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Pre-Solo > Pre-Solo > Flashcards

Pre-Solo Flashcards

1
Q

What personal documents are required to be in your possession when flying? To solo?

A

Gov Issued ID, Pilot License, Physical Class 3 Medical. For solo: Solo Endorsement (in logbook)

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2
Q

What aircraft documents are required to be on board the plane?

A 
AROW - precheck
A – Airworthiness certificate.
R – Registration
R – Radio if flying abroad
O – Operational limitations (Typically in POH)
W – Weights and Balance information.
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3
Q

Can you carry passengers for compensation or hire?

A

No. Only in certain situations can you fly a plane as part of job with passengers (non profit); passengers can contribute funds as long as pilot also splits

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4
Q

Who has the final authority for determining that your rental aircraft is airworthy?

A

Pilot in Charge (PIC), aka me

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5
Q

Who has the right of way when two aircraft are on final approach at the same time?

A

Aircraft at lower altitude has the right of way

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6
Q

What altitudes should you use when flying VFR on a cross-country flight?

A

Over 3000 AGL, East: Odd thousands + 500

West: Even thousands + 500

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7
Q

How many hours from ‘bottle to throttle’? What is max blood/alcohol percentage?

A

8 hours between drinking alcohol and flying. Maximum of .04% BAC

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8
Q

When are seat belts required (passengers and pilots)?

A

Passenger: Takeoffs and Landings; Pilot: Always

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9
Q

What is the minimum fuel reserve required?

A

Enough to fly to destination + 30 extra minutes of flight time. At night, 45 minutes.

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10
Q

How does high humidity impact takeoff?

A

Adds 10% to computed takeoff distance.

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11
Q

How do you determine pressure altitude?

A

Standard ‘weight of atmosphere’ is is 29.92. Determine the Pressure Altitude by setting barometric scale at 29.92 altimeter and recording the indicated altitude.

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12
Q

What are the minimum FAR requirements for carrying passengers?

A

40 hours flight time, at least 17 years old, medically certified, pilot’s license

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13
Q

If you must takeoff following a departing jet, what precautions should you take?

A

take off before the place where the jet took off to avoid vorticies

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14
Q

If you must land behind a jet, what precautions must be taken?

A

Stay at or above the larger aircraft’s final approach. Touchdown past where the jet landed.

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15
Q

Cessna 172: Vso

A

33 knots. Indicated at the bottom of the white arc - this is the Stall Speed for landing formation

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16
Q

Cessna 172: Vs

A

44 knots. Stall speed/minimum speed airplane is controllable

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17
Q

Cessna 172: Vx

A

62-64 knots. Best angle of CLIMB. (Climb quickest)

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18
Q

Cessna 172: Vy

A

79 knots. This is the normal rate*. Best rate of climb.

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19
Q

Cessna 172: Vfe10

A

110 knots. Flaps Extended 10 degrees

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20
Q

Cessna 172: Vfe20-30

A

85 knots. Flaps extended 20-30 degrees

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21
Q

Cessna 172: Va

A

99 knots. Maneuvering speed. Highest safe airspeed for abrupt moves.

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22
Q

Cessna 172: Vno

A

129 knots. Maximum operating limit speed.

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23
Q

Cessna 172: Vne

A

163 knots. Never exceed

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24
Q

Cessna 172: Vr

A

55 knots. Rotate (take off) speed.

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25
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind for Cessna 172?

A

15 knots

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26
Q

Best glide speed for Cessna 172?

A

65 knots.

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27
Q

Total useable fuel for Cessna 172?

A

53 gallons

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28
Q

Fuel and color for Cessna 172?

A

AvGas 100LL, blue

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29
Q

Minimum oil capacity for Cessna 172?

A

5 quarts; Genesis requires between 6-7

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30
Q

Where are fuel sumps located?

A

5/Wing. Fuel strainer below nose/fuselage

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31
Q

Minimum visibility and ceiling requirements for class D airspace?

A

3 statute miles. 500 feet below clouds. 1000 feet above. 2000 feet horizontal. (think 3, 512)

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32
Q

What are the colors for class B, C, D, E airspaces?

A 
Solid blue – class B
Solid magenta – class C
Dashed blue – class D
Shaded magenta – class E
Shaded blue - class E
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33
Q

Entry point requirements for class D?

A

1) Adhere to Class D weather minimums.
2) Have a functional two-way radio onboard.
3) Establish two-way ATC radio communication prior to entering the airspace.
4) Maintain two-way communication with ATC while in the airspace.
5) Follow speed restrictions.

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34
Q

What is the minimum altitude for turning crosswind in traffic pattern?

A

1300 AGL. 500 feet above the airport

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35
Q

Georgetown Tower frequency?

A

120.225

36
Q

Georgetown Ground radio frequency?

A

119.125

37
Q

ATIS radio frequency?

A

118.600

38
Q

Emergency frequency and squak codes?

A

121.5; Emergency 7700. Comms Failure 7600. Hijack 7500.

39
Q

What are steps for Engine Fire in flight?

A

Floor to Door:
Fuel Selector Valve – OFF (This stops fuel from getting forward of the firewall, further inhibiting the fire)
Mixture – IDLE CUT-OFF (This stops fuel from getting beyond the carburetor in the engine compartment, to limit what will burn)
Master Switch – OFF (Some fires may be sparked by electricity, or an electrical fire might be mistaken to be an engine fire. This helps limit these possibilities)
Cabin Heat and Air – OFF (except overhead vents). It may not seem obvious, but this is to close off airflow and therefore smoke from the engine area into the cabin, for example via the heating system. Overheat vents remain open to provide fresh air into the cabin that should be above and out of the smoke stream.
Airspeed – 100 Indicated Air Speed (if fire is not extinguished, increase glide speed to find an airspeed which will provide an incombustible mixture. In the old vernacular, this “blows out the fire”)
Forced Landing – EXECUTE (as described in Emergency Landing Without Power)

40
Q

What is the emergency checklist?

A

Aviate: Best-glide 65 kts and trim; configure flaps & gear etc.
Navigate: pick a field; turn toward it.
Investigate: carb. heat, boost, tanks, primer, magnetos, mixture
Communicate: squawk 7700 + 121.5 or current.
Secure: gear down; throttle, mixture, mags, master, tanks — off; belts — snug.

41
Q

What are steps for slow flight?

A

Setup
Clearing turns: 2 90 degree turns.
Make sure to “lift” wings so can look under/all over
Power to 1500 rpm
Flaps to 10 degrees – hold pitch and nose to the horizon
Under 85 knots, go to flaps 30 degrees
Make sure keeping at the same altitude
Wait for the stall horn - note which speed that is at
Add power to 1800 rpm to keep altitude
Adjust pitch so plane is flying straight and level
**Pitch for airspeed / power for altitude **
Fly 5 knots above stall speed (which noted earlier)
**If turning, standard rate is 15 degrees + add just a little power + use rudder into the turn*
Recovery:
Full power
Flaps 10 degrees (which provides more lift than drag)
Hold altitude with pitch (when release flaps, plane will start to gain lift/move up, so need to pitch nose down to counteract this)
Above Vx (62 to 64 knots) flaps go to 0
Get back to Vy (79 knots) best rate of climb
Metrics measured against:
Keep heading +/- 10 degrees
Keep altitude within +/- 200 AGL

42
Q

At what distance do you call Tower about coming in to land?

A

10 miles out from the airport, initial. Then, approximately 3 to 5 miles from the airport, advise the tower of position and join the airport traffic pattern. From this point on, watch the tower for light signals. Thereafter, if a complete pattern is made, transmit position downwind and/or turning base leg.

43
Q

What is Zulu time?

A

Add 6 hours to Central Standard Time / 5 to Central Daylight Time. Also known as Universal time.

44
Q

How do you structure radio communications?

A

1) Who you’re calling; 2) Who you are; 3) Where you are; [often times, weather goes here] then: 4) What you want.

Ground Example: “Georgetown Ground, November-Six-Two-Alpha-Whiskey at Genesis, with information Sierra, Requesting Runup”
Flight Example: “Georgetown Tower, Skyhawk Six-Two Alpha Whiskey, left downwind for runway One Eight, touch-and-go, Six-Two-Alpha-Whiskey.”

45
Q

What are the rules for turning North/South? (UNOS)

A

Undershoot turns to the North, Overshoot turns to the South

46
Q

What is the magnetic error during East/West flight? (ANDS)

A

When flying East and West, Accelerating will show going more North, Decelerating will show South

47
Q

Magnetic Variation

A

As move across earth, the difference between true vs magnetic varies. So you have to manually adjust based on where located. Eg in Atlanta, have to add 5 degrees.
West is best (add Western degrees, shown in sectional charts), East is Least (subtract Eastern degrees shown in sectional chart)

48
Q

Magnetic Deviation

A

Corrects for misaligned readings between heading indicator and magnetic compass due to metals and things in the airplane.

49
Q

When is the magnetic compass accurate?

A

During Straight and level flight.

50
Q

Federal “airways” in the sky are identified in which color? What is the floor?

A

Federal airways are blue. 1,200 AGL

51
Q

Military “airways” in the sky are identified in which color? What do the “V” or “I” mean for the codes? What does 3 vs 4 digits mean? What is the speed?

A

Military airways are gray. VR codes mean pilots are flying VFR. IR means pilots are flying IFR. 4 digits means the entire airway segment is flown under 1,500 AGL. Speeds are over 250 knots.

52
Q

What does a contour line mean on a sectional chart?

A

Usually seen in a hilly area to indicate a valley. Typically, means inside the contour is 0-500 MSL. If more than 500, it should be indicated.

53
Q

Airworthiness Inspections / Requirement

A 
(AVIATE)
A: Airworthiness Directives (Like a car recall). 
- Recurring or non-recurring
- Emergency ones
- Complied with 
- NPRM: Notice of Proposed Rulemaking
V: VOR check. Every 30 days if IFR
I: Inspections: 
 Annual (all)
 100-hour for commercial / flight training
A: Altimeter & Pitot static system. Only IFR
24 calendar months
T: Transponder: 24-calendar month check 
E: Emergency Location Transmitter (ELT)
12 months
54
Q

Day VFR Equipment - FAR 91.205

A 
(A-TOMATO-FLAMES)
A: Airspeed Indicator
T: Tachometer (RPM)
O: Oil Pressure Gauge
M: Manifold Pressure Gauge - Not Cessnas
A: Altimeter
T: Temp Gauge (Engine) - Not for Cessna, only for liquid-cooled engines
O: Oil temp gauge

F: Fuel Quantity Indicator
L: Landing Gear Light (Cessna’s LG is always down, no light)
A: Anti-Collision Light (Strobes and Beacon)
M: Magnetic Compass
E: Emergency Locator Transmitter
S: Seatbelt

Cessna: Comprehensive Equipment List in the POH (on plane)

55
Q

Special Use Airspace

A

(WWTMNT CRAMP)
W: Warning Area (Near coasts)
W: Wilderness Protected Area. 2000+ AGL. blue outline with dotted inner circle
T: Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFR). Red Dashed Rings. VIP areas (presidents)
M: MOA, Military Operations Area. High speed military traffic. Magenta dashes
N: National Security Area. Can get cleared to fly through
T: TERSA; Terminal Radar Service Area; Class D with Radar (enables tower approach)

C: Controlled Firing Area (Not marked)
R: Restricted Areas. Blue. Must be cleared in but don’t expect to be
A: Alert Area, Usually flight schools / flight testing areas
M: Military Training Routes; Gray line; VR & IR
P: Prohibited Areas: Blue Circles; must be cleared in to fly across

56
Q

When are you permitted to deviate from an ATC instruction?

A

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless an amended clearance is obtained, an emergency exists, or the deviation is in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

57
Q

When an aircraft is approaching another head on, each pilot should alter their course to the?

A

right

58
Q

When is dropping objects from an airplane permitted?

A

No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

59
Q

What must a pilot do before entering class D airspace?

A

Class D Airspace: Unless otherwise authorized, each aircraft must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility providing air traffic services prior to entering the airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while in the airspace.

60
Q

What is the minimum safe altitude anywhere? Over congested areas?

A

Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

(b) Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
(c) Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

61
Q

When must the airplane’s navigation lights be on?

A

Between the hours of sunset and sunrise.

62
Q

Can a student pilot fly into Class B airspace? If so, what is required.

A 
Logbook Endorsement from Instructor with appropriate training for class B airspace with specific training in the Class B in question.
Approval to enter class B airspace
63
Q

What is the minimum reserve fuel required for day VFR operations?

A

Considering wind and weather to fly to the first point of intended landing and assuming normal cruising fuel consumption, to fly an additional 30 minutes during the day, or an additional 45 minutes for night.

64
Q

List the airport traffic pattern and appropriate speed / altitude.

A

Takeoff: Vr - 55 knots; Upwind: 79 kts (Vy) climbing up to 500 ft AGL (Then turn); Crosswind: up to 90 kts turn when runway is about 45 degrees behind or 1000 ft AGL, turn; Downwind: call tower when midfield, 90 kts. When Abeam the numbers, drop to 85 kts and flaps 10. At 45 degrees past runway, turn to base, about 800 ft AGL; GUMPS - landing checklist (Gas, Undercarriage, Mixture, Propellor, Switches/Seatbelts); Base: 75 kts, 20 flaps when descend to 500 ft AGL and at 45 degrees; Final: 65 kts, flaps 30,

65
Q

Generally describe the engine in your airplane

A

Cessna 172’s will be powered by Lycoming engines. These are air-cooled engines with horizontally opposed cylinders. Dual ignition systems (two spark plugs per cylinder). Air-cooled engines rely on the circulation of lubricating oil for internal cooling. Fixed pitch propeller. Normally aspirated

66
Q

What preflight action is required prior to flight

A 
Familiar with all available information 
NOTAMS (Notice to Airmen) 
Runway lengths
Takeoff/landing distances
Weather
Fuel requirements
Alternate airports
67
Q

List procedure for loss of communication, radios, when arriving at an airport with an operating control tower.

A 
Troubleshoot:
Volume Up
Switch to Comm 2
Check frequency
Recycle Avionics (Off and On again) 
Check Circuit Breakers

If Comms still don’t work:
Squawk 7600 = comms needs a fix
Best case scenario: just comms stopped. Worst case: Lost battery (or more)

Fly to the airport:
Do a few circles (doing a 360* turns at the edge of the pattern to see the wind
Once close to the airport, they’ll work to contact you via Light Gun Signals

68
Q

Light Gun Signals

A

What is the meaning of each of the following ATC light signals? INFLIGHT
Steady Green: Cleared to land
Flashing Green: Return for landing
Steady Red: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
What is the meaning of each of the following ATC light signals? ON THE GROUND
Flashing Red: Taxi clear of landing area (runway) in use
Flashing Green: Cleared to taxi
Alternating Red & Green – Use Caution!

69
Q

What would happen to the fuel indicators if all electricity in the airplane was lost?

A

The fuel gauges would not function.

70
Q

What are the basic VFR weather minimums? What is the minimum visibility for a student pilot?

A

3 statute miles with 1000’ AGL ceiling

3 statute miles during Day/5SM night

71
Q

Will the engine still run if the master switch is turned off? Why?

A

Yes. The engine operates on fuel flow and magnetos. Magnetos produce the spark for ignition as long as the engine is rotating. Thus, an aircraft can lose all electrical, i.e. master switch off, and still run.

72
Q

Class B: Name color, VFR Flight minimum, altitude, requirements

A

Blue solid, 3 Statute Miles Visibility, up to 18,000 ft MSL; Controlled airspace

73
Q

Class A: Name color, VFR Flight minimum, altitude, requirements

A

Not visibly shown on sectional charts; Anything over 18000 ft MSL; no VFR; Controlled airspace

74
Q

Class C: Name color, VFR Flight minimum, altitude, requirements

A

magenta solid.
VFR Mins: 3 statute miles visibility; to fly, you must fly 500 feet below clouds, or 1000 ft above clouds, or 2000 ft horizontal to clouds;
Required 2-way radio connection and Mode C transponder
Controlled airspace

75
Q

Class D: Name color, VFR Flight minimum, altitude

A

blue dashed. controlled airspace; VFR Mins: 3 statute miles visibility; to fly, you must fly 500 feet below clouds, or 1000 ft above clouds, or 2000 ft horizontal to clouds;

76
Q

Class E: Name color, VFR Flight minimum, altitude

A

When Class E airspace extends INWARD to 700 AGL, the sectional shows a magenta line fading in. If extends to surface, then additionally will show a dashed red circle
When Class E starts at 1200 feet at extends OUTWARD, it is a blue shaded fading out. VFR Mins: 3 statute miles visibility; to fly, you must fly 500 feet below clouds, or 1000 ft above clouds, or 2000 ft horizontal to clouds;

77
Q

Class G: Name color, VFR Flight minimum, altitude

A

G is uncontrolled and not charted. It’s below Class E, to surface.

78
Q

Pilot Health Checklist:

A

I’M SAFE:
I: Illness: Is the pilot suffering from any illness or symptom of an illness which might affect them in flight?
M: Medication - Is the pilot currently taking any drugs (prescription or over-the-counter)?

S: Stress - Is the pilot overly worried about other factors in their life? The psychological pressures of everyday living can be a powerful distraction and consequently affect a pilot’s performance.
A: Alcohol - Although legal limits vary by jurisdiction (0.04 BAC, no consumption in the past 8 hours).
F: Fatigue - Has the pilot had sufficient sleep and adequate nutrition?
E: Emotion - Has the pilot fully recovered from any extremely upsetting events such as the loss of a family member?

79
Q

FAA Advisory Circulars

A 
The four to remember are:
20 -- Aircraft;
60 -- Airmen;
70 -- Airspace; and
90 -- Air Traffic and General Operating Rules
80
Q

What are classes of aircraft?

A

The classes most pilots will deal with are “land,” “sea,” “single-engine,” and “multi-engine.”

Airplane category:
single-engine land class
multi-engine land class
single-engine sea class
multi-engine sea class
81
Q

what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

A

An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

82
Q

FAA Advisory Circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by?

A

Ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.

83
Q

no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of

A

15,000 feet MSL.

84
Q

What is the impact of ice on the wings?

A

Ice will accumulate unevenly on the airplane. It will add weight and drag, and decrease thrust and lift. With ice accumulations, landing approaches should be made with a minimum wing flap setting and with an added margin of airspeed. Sudden and large configuration and airspeed changes should be avoided.

85
Q

Spin Recovery

A

P: Power to Idle
A: Ailerons Neutral
R: Rudder Opposite of spin direction (Full)
E: Elevator Forward

86
Q

What is RAIM?

A

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitor (RAIM). t ensures available satellite signals meet the integrity requirements for a given phase of flight. … Without RAIM capability, the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.

87
Q

GPS Satellites

A

each of the 31 satellites emits signals that enable receivers through a combination of signals from at least four satellites, to determine their location and time.

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