Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PPL > Pre Solo Quiz > Flashcards

Pre Solo Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

What personal documents and endorsements are you required to have while flying solo?

A

Student Pilot License, medical, CFI endorsement, government ID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are your student pilot limitations regarding carriage of passengers or cargo and flying for compensation or hire?

A

Can not carry passengers or cargo. Can not fly for compensation or hire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Explain student pilot limitations concerning visibility and flight above clouds

A

Flight or surface visibility greater than 3 statute miles during day and 5 statute miles at night. Can fly above cloud if ground reference can be maintained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who has the final authority and responsibility for the operation of the aircraft when
you are flying solo?

A

The student pilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe appropriate preflight actions pertaining to a local solo flight.

A

(91.103)Become familiar with all aspects of flight: weather, fuel requirements, alternative airports, airport/runway info, airplane performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

During engine run up, you cause rocks, debris, and propeller blast to be directed
toward another aircraft or person. Could this be considered careless or reckless
operation of an aircraft?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

You may not fly as pilot of a civil aircraft within ____ hours after consumption of any
alcoholic beverage, or while you have ____% by weight or more alcohol in your blood.

A

8 hours

0.04%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the general requirements pertaining to the use of safety belts and shoulder
harnesses?

A

Both required for takeoff, landing, taxi. Only belt needed en route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the minimum fuel reserve for day VFR flight, and on what cruise speed is the
fuel reserve based?

A

Enough fuel to reach first point of landing plus 30 minutes for day and 45 minutes for night. Based on normal cruise speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A transponder with Mode C is required at all times in all airspace at and above ____ feet
MSL, excluding that airspace at and below _____ feet AGL

A

10,000’

2.500’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What aircraft certificates and documents must be on board when you are flying solo?

A 
Airworthiness Certificate
Registration
Radio License
Operating Limitations
Weight and Balance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a(n)
____________________.

A

Collision Hazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who has the right-of-way when two aircraft are on final approach to land at the same
time?

A

Aircraft at lower altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What action do you need to take if you are overtaking another aircraft and which
aircraft has the right-of-way?

A

Pass well clear to the right. Aircraft being passed has the right of way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What should you do if you are flying a head-on collision course with another aircraft? If
another single-engine airplane is converging from the right, who has the right-of-way?

A

If on head on collision course, both should alter path to the right.
If converging from the right, the aircraft on the right has right of way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Except when necessary for takeoffs and landings, what are the minimum safe altitudes
when flying over congested and other than congested areas?

A

Over a congested area, 1,000’ above highest obstacle in 2,000’ radius
Over other than congested area, 500’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List the memory items for an engine failure shortly after takeoff, in the traffic pattern,
and in cruise flight

A

A- Airspeed 76, Pitch for best glide
B- Best field to land
C- Checklist; attempt to restart engine
D- Declare emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

According to the Airplane Flying Handbook, how much altitude would a typical airplane
lose if it attempted a 180° turn back to the runway shortly after takeoff (page 17-6)?
Describe ATP procedure regarding 180° turns during an engine failure during takeoff.

A

~1,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe how pilot actions may differ between an engine failure and a partial loss of
power

A

Engine failure the pilot would pitch for best glide and land at the nearest safe area (road, field, airport)
Partial loss the pilot may have more time to work with but should assume engine loss imminent. Should divert to nearest airport for landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is a go-around appropriate?

A

When not properly established on stabilized approach which would allow for landing within the first 1,000’ of runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List the minimum equipment and instruments that must be working properly in your aircraft for day VFR flight

A 
A- anti collision lights 
T- tachometer
O- Oil Pressure
M- manifold pressure
A- Altimeter
T- temperature gauge
O- Oil temperature
F- Fuel gauge
L- landing gear indicator
A- airspeed indicator
M- Magnetic compass
E- ELT
S- Seat belts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Vso

A

Stall speed in landing configuration

45 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Vs

A

Stall speed with zero flaps

50 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Vr

A

Rotation speed

60 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Vx

A

Best angle of climb

64 KIAS

26
Q

Vy

A

Best rate of climb

76 KIAS

27
Q

Vg

A

Best glide

76 KIAS

28
Q

Vfe

A

Max flaps extended speed

102 KIAS

29
Q

Vno

A

Max structural cruise speed

125 KIAS

30
Q

Vne

A

Never exceed speed

154 KIAS

31
Q

The total usable fuel capacity for your aircraft is ____ gallons. On a standard day (sea
level temperature 59° F, altimeter 29.92 in. Hg), the fuel consumption rate during
normal (approximately 75% power) cruise is ____ gallons per hour.

A

48 Gallons

11 GPH

32
Q 
What grade(s) of fuel can be safely used in your aircraft? What are the colors of the
recommended fuels? What happens to the color of the fuel if two grades are mixed?
A

100LL
Blue
mixed fuel becomes clear

33
Q

The maximum oil capacity of your aircraft is ____ quarts, and the minimum oil capacity
to begin a flight is ____ quarts.

A

8 quarts

6 quarts

34
Q

The maximum crosswind component specified by your instructor for solo takeoffs and
landings in the training aircraft is ____ knots

A

17 knots

35
Q

When do you use carburetor heat during normal operations?

A

During run up and as required during moments of low RPM

36
Q

Describe the indications of carburetor icing and the appropriate pilot action if
carburetor ice is suspected.

A

The first indication is engine roughness and a drop in RPM. Carb heat should be turned on. A drop in RPM will be indicated first followed by an increase.

37
Q

What is the takeoff and landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle for your aircraft at
your airport? Assume maximum certificated takeoff weight, 80° F, winds calm, and an
altimeter setting of 29.52 in. Hg.

A

Takeoff 2100’

Landing 1450’

38
Q

What are the traffic patterns for each runway at your airport? What is the MSL altitude
for the traffic pattern?

A

9-27 and 13-31 all right traffic*

1013’

39
Q

How do you enter and exit the traffic pattern at your airport? What, if any, radio
communications are required?

A

Enter at 45 degree angle to midfield left downwind or follow ATC instruction
Establish communication before entering airspace and respond to ATC instructions

40
Q

What radio calls are recommended in the traffic pattern at an uncontrolled airport?
What radio calls are required at your airport?

A

Position reports approaching pattern and intentions when you arrive in pattern. Communication with ATC required in class D airspace including before entering and verifying clearances.

41
Q

What is the standard direction of turns in the traffic pattern? Give an example of a
visual display indicating a nonstandard traffic pattern.

A

Left turns standard

Segmented Circle

42
Q

What is CTAF? Explain CTAF procedures at your training airport(s)

A

Common Traffic Advisory Frequency. Used to communicate with other aircraft when tower is not available. No CTAF at KFXE

43
Q

How can you determine if a runway is closed?

A

X instead of number on runway. Would be advised in NOTAMS and ATIS

44
Q

What are the typical dimensions of Class D airspace and what requirement(s) must be
met prior to entry?

A

sfc to 2500. 5sm radius. Must establish communication with tower to enter

45
Q

What is the class of airspace at the airport where you will be conducting your first solo?

A

Class D

46
Q

If you receive ATC instructions that you feel may compromise safety or will cause you
to violate an FAR, what should you do?

A

Advise you are unable to comply and proceed with amended instruction or as needed to maintain safety

47
Q

Steady green in flight

A

Cleared to land

48
Q

Flashing green in flight

A

Return for landing

49
Q

Steady red in flight

A

Give way/ continue circling

50
Q

Flashing red in flight

A

airport unsafe do not land

51
Q

Steady green on ground

A

Cleared to takeoff

52
Q

Flashing red on ground

A

Taxi clear of runway

53
Q

In addition to equipment requirements and a student pilot certificate, what other
requirement(s) must be met before a student pilot is authorized to fly solo within Class
B airspace?

A 
Ground on class B operation
Flight training in class B airspace
endorsement from instructor
54
Q

Explain the general transponder equipment and use requirement(s) when operating
within or near Class B airspace.

A

Mode C transponder within 30nm radius of class B airport

55
Q

Describe Class B airspace boundaries and how they apply to an airport within that
airspace. Explain how you can use navigation equipment and/or ground reference
points to identify the Class B boundaries. (Draw a diagram, if necessary.)

A

Upside down wedding cake designed for particular airport to bring down traffic to busy airport

56
Q

You have called ATC just prior to entering Class B airspace, and the controller tells you
to “Squawk 2466 and ident.” Are you now allowed to enter Class B airspace without any
further instructions? Explain.

A

No. Need to receive clearance to enter the bravo

57
Q

On a sectional chart, what does a dashed magenta line around an airport indicate?

A

Class E airport

58
Q

Explain the minimum visibility and ceiling requirements for VFR flight in Class D
airspace.

A

3sm viz
1000 ft above
500 ft below
2000 ft lateral

59
Q

Can a student or recreational pilot request a special VFR clearance in Class D airspace
when visibility is less than three miles? Explain your answer.

A

No, student pilots must maintain 3 mile visibility during day and reference to ground

60
Q

You have called ATC prior to entering Class C airspace, and the controller responds with
your call sign and tells you to “Standby.” Are you now allowed to enter this airspace
without any further instructions? Explain.

A

Yes, two way communication is established when they use your call sign, this is all that is required to enter class C

61
Q

Describe the typical dimensions of Class C airspace. Is participation in the radar service
mandatory within the outer area of Class C airspace?

A

two shelves.
Lower shelf 5nm radius usually from surface to 1200’
Upper shelf 10nm radius from 1200’ to 4000’
no participation is not required

62
Q

Describe the Class C boundaries that affect your airport or a nearby airport. Explain
how you can use navigation equipment and/or ground reference points to identify the
Class C airspace inner core surface area and shelf area, as well as the outer area. (Draw
a diagram, if necessary.)

A

KFLL. You know you are entering upper shelf if between 1200 and 4000’ and you pass the arena to the west northwest or the pompano service plaza.
You know you are entering the lower shelf if you are from the surface to 1200; and pass Broward college to the west, port everglades to the west northwest or Hollywood beach to the west southwest

PPL (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions