Pre-Assessment Flashcards by Ernesto Gastelum

What is Fraud?

Fraud in business ethics refers to deceptive or dishonest practices carried out within a business or organizational setting for personal or financial gain. It involves intentionally misrepresenting information, manipulating records, or engaging in fraudulent activities with the intention to deceive stakeholders, such as customers, investors, employees, or business partners.

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What is cyberloafing?

Cyberloafing refers to the act of employees using their work computers or internet access for personal activities during work hours. It involves engaging in non-work-related online activities, such as browsing social media, shopping, watching videos, playing games, or chatting with friends, instead of focusing on their assigned tasks.

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What is industrial espionage?

Industrial espionage, also known as corporate espionage or economic espionage, refers to the clandestine practice of gathering confidential or proprietary information from a competitor or rival company for the purpose of gaining a competitive advantage. It involves the unauthorized acquisition or theft of trade secrets, intellectual property, research and development data, customer lists, pricing information, marketing strategies, or any other sensitive information related to a company’s operations or competitive edge.

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What is bribery?

Bribery refers to the act of offering, giving, receiving, or soliciting something of value, such as money, gifts, favors, or benefits, with the intention of influencing the actions or decisions of an individual in a position of power or authority. It is a form of corruption that undermines fair and transparent practices, distorts decision-making processes, and creates an unfair advantage for those involved.

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Is it legal for a person to break a traffic law in order to get a critically injured man to a hospital?

In many jurisdictions, there are legal provisions that allow for emergency exceptions or defenses when it comes to traffic laws. However, it is defined as “illegal” at the outset.

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Why is it important for leaders to understand how technology affects their organization’s daily practices?

To understand possible legal ramifications. Technology is evolving rapidly, and its integration into business operations can have significant legal consequences.

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From an employer’s POV, all policies are implicitly

ethical and legal.

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In a system attack, data is released

A) Intended by unauthorized user
B) Ethically
C) In an unintended manner
D) Intended by authorized user

A) Intended by unauthorized user

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A employee sharing personal customer information with 3rd parties is

A) Unintended release of sensitive data by unauthorized user
B) Intended release of sensitive data by authorized user

B) Intended release of sensitive data by authorized user

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IT worker crashes in a company vehicle, who is responsible for damages?

A) The company owns the vehicle and is, thus, liable for negligence.
B) IT workers who breach the duty of care are accountable for injuries.

B) IT workers who breach the duty of care are accountable for injuries.

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In the context of IT personnel working on a research project involving data mining and algorithmic decision-making, it is essential for them to possess the necessary knowledge, skills, and expertise related to data management, data privacy, security, and the ethical considerations involved in handling sensitive information.

Which practice standard is described?

The reasonable professional standard relates to the performance and conduct of professionals in their respective fields, while the reasonable assurance standard pertains specifically to auditing and assurance engagements, emphasizing the level of confidence that auditors can provide in the information being reviewed.

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It is a United States federal law that was enacted in 1986, primarily aimed at addressing computer-related crimes and unauthorized access to computer systems. It provides a legal framework to prosecute individuals who engage in activities that involve unauthorized access, computer fraud, and abuse.

The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA)

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Codified under 18 U.S.C. Section 1029, primarily focuses on criminalizing actions related to unauthorized access or use of access devices, which typically include credit cards, debit cards, ATM cards, and other similar payment cards or electronic access devices.

The Access Device Fraud statute

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It is a federal law in the United States that was enacted as part of the Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986 (ECPA). It regulates the government’s access to and disclosure of electronic communications and certain related records held by third-party service providers.

The Stored Communications Act (SCA)

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Federal law enacted in the United States in response to the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks, signed into law on October 26, 2001, by President George W. Bush.

The USA PATRIOT Act, short for the Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate Tools Required to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism Act, enhances the ability of law enforcement and intelligence agencies to prevent and investigate acts of terrorism. The act expanded the surveillance powers of the government and provided authorities with new tools to gather intelligence and combat terrorism.

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Specifically represents companies primarily engaged in providing computer programming services, including writing, modifying, testing, and supporting software applications.

Standard Industrial Classification code for Computer Programming Services.

SIC 7371

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Corresponds to the North American Industry Classification System code for Custom Computer Programming Services. It is a newer classification system that replaced SIC codes in the United States, Canada, and Mexico. It is similar to SIC 7371, as it encompasses companies primarily engaged in custom computer programming activities, including the design, development, and modification of software applications to meet specific client needs.

NAICS 541511

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Protects original works of authorship, such as literary, artistic, and musical creations, from being copied, distributed, displayed, or performed without the owner’s permission.

A) Copyright
B) Patent
C) Trade secret
D) Trademark

A) Copyright

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Protects new inventions, processes, methods, or useful and non-obvious improvements to existing inventions. They provide exclusive rights to the inventor to prevent others from making, using, selling, or importing the invention at play.

A) Copyright
B) Patent
C) Trade secret
D) Trademark

B) Patent

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Protects valuable and confidential business information that provides a competitive advantage. This can include formulas, processes, techniques, customer lists, marketing strategies, or other confidential information.

A) Copyright
B) Patent
C) Trade secret
D) Trademark

C) Trade secret

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Protects brands, logos, names, slogans, or symbols that distinguish goods or services from those of others in the marketplace. They help consumers identify and associate products or services with a specific source.

A) Copyright
B) Patent
C) Trade secret
D) Trademark

D) Trademark

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It involves legally obtaining information through various methods such as market research, data analysis, and monitoring competitor activities.

A) Competitive intelligence
B) Reverse engineering
C) Plagiarism
D) Infringement

A) Competitive intelligence

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It involves analyzing and dissecting a product or technology to understand its design, functionality, and underlying processes. It typically involves deconstructing and studying a competitor’s product to gain knowledge about its technical specifications, construction, or algorithms.

A) Competitive intelligence
B) Reverse engineering
C) Plagiarism
D) Infringement

B) Reverse engineering

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It refers to the act of presenting someone else’s work, ideas, or content as one’s own without proper attribution or permission.

A) Competitive intelligence
B) Reverse engineering
C) Plagiarism
D) Infringement

C) Plagiarism

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It typically refers to the unauthorized or illegal use, reproduction, distribution, or exploitation of someone else's intellectual property rights or trade secrets. It involves violating the exclusive rights granted to the intellectual property owner and can result in legal consequences and liabilities. A) Competitive intelligence B) Reverse engineering C) Plagiarism D) Infringement

D) Infringement

What does PAPA stand for?

Privacy, Accuracy, Property, and Access

It is a nonprofit organization dedicated to improving patient safety and promoting a culture of safety in healthcare. They offer educational resources, training programs, and initiatives to enhance patient safety and support caregivers.

National Patient Safety Foundation (NPSF)

It is a federal agency within the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services that administers the Medicare and Medicaid programs.

Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)

It is a federal agency responsible for protecting public health by ensuring the safety, efficacy, and security of drugs, medical devices, food, and other products.

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

It is a professional organization representing pharmacists who practice in hospitals, health systems, and other healthcare settings.

Association Society of Health‐System Pharmacists (ASHP)

It is a set of guidelines and rules established by an organization to define acceptable and appropriate use of its computer systems, network, and resources.

An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

It is a U.S. federal law enacted in 1999 that governs the privacy and security of consumers' personal financial information. It applies to financial institutions, including banks, credit unions, and insurance companies, and requires them to implement safeguards to protect the privacy and security of customer information.

The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)

It refers to various laws and regulations that aim to ensure fair and non-discriminatory practices in the banking industry.

The Fair Banking Act

It is a set of rules and guidelines that govern the access and usage of computer systems and networks within an organization.

A System Access Policy outlines procedures and controls for granting, managing, and revoking user access privileges to systems, applications, and data.

Utilizing ideas generated through team collaboration without the explicit consent of all involved parties can constitute an act of

Piracy The ownership and usage rights of ideas generated through team collaboration can vary depending on various factors such as the nature of the collaboration, any applicable agreements or contracts, and the legal framework in place.

Misrepresentation, in the context of impersonation, refers to the act of

intentionally presenting oneself as someone else or assuming another person's identity in order to deceive or mislead others. It involves deliberately creating a false impression about one's identity, qualifications, or intentions.

Which entity provides a technology code of ethics to its constituents? A) The federal government B) The state government C) A technology vendor D) A professional organization

D) A professional organization

It is a U.S. federal law enacted in 1996 that sets standards for the protection and privacy of individuals' health information.

HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act)

These standards aim to protect the security of credit cardholder data and promote safe payment card processing.

PCI (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard): PCI refers to a set of security standards developed by the Payment Card Industry Security Standards Council (PCI SSC).

It brings greater transparency and oversight to intelligence-gathering activities. It was signed into law by President Barack Obama on June 2, 2015, and made several important changes to the surveillance practices authorized under the PATRIOT Act.

USA FREEDOM Act (Uniting and Strengthening America by Fulfilling Rights and Ending Eavesdropping, Dragnet-collection and Online Monitoring Act)

What are FIPs?

Fair Information Practices (FIPs) are a set of principles and guidelines developed to ensure the protection of individual privacy and the responsible handling of personal information. FIPs serve as a framework for organizations and governments to establish policies and practices that govern the collection, use, disclosure, and storage of personal data.

What is transborder data flow?

Transborder data flow refers to the movement of personal data across national borders from one jurisdiction to another. In an interconnected world where information can be easily transmitted electronically, transborder data flows have become increasingly common.

It is an independent agency of the United States government. It was established in 1914 with a mission to protect consumers and promote fair competition in the marketplace. It's primary responsibility is to enforce various federal laws related to consumer protection and antitrust regulation.

The Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

It is an independent regulatory agency of the United States government. It was established by the Communications Act of 1934 and is responsible for regulating interstate and international communications by radio, television, wire, satellite, and cable in the United States.

The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) The FCC's primary mission is to ensure that the American public has access to reliable, affordable, and high-quality communication services. The agency's jurisdiction covers a wide range of areas related to communication.

It is a moral theory that evaluates the morality of an action based on its consequences or outcomes. It focuses on the idea that the rightness or wrongness of an action is determined by the overall balance of good or bad consequences it produces.

Consequentialism (Pulling the lever in the trolley problem)

The moral worth of an action is determined by the outcomes it brings about, rather than the inherent nature of the action itself or any moral rules or duties that govern it. The emphasis is on maximizing positive consequences and minimizing negative consequences. A) Deontology B) Consequentialism C) Virtue D) Care

B) Consequentialism

Refers to a morally admirable character trait or quality that enables individuals to act ethically and lead virtuous lives.

Virtue

These ethics focus on the cultivation of character rather than specific rules or consequences. It emphasizes the importance of developing habits that guide ethical behavior. A) Deontology B) Consequentialism C) Virtue D) Care

C) Virtue

It emphasizes the inherent rightness or wrongness of actions based on their adherence to moral rules and duties, rather than considering the consequences or outcomes of those actions.

Deontology

Relies on moral rules and principles that are considered universally valid and binding. These rules often guide decision-making and dictate what actions are morally permissible or impermissible. A) Deontology B) Consequentialism C) Virtue D) Care

A) Deontology

It is an approach that emphasizes the significance of caring relationships and empathetic considerations in moral decision-making.

Care ethics

Places value on the interconnectedness of individuals and focuses on the moral responsibilities and obligations that arise from these relationships. A) Deontology B) Consequentialism C) Virtue D) Care

D) Care Ethics

What is a reason for organizations to pursue corporate social responsibility (CSR) goals? A) Avoid controversy B) Attract publicity C) Gain goodwill D) Cross-sell products

C) CSR goals to gain goodwill can yield numerous benefits for organizations, including a strong reputation, stakeholder loyalty, competitive advantage, crisis resilience, positive public relations, and long-term sustainability. By investing in socially responsible practices, organizations can build meaningful connections with stakeholders and position themselves as responsible leaders in their industries.

A police department employee has access to data related to an ongoing investigation. A local politician whom the employee supports has come under investigation. The employee accesses the data relating to the investigation and provides the file to the politician anonymously. How should this behavior be classified? A) Whistleblowing B) Industrial espionage C) Corruption D) Nepotism

C) Corruption refers to the misuse of entrusted power for personal gain or to benefit others improperly. In this case, the employee is using their access to confidential information related to an ongoing investigation for the benefit of a local politician they support. By providing the file anonymously, they are potentially seeking to influence the investigation or protect the politician from potential consequences.

Refers to the act of disclosing information about wrongdoing or misconduct within an organization to the appropriate authorities or the public. A) Whistleblowing B) Industrial espionage C) Corruption D) Nepotism

A) Whistleblowing

It involves the unauthorized acquisition or theft of trade secrets, sensitive business information, or intellectual property with the intent to benefit one's own organization or undermine the competitive position of others. A) Whistleblowing B) Industrial espionage C) Corruption D) Nepotism

B) Industrial espionage

Refers to the practice of favoring relatives or close associates, typically family members, in professional or organizational matters, such as hiring, promotions, or awarding opportunities. A) Whistleblowing B) Industrial espionage C) Corruption D) Nepotism

D) Nepotism

A company is considering using Wireless Protected Access 2 (WPA2) to secure data in transit. Which protocol does this wireless protection implement? A) Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) B) Transport Layer Security (TLS) C) Virtual private network (VPN) D) Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA)

The wireless protection protocol implemented by Wireless Protected Access 2 (WPA2) is A) Advanced Encryption Standard (AES). WPA2 uses AES as the encryption algorithm to secure data in transit over wireless networks. AES is a symmetric encryption algorithm that provides strong security and is widely used for protecting sensitive information.

It is a widely used encryption algorithm that provides strong security for protecting sensitive data. It uses a specific key length (128, 192, or 256 bits) to encrypt and decrypt information, making it a trusted choice for secure data transmission. A) Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) B) Transport Layer Security (TLS) C) Virtual private network (VPN) D) Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA)

A) Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

It is a cryptographic protocol that ensures secure communication between two systems over a network. It employs encryption, authentication, and integrity mechanisms to safeguard data during transmission, protecting against eavesdropping, tampering, and unauthorized access. A) Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) B) Transport Layer Security (TLS) C) Virtual private network (VPN) D) Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA)

B) Transport Layer Security (TLS)

It is a secure network connection that allows users to access the internet or private networks securely. By encrypting and routing internet traffic through a VPN server, it creates a secure tunnel, protecting data from interception and providing anonymity and privacy. A) Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) B) Transport Layer Security (TLS) C) Virtual private network (VPN) D) Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA)

C) Virtual private network (VPN)

It is a widely used asymmetric encryption algorithm. It utilizes a pair of keys, one for encryption and one for decryption. RSA is based on the mathematical complexity of factoring large numbers, making it secure for encrypting data and verifying digital signatures. It is commonly used in secure communication, digital certificates, and online encryption protocols. A) Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) B) Transport Layer Security (TLS) C) Virtual private network (VPN) D) Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA)

D) Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA)

It is a data protection and privacy regulation enacted by the European Union (EU). It governs the collection, processing, and storage of personal data of individuals within the EU. A) General Data Protection Regulation B) EU Data Protection Directive C) Electronic Communications Privacy Act D) Freedom of Information Act

A) General Data Protection Regulation

It was a European Union directive enacted in 1995 to regulate the processing and free movement of personal data within EU member states. The directive aimed to harmonize data protection laws across EU countries and establish a framework for the protection of individuals' privacy rights. A) General Data Protection Regulation B) EU Data Protection Directive C) Electronic Communications Privacy Act D) Freedom of Information Act

B) The EU Data Protection Directive, also known as Directive 95/46/EC

It is a United States federal law enacted in 1986. It governs the privacy and protection of electronic communications, including emails, electronic messages, and phone conversations. It sets guidelines for government access to electronic communications, requiring law enforcement agencies to obtain search warrants or court orders to access such communications. A) General Data Protection Regulation B) EU Data Protection Directive C) Electronic Communications Privacy Act D) Freedom of Information Act

C) Electronic Communications Privacy Act (ECPA)

It is a United States federal law enacted in 1966. It provides the public with the right to request and access information held by federal government agencies. A) General Data Protection Regulation B) EU Data Protection Directive C) Electronic Communications Privacy Act D) Freedom of Information Act

The Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)

Allows the secure sharing of patient health information between different healthcare organizations, ensuring a comprehensive view of a patient's medical history and treatment across various providers. A) Health information exchange (HIE) B) Electronic health record (EHR) C) Clinical decision support (CDS) D) Electronic medical record (EMR)

A) Health information exchange (HIE) is a secure electronic system that enables the sharing of patient health information among different healthcare organizations, such as hospitals, clinics, and laboratories. It allows for the secure exchange of patient records, including medical history, test results, diagnoses, and treatment plans, facilitating better coordination of care and improved patient outcomes. While a VPN helps protect the confidentiality and integrity of data, it does not necessarily address the challenge of interoperability or facilitate the seamless exchange of patient records between healthcare organizations. For that purpose, a Health Information Exchange (HIE) or similar interoperability solutions would be more suitable.

Contains a patient's health information, including medical history, diagnoses, medications, test results, and treatment plans, providing a holistic view of the patient's health. A) Health information exchange (HIE) B) Electronic health record (EHR) C) Clinical decision support (CDS) D) Electronic medical record (EMR)

B) Electronic health record (EHR)

These systems assist healthcare professionals in making informed decisions by providing evidence-based recommendations and relevant patient information based on the patient's medical data. A) Health information exchange (HIE) B) Electronic health record (EHR) C) Clinical decision support (CDS) D) Electronic medical record (EMR)

C) Clinical decision support (CDS)

Contains a patient's medical information collected during a single visit or episode of care, providing detailed information about that specific encounter. A) Health information exchange (HIE) B) Electronic health record (EHR) C) Clinical decision support (CDS) D) Electronic medical record (EMR)

D) Electronic medical record (EMR)

__________ involves the use of electronic communication platforms to harass, intimidate, or humiliate individuals. It often includes actions such as sending abusive messages, spreading false rumors, or sharing humiliating content without consent. __________ goes beyond and involves persistent and intrusive behavior aimed at causing fear, intimidation, or harm. It includes activities like stalking someone online, monitoring their activities, making threats, or engaging in unwanted contact.

Cyberharassment: involves the use of electronic communication platforms to harass, intimidate, or humiliate individuals. It often includes actions such as sending abusive messages, spreading false rumors, or sharing humiliating content without consent. Cyberstalking: goes beyond harassment and involves persistent and intrusive behavior aimed at causing fear, intimidation, or harm. It includes activities like stalking someone online, monitoring their activities, making threats, or engaging in unwanted contact.

What is a potential risk the new company faces by hiring these H1-B workers? A) Flexibility in employee wages B) Lack of employee loyalty C) Increased risk of lawsuits D) Decreased permanent staff

B) Lack of employee loyalty

A university is authoring a code of ethics for its professors to abide by to promote high standards of practice and ethical behavior. What are the two main parts of a code of ethics the university should include? Choose 2 answers. A) Outline of the organization's aspirations B) Brief orientation to moral philosophy C) List of rules and principles to follow D) Description of noncompliance repercussions

Including both the outline of the organization's aspirations (A) and a list of rules and principles (C) in the code of ethics allows the university to provide a comprehensive ethical framework for professors. It combines the inspirational and aspirational elements with the practical guidelines necessary to guide ethical behavior. This approach not only sets a clear ethical standard but also fosters a sense of purpose and shared commitment among the professors, contributing to a positive ethical culture within the university.

It is a legally recognized credential issued by a governing body or a state authority that grants permission to practice a specific profession. In the context of software engineering, obtaining it demonstrates that an individual has met the required qualifications, education, and experience to practice as a professional software engineer. It signifies that the engineer has met certain standards of competency and ethical conduct established by a widely recognized authority. A) Certification B) Vendor certification C) License D) Body of knowledge

C) A License

Typically refers to a voluntary credential awarded by a professional organization. A) Certification B) Vendor certification C) License D) Body of knowledge

A) Certification While they can demonstrate specialized knowledge and skills, they are not the same as a license and do not hold the same legal weight.

Specific certifications granted by technology vendors or software companies to individuals who demonstrate proficiency in using their specific products or technologies. These certifications are typically not related to state licensing and are more focused on demonstrating expertise in specific software tools or platforms. A) Certification B) Vendor certification C) License D) Body of knowledge

B) Vendor certification

Knowledge and understanding of a particular field or profession. It is not a verification or credential itself but rather a comprehensive framework that outlines the knowledge, skills, and competencies. A) Certification B) Vendor certification C) License D) Body of knowledge

D) Body of knowledge

This stage involves transforming data before analysis or modeling. It aims to address bias in the data by cleaning, normalizing, or modifying it to ensure fairness and reduce biases. A) Preprocessing B) Inprocessing C) Postprocessing D) Multiprocessing

A) Preprocessing

In this stage, bias mitigation techniques are applied during the training process of machine learning models. Techniques such as algorithmic adjustments, regularization, or fairness-aware learning algorithms are used to minimize bias and promote fairness within the models themselves. A) Preprocessing B) Inprocessing C) Postprocessing D) Multiprocessing

B) Inprocessing

After the model is trained, techniques are applied to adjust or calibrate the model's predictions to mitigate bias. This stage involves modifying the model's outputs or decisions to ensure fairness, often by applying statistical or rule-based methods. A) Preprocessing B) Inprocessing C) Postprocessing D) Multiprocessing

C) Postprocessing

It is not typically considered a distinct stage of bias mitigation. It generally refers to the use of parallel processing or distributed computing techniques to improve the efficiency or speed of the overall bias mitigation process. It can be employed at different stages, such as during data preprocessing, model training, or postprocessing A) Preprocessing B) Inprocessing C) Postprocessing D) Multiprocessing

D) Multiprocessing

An aircraft company has developed an updated model of one of its best-selling airliners. It has attempted to keep new systems to a minimum so that existing pilots do not require expensive simulator retraining. During development, the company authorized a new software system to keep the aircraft in balanced flight. In rare circumstances during testing, the system caused uncommanded nose-down inputs, which in the worst case could lead to a crash. Which two groups should the company inform to mitigate the potential liability? Choose 2 answers. A) Operator airlines B) Pilot union C) Regulatory authority D) Company shareholders

A) Operator airlines: Informing the operator airlines about the potential risks associated with the new software system allows them to take necessary precautions and implement safety measures to protect passengers and their operations. C) Regulatory authority: Notifying the regulatory authority demonstrates the aircraft company's commitment to safety and compliance with aviation regulations. By sharing information about the software system's behavior, the company assists the authority in making informed decisions to ensure the overall safety of the aviation ecosystem. Inform the most influential parties of the situation

It is an ethical theory that focuses on maximizing overall happiness or utility for the greatest number of people. It suggests that actions should be judged based on their consequences, aiming to achieve the greatest net benefit for society as a whole. A) Utilitarianism B) Kantian ethics C) Deontology D) Virtue ethics

A) Utilitarianism Utilitarianism is a specific form of consequentialism that emphasizes the principle of utility or the greatest happiness principle. It suggests that actions should be judged based on the amount of overall happiness or utility they produce.

It is an ethical theory developed by Immanuel Kant. It emphasizes the importance of moral duty and universal principles. According to Kant, actions should be guided by moral rules and obligations, rather than the outcomes or consequences. It prioritizes moral principles like honesty, fairness, and respect for human dignity. A) Utilitarianism B) Kantian ethics C) Deontology D) Virtue ethics

B)/C) Kantian ethics, also known as deontological ethics Deontologists believe that certain actions are intrinsically good or bad, and individuals have a duty to follow moral rules and principles, even if it leads to unfavorable consequences.

It is an ethical theory that places emphasis on the development of virtuous character traits and moral virtues. It suggests that ethical behavior arises from cultivating good habits and virtues, such as honesty, kindness, and courage. Virtue ethicists focus on personal character and moral virtues as the foundation for making ethical choices. A) Utilitarianism B) Kantian ethics C) Deontology D) Virtue ethics

D) Virtue ethics

It is an ethical theory that posits that moral judgments and values are subjective and dependent on individual perspectives or cultural contexts. It suggests that there are no universal or objective moral truths, and what is morally right or wrong can vary from person to person or from culture to culture. It acknowledges the diversity of moral beliefs and argues against the existence of absolute moral standards. Instead, it emphasizes the importance of respecting and understanding different moral viewpoints without imposing a single moral framework.

Relativism

It is a contractual provision in an employment agreement or a separate agreement between an employer and an employee. It restricts the employee's ability to work for or start a competing business within a specified time period and geographic area after leaving the current employer.

A noncompete clause, also known as a noncompetition agreement or covenant not to compete

It is a U.S. federal law that governs the surveillance and collection of intelligence information related to foreign powers or agents of foreign powers within the United States. It establishes procedures for obtaining surveillance warrants from a special court, known as the __________, to gather intelligence on foreign intelligence activities. It aims to strike a balance between national security concerns and protecting civil liberties. A) Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act B) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act C) Wiretap Act D) USA PATRIOT Act

A) Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act (FISA) Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Court (FISC)

It is a U.S. federal law that regulates the handling of personal financial information by financial institutions. It requires financial institutions to disclose their privacy policies to customers and establish safeguards to protect the confidentiality and security of customer information. It promotes consumer privacy rights and aims to prevent the unauthorized disclosure or misuse of personal financial data. A) Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act B) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act C) Wiretap Act D) USA PATRIOT Act

B) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA): The GLBA, also known as the Financial Services Modernization Act

It is a U.S. federal law that regulates the interception of wire, oral, and electronic communications. It sets forth requirements for law enforcement agencies to obtain a court order, based on probable cause, before conducting wiretaps or intercepting private communications. A) Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act B) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act C) Wiretap Act D) USA PATRIOT Act

C) The Wiretap Act, also known as Title III of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act

Federal law enacted in response to the 9/11 terrorist attacks. It grants expanded powers to law enforcement and intelligence agencies to investigate and prevent acts of terrorism. The act enhances surveillance capabilities, facilitates information sharing between government agencies, and allows for the collection of intelligence on suspected terrorists. A) Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act B) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act C) Wiretap Act D) USA PATRIOT Act

D) USA PATRIOT Act The USA PATRIOT Act has generated debates concerning the balance between national security and civil liberties.

Pre-Assessment Flashcards

(91 cards)