of gross revenue it is called what?
a. Relative expense
b. Common Sizing
c. Normative Sizing
d. Normative expense

Answer 23

b. Common Sizing

Common sizing is an important management tool. In common sizing expenses are stated as a percentage of gross or net revenue, or net collections depending on the accounting basis being used. Stating expenses as a percentage of revenue allows for consistent measurement of experience for the current year and previous years.

Question 24

Which process accurately describes how employee payroll taxes are paid?
a. Payroll taxes are paid to the IRS through federal tax deposit system.
b. Taxes are paid once a year by April 15th
c. Taxes are paid through a federal tax deposit system on a semi-annual basis
d. Payroll taxes are paid to the accountant or payroll service

Answer 24

a. Payroll taxes are paid to the IRS through a federal tax deposit system

Question 25

DEA form 106 is used for which inventory purpose? a. To apply for a DEA license b. To report theft or loss of controlled substances c. To document inventory that has been surrendered for disposition d. To create biennial list of controlled drugs

Answer 25

b. To report theft or loss of controlled substances *Registrants are required to notify the Regional Office of the DEA of the theft or significant loss of any controlled substances upon discovery of such loss or theft. DEA From 106 is to be filled out at the time such notification takes place.*

Question 26

What is a benefit of a practice hosting its website? a. Ability to directly interact with clients b. Ability to ensure content is secure c. Ability to control content and update at will d. Ability to delegate the maintenance to a vendor

Answer 26

c. Ability to control content and update at will

Question 27

Maslow's Hierarchy is a philosophy that states that people seek to satisfy basic needs and that satisfying lower level needs results in the next level being a motivating factor. Maslow details the five common needs from most basic to the most fulfilling in this order; physiological needs, safety needs, relationship needs and esteem needs. What is the fifth and highest level of the hierarchy? a. Personal Realization b. Independent Achievement c. Self Governing Autonomy d. Self Actualization

Answer 27

d. Self Actualization

Question 28

The ideas of authoritarian and democratic leadership styles have been explained in Theory X and Theory Y. Theory X assumed that people prefer to be directed, are not interested in assuming responsibility, and are motivated primarily by money, benefits, and threat of punishment." True or False?

Answer 28

True

Question 29

What metric does the following formula calculate? Practice profit/Practice revenue= a. Net Profit Margin b. Gross Profit Margin

Answer 29

a. Net Profit Margin

Question 30

The Law of Negligence requires proof of four essential elements: 1- establishing the DVM had a duty to prevent injury, 2 - establishing that the duty was violated, 3- there is reasonable causation between the DVMs conduct and the resulting injury. What is the fourth element? a. Proof that the conduct was willful and purposeful b. Proof that the injury could have been prevented by reasonable actions c. Proof that actual damages occurred d. Proof that culpability lies specifically and only with the accused DVM

Answer 30

c. Proof that actual damages occurred

Question 31

When team members suspect that a co-worker has problems with drugs or alcohol and choose to become involved in encouraging a lifestyle change, an intervention is the first step. What are the four steps of drug intervention? a. Thorough planning, private setting, pre-planned boundaries, specific timeframe. b. Involve an addiction professional, be specific, create a goal and a results documented timeline, maintain professional boundaries. c. Time the intervention for when the addict is not impaired, be specific, state the consequences, listen. d. Have more than one supervisor/manager present, have pre-determined scripts to avoid personal tangents, hold the intervention in a confidential manner and location, have management seated closest to the doorway.

Answer 31

c. Time the intervention for when the addict is not impaired, be specific, state the consequences, listen.

Question 32

Which of the elements below are NOT one of the six steps in budgeting? a. Combining budgeted revenue and expenses and making adjustments. b. Comparison of the last three years expense as a percentage of gross. c. Determining the desired results. d. Normalizing revenue and expense.

Answer 32

b. Comparison of the last three years expense as a percent of gross *The six steps in budgeting are: 1- determining the desired financial result 2- analysis of the financial statements 3- normalizing the revenue and expenses 4- budgeting revenue 5- budgeting expenses 6- combining budgeted revenue and expenses and making adjustments.*

Question 33

When it comes to financial statement preparation and the three levels of analysis; which level is considered the highest level of assurance regarding the accuracy of the data? a. Review b. Evaluation c. Inspection d. Audit

Answer 33

d. Audit

Question 34

What is an internal control system? a. A system designed for safeguarding assets within the business. b. The system designed to oversee the expenses paid out of the business. c. The system designed to oversee the income and accounts receivable of the business. d. A system designed to keep track of all equipment within the business.

Answer 34

a. A system designed for safeguarding assets within the business.

Question 35

What is another name for the Hazard Chemical Standard (HCS)? a. Material Data Safety Standard b. Right to Know Law c. Chemical Safety Standard d. Hazardous Chemical Safety Plan

Answer 35

b. Right to Know Law

Question 36

What two steps should be performed when determining if additional staff should be hired? a. Discuss with the owner; create an advertisement b. Develop a budget; create a job description c. Develop a budget; create an advertisement for the position d. Create an advertisement for the position, create a job description

Answer 36

b. Develop a budget; create a job description

Question 37

What factors are considered in determining accrued sick time policies? a. The length of service before accrual beings and the accrual rate b. If unused sick time is paid out after termination or resignation and the accrual rate c. If employees are covered by FMLA and the number of hours worked per week d. The number of sick days taken per year by employees and it sick time rolls over to the next year

Answer 37

a. The length of service before accrual beings and the accrual rate

Question 38

Why should you conduct regular criminal background checks on all employees (identify two reasons)? a. As part of internal controls for cash handling and trying to prevent embezzlement b. As part of your performance review and compensation increase process c. As party of your identity theft policy d. All of the above

Answer 38

a. As part of internal controls for cash handling and trying to prevent embezzlement c. As part of your identity theft policy

Question 39

If the lead time for vaccines is four days, and your practice sells 115 vaccines a day, what is the reorder point to avoid a stock out of vaccines for your practice? a. 290 vaccines b. 110 vaccines c. 460 vaccines d. 345 vaccines

Answer 39

c. 460 vaccines

Question 40

They key in business continuity for veterinary practices is having a well-conceived, fully communicated business contingency plan that addresses which four areas? a. Mitigation, preparation, execution, and documentation b. Insurance reporting, claims, replacement, and documentation c. Insurance processing, disaster relief accommodations, staff preparedness, and financing options d. Mitigation, preparation, response, and recovery

Answer 40

d. Mitigation, preparation, response and recovery

Question 41

Which focus areas should be included in the written standards of care for the internal hospital image? a. Waiting room, reception area, public restrooms, and hallways b. Merchandising, sterility, cleanliness, and function c. Merchandising, public restrooms, hallways, and exam rooms d. Reception area, waiting room, exam rooms and surgery rooms

Answer 41

b. Merchandising, sterility, cleanliness, and function *To maintain the internal hospital image, a complete list of each physical room within the premises should be provided and a standard set for merchandising, sterility, cleanliness, and function.*

Question 42

When it comes to the decision to offer retail goods as a revenue center, the decision will depend entirely on three key characteristics of the practice. Those characteristics are Image, Space, and what else? a. Budget b. Vision c. Brand d. Market Segmentation

Answer 42

b. Vision

Question 43

When a doctor delegates laboratory tests to a skilled technician, what is being increased? a. Repetition and skill in the technician b. The doctor's productivity c. The use of trained technicians d. Confidence and teamwork in the doctor

Answer 43

b. The doctor's productivity

Question 44

Individual Development Plans are document created by a. The employee with input of their managers b. The employee's direct supervisor and the practice manager c. The employee for use as a goal setting agreement with management d. The employee's direct supervisor or the practice manager when the employee's performance is unacceptable and performance goals must be clarified and timelines for improvement must be agreed upon

Answer 44

a. The employee with input of their managers *Help define specific goals to which the employee would like to strive for over a set period of time, typically one year.*

Question 45

Radiography, Dentiste, and Laboratory Diagnostics are all examples of: a. Active Income b. Passive Income

Answer 45

b. Passive Income *Active income is described as that income generated directly the veterinarian. Passive income is that which can be generated by a veterinary practice without the direct involvement of the veterinarian.*

Question 46

Which of the following documents should be included in the employee personnel file? a. I-9 form b. FMLA documentation c. W-4 form d. Pay period time records

Answer 46

c. W-4 form *According to Attorney D. Scott Crook, employers should maintain five essentially separate record keeping systems related to its employees. These include personnel files, medical records, equal employment opportunity data, I-9 records, and payroll and benefits data.*

Question 47

Which management training technique yields a high success rate? a. The discussion technique b. The showing method c. The telling method d. The role playing method

Answer 47

d. The role playing method

Question 48

The practice has a DVM out on temporary leave and to meet client needs, the practice has hired a temporary full time DVM for the length of the leave. The new DVM is paid a daily rate and has the right to pursue other jobs providing it does not interfere with their full time work schedule with the practice. Is the new DVM an independent contractor or an employee?

Answer 48

Employee

Question 49

If a concerned citizen brings in a pet with a medical emergency and your practice stabilizes that pet prior to the owner being located, when the owner is located, under this theory the owners would be required to pay the practice for services rendered even though owner consent was never given. What is the legal theory that supports this statement? a. The Law of Professional Reparation b. The Law of Prejudiced Benefaction c. The Law of Professional Provision d. The Law of Unjust Enrichment

Answer 49

dr. The Law of Unjust Enrichment *Under the legal theory of the law of unjust enrichment, defendants are required to repay money in this scenario because it would be wrong and against public policy for them to retain any benefit or value from the treatment of their pet.*

Question 50

Dr. A verbally agrees to hire a new associate and to this person's monthly salary. The new associate turns down other job offers and relocates to work in Dr. A's practice. Two days before starting work, Dr. A tells the new associate that he can no longer afford to bring on a new associate. If the matter were taken to court, which statement describes the court's most likely finding related to a contract? a. The court would consider that the new vet's actions were based upon an enforceable promise. b. The court would need to see a written contract in this situation to consider the case. c. The court would consider this a miscommunication and instruct parties to work it out with a mediator. d. The court would have to collect additional information to make a determination.

Answer 50

a. The court would consider that the new vet's actions were based upon an enforceable promise.

Question 51

Why should the leaders of a practice take time to develop a marketing action plan? a. To provide an opportunity to discuss the upcoming budget. b. To develop a list of pros and cons for utilizing new marketing techniques. c. To determine the effectiveness of last year's marketing plan. d. To plan and account for each step of the entire marketing plan.

Answer 51

d. To plan and account for each step of the entire marketing plan.

Question 52

What do we call the following formula: Assets = Liabilities + Owners Equity a. Present Value Equation b. Net Income Equation c. Cash Flow Equation d. Accounting Equation

Answer 52

d. Accounting Equation

Question 53

What two elements are essential for the creation of a bailment? a. A written and signed agreement defining the specific bailment and naming all potential Bailees and Bailors that may be involved. b. Physical delivery of the property of the Bailor and knowing acceptance of the property by the Bailee. c. That the Bailee provide a level of care appropriate to the circumstances and that the Bailor was instrumental in defining those levels of care. d. The Bailor has informed the Bailee of all known special care necessary to succeed in the role of Bailee and the Bailee has agreed to accepting the responsibility for the special care.

Answer 53

b. Physical delivery of the property by the Bailor and knowing acceptance of the property by the Bailee. *A Bailment is defined as a delivery of something of a personal nature by one party to another to be held according to the purpose or the object of the devilry and to be returned or delivered over when the purpose is accomplished. Whenever a vet assumes custody of a client's animal, a bailment takes place. A written boarding agreement is an example of a written bailment.*

Question 54

The mandatory FLSA, EEOC, FMLA, OSHA, and EPPA posters are made available through which entity? a. U.S. Department of Labor b. Internal Revenue Service c. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission d. Personnel consulting firms

Answer 54

a. U.S. Department of Labor

Question 55

Which of the statements below is NOT true regarding Ionizing radiation exposure monitors? a. Radiation badges should be stored protected from sunlight and not be worn outside unless taking radiographs out in the field. b. Regardless of equipment or number of x-rays taken, it is recommended to exchange radiation badges monthly for the best accuracy. c. Staff members must be informed of their exposure measurements at least annually. d. When only one device is worn it should be worn outside the apron at neck level.

Answer 55

b. Regardless of equipment or number of x-rays taken, it is recommended to exchange radiation badges monthly for the best accuracy.

Question 56

Kinesics, Proxemics, and Autonomic Shifts are all examples of: a. Personality profile quadrants b. Non-verbal communication c. Spatial boundary tolerance in individuals d. None of the above

Answer 56

b. Non-verbal communication

Question 57

Why should management analyze financial reports on a daily, monthly, and yearly basis? a. To identify problems sooner versus later b. To assist in planning c. To review what has occurred in business d. To increase awareness of reports

Answer 57

a. To identify problems sooner versus later

Question 58

Which is the most important factor of the 20-factor common law test? a. The way in which the individual is trained for the work b. The number of clients/patients to which the individual provides services c. The right to control and direct work d. The location in which the work is performed

Answer 58

c. The right to control and direct work

Question 59

How can a manager learn about all the tools and settings of a new practice management software program? a. By attending continuing education seminars given by the software company. b. Exclusively through reviewing material on the software company's website c. Through reading articles in the veterinary publications about software features d. By doing skill drills everyday on the new system

Answer 59

a. By attending continuing education seminars given by the software company

Question 60

Which government entity is responsible for implementing the regulations to enforce the Americans with Disabilities Act? a. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission b. Department of Labor c. Department of Justice - Civil Rights Division d. The Federal Labor Relations Authority

Answer 60

a. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

Question 61

Which source of information are your clients an potential clients frequently exposed to first? a. Internet b. Print ads c. Radio d. Referral

Answer 61

a. Internet

Question 62

What tool can provide good insight into problems or issues that may not have yet surfaced within the practice? a. Suggestion box b. Client satisfaction survey c. Employee self-evaluation d. Employee survey

Answer 62

d. Employee survey

Question 63

Income Statements, Balance Sheets, and Cash Flow Statements are all examples of a Pro-Forma Statement. True or False?

Answer 63

True

Question 64

In regards to changing organizational culture; there are five key steps in making culture change within a practice. 1- define the culture 2- align behaviors with the desired culture 3- commit to the change 4- support the shift. What is the fifth step? a. Grow the team b. Measure results c. Lead the way d. Revisit often

Answer 64

a. Grow the team *Your culture makes most of the decisions in your practice no matter what you tell people to do, and it will teach new employees how to behave.*

Question 65

The practice has budgeting $35,000 a month for flea and heart worm prevention expense. As of March, every month has totaled over $40,000 in flea and heartworm expense, leaving at least $5,000 monthly _______. a. anomaly b. departure c. variance d. adjustment

Answer 65

c. variance

Question 66

Which of the following is NOT considered a hidden ordering cost associated with inventory? a. Price shopping b. Pharmacy licensing/DEA fees c. Receiving and unpacking a shipment d. Reconciling statements

Answer 66

b. Pharmacy licensing/DEA fees *Ordering costs are human resource related in order to account for all the time spent preparing and maintaining an order. Holding costs are facility related such as property tax, utilities, and pharmacy licensing/DEA fees.*

Question 67

Which statement is true regarding the protection of a pregnant work's job? a. The worker's job is protected under the Americans with Disabilities Act because pregnancy constitutes a short-term disability. b. The worker's job is protected by the Civil Rights Act because discrimination on the basis of pregnancy constitutes unlawful sex discrimination. c. The worker's job is protected by the EEOC because discrimination on the basis of pregnancy constitutes unlawful sex discrimination. d. The worker's job is protected by the Social Security Administration because pregnancy constitutes a short-term disability.

Answer 67

b. The worker's job is protected by the Civil Rights Act because discrimination on the basis of pregnancy constitutes unlawful sex discrimination.

Question 68

As it relates to negotiating, which statement below is NOT true? a. One question to consider is "what do I really need from this transaction and what do I only want?" b. To avoid potentially making an agreement too far into the future to actually forecast the benefit, maintain strategies that focus on short-term objectives. c. Negotiation requires research on the topic being negotiated prior to agreeing to participate. d. Make sure to identify the best alternative to negotiated agreement.

Answer 68

b. To avoid potentially making an agreement too far into the future to actually forecast the benefit, maintain strategies that focus on short-term objectives.

Question 69

Employee pet health benefits are offered at most practices. Which statement is true regarding the IRS regulation on employee discounts? a. The business is allowed to discount products to cost and services to no more than 20% of the fee charged to a client. b. The owner of the business may grant any discount to an employee. c. The owner of the business must give similar discounts to all full-time and part-time employees. d. The business is allowed to provide a discount of up to 50% before taxes are applied.

Answer 69

a. The business is allowed to discount products to cost and services to no more than 20% of the fee charged to a client.

Question 70

What does the acronym CRAFT represent in relation to the compliance process? a. Compliance = Recommendation + Agreement + Follow Through b. Compliance = Recommendation + Acceptance + Follow Through c. Compliance = Reassurance + agreement + Follow Through d. Compliance = Reassurance + Acceptance + Follow Through

Answer 70

b. Compliance = Recommendation + Acceptance + Follow Through

Question 71

Which of the correct reporting scenario when a workplace injury occurs in a veterinary practice? a. No report is necessary if the injury does not require medical treatment. b. Complete OSHA Form 300 if the practice has 11 or more employees. c. Complete an OSHA Form 300 in all cases. d. File a workers' compensation report

Answer 71

b. Complete an OSHA Form 300 if the practice has 11 or more employees.

Question 72

What are the four R's of team management? a. Relational, Reward, Reasonable, Resourceful b. Relatable, Resilient, Realistic, Risk-aware c. Responsibility, Respect, Rapport, Recognition d. Resolute, Reverential, Responsive, Reliable

Answer 72

c. Responsibility, Respect, Rapport, Recognition

Question 73

If an employee takes leave under the Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA), what happens to his or her health benefits? a. The benefits continue but the employee contributes nothing because he or she is not working. b. The benefits are suspended until the employee returns. c. The benefits are offered through COBRA during FMLA leave. d. The benefits remain the same as when the employee is working

Answer 73

d. The benefits remain the same as when the employee is working

Question 74

How are consumers protected from unfair collection tactics? a. By the provisions of the Consumer Privacy Act b. By the provisions of the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act c. By paying their debts within 90 days d. By the provisions of the Collection Agency Ethical Guidelines

Answer 74

b. By the provisions of the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act

Question 75

Which items should be included in the calculation of the cost of holding a staff meeting? a. Length of meeting, meeting time preparation, food (optional), and employee wages b. Employee wages, food (optional), and hourly overhead for the meeting time c. Length of meeting, employee wages, food (optional) and lost profits d. Employee wages, meeting time preparation, missed doctor productivity, and food (optional)

Answer 75

c. Length of meeting, employee wages, food (optional) and lost profits

Question 76

What should a practice do to help reduce the amount of negative office politics? a. The leadership team should implement a policy that promotes team values, fairness, and open communication. b. The manager should find the source of the negativity and follow the progressive discipline system in the employee manual. c. Some negativity is normal and unless it is harmful, can be ignored. d. The owner should talk with the persons who are causing the negativity.

Answer 76

a. The leadership team should implement a policy that promotes team values, fairness, and open communication.

Question 77

Using the metrics below, calculate the inventory turns per year. Enzyme Chews in January = 4 Enzyme Chews in December = 4 Total purchased for the year = 36 Inventory turns per year of the chews was: a. 32.4 b. 18 c. 12 d. 9

Answer 77

d. 9

Question 78

Which option below is an ancillary benefit of a Ration-Based Inventory System? a. Fewer expired products, ease of use due to proximity. b. Multiple team members are responsible for inventory which decreases stock outs. c. The system is not affected by staff turn over due to transparency in the system d. Duplication of drugs in minimized.

Answer 78

d. Duplication of drugs is minimized *A ration-based (or central supply system) has many ancillary benefits including diminishing the amount of obsolete items, products are easier to find, duplication of drugs is minimized, and price changes can be accommodated more easily*

Question 79

What four steps should a manager take to intervene in and resolve staff conflicts? a. Confront the behavior, talk it out, hold employees accountable for the solution, and follow up and share feedback. b. Ask employees for feedback to ID problems, find the truths, re-introduce the employee policy on conflict, and closely monitor the situation. c. ID problem areas, utilize progressive discipline measures, create and/or enforce the policy on conflict, and follow up and share feedback. d. Conduct a staff meeting, use recent examples, set goals for desired behaviors, and closely monitor the situation.

Answer 79

a. Confront the behavior, talk it out, hold employees accountable for the solution, and follow up and share feedback.

Question 80

The diamond labeling system uses numbers, colors (blue, red, yellow, white) and letters to indicate the risks associated with health, fire, reactivity, and special hazards of specific chemicals. These labels are often used on secondary container labels. What is the name of the label? a. Hazardous Materials Identification System b. Chemical Instability Labeling System c. National Fire Protection Association d. Chemical Safety Data

Answer 80

c. National Fire Protection Association *The National Fire Protection Association uses colored diamond labels to ID the hazards of chemicals. Red for flammability, blue for health, yellow for instability, and white for personal protection. The labels are ferreted to as NFPA labels.*

Question 81

Why is it essential that veterinary practices know about the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)? a. To ensure that client records are kept confidential b. To ensure personnel files and employee medical records are maintained in separate but secure areas c. To be informed about human medical field requirements in preparation for changes to the veterinary medical field d. To ensure veterinary practices meet minimum requirements for employee health insurance coverage

Answer 81

b. To ensure personnel files and employee medical records are maintained in separate but secure areas *Special primary issues apply to medical records under HIPAA. Under HIPPA and ADA requirements, medical records must be kept separate from other employee information. Therefore, all medical records should be stored in a separate area to which only one person has access.*

Question 82

What does a perpetual inventory system do? a. Tracks inventory items received b. Provides an up to the minute list of quantities of inventory on hand c. Provides inventory sales information whenever needed. d. Provides accurate detail of inventory levels at any time

Answer 82

d. Provides accurate detail of inventory levels at any time *A perpetual inventory system reduces the quantities in the computer's database as inventory is depleted through sales to the practice's clientele and consumption in hospital activities.*

Question 83

What is the foundation for any cash management structure? a. Good internal controls and video surveillance b. Training and process c. Video surveillance and training d. Documentation and process

Answer 83

d. Documentation and process

Question 84

The Age of Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) prohibits employers with more than 20 employees to discriminate against persons who are over which age? a. 40 years old b. 50 years old

Answer 84

a. 40 years old

Question 85

What is the best measure of customer satisfaction? a. Number of new clients b. Client satisfaction survey results c. Number of word of mouth referrals d. Amount of repeat business

Answer 85

c. Number of word of mouth referrals

Question 86

Which statement regarding the confidentiality of client information in the medical record is accurate? a. The information in the medical record is not confidential b. The client information is confidential but the patient information is not considered confidential c. It is unethical to release the medical record or client information without a court order or consent of the client d. It is unlawful to disseminate client information without a court order or consent of the client

Answer 86

c. It is unethical to release the medical record or client information without a court order or consent of the client

Question 87

The funding standards applicable to employee benefits plans are regulated under the a. Internal Revenue Service b. Social Security Act c. Employment Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 d. Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees

Answer 87

c. Employment Retirement Income Security Act of 1974

Question 88

Which statement accurately describes how employees should be compensated for their time spend attending mandatory continuing education classes? a. They should not be compensated because this is part of the job. b. They should be compensated at their normal rates and the hours are included in overtime calculations. c. They should be compensated at their normal rates and overtime is not included because this is training time. d. They should be compensated at a training rate.

Answer 88

b. They should be compensated at their normal rates and the hours are included in overtime calculations.

Question 89

Daniel Coleman introduced a mixed model of Emotional Intelligence and in that model the focus is on five skills and competencies that drive leadership. What are those five skills? a. Comprehension, responsiveness, impulse control, judgement, and discernment b. Self-discipline, perception, sympathy, communication skills, and intent c. Self-awareness, motivation, social skills, empathy, and self-regulation d. Integrity, decisiveness, commitment, accountability, and creativity

Answer 89

c. Self-awareness, motivation, social skills, empathy, and self-regulation

Question 90

The single most effective method of marketing a service to a client is what? a. Having the employees repeat the message a minimum of three times (reception, technician, doctor) per visit. b. Educational material that is attractive, easy to ready, and focused on the benefits of the service. c. Creating a targeting marketing plan. d. Using the assumptive sale technique

Answer 90

d. Using the assumptive sale technique *The single most effective method of marketing a service to a client is the use of the assumptive safe. Assume that the animal or owner wants the best care and present the next step in that context. Believe in what we offer for the best health of the animals and say "this is what we need to do next."

Question 91

In what way can a blog be helpful to a veterinary practice? a. By providing a means for the manager to use picture and video as a training tool b. By allowing medical staff to provide medical information and information on service offerings c. By providing a pathway for veterinarians to communicate with a pet owner about patient progress d. By allowing pet owners to post information about their pet on the practice website

Answer 91

b. By allowing medical staff to provide medical information and information on service offerings

Question 92

What is the recommended number of practice brochures to have printed at one time? a. One-year supply b. One-month supply c. Six-month supply d. Half the number of active clients

Answer 92

c. Six-month supply

Question 93

Which is an effective way to simultaneously market to current and prospective clients of your practice? a. Conduct an open house at the practice b. Create a commercial to be viewed on the local TV station c. Send out a mailing to all pet households in your zip code d. Post a bulletin board in the lobby with "Feature of the Month"

Answer 93

a. Conduct an open house at the practice

Question 94

Which one of the statements below regarding the I-9 form is NOT true? a. Form I-9 should be kept four years from the date of hire or one year after termination, whichever is longer. b. From I-9 can be inspected at any time c. Verification documents for the I-9 do not have to be copied d. The I-9 should not be filled out until the first day of employment and not before

Answer 94

a. Form I-9 should be kept four years from the date of hire or one year after termination, whichever is longer.

Question 95

To be even remotely competitive, businesses must meet the minimum performance standards in each of the three Value Disciplines. Which discipline below is NOT one of the Value Disciplines in business? a. Product Leadership b. Perceived Market Worth c. Customer Intimacy d. Operational Excellence

Answer 95

b. Perceived Market Worth *In the past clients judged value by quality and price. Today's clients judge value by much more - convenience, dependability, service, communication, and so on. The three value disciplines that encompass those values are Operational Excellence, Product Leadership and Customer Intimacy.*

Question 96

There are five tiers of practice owner income. 1- compensation for veterinary efforts 2- compensation for management 3-equalizing owner perks 4- profits reflected as a return on investment. What is the fifth tier? a. Distributing of remaining profit b. Complete benefit package c. Regular draws against the value of the practice d. Base salary with no commission variables

Answer 96

a. Distribution of remaining profit *Wages for veterinary owners are established by determining what competitive salary would be required to hire an equivalent veterinary associate. Fair compensation for owner's efforts in management is more difficult and complex. Equalizing owners perks is comprised of general and administrative expenses already paid by the practice on the owners behalf. Return on investment involves an annual valuation of the practice and hopefully providing owners with a 10-11% ROI. The distribution of remains profit is self explanatory.*

Question 97

At which time interval must a veterinary license be renewed? a. Every year b. Never; a lifetime license is issued to all veterinary program graduates c. Every third year d. Every other year

Answer 97

a. Every year

Question 98

Which two key pieces of information are towns on an accounts payable report? a. The amount due to the practice and the timeframe b. The amount owed and the date due c. The total amount due for all accounts and aging d. The itemized invoice and the purchase date

Answer 98

b. The amount owed and the date due

Question 99

When informing the rest of the staff of an employee termination, what approach decreases potential liability issues? a. State the employee was terminated for violating hospital policy b. Be honest with the staff and tell them the reason for the termination c. Do not discuss the termination with staff members d. Discuss the reason with the staff and remind them how much to avoid termination

Answer 99

a. State the employee was terminated for violating hospital policy

Question 100

Beginning accounts receivable divided by ending accounts receivable equals average accounts receivable. True or False?

Answer 100

False