Pre Finals Flashcards by Ruth Boaz

1 Which of the following characteristics is least essential for a qualified polygraph examiner?

A. A strong interest in human behavior

B. High proficiency in statistical analysis

C. A well-rounded personality capable of building rapport

D. A reasonably good educational background

B. High proficiency in statistical analysis

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Which subject condition would most likely render a polygraph examination invalid?

A. Subject had 4 hours of sleep the night before

B. Subject took paracetamol 8 hours prior

c. Subject was interrogated continuously for 6 hours prior

D. Subject consumed light breakfast before the exam

c. Subject was interrogated continuously for 6 hours prior

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Why is it important that the examination room has no decorations?

A. Decorations may indicate the examiner’s bias

B. Decorations may distract or emotionally influence the subject

C. Decorations absorb sound and affect the acoustics

D. Decorations interfere with equipment readings

B. Decorations may distract or emotionally influence the subject

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Which of the following statements about polygraph test subjects is incorrect?

A. The subject must not be experiencing any temporary illness.

B. The subject must not be wearing tight clothing during the test.

C. The subject must refrain from alcohol 2 hours before the test.

D. The subject must not be extremely nervous.

C. The subject must refrain from alcohol 2 hours before the test.

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What is the primary reason a female subject should not undergo a polygraph test during menstruation or pregnancy?

a. Hormonal changes can interfere with the physiological readings

B. Female subjects tend to be more anxious during these times

C. The examiner might face ethical complications

D. There is a higher risk of equipment malfunction

a. Hormonal changes can interfere with the physiological readings

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Which type of offender is least likely to yield accurate results during a polygraph test?

A. Emotional offender

B. Non-emotional offender

C. Offender who committed a crime in the heat of passion

D. Subject whose guilt is definite or reasonably certain

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What is the purpose of a one-way mirror in a polygraph examination room?

A. To increase transparency of the procedure

B. To monitor the subject without making them feel observed

C. To ensure the lighting is evenly distributed

D. To allow the examiner to reflect on their posture

B. To monitor the subject without making them feel observed

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Which combination of conditions would be considered most ideal for conducting a polygraph exam?

A. Subject is nervous, hungry, and just finished an argument

B. Subject is rested, calm, and has not undergone prior interrogation

C. Subject is excited, heavily medicated, but willing

D. Subject is tired but emotionally stable and cooperative

B. Subject is rested, calm, and has not undergone prior interrogation

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What differentiates the use of polygraph in criminal investigations versus periodic screenings?

a. . Criminal investigations rely on body language; screenings do not

B. Periodic screenings are designed to detect financial crimes only

C. Criminal investigations involve suspects, victims, and witnesses

D. Screenings require court authorization; criminal tests do not

C. Criminal investigations involve suspecta, victims, and witnesses

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10 Which is a valid justification to disqualify a person from undergoing a polygraph test in a criminal investigation setting?

A. They are a first-time offender

b. They have not eaten in over 6 hours

C. They are emotionally composed

d. They are willing to take the test voluntarily

b. They have not eaten in over 6 hours

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During which phase is the subject’s constitutional right appraised, and why is this essential?

A. Phase I

B. Phase II

C. Phase III

D. Phase IV

B. Phase II

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What is the primary reason for obtaining unpublished facts about the offense during Phase 1?

A. To verify media reports

B. To ensure the case file is complete

C. To formulate questions only the guilty would likely react to

D. To protect sensitive case details from public exposure

C. To formulate questions only the guilty would likely react to

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Which of the following is not part of the data required from the investigator during Phase 1?

A. Result of lab tests, if available

B. Social media accounts of the suspect

C. Sworn statements of involved parties

D. Crime scene sketch or photos

B. Social media accounts of the suspect

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Why must the examiner clarify the questions with the subject before the examination proper?

A. To allow the subject to rehearse answers

B. To avoid confusion or misinterpretation during the test

C. To let the subject mentally prepare defenses

D. To adjust the test based on subject preferences

B. To avoid confusion or misinterpretation during the test

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What could render a subject unfit for examination during Phase II?

A. The subject refuses to talk to the examiner

B. The subject hasn’t read the case report

C. The subject shows signs of physical or psychological instability

D. The subject failed to arrive early

C. The subject shows signs of physical or psychological instability

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16 If a subject reacts strongly to a relevant question, but claims to have a personal traumatic history related to the topic, what should the examiner do during the Post-Test Interview?

A. Immediately disqualify the subject

B. Dismiss the test as inconclusive

C. Clarify the possible alternative reasons for the reaction

D. Administer another test with modified questions

Clarify the possible alternative reasons for the reaction

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What is the main function of the Finger Electrode Assembly in Phase III?

A. To measure muscle tension in the hands

B. To detect emotional sweating

C. To record pulse rhythm in the fingers

D. T measure electric resistance related to skin response

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Which of the following is TRUE about the Post-Test Interview (Phase IV)?

A. It only occurs if the subject is found to be lying.

B. It involves a psychological debriefing for every subject.

C. It may lead to spontaneous confession before or after the test.

D. It includes data collection for further testing.

C. It may lead to spontaneous confession before or after the test.

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19 What is a critical requirement before attaching polygraph equipment to a subject?

A. Subject must be exposed to test questions under pressure

B. Subject must sign a consent form and understand the machine’s operation

C. Subject must undergo light interrogation

D. Subject must agree to answer all questions without hesitation

B. Subject must sign a consent form and understand the machine’s operation

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Which of the following statements about Phase I is MOST accurate?

A. It involves attaching sensors and asking direct questions

B. It is the stage where the examiner ensures the room is soundproof

C. It requires the investigator to provide all relevant case documents and evidence

D. It focuses on testing the subject’s physical responses to questions

C. It requires the investigator to provide all relevant case documents and evidence

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Which of the following chart markings best indicates the precise moment when a polygraph examiner begins asking a question?

A. X

B. A

C. //

D. +

C. //

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22 In a polygraph chart, a tracing segment that deviates from average but lacks evidence of sympathetic or parasympathetic activation is called:

A. Average Tracing Segment

B.Reaction Tracing Segment

C. Relief Tracing Segment

D. Distortion Tracing Segment

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D’. Which of the following physiological changes in the Cardiosphygmograph tracing is not typically indicative of deception?

A. Extra systoles

B. Increase in amplitude

C. Disappearance of dichotic notch

D. Constant, regular pulse rate

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24 If a subject repeatedly holds their breath during a polygraph exam, which response segment is most likely to appear on the chart?

A. Reaction Tracing Segment

B. Relief Tracing Segment

C. Distortion Tracing Segment

D. Average Tracing Segment

C. Distortion Tracing Segment

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A vertical rise in the Galvanograph tracing at the point of a control question most likely indicates: A. A stable emotional state BLow sweat gland activity C. A deceptive reaction D. Homeostatic regulation

C. A deceptive reaction

26 Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of a Relief Tracing Segment? A. It shows consistent, stable respiratory cycles throughout B. It exhibits physiological changes caused by external noise C. It reflects parasympathetic reactivation and return to baseline D. It shows irregular, jagged spikes throughout the tracing

C. It reflects parasympathetic reactivation and return to baseline

2. In pneumograph tracing, what does a large gap between inhalation and exhalation waves typically indicate? A. High emotional stability B. Hyperventilation due to deception C. Attempted normalization of breathing D. Non-cooperation or countermeasure attempts

D. Non-cooperation or countermeasure attempts

During a polygraph examination, the examiner records data every 20-25 seconds before asking the next question. In one instance, the examiner fails to mark the end of a test with the proper symbol on the analog chart. What could be a potential consequence of this oversight? A. The tracing will still be interpretable, as end markers are only used in computerized systems B. The examiner may misidentify the test boundaries, affecting evaluation and conclusion accuracy C. The galvanograph tracing will automatically indicate test conclusion without need for markings D. The pneumograph will record a sudden relief segment that indicates test completion

B. The examiner may misidentify the test boundaries, affecting evaluation and conclusion accuracy

29 A subject shows abrupt suppression of breathing, followed by an irregular and erratic tracing in the pneumograph segment, but no correlating rise in galvanic or cardiac responses. What should the examiner note? A. Reaction tracing B. Relief tracing C. Distortion tracing D. Average tracing

C. Distortion tracing

30. A-Subject repeatedly holds their breath (holding and blocking) during questioning. After the third instance, what should be the examiner's best course of action? A. Continue with questioning until a fourth instance occurs B. Give movement instruction to the subject C. issue a warning or stop the test due to lack of cooperation D. Record it as normal deviation if the galvanograph and cardiograph are stable

C. issue a warning or stop the test due to lack of cooperation

31 An examiner notices that the cardiograph tracing shows increased pulse rate, lowered amplitude, and disappearance of the dichotic notch during a control question. What type of response is this? A. Relief segment B. Reaction tracing C. Average tracing D. Distortion artifact

B. Reaction tracing

32. While conducting an analog polygraph test, a subject answers a relevant question with "I don't know" instead of a clear "Yes" or "No." Which symbol should the examiner use? A. A B. T C. + D. //

B. T

During a polygraph test involving a highly emotional witness in a sexual assault case, the examiner appears aloof and avoids building rapport with the subject. What is the most likely consequence of this examiner's behavior? A. The test results will be more accurate because of the examiner's objectivity B. The subject is less likely to comply, affecting the reliability of the data collected C. The physiological responses will remain unaffected by examiner behavior D. The witness may become more open, as the examiner avoids influencing responses

B. The subject is less likely to comply, affecting the reliability of the data collected

An examiner proceeds to conduct a polygraph test on a male robbery suspect who had been interrogated for 4 continuous hours just before the test. Which principle was violated? A. The subject must not have eaten within 6 hours B. The subject must not have been highly nervous C. The subject must not have undergone prolonged interrogation before the test D. The subject must not have taken drugs within 24 hours

B. The subject must not have been highly nervous

35. Which of the following individuals is least suitable for a polygraph examination related to a criminal investigation? A. A suspect whose guilt is uncertain B. A witness to a financial crime C. A person who committed a crime in the heat of passion D. A pregnant female suspect

C. A person who committed a crime in the heat of passion

36 An examiner notices that the subject is consistently distracted during the polygraph test due to the room being adjacent to a busy hallway. Which essential requirement of the examination room has been violated? A. Room lighting must be warm and dim B. The room must be equipped with a two-way mirror C. The room must be at least 50% soundproof D. The room must be 90% soundproof and distraction-free

D. The room must be 90% soundproof and distraction-free

37 A subject arrives for a polygraph test wearing tight compression clothing and reports having slept only 3 hours the previous night. What should the examiner do? A. Continue with the test but make note of the conditions in the report B. Ask the subject to change clothes but proceed without addressing sleep C. Reschedule the test due to multiple violations of pre-test conditions D. Proceed with adjustments to cuff pressure and electrode sensitivity

C. Reschedule the test due to multiple violations of pre-test conditions

38. Which of the following is a valid classification of subjects for polygraph testing in criminal investigations? A. Suspect, Family Member, Legal Counsel B. Suspect, Victim/Complainant, Witness C. Perpetrator, Civilian, First Responder D. Witness, Bystander, Accuser

B. Suspect, Victim/Complainant, Witness

39. During the initial interview, an investigator failed to provide the examiner with the subject's sworn statement and spot report. What is the most likely impact of this oversight? A. The polygraph results will be invalid and inadmissible in court B. The examiner cannot properly formulate test questions due to lack of context C. The subject will be unable to give consent for the test D. The examiner will need to skip Phase II and proceed directly to testing

B. The examiner cannot properly formulate test questions due to lack of context

40. A subject undergoing a pre-test interview discloses that they are feeling dizzy, haven't eaten in 10 hours, and are nervous. What should the examiner do next? A. Proceed with the test and note the conditions in the report B. Offer the subject a brief meat, then immediately begin testing C. Postpone the test due to failure to meet psychological and physical fitness criteria D. Reduce the duration of the test to compensate for the subject's condition

C. Postpone the test due to failure to meet psychological and physical fitness criteria

Which of the following must be completed before the polygraph examiner can legally begin the actual examination? A. Viewing of crime scene photos by the subject B. Verbal explanation of the test procedures by the examiner C. Signing of the consent form by the subject D. Psychological diagnosis of the subject by a licensed psychiatrist

C. Signing of the consent form by the subject

42. Which sensor component records electrodermal activity (skin resistance) during the polygraph examination? A. Pump Blood and Pressure Cuff Assembly B. Rubber Convoluted Tube and Beaded Chain C. Finger Electrode Assembly D. Pulse Rate Monitor Band

C. Finger Electrode Assembly

43. A subject shows deceptive responses during the test but denies involvement in the crime during post-test questioning. What is the examiner's appropriate next step? A. Immediately call in law enforcement to detain the subject B. Begin a short interrogation to clarify findings and possibly obtain a confession C. Dismiss the subject to avoid legal complications D. Declare the subject guilty and submit a final report

B. Begin a short interrogation to clarify findings and possibly obtain a confession

44 A first-time examinee appears intimidated by the polygraph equipment and becomes visibly anxious. What should the examiner do during the pre-test phase to handle this? A. Downplay the accuracy of the polygraph to reduce pressure B. Explain the operational capabilities of the machine to demystify the process C. Skip technical explanations to avoid increasing anxiety D. Ask the subject's lawyer to explain the procedure instead

B. Explain the operational capabilities of the machine to demystify the process

During a polygraph pre-test interview, a subject says: "Of course I didn't lie to my friend. I just told her that her performance was great to boost her confidence, even if I thought otherwise." Which type of lie best fits this situation? A. Black Lie B. White Lie C. Gray Lie D. Lie of Compliment

D. Lie of Compliment

A polygraph examiner is reviewing a case involving a suspect who intentionally gave false testimony in court to protect a close relative from being convicted. Which of the following best describes the nature of the deception? A. Judicial Lie B. White Lie C. Emergency Lie D. Red Lie

A. Judicial Lie

Subject lies during a polygraph exam not to protect anyone or gain anything, but simply because lying has become habitual and they struggle to separate truth from fiction. What type of lie is most likely involved? A. Red Lie B. Puffery Lie C. Pathological Lie D. Emergency Lie

C. Pathological Lie

48. An employee gives exaggerated and obviously false claims about a product during a promotional ad campaign. Despite the lack of scientific evidence, they say it is "the best in the world" and "guaranteed to change your life." What kind of lie is this? A. Big Lie B. Puffery Lie C. White Lie D. Black Lie

B. Puffery Lie

49 A subject being examined shows high stress and guilt when lying about damaging their coworker's reputation out of envy, which caused the coworker to be demoted. Which type of lie does this scenario most accurately reflect? A. Red Lie B. Black Lie C. Gray Lie D. Emergency Lie

B. Black Lie

50 A suspect on the polygraph enjoys the interview, doesn't show fear, and remains calm while lying. He later brags about "fooling the machine." What type of liar is most likely involved here? A.Tournament Liar B. Panic Liar C. Ethnological Liar D. Professional Liar

A.Tournament Liar

51. A man at a social gathering deliberately tells different people different false stories just to see if anyone catches on. When no one confronts him, he smirks and says, "They bought it again." What type of liar is he? A. Panic Liar B. Tournament Liar C. Ethnological Liar D. Altruistic Liar

B. Tournament Liar

52. A man is accused of manipulating elderly people into giving him their savings. When interrogated, he calmly denies everything, shows no emotion, and even smiles while being confronted with evidence. What type of liar is best demonstrated here? A. Panic Liar B. Occupational Liar C. Psychopathic Liar D. Professional Liar

C. Psychopathic Liar

53 A public speaker passionately talks about a national crisis, citing fake statistics and fabricated stories, all backed by falsified photos. His supporters believe every word. What type of liar does this best illustrate? A. Occupational Liar B. Tournament Liar C. Professional Liar D. Panic Liar

C. Professional Liar

54 You notice your friend's haircut is uneven and sloppy. When asked, "Do I look okay?" you smile and say, "Yeah, it looks good!" even though it's not true. What is your reason for lying? A. Fear of conflict B. Fear of punishment C. Fear of rejection D. Altruistic reason

D. Altruistic reason

55. During a trial, a defense attorney argues that the polygraph result showing no deception proves her client's innocence. The prosecutor counters, stating that polygraph results are not always valid. What is the most appropriate distinction between validity and accuracy that the court should consider? A. Validity is how scientific the test looks; accuracy is how often it is used in court. B. Validity refers to how consistent the results are; accuracy refers to how fast the test is conducted. C. Validity refers to whether the test measures what it claims to measure; accuracy refers to how Closely the results match the truth. D. Validity is about how subjective the examiner is; accuracy is about how nervous the subject was.

C. Validity refers to whether the test measures what it claims to measure; accuracy refers to how Closely the results match the truth.

50. In People vs. Amado Daniel (1978), the accused submitted the result of a polygraph test which showed no deception. However, the court convicted him. What principle does this case illustrate? A. Polygraph results are automatically admissible if conducted by an expert. B. The court considers polygraph results conclusive if consistent with witness statements. C. Polygraph results alone are insufficient for acquittal and are not automatically admissible in court. D. A failed polygraph test is enough to declare guilt under Philippine law.

C. Polygraph results alone are insufficient for acquittal and are not automatically admissible in

57 A suspect in a murder case agrees to take a polygraph test. During the pre-test interview, he unexpectedly confesses to the crime. What is the most legally acceptable use of this confession in court under Philippine law? A. The confession is inadmissible unless it matches the polygraph result. B. The confession is admissible only if made in the presence of consent and all rights were observed. C. The confession can be used only if the suspect was compelled to take the test. D. The confession is inadmissible because it was made during a polygraph process.

B. The confession is admissible only if made in the presence of counset and all rights were observed

Which of the following is not a primary reason why polygraph results are generally inadmissible as standalone evidence in Philippine courts? A. Lack of standardized instrumentation B. Variability in questioning procedure C. Subject's refusal to sign a waiver D. Examiner's subjective scoring or interpretation

C. Subject's refusal to sign a waiver

59. What is the primary reason why finger electrodes are attached to both the index and ring fingers during GSR recording in a polygraph test? A. To enhance voluntary muscle response detection in the hand. B. To prevent electrical short-circuiting between adjacent electrodes. C. To evenly distribute blood pressure across the fingers for balanced tracing. D. To reduce the galvanic resistance of the palm skin.

B. To prevent electrical short-circuiting between adjacent electrodes.

60. In an analog polygraph, which of the following components is responsible for moving the chart paper at a calibrated rate to allow synchronized recording of physiological responses? A. Pneumo-pen B. Aneroid gauge C. Kymograph D. Recording bellows

C. Kymograph

61. Which of the following is not a correct pairing of a polygraph component with its function? A. Pneumograph-Records respiratory cycles via thoracic and abdominal expansion. B. Cardiosphygmograph-Measures blood pressure and heart rate via an inflatable cuff. C. Galvanograph - Detects voluntary muscle contractions via skin movement. D. Kymograph-Drives the chart paper to allow time-aligned polygraph tracings.

C. Galvanograph - Detects voluntary muscle contractions via skin movement.

You are conducting a polygraph test for a suspect in a robbery case. The relevant question you need to ask is: "Did you steal Pedro Oya's laptop?" Which of the following best describes the nature of this question? A. It is a secondary relevant question, as it addresses the broader crime, not just one piece of evidence. B. It is a primary relevant question, as it directly addresses the core act under investigation. C. It is an irrelevant question, as it has no emotional connection to the case. D. It is a sacrifice relevant question, designed to absorb the subject's response to initial questions.

B. It is a primary relevant question, as it directly addresses the core act under investigation.

During the polygraph test, you ask the subject, "Between 10:00 AM and 12:00 PM on February 10, 2016, did you open the drawer of Mr. Pedro San Andres' table?" What type of relevant question is this? A. Strong relevant question, directly asking about the key event. B. Weak relevant question, focusing on a smaller detail of the crime. C. Control question, comparing past behaviors unrelated to the crime. D. Sacrifice relevant question, designed to determine the subject's honesty.

B. Weak relevant question, focusing on a smaller detail of the crime.

64 You are conducting a polygraph test and ask the following irrelevant question: "Is today Thursday?" What is the primary purpose of asking this question? A. To assess the emotional response to the crime being investigated. B To determine the subject's baseline physiological response. C. To gather information about the subject's past criminal behavior. D. To establish whether the subject has any knowledge about the crime.

B To determine the subject's baseline physiological response

65, in a polygraph examination, the subject is asked: "Do you know for sure who stole the laptop from Mr. Juan Sanchez?" This is an example of which type of relevant question? A. Primary relevant question B. Sacrifice relevant question C. Knowledge question D. Evidence-connecting question

C. Knowledge question

66 During a polygraph examination, you ask the subject, "Before reaching the age of 25, did you ever steal anything?" What type of control question is this? A. Primary control question B. Secondary control question C. Peak-of-tension question D. Symptomatic question

A. Primary control question

67. Which of the following is not a rule to follow when formulating polygraph test questions? A. Questions must be simple and direct, avoiding legal terminology. B. Questions must refer to one offense only, focusing on the investigation's core issue. C.Questions must contain inferences that help lead the subject to the truth. D. Questions should be answerable with a simple "yes" or "no."

C.Questions must contain inferences that help lead the subject to the truth.

68. In a polygraph examination, you ask the subject: "Have you ever stolen anything from this locality?" This question falls under which type of control question? A. Primary control question B.Secondary control question C. Sacrifice relevant question D. Knowledge question

B.Secondary control question

69. The subject is asked: "Are you completely convinced that I will not ask you an un-reviewed question during this polygraph test?" This is an example of which type of question? A. Control question B. Symptomatic question C. Peak-of-tension question D. Evidence-connecting question

B. Symptomatic question

70. What is the primary purpose of an irrelevant (neutral) question in a polygraph examination? A. To establish a baseline for the subject's physiological responses. B. To assess the subject's emotional reaction to questions directly related to the crime. C. To introduce potential evidence that could incriminate the subject. D. To verify the subject's knowledge of the crime or specific events related to it.

A. To establish a baseline for the subject's physiological responses.

71 During the instrumentation phase of the polygraph examination, the time interval of question should be- A. 5-10 seconds B. 10-5 seconds C. 15-20 seconds D. 20-25 seconds

D. 20-25 seconds

These are questions unrelated to the matter under investigation but are of similar nature. A. Relevant Questions B. Irrelevant Questions C. Control Questions D. Conclusive Questions

C. Control Questions

Before the actual test conducted, the subject must refrain from consuming alcoholic beverages for at least hours? A 6 hours B. 12 hours C. 5 hours D. 20 hours

B. 12 hours

74. This refers to the actual questioning phase of the polygraph examination. A. Pre test B. Preliminary Interview C. Test Execution D. Post test

C. Test Execution

What is the lowest pen polygraph? A. Cardio pen B. Galvo pen C. Pneumo pеп K.Kymo pen 76. What is the most important thing to consider in a polygraph result?

B Galvo pen

76. What is the most important thing to consider in a polygraph result? A. The training of the examiner B. The experience of the examiner C. The knowledge of the examiner D. The competence of the examiner

D. The competence of the examiner

77. the polygraph test result indicates innocence, what should the examiner do? A. Thank the subject for his cooperation B. Ask the subject if he has any questions C. Release the subject cordially D. All of the above

D. All of the above

76, his is a galvanograph attachment section, except A. Sets of electrodes B. Stretched band C. Electrodes jelly D. Rubber tube

D. Rubber tube

79. What test is given if a subject of interrogation is not yet informed of the details of the offense for which he is being interrogated by the investigation, or by other persons or from other sources like the print media? A. Peak of tension test B. Control test C. IQ test D. Guilt complex text

A. Peak of tension test

The primary objective of post test interview. A. To thank the subject B. To obtain confession C. To make the subject calm D. To explain polygraph test procedures.

B. To obtain confession

81, The subject must refrain from smoking for at least hours before the test. A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours

B. 2 hours

Which one is not correct about the polygraph examination room? A. It must be at least 90% soundproof B There must be an observation window (one-way mirror) C. It must be free from other electronic devices such as telephone, television, etc. D. It must be free from furniture like a table and chairs.

D. It must be free from furniture like a table and chairs.

83. Mr. Pamiloza is a member of an underworld gang known for their creed not to tell the truth. If Mr. Pamiloza will be arrested and will never tell the truth during the interrogation because of such creed, he is classified as A. Occupational liar B. Professional liar C. Ethnological liar D. Pathological liar

C. Ethnological liar

Which of the following is not listed as an example of influences affecting breathing pattern? A. Coughing B. Cleaning of throat C. Singing D. Laughing

C. Singing

85. This is a symbol used to indicate the end of the test A. X B. Xx C. Single x D. Double xx

B. Xx

86. When can expert testimony on polygraph be admitted as evidence? A. Always. B. Subject to the discretion of the trial judge. C. Only if the test results are perfect. D. Only if the polygraph examiner is highly qualified

B. Subject to the discretion of the trial judge.

87. Is the normal rate of the pulse beat of an adult subject in a polygraph test. A 60-80 B. 70-75 C. 6-12 D. 13-15

A 60-80

88, Which of the following polygraph channels records the blood pressure changes and pulses rate of the examinee? A. Cardiograph B. Pneumograp C. Galvanograp D. Kymograph

A Cardiograph

89. The polygraph examination states that when a mentally normal tells a lie, physiological changes occur within his body that could be recorded by the examiner and evaluated by the polygraph. A. False B.True C. Can't be determined D. It depends

B.True

Which subject condition would most likely render a polygraph examination invalid? A. Subject had 4 hours of steep the night before B. Subject took paracetamol 8 hours prior C. Subject was interrogated continuously for 6 hours prior D. Subject consumed light breakfast before the exam

C. Subject was interrogated continuously for 6 hours prior

Pre Finals Flashcards

(90 cards)