Pre Test Flashcards
(194 cards)
1
Q
Which of these is a device that can be written or drawn on,and the content will be converted from analog input to digital images on the computer?
A Digitizer
B Backlight
C Inverter
D Webcam
A
Answer A is correct.
A digitizer is a device that can be wr itten or drawn on,and the content will be converted from analog input to digital images on the computer.Digitizers take input from a user’s finger or a wr iting utensil,such as a stylus.”
Answer B is incorrect.A backlight is a small lamp placed behind,above,or to the side of an LCD (liquid crystal display) display.The light from the lamp is diffused across the screen,producing brightness.The laptop display uses a CCFL (cold cathode fluorescent lamp) as its backlight.”
Answer D is incorrect. Webcams are nearly universal on laptops today. The most common placement is right above the display on the laptop,although some are below the screen. Most laptops with webcams will also have a smaller circle to the left of the lens, which has a light that turns on to illuminate the user when the webcam is on.
Answer C is incorrect. The inverter is a small circuit board installed behind the LCD panel that takes DC (direct current) and inverts it to AC (alternating current) for the backlight. Ifyou are having problems with flickering screens or dimness,it’s more likely that the inverter is the problem,not the backlight itself.”
2
Q
Which of these is not an overarching criterion for a safe work environment?
A The company and its employees understand how to respond to accidents or near-miss accidents if or when they occur.
B The company and its employees have identified all significant hazards in the work setting.
C Preventive measures have been taken to address each significant hazard.
D Disposa l regulations have identified all significant hazards or near-miss accidents if or when they occur.
A
Answer D is correct.
-There are three overarching criteria for a safe work environment:
-The company and its employees have identified all significant hazards in the work setting.
Preventive measures have been taken to address each significant hazard.
-The company and its employees understand how to respond to accidents or near-miss accidents if or when they occur.
3
Q
An organization has maintained partial or full backups that are kept at the computer center for immediate recovery purposes.Which of these is the organization using?
A Working copies
B Disk defragmenter
C Off-site storage
D On-site storage
A
Answer A is correct.
Working copies backups,sometimes referred to as shadow copies,are partial or full backups that are kept at the computer center for immediate recovery purposes.Working copies are frequently the most recent backups that have been made.
Answer D is incorrect. On-site storage refers to a location on the site of the computer center that is used to store information locally.On-site storage containers allow computer cartridges,tapes,and other backup media to be stored in a reasonably protected environment in the building.
Answer C is incorrect. Off-site storage refers to a location away from the computer center where paper copies and backup media are kept in the event the primary site suffers a catastrophe.
Answer B is incorrect.Disk defragmenter has existed in almost all versions of Windows,and its ability to take file data has become spread out over the disk and put it all in the same location,a process known as defragmenting.This process decreases the time it takes to retrieve files.
4
Q
Ann is using theinkjet printing process to print a document.To initiate the process,she first clicked the Print button.Then,the software that she is using sends the data to be printed to the printer driver that she has selected.What will be the next step?
A If the printer has not printed in a while,the printer’s control circuits activate a cleaning cycle.
B The printer stores the received data in its onboard print buffer memory.
C The printer driver sends theinformationto the printer via whatever connection method is being used (USB,network,serial,and so on).
D The printer driver uses a page-description language to convert the data being printed into a format that the printer can understand.
A
Answer D is correct.
The following steps take place whenever the users click the Print buttonin the favorite software:
1.The users click the Print button (or similar) that initiates the printing process.
2. The software from which the users are printing sends the data to be printed to the printer driver that they have selected.
3.The printer dr ver uses a page-description language to convert the data being printed into a format that the printer can understand.The dr ver also ensures that the printer is ready to print.
4. The printer dr ver sends the information to the printer via whatever connection method is being used (USB (Universal Serial Bus). network,serial,and so on).
5. The printer stores the received data in its onboard print buffer memory.
6. If the printer has not printed in a while,the printer’s control circuits activate a cleaning cycle.
7.Once the printer is ready to print,the control circuitry activates the paper feed motor.”
8. Once the paper is positioned properly,the print head stepper motor uses the print head belt and carriage to move the print head across the page,little by little.”
9.The motor is moved one small step,and the print head sprays the dots of ink on the paper in the pattern dictated by the control circuitry.
10.Then,the stepper motor moves the print head with another small step; the process repeats all the way across the page.
11.Once the page is finished,the feed stepper motor is actuated and ejects the page from the printer into the output tray.”
12. Once printing is complete and the finalpageis ejected from the printer, the print head is parked (locked into rest position), and the print process is finished.
5
Q
Which of the following Linux commands displays the contents of a file?
A find
B cat
C grep
D nano
A
Answer B is correct.
The cat command displays the contents of a file.It can also be used to concatenate multiple files.
Answer C is incorrect. The grep command searches for regular expressions in a text file.
Answer D is incorrect. The nano command is a text-based editor for files.
Answer A is incorrect. The find command searches for text in a file hierarchy.
6
Q
A company has a network consisting of a hundred computers,including a Domain Name System server and a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol server. All client computers run on Windows 8.John,a technician,wants to know the host name, IP address,and physical address configurations of the computer he is using. Which of the following commands will house to obtain the required information?
A tracert
B netstat
C ipconfig
D telnet
A
Answer C is correct.
The pc onf g command is the TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) utility that verifies network settings and connections.It is one of
“the first tools to be used when you experience problems accessing resources because it will show you whether an address has beenissued to the machine. The ipconfig /al command is used to view the full TCP/IP configuration,including the host name, IP address,and physical address configurations of”
the computer.
Answer B is incorrect. The netstat command is the TCP/IP utility that shows the status of each active network connection. It displays statistics for both
“TCP and UDP (User Datagram Protocol),including the protocol,local address, foreign address,and the TCP connection state.”
Answer Dis incorrect. The telnet command is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet
“server service.It allows users to communicate with a remote computer,offers the ability to run programs remotely,and facilitates remote administration.”
Answer A is incorrect. The tracert command is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach its destination.It shows
FQDN (fully qualified domain name) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host.
7
Q
A user reports to a technician that her Windows 7 PC is running very slow.The technician advised her to check for the processes running on the machine. Which of the following utilities should she use to view this detail?
A Task Scheduler
B Task Manager
C msconfig
D Event Viewer
A
Answer B is correct.
The user should use the Task Manager utility to check for the processes running on her machine.Task Manager is a basic system diagnostic and
“performance monitoring tool. It can be used to monitor or terminate applications and processes,view current CPU and memory usage statist cs,monitor network connection utilization,set the priority of various processes ( f programs share resources),and manage logged-on local users.”
Answer A is incorrect. Task Scheduler allows a user to create and manage certain system tasks that will be automatically carried out by the computer at
specified times.
“Answer Dis incorrect. Event Viewer keeps a log of all recorded system and application events. It includes sign-on attempts,shutdown signals,system”
“crashes,device driver errors, and many more scenarios that can help you to identify where problems exist.”
“Answer C is incorrect. msconfig is a command-line tool that opens the System Configuration Utility dialog box,which can be used to troubleshoot and”
“resolve startup errors,resolve unwanted prompts by third-party users, find and resolve problems with running services, and resolve the errors regarding boot”
paths configured on multi-boot computers.
8
Q
Which statement is true about the dead pixels?
A These are lines on the screen that never fire or light up.
B These are spots on the screen that may fire or light up.
C These are spots on the screen that never fire or light up.
D These are lines on the screen that may fire or light up.
A
Answer C is correct.
Dead pixels are spots on the screen that never fire or light up.The users can check for these spots by setting the background to white and seeing if any
spots don’t light up.The only solution for dead pixels is to replace the monitor.
9
Q
You are dealing with customers on the phone.Which of the following rules should you adhere to?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A Avoid arguing with customers.
B Vent about customers on social media.
C Avoid using jargon,abbreviations, and acronyms.
D Maintain a positive attitude.
A
Answers A, C,and D are correct.”
“If you are dealing with customers on the phone,you should adhere to the following rules:”
“» Use standard language and avoid using jargon,abbreviations, and acronyms.”
» Listen to your customers and take notes.
» Maintain a positive attitude and tone of voice.
» Avoid arguing with customers or becoming defensive.
» Don’t vent about customers on social media.
» Avoid being judgmental and/or insulting or calling the customer names.
» Clarify the customer’s statements and ask pertinent quest ons.
10
Q
Which of the following statements is true about a chipset?
A A collection of chips or circuits that are responsible for managing the communications with the rest of the computer
B A collection of chips or circuits that perform interface and peripheral functions for the processor
C A collection of chips or circuits that are responsible for providing support to the slower onboard peripherals
D A collection of chips or circuits that perform peripheral functions with the resources given to the computer
A
Answer B is correct.
A chip set is a collection of chips or circuits that perform interface and peripheral functions for the processor.This collection of chips is the circuitry that
“provides interfaces for memory,expansion cards,and onboard peripherals,and it generally dictates how a motherboard will communicate with the installed peripherals.”
Answers C and A are incorrect. The South bridge subset of the chip set is responsible for providing support to the slower onboard peripherals and managing
their communications with the rest of the computer and the resources given to them.
11
Q
Which of the following statements is true about lumen?
A It is a unit of measure for the total amount of visible light that the projector gives off,based on what the human eye can perceive and also on”
invisible wavelengths.
B It is a unit of measure for the total amount of visible light that the projector gives off,based solely on what the human eye can perceive and not on invisible wavelengths.
C It is a unit of measure for the total amount of visible light that the projector gives off,based solely on what the human eye cannot perceive.
D It is a unit of measure for the total amount of visible light that the projector gives off,based solely on invisible wavelengths.
A
Answer B is correct.
“A lumen (Im)is a unit of measure for the total amount of visible light that the projector gives off,based solely on what the human eye can perceive and not”
on invisible wavelengths. Sometimes the brightness is even more of a selling point than the maximum resolution supported by the system because of the chosen environment in which it operates.
12
Q
Which of these is a bandwidth optimization technology that allows various divisions of an office,which are located at different locations, to share files from a server and access the content locally rather than over WAN?
A Bitlocker
B RDP host
C EFS
D Branch Cache
A
Answer Dis correct.
“Branch Cache is a bandwidth-optimization technology that allows various divisions of an office,which are located at different locations,to share files from a”
“server and access the content locally rather than over WAN (wide area network). Branch Cache fetches content from the main office or hosted cloud content servers and caches the content at branch office locations, allowing client computers at branch offices to access the content locally.
Answer B is incorrect. The RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) host feature allows the computer to serve as a host for remote desktop connections.
Answer A is incorrect. The Bitlocker feature protects entire drives and volumes with full disk encryption when it is enabled.
Answer C is incorrect. The EFS (encrypting file system) feature allows users to protect specific files and folders from unauthorized access.
13
Q
Which of the following Linux commands is used to configure an Ethernet address?
A chmod
B passwd
C ifconflg
D ipconflg
A
Answer C is correct.
The f c onf g command is used to configure an Ethernet address for networkinterfaces of Linux servers and workstations. It is also used to view the
“current TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) configuration of a system, including the IP address and the net mask address.The following are some of the options used with the ifconfig command:”
» up:Activates the specified interface
» down:Deactivates the specified interface
“Answer D is incorrect. The ipconfig command is similar to the ifconfig command,but it is used in Windows-based operating systems. It verifies”
“network settings and connections. This command displays the current TCP/IP configuration,such as the IP address,subnet mask,default gateway,and so on,of a networked computer.”
Answer A is incorrect. The chmod command enables the users to modify the default permissions of a file or directory.
Answer B is incorrect. The passwd command changes a uses password.Entering passwd username will allow the users to change the password of the
specified user name.
14
Q
Which of these is an internal policy used to protect an organization’s resources from employee abuse?
A SSH
B ORM
C AUP
D PII
A
Answer C is correct.
AUP (acceptable use policy) is an internalpolicy used to protect an organization’s resources from employee abuse. It is a document that outlines a set of
“rules to be followed by users or customers of some computing resources.which could be a computer network,website,or large computer system.”
“Answer A is incorrect. SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocolthat enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands,”
and manage files.
Answer D is incorrect. Pll (personally identifiable informat on) is any data that could potentially be used to identify a particular person.
Answer B is incorrect. ORM (digital rights management) is a systematic approach to copyright protection for digital media.
15
Q
A technician would like to connect to a computer using a remote desktop. Which of the following ports does remote desktop use by default?
A 3389
B 68
C 53
D 443
A
Answer A is correct.
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is a proprietary protocolcreated by Microsoft for connecting to and managing devices that are not necessarily located at
the same place as the administrator.It uses port 3389 and works onthe Application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnect on) model. It allows a user to remotely log into a networked device.
Answer C is incorrect. DNS (Domain Name Server) uses port 53 as the default port.A DNS server provides name resolution services for users accessing
“Internet resources. Name resolution allows users to use familiar web names,such as WWW .ucer t f y .com,instead of using IP addresses to access websites.”
Answer B is incorrect. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) uses port 68.A DHCP server runs software that automatically assigns IP addresses to
client stations logging on to a TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) network.
Answer D is incorrect. HTIPS (Hypertext Transfer ProtocolSecure) uses port 443 as the default port. It is used to secure web pages and sites that include
encrypt on services.
16
Q
You have purchased a new Android phone.You have entered a type of passcode that will allow you to unlock your device.Which of the following locks have you used?
A Pattern
B Face
C Fingerprint
D Swipe
A
Answer A is correct.
The pattern lockis a type of passcode that allows you to unlock your device.
Answer Dis incorrect. Swipe lock works by displaying nine dots in a matrix of 3 x 3. You then swipe with your finger with the registered pattern to unlock the
phone. Itis not really alock at all. It allows you to unlock the phone easily by swiping on the screen.This locking method is to really prevent pocket dialing of someone by accident.
Answer C is incorrect. The fingerprint lock is a biometric-type lock that uses your fingerpr int to unlock the device. It is the most securebiometric method for
a device.
Answer B is incorrect. The face lockis a biometric-type lock that allows you to use your face to unlock your device.There are a high number of false
positives that makes the face lockless secure than the fingerprint lock.
17
Q
Which of the following statements is true about a laser printer?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A It uses light as the by-product of the printing process.
B High humidity can cause printer paper to st ck together.
C The laser printer’s toner cartridge contains a corona wire.
D It can generate a lot of heat.
A
Answers B and D are correct.
“Laser printers can generate alot of heat. Therefore,the users need to ensure that theirlaser printer is ina well-vent ilated area. A lso,high humidity can cause”
“printer paper to stick together.The sticky paper leads to paperjams.Humidity over 80 or 90 percent can cause issues. The laser printer’s toner cartridge contains a photosensitive drum. Exposing that drum to light could ruin the drum.While the drum is encased in plastic,it’s best to avoid exposing the printer or toner cartridges to extreme light sources. Laser printers that use corona wires produce ozone as a by-product of the printing process.Inoffices,ozone can cause respiratory problems in small concentrations,and it can be seriously dangerous to people inlarge amounts.Ozone is also a very effective oxidizer and can cause damage to printer components.”
18
Q
Which of these uses a single connector to deliver both video and audio without using any conversion adapter?
A DVI
B SATA
C HDMI
D VGA
A
Answer C is correct.
HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface)is a proprietary audio/video interface for transferring uncompressed video data and compressed or
“uncompressed digital audio data from a display controller to a compatible peripheraldevice,such as a display monitor, a video projector, a digital TV,or a digitalaudio device,over a single HOMIcable.”
Answer A is incorrect. OVI(DigitalVisual Interface) is a video display interface used to connect a display device to a computer. It is a video standard for
transferring both analog and digitalvideo signals.
Answer D is incorrect. VGA (Video Graphics Array) is an old standard used to connect a display device to a computer.VGA andits associated evolutionary
“standards,such as Super Video Graphics Array (SVGA), are analog standards.”
Answer B is incorrect. The most common hard drive connector usedtoday is SATA (SerialAdvanced Technology Attachment).The SATA cable is flat and the
“connector is keyed to fit into the motherboard header.SATA data cables have a 7-pin connector, have 15 pins,and are wider than the data connector.”
19
Q
Which of the following statements is true about IP filtering?
A It helps securethe internal network from an external network.
B It helps securethe internal network from anotherinternalnetwork.
C It helps secure the external network from another external network.
D It helps securethe external network from an internal network.
A
Answer A is correct.
IP filtering,also known as firewallrules,helps securethe internal network from an external network. The external network could be the Internet,or it could be a network less trusted than the internalnetwork,such as a wireless network.
20
Q
Which of these should not be done if wireless networking isn’t working on a laptop?
A Ensure that the network card is turned on.
B Reboot the laptop.
C Check the strength of the signal.
D Make sure that the wireless card is enabled through Windows.
A
Answer B is correct.
“If wireless networking isn’t working on a laptop,do the following:”
1.Ensure that the network card is turned on. Most laptops have an externalswitch or button on the front or side or above the keyboard that can toggle the network card on and off.
“2. Next,make sure that the wireless cardis enabled through Windows.”
“3.At last,check the strength of the signal.”
21
Q
Which of these is the act of mirroring all unique changes and additions of data from one device to the other?
A On-demand self-service
B Cloud computing
C Synchronization
D Elasticity
A
Answer C is correct.
Synchronization is the act of mirroring all unique changes and additions of data from one device to the other. It means that the same copy of the data
“(music,pictures,contacts,or whatever) is on both the mobile device and the desktop.”
Answer D is incorrect. Elast city is the ability to quickly increase or decrease the number of resources from a cloud service provider to meet changing
demands.
Answer B is incorrect. Cloud computing is a model for providing or purchasing off-premise computing services over the Internet.
Answer A is incorrect. On-demand self-service is a cloud term referring to the ability of clients to obtain additionalresources immediately without the
intervention of a cloud service provider.
22
Q
Which of the following features is a password management system built into macOS X and stores passwords and account information for users?
A Mission Control
B First Aid
C Secure Erase
D Keychain
A
Answer Dis correct.
Keychainis a password management system built into macOS X. It stores passwords and account informat on for users.When the users access any
“password-protected resource,such as a website,an email,or a server,they are provided with the option to save the password.The passwordis saved in the keychain.”
Answer A is incorrect. Mission Controlenables the users to see all open windows and spaces on Mac.
Answer C is incorrect. Secure Eraseis used on mechanicaldrives and can be used to erase an entire hard disk or partition or just to erase the free space.
“When a file is deleted from the recycle binin Windows rather than deleting the actual file,the space the file is occupying is simply marked as free so that another file can come and use those blocks on the hard drive. The file is still not deleted and its contents may be recovered.Secure Erase can be used to erase this free space to ensure that the data is permanently deleted.”
Answer B is incorrect. First Aidis a disk utility on Mac that assists withfixing disk problems.
23
Q
You have been tasked with limiting the number of users who can connect to a network printer located centrally within an office environment. Which of the following tools will you use to complete this task?
A LDAP
B RDP
C ACL
D VPN
A
Answer C is correct.
“ACL (access control list)is a set of data (user names, passwords,time and date, IP addresses,MAC addresses,and so on) that is used to control access to”
“a resource,such as a computer,file,printer,or network.ACLs are commonly implemented as MAC (media access control) address filtering on wireless routers and access points. When a wireless client attempts to access the network,that client’s MAC address is compared to the list of authorized MACs and access is granted or restricted based on the result.”
Answer D is incorrect. VPN (virtual pr vate network)is a private communication network transmitted across a public network connection such as the
“Internet. With VPN,a company can extend a virtual LAN ( ocalarea network) segment to employees working from home or other remote locations by transmitting data securely across the Internet.”
Answer B is incorrect. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)is a proprietary protocolcreated by Microsoft for connecting to and managing devices not
necessarily located at the same place as the administrator.
Answer A is incorrect. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is a network protocol used to access network directory databases,which store”
information about authorized users and their pr vileges as well as other organizationalinformation.
24
Q
What is the process to standardize the methods and procedures used to handle modification in the company?
A Documented business process
B Change management
C Scope of change
D Patch management
A
Answer B is correct.
Change management is the process to standardize the methods and procedures usedto handle modification in the company. It is a process often found in
“large corporations,publicly held corporations,and industries,such as financial services,that have regulatory requirements.”
Answer D is incorrect. Patch management is the pract ce of monitoring,obtaining,evaluating,testing,and deploying software patches and updates.”
Answer C is incorrect. The scope of change details how many systems the proposed change will affect.
Answer A is incorrect. The documented business process is incorporated into the change management plan document.
25
Which of the following Internet connect on types transmits digital signals over existing phone lines?
A Cable
B SatelliteInternet
C DSL
D line of sight
Answer C is correct.
DSL (digitalsubscriber line)is a point-to-point and public network access broadband Internet connection method that transmits digital signals over existing
"phone lines. It has become a popular way to connect small businesses and households to the Internet because it is affordable and provides a relatively high download speed up to 1.5 Mbps for basic DSL and 7 Mbps for high-end DSL. However,the distance from the phone company's switching station and the quality of the lines affect the total bandwidth available to a customer."
Answer D is incorrect. line of sight is a wireless connect on method in which endpoints can transmit signals to one another as long as they are unobstructed
"by physicalobjects. A wireless antenna at one endpoint is directly pointed at a wireless endpoint farther away,without trees,buildings,or other tall structures interfering with the signal."
Answer B is incorrect. SatelliteInternet uses a satellite dish to receive data from an orbiting satellite and relay station that is connected to theInternet.
"Newer satellites use the Ku bandto achieve downstream data speeds up to 506 Mbps. Also,new satellite Internet constellations are being developed inlow earth orbit to enable low-latency Internet access from space."
Answer A is incorrect. Cable or cable modem transmissions use a cable television connection and a specialized interface device known as a cable modem
to provide high-speed Internet access to homes and small businesses. Cable access arranges users in groups around nodes that split the television and data signals at the cable provider's end.
26
Which type of fiber-optic connector,containing one fiber-optic strand per connector,is connected by pushing the connectorinto a terminating device and can be removed just by pulling the connector from the terminating device?
A ST
B BNC
C SC
D LC
Answer C is correct.
SC (subscriber connector or standard connector) is a fiber-optic connector used with multimode fiber. Itis a square-shaped connector used forterminating
fiber-optic cables.It has a push-pull latching mechanism to provide quick insertion and removalwhile also ensuring a positive connection.
Answer D is incorrect. LC (lucent connector) is a fiber-optic connector used to connect a terminating device by pushing the connector into the terminating
device.It can be removed by pressing the tab on the connector and pulling it out of the terminating device.
Answer A is incorrect. ST (straight tip)is a fiber-opt c connector used with multimode fiber. It is connected to a terminating device by pushing the connector
into the terminating equipment and then twisting the connector housing to lock it in place.
Answer B is incorrect. The BNC (Bayonet nut connector) connector is usedwith the coaxialcable to carry radio frequencies to and from devices.It can be
"used to connect radio equipment,aviation electronics, andto carry video signals."
27
James,a technician,is tasked to remove the dust inside of a desktop computer.Which of the following should he use to minimize the contact with the dust while protectinginternal hardware components?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A Safety goggles
B Loopback plug
C Air filter mask
D Demineralized water
Answers A and C are correct.
He should use safety goggles and an air filter mask to minimize contact with the dust while protectinginternal hardware components. Contaminants can be
"either gaseous (such as ozone) particles (such as dust) or organic,which comes from the industrial processing of fossilfuels,plastics, and so on.All these contaminants can cause damage to computer equipment,such as corrosion and overheating.To protect the computing environment and yourself from airborne particles,you can:"
» Install computer equipment enclosures that will prevent contaminants from entering the devices.
"» Install airfilters throughout the facility to catch excess particles as the air flows through the HVAC (heating,ventilation,and air conditioning) system."
» Consider using safety goggles and an air filter mask to prevent particles from entering your eyes and lungs.
Answer B is incorrect. A loopback plugis a tool that causes the device to transmit a signal back to itself.Itis used for diagnosing transmission problems
that redirect electrical signals back to the transmitting system.
Answer D is incorrect. Demineralized water does not leave residue andit is recommended for cleaning keyboards and other non-metal computer parts.
28
Jennifer,a storage administrator,wants to implement a RAID system that provides fault tolerance to a database.She also wants to implement disk mirroring.Which of the following RAID levels will she use to accomplish the task?
A RAID 1
B RAID 5
C RAID 6
D RAID O
Answer A is correct.
"Jennifer will use the RAID (Redundant Array ofIndependent Disk) 1levelthat writes identicaldata to two or more hard drives, also known as disk mirroring."
"In RAID 1,the data from an entire par1ition is duplicated on two identicaldrives by either mirroring or duplexing. In mirroring,the two drives share a drive controller. In disk duplexing,each drive has its own drive controller, so the controller card is not a single point of failure. The data is wr tten to both halves of the mirror simultaneously.This redundancy provides fault tolerance and quick failure recovery,but the storage overhead consumes half the available space."
Answer D is incorrect. RAID O implements striping,which is the process of spreading the data across multiple drives. Striping can dramatically improve the"
"read and write performance.Striping provides no fault tolerance because the data is spread across multiple dr ves. If any one of the drives fails,all the data will be lost."
Answer B is incorrect. RAID 5 spreads the data byte by byte across multiple dr ves,with parity information also spread across multiple drives. At least three"
physical disk drives are needed that have the same capacity and are of the same type.
Answer C is incorrect. RAID 6 is similar to RAID 5,except with atleast four drives and two parity disks. RAID 6 has the benefits of RAID 5 but with much"
stronger fault tolerance.This configuration gives better performance and system redundancy.
29
Jessie,a network administrator,wants to use a server that automatically assigns IP addresses to client stat onsloggingin to a TCP/IP network.Which of the following servers will she use?
A Mail
B Print
C DHCP
D File
Answer C is correct.
Jessie will use the DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server that automat ically assigns IP addresses to client stationslogginginto a TCP/IP
"(Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) network. It eliminates the need to manually assign permanent IP addresses.It provides IP addressing information for network computers. This information includesIP addresses,subnet masks,default gateways,and DNS (Domain Name System) server addresses."
Answer A is incorrect. Emailis critical for communicat on,and mail servers are responsible for sending,receiving,and managing email. To be a mail server,"
"the computer must be running a specialized email server package.Some popular ones are Microsoft Exchange,Sendmail, Postfix,and Exim."
Answer B is incorrect. A print server enables many network users to share common printers. The printers might be directly attached to the network or the
server.
Answer D is incorrect. A fileshare or file server provides a central repository for users to store,manage,and access files on the network."
30
Which of the following statements is true about Zoombombing?
A It is the act of a threat agent guessing the meetingID and joining an otherwise private conversation.
B It is the act of a software agent guessing the meeting ID and joining an otherwise public conversation."
C It is the act of a threat agent guessing the meetingID and joining an otherwise public conversation.
D It is the act of a software agent guessing the meeting ID and joining an otherwise private conversat on.
Answer A is correct.
Zoombombingis the act of a threat agent guessing the meetingID andjoining an otherwise private conversat on.This type of security concern is a liability
to the organization if not avoided.
31
Which of the following viruses attaches itself to legitimate programs and thencreates a program with a different filename extension?
A Boot sector
B Multipartite
C Companion
D Macro
Answer C is correct.
A companion virus attaches itself to legitimate programs and thencreates a program with a different filename extension.This file may reside in the system's
temporary directory.
Answer D is incorrect. A macro virus exploits the enhancements made to many application programs. Programmers can expand the capability of
applications such as Microsoft Word and Excel.
Answer B is incorrect. A multipartite virus attacks the system in multiple ways. It may attempt to infect the boot sector,infect all the executable files.and"
destroy the application files.
Answer A is incorrect. The boot sector virus infects the MBR (Master Boot Record) of a hard disk or floppy disk. This type of virus loads when the computer
boots and can re-infect an operating system.
32
Which of the following statements is true about ESP?
A It is a system partition used to hold ECO for the booting of the data partition containing the Windows kernel.
B It is a system partition used to hold ECO for the booting of the boot partition containing the Windows kernel."
C It is a system partition used to hold BCD for the booting of the boot partition containing the Windows kernel.
D It is a system partition used to hold BCD for the booting of the data partition containing the Windows kernel.
Answer C is correct.
ESP (EFI System Partition) is a system partition used to hold BCD (Boot Configuration Data) for the booting of the boot partition containing the Windows
kernel.
33
An IT vendor gives a technician the address on a support call as 192.168.15.2/32. Which of the following formats best describes the address provided by the vendor?
A 1Pv6 address in subnet mask format
B 1Pv4 address in CIDR format
C 1Pv6 address in CIDR format
D 1Pv4 address in subnet mask format
Answer B is correct.
An 1Pv4 address is a 32-bit number assigned to a computer on a TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) network.The 32-bit 1Pv4 address
"is separated into four 8-bit octets,and each octet is convened to a single decimalvalue. Each decimal number can range from O to 255,but the first number cannot be 0.Because the traditionalIP address classes have limitations on the number of available addresses in each class,there are now various"
"implementations that utilize classless addressing.Inthese schemes,there is no strict dividing line between groups of addresses,and the network address/node address division is determined entirely by the number of 1s inthe subnet mask.CIDR (classless inter-domain routing) is a classless addressing method that considers a custom subnet mask as a 32-bit binary word. It combines a network address with a number to represent the number of 1s in the mask.With CIDR, multiple class-based networks can be represented as a single block. For example, 192 .168 .15 .2/32,144. 201.5 .32/16,"
and so on.
Answer D is incorrect. 1Pv4 address in subnet mask format can be written as 192 .168 .15 .2 255 .255 .255 .0.
Answers A and C are incorrect. The size of an 1Pv6 address is 128 bits as compared to 32 bits in 1Pv4. 1Pv6 addresses are represented as eight groups,"
"separated by colons,of four hexadecimaldigits. 2002 ::1234 :abed :f ff f :c 0a8: 101/64 is an example of 1Pv6 CIDR notation."
34
Which of the following tabs displays a variety of information,including overall CPU usage percentage,a graphical display of CPU usage history,the number of processes,and a graphicaldisplay of physicalmemory?
A Startup
B Users
C Performance
D Services
Answer C is correct.
"The Performance tab displays a variety of information,including overall CPU usage percentage,a graphicaldisplay of CPU usage history,the number of"
"processes,and a graphical display of physical memory.This tab also provides the users with additional memory-related information,such as physical and kernel memory usage as well as the total number of handles,threads,and processes."
Answer D is incorrect. The Services tab lists the name of each running service as wellas the processID associated withit andits description,status,and"
group.
Answer B is incorrect. The Users tab provides the users'information about the users logged into thelocal machine. The users will see the username,status,"
"CPU usage,memory usage,disk usage,and network usage."
Answer A is incorrect. The Startup tab lists the names of services configured to begin at startup as well as the publisher, status,and startup impact. From"
"this tab,the users can select any service listed and choose to disable it."
35
Which of the following devices transfers the data by making decisions based on the logical addresses of the network?
A Firewall
B Repeater
C Router
D Hub
Answer C is correct.
"A router is a highly intelligent Network layer (Layer 3) device,meaning thatit makes forwarding decisions based onthelogical network address (for example,"
IP address)information. Routers connect multiple network segments and determine the best pathfor sending the data. They can route packets across multiple networks and use routing tables to store network addresses to determine the best destination.
Answer D is incorrect. A hub is a hardware device that operates at the Physicallayer (Layer 1) of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) modelto connect
computers in a network. Hubs are very simple devices and possess no decision-making capability.They simply repeat and forwardthe data received on one port to allthe other ports.
Answer A is incorrect. A firewallis a hardware or software solution that serves as a network's security guard. It monitors and controls incoming and
outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
Answer B is incorrect. A repeater operates at the Physical layer of the OSI modelthat receives a signaland retransmits it. Repeaters are used to extend
transmissions so that the signalcan cover longer distances or be received on the other side of an obstruction.
36
Maria, a support analyst,is tasked to update the OS for a mobile device used for testing purposes in the organization. However,the OS failed to update for that device. She then freed up the memory since insufficient memory could be preventing the update.Which of the following steps has she performed?"
A Compatibility
B Connect vity
C Reboot
D Storage
Answer C is correct.
Maria has performed the reboot step. A reboot of the mobile deviceis always recommended since a process could be preventing the update frominstalling.
A reboot of the operating system also allows for memory to be freed up sinceinsufficient memory could be preventing the update.
Answer A is incorrect. The users should check to make sure that the operating system update is compatible with the mobile device hardware. Itis common
"to findthat a hardware device is only supported for 5 to 7 years, at which time it is no longer compatible with future operating system upgrades."
Answer D is incorrect. Make sure that there is enough storage space on the mobile device to accommodate the update. When an updateis to be applied to
"the device,at some point both operating systems will need to exist; the upgrade and the current operating system."
Answer B is incorrect. Be sure that you have a Wi-Ficonnection and that you are currently connected. Many operating systems will not download the update
"over a metered connection,such as cellular.A bad Internet connection can also prevent an OS update from completing."
37
Which of these allows the users to provide full-disk encryption to prevent unauthorized access to the informat on contained on the device during startup?
A FileVault
B Force quit
C macOS disk utility
D Snapshot
Answer A is correct.
The FileVault toolallows the users to provide full-disk encryption to prevent unauthorized access to the information contained on the device during startup.
FileVault uses XTS-AES-128 with a 256-bit key.
Answer B is incorrect. Sometimes an application can become unresponsive. When that happens in macOS,the users can use force quit to force the"
application to close.The Force Quit dialog box can be accessed by pressing Option+Command+Esc.
Answer D is incorrect. A snapshot is an archive of key files and settings as they exist at a momentintime. It is possible to take snapshots and restore them
as needed.
Answer C is incorrect. The macOS disk utility can be used to create an image of the macOS operating system,and the image can be directed to an external"
storage device. Linux can use a multitude of open-source tools to create an image of the operating system.
38
Which of these is connected to a heating or cooling systemthat allows users to controlthe temperature of a room,home,or building?
A Thermostat
B Hypervisor
C Resource pooling
D Virtualization
Answer A is correct.
"A thermostat is a device connected to a heating or cooling system that allows users to controlthe temperature of a room,home,or building. Programmable"
thermostats that allow the users to set the temperature based ontime and day have been around for more than 20 years.
Answer C is incorrect. In resource pooling,the provider's resources are seen as one large pool that can be divided up among clients as needed,and each"
"client pays for the fraction of those resources they use. Clients should be able to access additional resources as needed,even though the client may not be aware of where the resources are physically located."
Answer Dis incorrect. The term virtualizationis defined as creating virtual (rather than actual) versions of something. In computer jargon,it means creating"
virtualenvironments where computers can operate.
Answer B is incorrect. The key enabler for virtualization is a piece of software called the hypervisor,also known as a VMM (virtual machine manager).The"
"hypervisor software allows multiple operating systems to sharethe same host,and it also manages the physical resource allocation to those virtualOSs."
39
You are replacing a power supply with a new one.What is the primary characteristic you should look for to ensure the support of all internalcomponents?
A Amperage rating
B 20-pin to 24-pin motherboard adapter
C Wattage rating
D 20-pin to 36-pin motherboard adapter
Answer C is correct.
"To ensure the support of all internalcomponents,you shouldlook forwattage rating as the primary characteristic.Wattage is the unit of output for power"
supplies. Make sure that the power supply has enough wattage to support all components.
40
Which utility can be started by running mstsc.exe?
A Computer Management
B Control Panel
C Remote Desktop Connection
D Security Account Manager
Answer C is correct.
IX Incorrect
RDC (Remote Desktop Connection) is a Microsoft technology that allows a local computer to connect to and control a remote PC over a network or the
Internet. It can be started by running m stsc .exe .
Answer A is incorrect. Computer Management is a software console that is used to schedule automated tasks,partition hard drives,view logged system"
"events, and manage Windows services and hardware devices."
Answer D is incorrect. Security Account Manager is a database that stores user passwords and performs authentication of localusers.
Answer B is incorrect. Control Panel is a utility providing central access to Windows settings.
41
Which of these is the expansion card that the users put into a computer for allowing the computer to present informat on on some kind of display?
A Network interface
B Video
C Sound
D Video capture
Answer B is correct.
A video card (sometimes called a graphics card)is the expansion card that the users put into a computer for allowing the computer to present information
"on some kind of display by a monitor or a projector.This card is also responsible for converting the data sent toit by the CPU into the pixels,addresses,and other items required for display.Sometimes,video cards can include dedicated chips to perform some of these functions,thus accelerating the speed of display."
Answer C is incorrect. There are devices to convert computer signals into printouts and video informat on,and there are devices to convert those signals"
"into sound.These devices are known as sound cards. Although sound cards started out as pluggable adapters,this functionality is one of the most common integrated technologies found on motherboards."
Answer D is incorrect. A video capture card is a stand-alone add-on card often used to save a video stream to the computer forlater manipulation or sharing.
"This stream can be a video from anInternet site or a video from an external device,such as a digitalcamera or smartphone."
Answer A is incorrect. A network interface card is an expansion cardthat connects a computer to a network so that it can communicate with other
computers on that network.It translates the data fromthe paralleldata stream usedinside the computer into the serialdata stream that makes up the frames used on the network.
42
Which type of memory moduleis mainly used in laptops?
A SIMM
B RIMM
C DIMM
D SODIMM
Answer D is correct.
SODIMM (small outline dual in-line memory module) is a type of memory module that is mainly used in laptops. SODIMMs comein smaller packages and
consume lesser power but are more expensive than DIMMs (dual in-line memory module).
Answer C is incorrect. DIMM (dual in-line memory module),also known as dual-sided in-line memory moduleis used for DOR SDRAM (Double Data Rate"
Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory) mainly in desktops. Itis a type of memory module that has a 64-bit data path and supports data transfers on boththe edges (rising and falling) of each system clock cycle.
Answer A is incorrect. SIMM (single in-line memory module) is a 32-bit module that has memory chips on one side of the package.SIMMs are only used on
very old computers and must be frequently installed in matched pairs.
Answer B is incorrect. RIMM (Rambus in-line memory module) is a trademarked term for memory modules used by Rambus memory. RIMM modules are 64-
"bit modules,similar to DIMMs but slightly smaller.The users will only find them on older computers that use Rambus technology."
43
A technician wants to boot up a computer using a USB flash drive. After inserting the USB flash dr ve and switching on the computer,the computer does not boot using the USB flash dr ve and instead boots the OS on the hard drive. Which of the followingis most likely the cause for this boot?
A The hard drive is not formatted.
B There is insufficient memory.
C The boot orderin BIOS is incorrect.
D There is a disc in the optical drive.
Answer C is correct.
Theincorrect boot orderin BIOS (basic input/output system) is most likely the cause of this boot. The boot sequence or boot order is one of the most
"important settings in the BIOS.It controls the order inwhich the computer searches its disk drives for an operating system. You can use the boot sequence setting to change the search order of drives. For example,you might change the first boot device from the hard drive to an optical or flash drive to launch an operating system install at on or recovery program or switch between operating systems on different drives. To change the boot order,use the following steps:
1.Enter your computer's BIOS setup utility.
2. Navigate to the boot sequence setting.
3.Examine the current boot order.
4. Change the boot order and save the changes.
44
Users in the uCorp organization usually connect to wireless APs and have a speed of 11Mbps. Which of the following WLAN standards is in use in this organization?
A 802.11g
B 802.11n
C 802.11a
D 802.11b
Answer Dis correct.
Wireless APs (access points) are configured with802.11b WLAN (wirelesslocalarea network) standard in the given scenario.The 802.11b WLAN standard
supports speeds as high as 11Mbps.It uses the frequency of 2.4GHz and uses the DSSS (direct-sequence spread spectrum) transmission method.
Answer C is incorrect. 802.11a is a wireless standard that operates at a frequency of 5 GHz and provides wireless speeds of up to 54 Mbps.
Answer A is incorrect. 802.11g is a wireless standard that operates at a frequency of 2.4 GHz. It is backward compatible with 802.11b and provides data
transmission of up to 54 Mbps.
Answer B is incorrect. 802.11n is a wireless standard that can operate at a frequency of 5 GHz or 2.4 GHz. It provides data transmission of up to 600 Mbps.
45
Which of these is a program that runs on top of the OS and allows the user to issue commands through a set of menus or another interface?
A Version
B Cooperat ve multitasking
C Multithreading
D Shell
Answer D is correct.
A shell is a program that runs on top of the OS and allows the user to issue commands through a set of menus or anotherinterface (which may or may not
be graphical). Shells make an OS easier to use by changing the user interface.
Answer A is incorrect. A version is a particular revisionof a piece of software,normally described by a number that tells you how new the product is in"
relation to other versions of the product.
Answer C is incorrect. Multithreadingis the ability of a single application to have multiple requests into the processor at one time.It results in faster
application performance because it allows a program to do many things at once.
Answer B is incorrect. Cooperat ve multitasking is a multitasking method that depends onthe applicationitself to be responsible for using the processor and
then freeing it for access by other applications. It is the way very early versions of Windows managed multiple applications.
46
Which tool allows the users to prepare the operating system for imaging?
A Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit
B sysprep.exe
C image.exe
D Microsoft Deployment Toolkit
Answer B is correct.
The sysprep.exe utility allows the users to prepare the operating system for imaging by resetting specific information such as thecomputer name.
Answer D is incorrect. The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit can assist in creating the steps, but it calls on the sysprep tool."
Amswer A is incorrect. The Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit allow the users to customize the Windows operating system for imaging,but it does"
not ready the operating system for imaging.
47
Which of the following Ethernet cables can transmit data at a speed of up to 1O Gbps,but only up to a distance of SS meters?"
A Cat 5e
B Cat 3
C Cat 6
D Cat 5
Answer C is correct.
"The Cat 6 (category 6) cable can transmit data at a speed of up to 10 Gbps, but only up to a distance of SS meters. Its four twisted pairs of copper wire are"
"oriented differently than inthe Cat Se cable.It is the lowest grade of cable you should ever use as a backbone to connect different parts of a network together,such as those on different floors of a building."
Answer Dis incorrect. The Cat S cable is a UTP (unshielded twisted pair) cable that can carry data at a higher transfer rate. It provides a frequency of 100
MHz.
Answer A is incorrect. The Cat Se cable is currently the most commontype of Ethernet mainly due to its low production cost and abilty to support faster
"speeds than the or ginalCat S cables. It also provides a frequency of OOMHz.It's flexible enough for small space installations such as residences;however, itis still used incommercial spaces."
Answer B is incorrect. The Cat 3 (category 3) cable is one of the oldest forms of Ethernet cable still in use today. Itis a UTP cable and provides a frequency
of 16 MHZ.
48
Your help desk has informed youthat they received an urgent call from the vice president last night requesting his logon ID and password.You discussed the call with the VPtoday,and you got to know he never made that call. Which type of attack is demonstrated in the given scenario?
A Spam
B Social engineering
C Spyware
D Rootkit
Answer B is correct.
A social engineering attack is demonstratedin the given scenario.It is a type of attack that uses deception and trickery to convince unsuspecting users to
"provide sensitive data or to violate security guidelines. Socialengineeringis often a precursor to another type of attack.Because these attacks depend on human factors rather than on technology,their symptoms can be vague and hard to identify.Social engineering attacks can come in a variety of methods, such as in person,through email,or over the phone."
Answer D is incorrect. A rootkit is a code that is intended to take full or partialcontrolof a system at the lowest levels. Rootkits often attempt to hide
themselves from monitoring or detection and modify low-level systemfiles when integrating themselves into a system.
Answer C is incorrect. Spyware is malware that is specifically designed to gather information about users and computer act vities to sendto other parties,"
often through a backdoor.
Answer A is incorrect. Spam is an email-based threat that presents various advertising materials,promotionalcontent,or get-rich-quick schemes to users."
These emails can quickly fill a user's inbox and cause storage issues.Spam can also carry malicious code and other types of malware.
49
Which of these holds informat on about operating systems installed on the computer, such as the location of the operating systemfiles?
A BOOTMGR
B winload.exe: winload.exe
C BCD
D ntoskrnl.exe
Answer C is correct.
"BCD (Boot Configurat on Data) holds information about operating systems installed on the computer, such as the location of the operating system files."
Answer B is incorrect. winload.exe:winload.exe is the program used to boot Windows.It loads the operating system kernel (ntoskrnl.exe).
Answer A is incorrect. BOOTMGR (Windows Boot Manager) bootstraps the system.Inother words,this file starts the loading of an operating system on the"
computer.
Answer D is incorrect. ntoskrnl.exe indicates the Windows OS kernel,which is the heart of the operating system.The kernelis responsible for allowing"
the applications shared access to the hardware through the drivers.
50
Which of the following statements defined a point stick?
A A pointing device that uses a smallplastic st ck
B A pointing device that uses a smallrubber-t ipped stick
C A pointing device that uses a smallrubber ball
D A pointing device that uses a smallplastic ball
Answer B is correct.
"The point stick is a pointing device that uses a small rubber-tipped stick. When the users push the point stick in a particular direct on,the onscreen pointer goes in the same direction.The harder the users push,the faster the onscreen pointer moves."
51
John,a technician,is trying to connect to another computer onthe LAN remotely,but the connection fails. He opens the command prompt and types telnet computer_name 3389,but still,he is unable to connect to another computer.Which of the following is the most likely cause of this error,assuming that the OS firewall has been disabled?
A The ISP is blocking the domain name server at its end.
B The antivirus software is blocking theincoming connection.
C The telnet service has not beeninstalled.
D The RDP connection has been configured to use a non-standard port.
Answer D is correct.
"According to the given scenario,the RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) connection has been configured to use a non-standard port. RDP is a proprietary"
"protocolcreated by Microsoft for connecting to and managing devices that are not necessarily located at the same place as the administrator.It uses port 3389 by default and works on the Application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI (Open SystemsInterconnection) model. It allows a user to remotely log in to a networked device.RDP is a multiple-channel-capable protocolthat allows for separate virtual channels for carrying device communication and presentation data from the server,as well as encrypted client mouse and keyboard data.It provides an extensible base and supports up to 64,000 separate channels for data transmission and provisions for multipoint transmission."
52
Which of the following serversisolates internalclients from servers by downloading and storing files on behalf of clients?
A File
B Proxy
C DNS
D DHCP
Answer B is correct.
A proxy serveris a device that isolates internal networks from servers by downloading and storing files on behalf of clients. Itis used in anInternet setting
whereit can filter content.It acts as an intermediary for requests from clients looking for resources from other servers.
Answer D is incorrect. The DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server runs software that automatically assignsIP addresses to client stations
logging-on to a TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) network.
Answer C is incorrect. DNS (Domain Name Server) maintains a database of domain and host names and their corresponding IP addresses.
Answer A is incorrect. A file server provides a central repository for users to store,manage,and access files on the network."
53
A network cable has not been working properly.The technician suggests checking the cable.Which tool should be capable of doing this?
A Cable tester
B Network tap
C Loopback plug
D Toner probe
Answer A is correct.
Cable testers are used for verifying that a cable works properly. It is an indispensable tool for any network technician.The users would use a cable tester
before theyinstall a cable to make sureit works.
Answer C is incorrect. A loopback plug is for testing the ability of a network adapter to send and receive the data.
Answer B is incorrect. Network taps create copies of network traffic for analysis.
Answer D is incorrect. A toner probeis usedto trace a cable from one location to another.
54
Which of the following terms defines the number of software picture elements (pixels) usedto draw the screen?
A Refresh rate
B Resolution
C LED
D OLED
Answer B is correct.
Resolution defines the number of software picture elements (pixels) used to draw the screen.An advantage of higher resolutions is that more information
can be displayed inthe same screen area. A disadvantage is that the same objects and text displayed at a higher resolution appear smaller and might be harder to see.
Answer A is incorrect. The refresh rate specifies how many times in one secondtheimage on the screen can be completely redrawn,if necessary.Measured"
"in screen draws per second,or Hz (hertz). the refresh rate indicates how much effort is being put into checking for updates to the displayed image."
Answer D is incorrect. OLEDs (organic light-emitting diodes) are the image-producing parts of the display andthelight source.Because of this feature,there"
"is no need for a backlight with its additionalpower and space requirements,unlike inthe case of LCD (liquid crystaldisplay) panels. Additionally,the contrast ratio of OLEO displays exceeds that of LCD panels,regardless of the backlight source."
Answer C is incorrect. Most LCOs use a panelof LEDs (light-emitting diodes) instead,which consumeless energy,run cooler,and livelonger than fluorescent"
"bulbs. Therefore,when a user sees a monitor advertised as an LED monitor,it's really an LCD monitor with LED backlighting."
55
Which of these is a hardware or softwaresolution that serves as the network's security guard?
A Firewall
B Router
C Hub
D Repeater
Answer A is correct.
A firewallis a hardware or software solution that serves as the network's security guard. It is probably the most important device on the network that is
connected to theInternet. Firewalls can protect the users intwo ways:
» They protect the users' network resources from hackers lurking in the dark corners of theInternet
» They can simultaneous ly prevent computers on the network from accessing undesirable content on the Internet.
"At a basic level,firewalls filter packets based on rules defined by the network administrator."
Answer B is incorrect. Routers are highly intelligent devices that connect multiple network types and determine the best path for sending data.They can
route packets across multiple networks and use routing tables to store network addresses to determine the best destination.
Answer C is incorrect. A hub is a networking device used to connect the nodes in a physical star topology network into a logical bus topology.When data
"from the transmitting device arrives at a port,it is copied and transmitted to all other ports so that all other nodes receive the data."
Answer D is incorrect. A repeater,sometimes referred to as a signal extender,is a device that regenerates a signal to improve signalstrengthover"
transmission distances.
56
Which of the following types of connectors would you expect to see on the end of a serial cable?
A RS-232
B Molex
C VGA
D DB-9
Answer Dis correct.
Serialcables use a DB-9 connector.Some people will call them an RS-232 connector,but RS-232 is the transmission standard used by serialcables. Molex is a power connector and VGA (Video Graphics Array) is a video connector.
57
Which of these assures that the data remains pr vate and no one sees it except for those expected to see it?
A Confidentiality
B Non-repudiation
C Authentication
D Integrity
Answer A is correct.
Confidentiality assures that the data remains private and no one sees it except for those expected to see it. The goal of confidentiality is to prevent or
minimize unauthorized access to files and folders and disclosure of data and information.
Answer C is incorrect. Authentication is used to verify that the person who sent the message is actually who they say they are.
Answer B is incorrect. Non-repudiat on prevents either the sender or receiver from denying that the message was sent or received.
Answer D is incorrect. Integrity is a security goalthat provides assurance that theinformation has not been altered by elements along with the
communicat on path.
58
Which of the following editions is used primarily for high-end computer workstations that require more than two CPUs andthat need to address more than 2 TB of memory?
A Windows 1O Enterprise
B Windows 10 Home
C Windows 1O Pro (Professional)
D Windows 10 Pro for Workstations
Answer D is correct.
The Windows 1O Pro for Workstations editionis used primarily for high-end computer workstations that require more thantwo CPUs and that need to
"address more than 2 TB of memory.Windows 1O Pro for Workstations supports up to four CPUs and 6 TB of memory. In addition,it supports Remote Direct Memory Access and NVDIMM (Non-Volatile Dual lnline Memory Modules)."
Answer A is incorrect. The Windows 1O Enterprise edition supports all features of Windows 1O Pro and can be foundin mid-sized to large-sized
organizations. It also supports features generally foundin mid-sized to large-sized organizations. Windows 1O Enterprise can only be purchased with a volume license subscription from Microsoft.
Answer B is incorrect. The Windows 10 Home edition is sold as a retail product,andit's preinstalled by the hardware vendor.When the operating system is"
"preinstalled,it is referred to as an OEM (original equipment manufacturer) operating system.Windows 1O Home also lacks the key feature of joining a domain that can only be found inWindows 10 Pro or Enterprise."
Answer C is incorrect. The Windows 1O Pro (Professional) edition is the premier retail edition of the Windows 1O operating system. It is the most common
OEM operating system because it allows users tojoin corporate domains and becomes value-added for the hardware vendor.
59
Which of these is a network protocolthat allows for automatic configuration of port forwarding?
A DHCP
B Content filtering
C UPnP
D MAC address filtering
Answer C is correct.
UPnP (Universal Plug and Play) is a network protocolthat allows for the automatic configuration of port forwarding. Most modern-day routers have the
"feature turned on,which is a security concern if you are not using any port forwarding."
Answer B is incorrect. Content filtering is dictated by organization policy and management. The content filter operates by watching content and requests
from web browsers and other applications.
Answer D is incorrect. MAC (media access control) address filtering can also be employed to restrict traffic to MAC addresses that are knownand to filter
out those that are not.
Answer A is incorrect. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is responsible for the automatic configuration of the 1Pv4 addresses and subnet masks
for hosts from a poolof 1Pv4 addresses.
60
If you download the media to a USB flash dr ve,what should be your next step to start the process of repairing the installation of Windows?
A Launch setup.exe and choose to update all apps and files.
B Launch drive.exe and choose to update all apps and files.
C Launch drive.exe and choose to keep all apps and files.
D Launch setup.exe and choose to keep all apps and files.
Answer D is correct.
If you download the media to a USB (UniversalSerial Bus) flashdrive,then all you must do to start the process of repairing the installation of Windows is launch setup.exe and choose to keep all apps and files.
61
Which of these is a point-to-point technology that uses directionalantennas to send and receive network signals?
A Short-range fixed wireless
B Long-range fixedwireless
C Long-range variable wireless
D Long-range wireless
Answer B is correct.
Long-range fixed wireless is a point-to-point technology that uses directionalantennas to send and receive network signals. An antenna looks similar to a small satellite dish,is only about 1meter wide,and can send and receive signals for 1O to 20 kilometers.
62
An organization is worried about users tailgating into restricted areas.In order to avoid unauthorized users from following the authorized users, which of the following should be implemented?
A Mantrap
B SSO
C Impersonation
D Rootkit
Answer A is correct.
An organization should implement a mantrap,which allows only one person (unless more than one person is authorized) to pass at a time. It consists of two sets of interlocking doors inside a small space where the first set of doors must close before the second set opens.If the mantrap is manual,a guard locks and unlocks each doorin sequence. In the case of a manual mantrap,an intercom or video camera is used to allow the guardto controlthe trap from a remote location.If the mantrapis automatic,identification or a key of some kind may be required for each door,and sometimes different measures may be required for each door.Metaldetectors are often built-into prevent the entrance of people carrying weapons. Such use is particular y frequent in banks and jewelry shops.
Answer B is incorrect. SSO (single sign-on) systems allow one set of user credentials to give access to a large number of services. For example,once the users log into Gmail,they can freely switch to other Google services,such as YouTube or Google+,and they will only be prompted for their password againif they try to access something similar to their account or payment information.
Answer D is incorrect. A rootkit is a code that is intended to take full or partialcontrolof a system at the lowest levels. Rootkits often attempt to hide from
monitoring or detection and modify low-level system files whenintegrating themselves into a system.
Answer C is incorrect. Impersonation is an attack wherean attacker pretends to be someone he is not. A common scenario is when the attacker calls an employee and pretends to be calling from the help desk. The attacker tells the employee he is reprogramming the order-entry database and he needs the employee's user name and password to make sure it gets entered into the new system.
63
What is a toner cartridge inlaser printers?
A An EP toner cartridge that contains toner and a photosensitive drum inone plast c case
B An EP toner cartridge that contains only a toner in one plastic case
C An EP toner cartridge that contains only a photosensitive drumin one plastic case
D An EP toner cartridge that contains a toner drum in one plastic case
Answer A is correct.
In laser printers, a toner cartridge means an EP (electrophotographic) toner cartridge that contains toner and a photosensitive drum inone plast c case. In some laser printers,however,the toner and photosensitive drum can be replaced separately instead of as a single unit.
64
Which of these provides an unencrypted remote text console session for remote access purposes,communicating over TCP port 23?
A Telnet
B Secure Shell
C VPN
D VNC
Answer A is correct.
Telnet provides an unencrypted remote text console session for remote access purposes, communicating over TCP (Transmission ControlProtocol) port 23. It is not considered secure and should not be used because a malicious user can eavesdrop on the session.
Answer D is incorrect. VNC (virtual network computing)is a remote controltool for the sharing of desktops. The VNC client normally operates on TCP port 5900.
Answer C is incorrect. VPN (virtualpr vate network) extends your company's internal network across theInternet or other unsecured public networks.This remote access technology allows clients and branch networks to be connected securely and pr vately with the company's network.
Answer B is incorrect. The SSH (Secure Shell) protocol encrypts all communications between the SSH client andthe SSH server using TCP port 22.The SSH
server is also knownas the SSH daemon.
65
Which Internet appliance will the users install to manage all of the secur ty-related hardware and software through a single device or interface?
A Proxy server
B Load balancing
C IoT
D UTM
Answer Dis correct.
The users will install the UTM (unified threat management) system,which is a type of network hardware appliance,virtual appliance,or cloud service that protects businesses from security threats ina simplified way by combining and integrating multiple security services and features. A UTM solution might incorporate any combination of an advanced firewall,IDS/IPS (intrusion detection service/intrusion prevention service). content filtering,NAT (network address translation) or proxy server. OLP (data loss prevention),VPN (virtual private network) endpoint,or other components.
Answer B is incorrect. Load-balancing technology can be implemented with localhardware or on the cloud.If implemented on a local network,a hardware device,conveniently named a load balancer. essentially acts like the web server to the outside world."
Answer A is incorrect. A proxy server makes requests for resources on behalf of a client.The most common one that you will see is a web proxy,but you might runinto a caching proxy as well.
Answer C is incorrect. The loT (Internet of Things) has been growing rapidly for thelast several years. Home automation systems and loT-based security systems are becoming increasingly popular and will likely continue to become more pervasive. loT also has a place in the manufacturing wor d,as companies seek to contain costs."
66
Which of these creates a secure tunnel between two locations over the Internet?
A VPN
B DHCP
C NAT
D DNS
Answer A is correct.
VPN (virtual private network) is a network connection that creates a secure tunnel between twolocat ons over theInternet. It extends the company's internal network across the Internet or other unsecured public networks.
Answer C is incorrect. NAT (network address translation) is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses.
Answer B is incorrect. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a network service that provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other TCP/IP (Transmission ControlProtocol/ Internet Protocol) configuration informat on.
Answer D is incorrect. DNS (Domain Name System) is a hierarchicaldistributed naming system for computers or services connected to the Internet or a private network.
67
Which of the following statements is correct about OSHA?
A It covers all private-sector employees and U.K.Postal Service workers.
B It covers all public-sector employees and U.S.Postal Service workers.
C It covers all private-sector employees and U.S. Postal Service workers.
D It covers all public-sector employees and U.K. PostalService workers.
Answer C is correct.
The OccupationalSafety and HealthAct states that every working American has the right to a safe and healthy work environment. To enforce the act,OSHA (OccupationalSafety and Health Administration) was formed.OSHA covers all pr vate-sector employees and U.S. Postal Service workers. Public-sector employees are covered by state programs, and federalemployees are covered under a presidential executive order.
68
Which of the following tools is most likely usedto trace a wirein a wall from one location to another?
A Crimper
B Punch-down tool
C Toner probe
D Cable tester
Answer C is correct.
A toner probe is used to trace a wire in a wall from one location to another. It consists of two pieces:a tone generator and a probe. Because it's so good at tracking,the users will sometimes refer to it as a fox and hound."
Answer B is incorrect. A punch-down tool is used by telecommunication and network technicians ina wiring closet to connect cable wires directly to a patch panel. This toolstrips the insulat on from the end of the wire and embeds the wireinto the connection at the back of the panel.
Answer D is incorrect. A cable tester,also called a media tester,is an electr cal instrument that verifies if a signalis present on a network cable."
Answer A is incorrect. A crimper clamps a modular jack onto the wire ends of a cable.
69
As a software developer for a company,you've decided to build and test your web applications in a cloud environment. Which type of cloud service will be the best to meet your needs?
A Saas
B PaaS
C IaaS
D DaaS
Answer B is correct.
You should use PaaS (platform as a service)that provides access to a computing platform or software environment.It is used to develop and host web based applications. It provides a platform allowing customers to develop,run,and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an applicat on. The provider manages the underlying hardware infrastructure and development tools,so the customer only has to do the actual software development. An example of PaaS is Amazon's RDS (Relat onal Database Service).
Answer A is incorrect. Saas (software as a service) is subscription-based access to applications or databases,sometimes known as on-demand software."
Answer C is incorrect. laaS (infrastructure as a service) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and run their own data center.
Answer D is incorrect. DaaS (desktop as a service) is a form of VOi (vinualdesktopinfrastructure) in which the VOi is outsourced and handled by a third party.
70
What is the use of virtualization?
A To let multiple OSs run on multiple physical machines at different times
B To let multiple OSs run on one physical machine at the same time
C To let multiple OSs run on multiple physical machines at the same time
D To let multiple OSs run on one physical machine at different times
Answer B is correct.
The term virtualizat on is defined as creating virtual (rather than actual)versions of something.Incomputer jargon,it means creating virtual environments where computers can operate.Virtualizat onis often used to let multiple OSs (or multipleinstances of the same OS) run on one physicalmachine at the same time.
71
What is the size of a MAC address?
A 128 bits
B 60 bits
C 64 bits
D 48 bits
Answer Dis correct.
A MAC (media access control) address is 48 bits long and is written in hexadecimal, such as 40-61-86-E4-5A-9A .
72
Which of these is mainly used for authenticat on of users on routers and switches to allow management access?
A RADIUS
B TACACS+
C Kerberos
D Multifactor Authentication
Explanation
Answer B is correct.
TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access ControlSystem Plus) is a protocoldeveloped by Cisco from the original dated protocolof TACACS. Although it was developed by Cisco,it was released as an open standard.The protocol is mainly used for the authenticat on of users on routers and switches to allow management access. It is also used to authenticate users connecting to wireless access points via a centralized database.
Answer A is incorrect. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) was originally proposed as an IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force) standard. It has become a widely adopted industry standard for authenticating users and computers for network systems.
Answer C is incorrect. Kerberos is an open standard for authentication developed by MIT (Massachusetts Institute of Technology). It is also the main authentication protocol used by Microsoft Active Directory.
Answer D is incorrect. Multifactor authenticat on requires two or more single-factor authentication methods used to secure the wireless network.
73
Jane,a technician, has configured a firewall on a TCP/IP network. A filter has been applied to block all ports. She wants to enable the sending and receiving of emails on the network.Which of the following ports will she open?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.Choose all that apply.
A 25
B 110
c 443
D 23
Answers A and B are correct.
To enable email communication,Jane will have to open ports 25 and 110 on a TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) network.Port 25 is used by SMTP (Simple MailTransfer Protocol) to send emails. Port 11O is used by POP3 (Post Office Protocolversion 3) to receive emails. SMTPis a protocol used for sending emails between servers. Due to its limitations in queuing messages at the receiving end,itis generally used with either POP3 or IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol),which enables a user to save and download messages from the server. POP3 is a protocolused to retrieve emails from a mail server. Itis designed to work with other applications that provide the ability to send emails.
Answer D is incorrect. Telnet is used to log into remote systems via a virtual text terminalinterface. It uses port 23 as the default port.
Answer C is incorrect. HTIPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)is used for secure web pages and sites that include encryption services.It uses port 443 as the default port.
74
Which of these defines the overall connection quality as seen by users of the network,including performance,reliability,and availability?
A WOL
B PoE
C QoS
D NAT
Answer C is correct.
QoS (quality of service) defines the overall connection quality as seen by users of the network, especially as connected to some expected baseline.QoS generally includes performance,reliability,and availability.Specialkinds of traffic,such as high priority or time-sensitive communications, might have special QoS demands."
Answer B is incorrect. PoE (Power over Ethernet) is a technology standard that enables both power and data to be transmitted over an Ethernet cable.
Answer A is incorrect. WOL (Wake-on-LAN)is an Ethernet or Token Ring computer networking standardthat allows a device to turn on or power up when a
network message is received by another computing device.
Answer D is incorrect. NAT (network address translation) is an Internet standard that enables LAN (local area network) to use one set ofIP addresses for
internaltraff c and a second set of addresses for externaltraffic.
75
Which of the following statements is true about parity checking?
A It mostly works on 16 bits of data.
B It mostly works on 8 bits of data.
C It mostly works on 32 bits of data.
D It mostly works on 48 bits of data.
Answer B is correct.
Parity checking is a rudimentary error-checking scheme that offers no error correct on. Parity checking mostly works on a byte,or 8 bits,of data.A ninth bit is added at the transmitting end and removed at the receiving end so that it does not affect the actualdata transmitted.If the receiving end does not agree with the parity that is set ina particular byte,a par ty error results."
76
You work as a network administrator for a company.Your manager asks you to enhance the secur ty of the company's data and information by storing them inthe cloud.What type of cloud solution will be best for you to use,considering the security of data?
A Private
B Public
C Community
D Hybrid
Answer A is correct.
You will use a private cloud to enhance the security of the company's data and information. It is a cloud computing method where the cloud infrastructure is operated solely for a single organization.It can be managedinternally or by a third party and hosted either internally or externally.A private cloud project requires a significant degree of engagement to virtualize the business environment. It delivers similar advantages as a public cloud,including scalability and self-service,but through a proprietary architecture."
Answer B is incorrect. A public cloud is a cloud computing method that provides its services over a network that is open for public use. It doesn't provide security.
Answer C is incorrect. A community cloud is a cloud computing method where multiple organizations from a specific community with common interests share the cloud infrastructure. Itis less secure than a private cloud.
Answer D is incorrect. A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing method that is a combination of two or more clouds that remain distinct but are bound together, offering the benefits of multiple deployment models.
77
James knows thehost names of allthecomputers on his network. Hewants to find the IP addresses of these computers remotely from his computer. Which of the following TCP/IP utilities can he use to accomplishthe task in the given scenario?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.Choose all that apply.
A tracert
B ipconfig
C netstat
D ping
Answers A and D are correct.
The ping and tr acert TCP/ IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) utilities can be used to find the IP addresses of computers whose domain names are known.
Answer C is incorrect. The netstat utility displays protocolstatistics and current TCP/IP connections, but not the IP address."
Answer B is incorrect. The pc onf g command-line utility displays the TCP/IP configuration information of the computer onwhich it is run.This command does not display the IP configuration of remote computers.
78
John,a system administrator,wants tojoin multiple computers together withinthe same LAN.He also wants to increase the number of devices on a LAN without sacrificing performance.Which of the following network devices will he use to accomplish the given task?
A Switch
B Router
C Modem
D Repeater
Answer A is correct.
John will use a switch tojoin multiple computers together withinthe same LAN (local area network).Switch forwards packets to only the destination port based on MAC (media access control) addresses. It can also be connected to other switches,thus increasing the number of devices on a LAN without sacrificing performance."
Answer B is incorrect. A router is a network device that connects multiple networks. It can read packets on the Internet layer to view their IP addresses and
can communicate with other routers to find the best path through the network to any given host or subnet.
Answer D is incorrect. A repeater allows a network cabling systemto extend beyond its maximum allowed length and reduces distortion by amplifying or
regenerating network signals.
Answer C is incorrect. A modemis a device that modulates and demodulates digitaldata to an analog signal that can be sent over a telephone line.
79
Which of the following statements is true about a desktop alert?
A It is a device that is crafted to look like it was generated by the operating system.
B It is a translator that is crafted to look like it was generated by the operating system.
C It is a software that is crafted to look like it was generated by the operating system.
D It is a notification or dialog box that is craftedtolook likeit was generated by the operating system.
Answer D is correct.
A desktop alert is a not ficat ion or dialog box that is crafted to look like it was generated by the operating system.Itis a crafty way of social engineering the
user into becoming a victim.
80
Which of these is extremely useful when the users want to test a change before placing it into production?
A Purpose of change
B Sandbox testing
C Scope of change
D Rollback plan
Answer B is correct.
Sandbox testing is extremely usefulwhen the users want to test a change before placingit into product on.A sandbox can be constructed to match the environment;the users can thenimplement the change and fine-tune their primary plan.The use of a sandbox testing environment allows the users to hone their process for the proposed change while observing any potential issues.
Answer Dis incorrect. The rollback plan,also called the backout plan,describes the steps to roll back from a failed primary plan. Ifit were determined that the primary plan could not be completed,the users would either implement an alternate (secondary) plan or a rollback plan,depending on the changes proposed inthe change management plan document."
Answer A is incorrect. The purpose of change is the reason the change management process starts. Either the business unit requires a change that will affect others,or another business unit requires a change that can affect the business unit indirectly."
Answer C is incorrect. The scope of change details how many systems the proposed change will affect.The scope could involve only one system,orit could be all the systems in an entire enterprise.
81
Which of these will help to protect a company from further data disclosure after a list of user passwords has already been leaked due to a policy breach?
A Enabling file encryption
B Restricting user permissions
C Using multifactor authentication
D Requiring strong passwords
Answer C is correct.
Using MFA (multifactor authentication) will help the company inthe given scenario. In high-security environments, you should implement MFA,which is an authentication scheme that requires the validation of at least two of the possible authentication factors. It combines two or more independent credentials: what the user knows (password),what the user has (security token),and what the user is (biometric verification). The goalof MFA is to create a layered defense and make it more difficult for an unauthorized person to access a target,such as a physical location,computing device, network,or database."
82
What is the purpose of SSO?
A To give users access to allthe applications and systems that they need whenthey log in
B To give users access to only the applications that they need when theylogin
C To give users access to allthe hardwares and systems that they need when theylogin"
D To give users access to only the systems that they need whenthey log in
Answer A is correct.
The purpose of SSO (single sign-on)is to give users access to all the applications and systems that they need when theylogin.SSO operates onthe principle that the resource trusts the authentication server.
83
While servicing some computer equipment.you overhear a conversation about company-wide pay raises. What should you do?
A Keep theinformation confidential.
B Tell your co-workers about the pay raise.
C Tell your supervisor about thepay raise.
D Send an anonymous e-mailto all company employees about the pay raise.
Answer A is correct.
Professional behavior and ethics dictate that any confidential informationyou overhear should be kept confidential. You should never inform anyone, even someone affected by the information, of the details of the confidential information.
84
Which of the following policies includes procedures and guidelines for using network resources?
A Acceptable use
B Privacy
C Change management
D Incident response
Answer A is correct.
AUP (acceptable use policy) includes procedures and guidelines for using network resources. AUPs target end users,who may be employees or customers, using hosted services. Every organization needs a formalacceptable use policy specifying how employees are allowed to use company resources, such as hardware,software,and network services.
Answer B is incorrect. Privacy policy governs codified expectat ons of user privacy and consent to security-based monitoring of user act vity.They target both inside employees and outside customers or other individuals and must be in compliance with any applicable privacy laws.
Answer C is incorrect. Change management policy provides guidelines for updating policies and procedures to suit changing needs withoutintroducing new vulnerabilities.
Answer D is incorrect. Incident response policy specifies exactly what steps will be takenin response to a secur ty incident to minimize and repair the damage without exposing the network to further risk.
85
The uCorp organization is implementing some techniques of adopting best practices forits network security.Which of the following practices should the organizat on adapt to prevent a zero-day attack on Linux?
A Use Rogue antivirus.
B Use phishing.
C Use scheduled disk maintenance.
D Implement patch management.
Answer Dis correct.
A zero-day attack is an attack on a vulnerability that isn't knownto software developers. It is called so because the developer of the flawed software has zero days to prevent the vulnerability. Implementing patch management is a technique to prevent your organization from suchtypes of attacks. Microsoft,Apple, and other software developers regularly post patches to fix flaws as they're discovered. Checking for system updates is the first part of patch management. You can also implement automated patch management to avoid delays in its deployment and protect your organization from suchattacks."
Answer C is incorrect. Scheduled disk maintenance is used to check the integrity of hard drives. You also need to keep track of how much space is available and who is using the space.
Answer B is incorrect. Phishing is an attacking technique in which an attacker uses fake but official-looking messages to trick users into performing dangerous actions.
Answer A is incorrect. Rogue antivirus is a very sneaky attack that can cause major damage to a system if the user carr es out the actions expected by the attacker.The method involves designing a rogue antivirus application window that looks similar to a legitimate antivirus solution.
86
Maria, a technician,is upgrading to a 4 TB hard drive and wants to have six partitions. Which of these allows a Windows boot partition to meet these requirements?
A EXT4
B HFS
C MBR
D GPT
Answer D is correct.
GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a new standard supported by modern operating systems. It can be used with disks of any size and allows an almost unlimited number of partitions (128 in Microsoft's implementation). Since partition information is stored in multiple areas of the disk,it's alsoless susceptible to errors from a corrupt boot sector."
Answer C is incorrect. MBR (Master Boot Record) partition tables are an older standard compatible with nearly all operating systems,which store partition info on a boot sector at the beginning of the disk.It supports up to four defined partitions,and the entire drive must be 2 TB or smaller."
Answer A is incorrect. EXT4 (extended file system) or ext is not a partition table format. It was the first file system created specifically for the Linux kernel. The ext4 or fourth extended filesystem is a journa ling file system for Linux,which was developed as the successor to ext3."
Answer B is incorrect. HFS (Hierarchical File System) is also not a partitiontable format.Itis the family of file systems used by macOS and iOS. The original HFS was used invery old Macs,while newer Apple products use refined versions, such as HFS+ and APFS (Apple File System)."
87
During an inspection,it was found that data racks are not proper y grounded.To protect data cable and equipment,which of the following tools must a technician use to make sure that all racks are properly grounded?"
A Multimeter
B Tone generator
C Loopback plug
D Tonelocator
Answer A is correct.
The technician should use a multimeter to make sure that all racks are properly grounded.To protect the data cable and equipment,all racks should be properly grounded.A multimeteris an electronic instrument that is used to measure voltage,current,and resistance. It usually has two probes with leads, one red and one black, that are pluggedinto two sockets on the meter.To switch between measuring volts, ohms,and amps,the leads can be moved to different sockets, or there may be a selector switch.Digital meters have a screen that displays the numer c value of what a technician is measuring. Analog meters have a thin needle that swings in an arc and indicates the value of what a technicianis measuring.Multimeters are sometimes called volt-ohm meters."
Answer C is incorrect. A loopback plug is any toolthat causes the device to transmit a signal back toitself_ It is typically used for diagnosing transmission problems that redirect electrical signals back to the transmitting system.
Answer B is incorrect. A tone generator is a device that sends an electrical signal through one pair of UTP (unshielded twisted pair) wires.
Answer D is incorrect. A tone locator or a tone probe is a device that emits an audible tone when it detects a signalin a pair of wires.
88
James,a technician,is tasked to configure a SOHO router to ensure that the network computer can only use secured web pages and sites on the Internet. Which of the following ports will he open?
A 443
B 110
C 143
D 21
E 25
Answer A is correct.
James will open port 443,which is used by HTIPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure).It combines HTIP withthe SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) protocol. SSL is a security protocolused by a browser to connect to secure websites. SSL uses TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 443 for communication. Withthe help of the SSL protocol,communication between the clients and the server will be prevented from eavesdropping,tampering,or message forgery."
Answer B is incorrect. POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is a protocolused to retrieve emails from a mail server. It is designed to work with other applications that provide the ability to send emails. Port 110 is used by POP3 to receive emails.
Answer E is incorrect. SMTP (Simple MailTransfer Protocol)is a communication protocolthat enables sending emails from a client to a server or between servers. It uses port 25 as the default port.
Answer D is incorrect. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is the TCP/IP protocol that allows the transfer of files between a user device and a remote host. The default ports used by FTP are 20 and 21.
Answer C is incorrect. IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is a protocol used to retrieve emails and folders from a mail server. It uses port 143 as the default port.
89
Which of the following statements is true about a video capture card?
A All video capture cards record audio signals while processing them.
B Not all video capture cards record audio signals while processing video signals.
C Not all video capture cards recordvideo signals while processing them.
D All video capture cards record audio signals while processing video signals.
Answer B is correct.
A video capture card is a stand-alone add-on card often used to save a video stream to the computer forlater manipulation or sharing. Not all video capture cards record audio signals while processing video signals. If this feature is important to you or the end user.be sure to confirm that the card supports it.
90
Whichof the following statements is true about the change advisory board?
A It is the body of users who will only make changes in the documents you propose.
B It is the body of users who will ultimately evaluate and then make changes inthe documents you propose.
C It is the body of users who will ultimately evaluate and then approve or deny the change you propose.
D It is the body of users who will only approve or deny the change you propose.
Answer C is correct.
Thechange board,also known as the change advisory board,is the body of users who will ultimately evaluate and then approve or deny the change you propose.This group of people often meets weekly to discuss the changes detailed in the change management plan documents.The goal of the change advisory boardis to evaluate the proposed changesin order to reduce the impact on the day-to-day operat ons of the organization.
91
You have a Windows 1O computer and want to change a multitude of settings that pertain to the operating system.Which of the following sections will allow you to do so?
A Devices
B Apps
C System
D Privacy
Answer C is correct.
The System section allows you to change a multitude of settings that pertainto the operating system. Inthe Display sect on,you can arrange your monitors if you have more than one.
Answer D is incorrect. The Privacy section allows you to controlall your privacy concerns with Windows 10/11.
Answer B is incorrect. The Apps section will eventually replace the Program and Features Control Panelsinceit performs many of the same functions. This section opens to the Apps & Features subsections.
Answer A is incorrect. The Devices section allows you to view,control,and configure all devices connected to the PC.This sect on will eventually replace the Devices and Printers Control Panelapplet.
92
Maria, a network administrator, wants to use a server that can provide name resolution services for users accessing Internet resources. Which of the following servers offers this service?"
A DNS
B File
C Proxy
D Authentication
Answer A is correct.
A DNS (Domain Name System) server provides name resolution services for users accessing Internet resources. It translates human-memorable domain names (www.ucertify.com) and hostnames into the corresponding numeric IP addresses (93.184.216.34).
Answer C is incorrect. A proxy server provides web requests on behalf of clients. With a proxy server, a client's request is not sent directly to the remote host."
Answer D is incorrect. An authenticat on server examines the credentials of anyone trying to access the network,and it determines if network access is"
granted.
Answer B is incorrect. A file server provides a centralrepository for users to store,manage,and access files onthe network."
93
Which of these is not a way in which mobile devices can contract malware?
A Malicious apps
B BIOS diagnostics
C Operating system vulnerabilities
D Suspicious links
Answer B is correct.
BIOS (Basic Input/Output System)is not a way in which mobile devices can contract malware. The four common ways are:
» Malicious apps
» Operating systemvulnerabilities
» Suspicious links
» Unsecure networks
94
James is working on a project and wants to copy blocks of information from one device to another.Which Linux commandwillhe use to accomplish the task?
A rm
B mv
C dd
D df
Answer C is correct.
James will use the dd command to copy blocks of data from one device to another. It can be used for backing up the boot sector of a hard drive and obtaining a fixed amount of random data.
Answer A is incorrect. The rm command is usedto delete files in Linux.
Answer D is incorrect. The df command is usedto show how much space is free on a disk.
Answer B is incorrect. The mv command is used to rename or move a file from one directory to another in Linux.
95
A technician has been asked by the company's management to investigate the need for upgrading the company's network from 1Pv4 to 1Pv6. Which of the following are the valid reasons that the technician should provide to the management to carry out the required upgrade?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A 1Pv6 relies on NAT.
B 1Pv6 will provide more effect ve routing.
C 1Pv6 packet format is designed to minimize packet-header processing.
D 1Pv6 can provide more hosts than 1Pv4.
Answers B.C,and Dare correct.
1Pv6 is anInternet standard that increases the available poolof IP addresses by implementing a 128-bit binary address space. 1Pv6 also includes new efficiency features,such as simplified address headers,hierarchicaladdressing,support for time-sensitive network traffic,and a new structure for unicast addressing.The size of a subnet in 1Pv6 is 264 addresses (64-bit subnet which s mask),the square of the size of the entire 1Pv4 Internet. 1Pv6 specifies a new packet format,which is designed to minimize packet-header processing.
Answer A is incorrect. 1Pv6 uses global addresses and does not rely on NAT (network address translation)in any way. 1Pv4 relies heavily on NAT and PAT (port address translation) due to 1Pv4 address exhaustion.
96
Which of these is used to clue in on what happened and how it happened?
A Active detection
B Penetration testing
C Proactive detect on
D Passive detection
Answer D is correct.
Passive detection is usedto clue in on what happened and howit happened.Passive detection can be when you are reviewing logs,content,or events and discover an incident.
Answer C is incorrect. Proactive detection is the act of proactively securing possible holes in security.
Answer A is incorrect. Act ive detect on is used to actively look for security incidents. This type of detection ina physicalsecurity context is similar to having a security guard patrolyour premises.
Answer B is incorrect. Penetrationtesting,also known as pentesting,involves someone trying to penetrate either the physicalor softwaredefenses of the organization.
97
You need to do a series of system checks performed by the system BIOS/UEFI and other high-end components, such as the SCSI BIOS and the video BIOS. How can you achieve it?
A By letting BIOS/UEFI perform a process known as PGA
B By letting BIOS/UEFI perform a process known as POST
C By letting BIOS/UEFI perform a process known as OIP
D By letting BIOS/UEFI perform a process known as TPM
Answer B is correct.
A major function of the BIOS/UEFI (Basic Input/Output System/Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is to perform a process known as POST (power-on self-test).It is a series of system checks performed by the system BIOS/UEFIand other high-end components, such as the SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) BIOS and the video BIOS,known collectively as opt on ROM (read-only memory). The POST routine verifies theintegrity of the BIOS/UEFIitself.It also verifies and confirms the size of primary memory.
98
Which of the following models provides subscription-based access to applications?
A PaaS
B IaaS
C Naas
D Saas
Answer D is correct.
Saas (software as a service) provides subscription-based access to applications,sometimes known as on-demand software. It eliminates the need to install software on user devices, and it can be helpfulfor mobile or transient workforces. Examples of Saas include Google Apps suite,Zoho suite,and Microsoft's Office Web Apps.
Answer A is incorrect. PaaS (platform as a service) provides access to a computing platform or software environment,which the customer can use to develop and host web-based applications.
Answer B is incorrect.laaS (infrastructure as a service) enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and run their own data center.
Answer C is incorrect. Naas (network as a service) provides network-based services through the cloud,including monitoring and QoS (quality of service) management.
99
Which of the following features are incorporated into the USB 3.0 standard?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A Full-duplex communication
B Backward compatibility with USB 2.0 and 1.1
C Maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps
D Enhanced power efficiency
Answers A, B,and D are correct.
USB 3.0,also called SuperSpeed USB, has enhanced power efficiency and is backward compatible with USB 2.0 and 1.1.
Answer C is incorrect. USB 3.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 5 Gbps, which greatly increases the transmission speed up to 480 Mbps of USB 2.0. USB 3.0 provides full-duplex communicat on by using two unidirectionaldata paths for sending and receiving data simultaneously.
100
A user wants to specify whether the document will be printed in landscape or portrait. Which of the following settings should they configure to accomplish the task?
A Quality
B Duplex
C Collate
D Orientation
Answer D is correct.
The users should configure the orientat on settings to accomplish the task.It is a printer configuration option that allows users to specify whether the document will be printed in a landscape or portrait orientation.
Answer C is incorrect. Collate is a printer configuration optionthat lets users specify the orderin which multiple copies of a multi-page document are printed.
Answer A is incorrect. Quality is a printer configuration option that enables users to specify whether they want to print draft, normal,or high-quality output."
Answer B is incorrect. Duplex is a printer configuration option that helps to reduce the amount of paper consumed on a multi-function printer by allowing printing on both sides of a page.
101
Which of these is the process of analyzing the proposed changes for the possibility of failure or undesirable consequences?
A Plan for change
B Scope of change
C Risk analysis
D Documented business process
Answer C is correct.
Risk analysis is the process of analyzing the proposed changes for the possibility of failure or undesirable consequences.
Answer A is incorrect. The plan for change section of the change management plan document details how the proposed change will be executed.
Answer B is incorrect. The scope of change details how many systems the proposed change will affect.
Answer D is incorrect. The documented business process is incorporated into the change management plan document.
102
Which of the following malware types converts the computer into a zombie?
A Adware
B Rootkit
C Backdoor
D Botnet
Answer D is correct.
The botnet malware converts the computer into a zombie,which means that a part of a large network of computers performs distributed network attacks or other processing tasks on behalf of the botnet's controller.To the computer's user,the zombie might appear normalor unusually slow."
Answer C is incorrect. A backdoor is any hidden way into a system or application that bypasses normalauthentication systems. The backdoor malware gathers data, remotely controls the computer,sends spam emails, or almost anything the computer itself can."
Answer A is incorrect. The adware virus delivers advertisements to the infected system either as pop-ups or within a browser or other application windows.
Answer B is incorrect. The rootkit malware compromises boot systems and core operating system functions to hide from most detection methods.
103
Whatis the goalof the Battery Act?
A To phase out the use of helium in disposable batter es and to provide collection methods and recycling procedures for batteries
B To phase out the use of mercury in disposable batteries and to provide collect on methods and recycling procedures for batteries
C To phase out the use of distilled water in disposable batteries and to provide collect on methods and recycling procedures for batteries
D To phase out the use of mercury in disposable batteries and to provide detection methods and recycling procedures for batteries
Answer B is correct.
The United States passed the Mercury-Containing and Rechargeable Battery Management Act (aka the Battery Act) with two goals:
» To phase out the use of mercury in disposable batteries
» To provide collection methods and recycling procedures for batteries
104
Which of these is used to send email from one mail server to another as well as from a mail server to an email client?
A IMAP4
B SMTP
C POP3
D Telnet
Answer B is correct.
SMTP (Simple MailTransfer Protocol)is usedto send email from one mail server to another as well as from a mail server to an email client.An email client locates its email server by queryingthe DNS (Domain Name System) server for an MX (mail exchange) record.
Answer D is incorrect. Telnet allows the users to log into another machine and see the remote computer in a window on their screen.Although this vision is text only,the user can manage files on that remote machine asif they were loggedin locally.The problemwith Telnet and other unsecure remote management options (suchas RCP [remote copy] and FTP) is that the data they transmit,including passwords,is sent in plaintext.
Answer C is incorrect. POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) was the preferred protocol for downloading email.It's been replaced in most installat ons by IMAP4 (Internet Message Access Protocolversion 4) because IMAP4 includes secur ty and more features than POP3.
Answer A is incorrect. IMAP4 is the client-side email management protocol of choice,having replaced the unsecure POP3. Most current email clients,such as Microsoft Outlook and Gmail,are configured to be able to use eitherIMAP4 or POP3. IMAP4 has some definite advantages over POP3."
105
Which criticalcomponent generally requires third-party tools to troubleshoot performance problems?
A CPU
B Graphics
C Network
D RAM
Answer B is correct.
Graphics generally requires third-party tools to troubleshoot performance problems. It is not commonto have graphics-related issues unless the users just downloaded the latest shoot-em-up game.
Answer D is incorrect. RAM (random access memory) problems can be diagnosed inside the operating system from Task Manager.
Answers A and C are incorrect. CPU and network problems can be diagnosed inside the operating system from Task Manager.
106
You are working in a company where you are tasked to implement multi-factor authentication. Which of the following is the best implementat on you should
deploy?
A Biometrics,smart cards,and strong passwords
B Smart cards,usernames,and PIN
C Usernames,strong passwords,and PIN
D Smart cards,usernames,and strong passwords
Answer A is correct.
You should deploy biometrics,sman cards,and strong passwords. These cover the three different factors of authenticat on: somethingyou are (biometrics), something you have (smart cards),and something you know (passwords).Biometrics devices helpidentify users' physical characteristics and include retinal scanners,hand scanners,fingerprints,and ONA scanners that can assist in verifying identities. Sman cards,which are a type of identification badge,are usedto give people access to buildings,doors and computers,and parkinglots. Sman cards are inside a computer or reader to which the usersinsentheir cards. A lthough the users cannot duplicate them,they can be easiy stolen,so modem smart cards allow users to enter passwords or PINS to act vate them."
Answer C is incorrect. Usernames,strong passwords,and a PIN are all things you know,so the solution would not be considered multi-factor authentication."
Answers D and B are incorrect. Sman cards,usernames,and strong passwords and smart cards,usernames,and PINs only include two-factor types: something you have and something you know.
107
Jane,a network administrator,has to configure a file server on her company's network. The company has asked her to choose the best possible method during disk configuration that will provide fault-tolerance.She also wants that the data should be spread byte by byte with the parity informat on.Whichof the following RAID levels will she choose?
A RAID O
B RAID 5
C RAID 1
D RAID 10
Answer B is correct.
Jane will choose RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disk) 5, which supports disk striping with parity,thus providing backup if the hard drive crashes. It contains a minimum of three disks. In this disk system,data along withits parity bits are stored across multiple disks. When a file is writtento a RAID 5 volume,the file splits to all the disks in the set,excluding the finaldisk. The finaldisk contains the parity information.This parity informat on allows the disks in the array to keep functioning incase a disk inthe set fails. Due to data redundancy,RAID 5 provides fault tolerance.
Answer A is incorrect. RAID O does not provide fault tolerance. If one of the disks in the system fails, you can lose access to data. This level improves the performance of the read and write operations.
Answer C is incorrect. RAID 1provides backup for crashed hard drives but has slow write performance.
Answer D is incorrect. RAID 1O provides backupfor crashed hard dr ves but does not support disk striping with parity.
108
Which of these is the de facto standard for sound cards?
A Blaster brand
B Voice blaster
C Voice brand
D Sound Blaster brand
Answer D is correct.
The de facto standard for sound cards is the Sound Blaster brand. Although other brands exist,they will often promote Sound Blaster compatibility in their advertising to show that they are legit.
109
James,a technician,encounters a problem that a deviceis sending frames to all the ports instead of the destinat on ports.He wants that the device should forward data only to the intended destination using the MAC address of the device. Which of the following devices will help himto troubleshoot this problem?
A Repeater
B Hub
C Switch
D Router
Answer C is correct.
James should use a switch that operates at the Data Linklayer (Layer 2)of the OSI (Open SystemsInterconnection) model and joins multiple computers together withinthe same LAN (local area network).Switches forwarddata only to theintended destination using the MAC address of the device. They examine the Layer 2 header of the incoming packet and forward it properly to the right port and only that port.Because of this funct onality.switches are smarter than hubs. Switches can also be connected to other switches.thusincreasing the number of devices on a LANwithout sacrificing performance. Troubleshooting a switch is easier because of the statusindicator lights on the individualports.
Answer Dis incorrect. A router is a highlyintelligent Network layer (Layer 3) device that makes routing decisions based on theIP address.It connects multiple network segments and determines the best path for sending the data.It routes packets across multiple networks and uses routing tables to store network addresses to determine the best destination.
Answer Ais incorrect.A repeater or extender operates at the Physical layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model. Itis a small and powered device that receives a signal, ampifies it,and sends it on its way,thereby extending the distance traveled bythe signal. Itis veryinexpensive to purchase andimplement."
Answer B is incorrect. A hub is a hardware device that operates at the Physical layer of the OSI modelto connect computers ina network.Hubs are very simple devices and possess no decision-making capability.When a data frame arrives at its port.itis broadcasted to every other port without considering whether itis dest ned for a particular destinat on or not.
110
Maria, a network administrator, diagnoses that port 68 is not open. Which of the following protocols is being blocked?
A POP3
B DNS
C HTTP
D DHCP
Answer D is correct.
According to the given scenario, DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is being blocked because DHCP uses port 68 as the default port.A DHCP server runs softwarethat automat cally assigns IP addresses to client stat ons logging onto a TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) network.
Answer B is incorrect. DNS (Domain Name System) uses port 53 as the default port. A DNS server maintains a database of domain and host names and their correspondingIP addresses.
Answer C is incorrect. HTIP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) uses port 80 as the default port.The HTTP protocolallows the fetching of resources, such as HTML documents.
Answer A is incorrect. POP3 (Post Office Protocolversion 3) uses port 11O as the default port. This protocolis used to retrieve emails from a mail server.
111
An organizationwants to print some color copies of an agreement to send to several departments and customers.Whichof the following printers will be the quickest?
A Inkjet
B Laser
C Impact
D Dot-matrix
Answer B is correct.
A laser printer will be the quickest.It produces a high-quality and high-speed output of bothtext and graphics by using a process called electro-photographic imaging. Itis a printer that uses a laser beam to project (or draw) a document onto an electrically charged drum.
Answer A is incorrect. An inkjet printer uses ink-dispersion and wet ink to transfer an image onto paper. Itis slower than a laser printer.
Answer C is incorrect. An impact printer is any type of printer that strikes a component directly against theink ribbon to create characters on impact paper. It provides a slow speed and low-quality printing than a laser printer.
Answer D is incorrect. A dot-matrix printer is a type of impact printer that uses a set of pins to strike the ribbon. Dot-matrix printers create printed characters by using var ous combinat ons of dots.
112
Which of these is a pen-shaped accessory used to write with or as a pointer?
A DC adapter
B Cable lock
C USB
D Stylus
Answer D is correct.
A stylus, also known as a touch pen,is a pen-shaped accessory usedto write with or as a pointer.Touch pens come in a variety of shapes and sizes, although most have either a narrow tip (like a pen) or a soft rubber ball-like tip,kind of like a pencil eraser.
Answer A is incorrect. A DC adapter allows a user to plug the laptop into the round DC jack power source (called an auxiliary power outlet) inside a car or on an airplane.
Answer B is incorrect. A cable lock anchors the device to a physical structure,making it nearly impossible for someone to walk off with it."
Answer C is incorrect. USS (UniversalSerial Bus) lives up to its name of being universal. There are multiple USS types to know, including microUSB, miniUSB, and the new oval-shaped USB-C.
113
Which of the following types of USBs is reversible?
A USB-A
B USB-D
C USB-C
D USB-B
Answer C is correct.
USB-C is reversible. That means no more flipping the connector over several times to figure out whichway it connects.
114
An organization needs to conserve paper without limiting the ability to print. Which of the following printer features can be used?
A Orientation
B Duplex
C Collate
D Quality"
Answer B is correct.
Duplex printing is a printer feature that enables a user to automatically print on both sides of a page.This setting lets the user specify whether and how to
use each side of a printed page.
Answer C is incorrect. Collate is a printer configuration option,which refers to the gathering and arranging of printing components into a pre-determined sequence. It is used only when the number of copies is greater than 1. If collateis enabled,the printer will print a complete copy of the document before the first page of the next copy is printed,and if collateis disabled,the printer will print each page by the number of copies specified before printing the next page."
Answer A is incorrect. Or entation is a printer configuration option that allows users to specify whether the document will be printed in a landscape or portrait orientation.
Answer D is incorrect. Quality is a printer configuration option that enables users to specify whether they want to print draft,normal,or high-quality output."
115
Which of these is a popular format for rechargeable batteries?
A lithium-metal hydride
B lithium-ion
C Nickel-metal hydride
D Nickel-cadmium
Answer D is correct.
Nickel-cadmium is a popular format for rechargeable batter es.As their name indicates,they contain highlevels of nickeland cadmium.Although nickel is only semi-toxic, cadmium is highly toxic.
Answers B,C,and A are incorrect. Laptop batteries are commonly made with nickel-metal hydride and lithium- on. Unlike the previous types of batteries, these are not considered hazardous waste,and there are no regulations on recycling them.
116
A user on the company's network reports to the network administrator that he is unable to access certain websites that were accessible before.Which of the following reasons will be given by the network administrator regarding the blockage of websites?
A Spam filteringis enabled.
B Browser oddity is enabled.
C Content filtering is enabled.
D A VPN concentrator is enabled.
Answer C is correct.
Content filtering is a method of excluding access to web pages. It can be based onlocat on,time,and user privileges. With this option,administrators have the flexibility to whitelist and blacklist websites and applications so that employees are limited to browsing trusted websites.
Answer B is incorrect. Browser oddity is a condition inwhich a web browser may not behave as expected.This might manifest as something as simple as excessive or unusual pop-up ads or new toolbars and add-ons in the browser.The default search engine might be changed,or worse,search requests might be redirected to new and unfamiliar websites."
Answer A is incorrect. Spam fi tering performs incoming and outgoing email filtering for an entire organization,usually by connection to a specific email server. Misconfigured spam fi ters can block important emails or allow excessive spam through.
Answer D is incorrect. A VPN (virtualprivate network) concentrator is a specialized hardware appliance that provides the secure creation of VPN connections and delivery of messages between the VPN nodes.
117
An organization has established an entry point to its private network.It has also established end-to-end encryption for everything transmitted over the connect on between the client and its private network. Which connections is the organization using?
A VPN
B WWAN
C Wireless
D Wired
Answer A is correct.
The organization is using the VPN (virtualprivate network) connection.The VPN connection is an overlay network on top of an established network connection called the underlay network.So,you will need an established Internet connection before a VPN can connect. The VPN connect on will provide two distinct features to the end user.The first feature it provides is an entry point to the organization's private network. The second feature it provides is end to-end encryption for everything transmitted over the connect on between the client and the organization's private network.
Answer B is incorrect. A WWAN (wireless wide area network) connection is a connection that is created with a cellular data provider, such as Sprint, Verizon, or AT&T.
Answer D is incorrect. A wired network is most commonin organizations with desktop computers. Unfortunately,a wired connection means that there is no mobility for the connect on; you are literally wired to a desk.
Answer C is incorrect. A wireless connect on is foundin networks wheremobility is required.Wireless is often usedin the SOHO (small office/home office) network settings.
118
Which cloud service provides network-based services through the cloud,including monitoring and QoS management?"
A DaaS
B Naas
C IDaaS
D CaaS
Answer B is correct.
Naas (network as a service) provides network-based services through the cloud,including monitoring and QoS (quality of service) management.
Answer D is incorrect. CaaS (communications as a service)is an outsourced enterprise communicat ons solut onthat can be leased from a single vendor. Such communications can include voice overIP (VoIP orInternet telephony),IM (instant messaging),collaboration,and video conference applications using fixed and mobile devices.
Answer A is incorrect.DaaS (desktop as a service)is a form of VDI(virtualdesktop infrastructure)inwhich the VDI is outsourced and handled by a third party.
Answer C is incorrect.IDaaS (identity as a service)is an authentication infrastructure that provides single sign-on capabilities for the cloud.
119
Susan, a user,has a smartphone.She needs to secure her mobile device. Which of the following types of lock is the most secure?
A Bit Locker
B Pattern Lock
C Fingerprint scanner
D Swipelock
Answer C is correct.
A fingerprint scanneris a type of electronic security system that uses fingerprints for biometric authentication to grant a user access to informationor to approve transactions. Itis a type of biometric securitytechnology that utilizes a combinat on of hardware and softwaretechniques toidentify thefingerprint scans of anindividual. Human fingerprints are practically unique.that's why they aresuccessfulatidentifying individuals uniquely.
Answer D is incorrect.A swipe lockis a type oflock that does not employ your conventional pin/password/panern. It does not provide any security and only prevents you from accidental touches.
Answer B is incorrect.A panemlockis a popular screenlock scheme that protects the sensitive data and informat onstoredinmobile devices from unauthorized access by requiring a specific owner-Oefined patternto unlock the device.It is considered to provide a mediumlevelof security.
Answer A is incorrect. Bit ockeris a computer hard drive encryption and security program released by Microsoft for Windows operating systems.It is a drive security and encryptionprogram that protects drive content and data from any offline anack.
120
Which of these allows for the sharing of files and printers with a single password?
A Workgroup networking model
B HomeGroup feature
C Wired connection
D Wireless connection
Answer B is correct.
The HomeGroup feature allows for the sharing of files and printers with a single password.The users can choose which types of resources are shared, such as pictures,documents,music,videos,and printers."
Answer A is incorrect. The workgroup networking model has existed in the Windows operating system since it was first introduced.Windows can function as both a client and a server simultaneously.When an operating system can function as both a client and a server, it is considered peer-to-peer networking. Clients canjointhe network and leave the network at any time.
Answer C is incorrect. A wired network is most commonin organizations with desktop computers. Unfortunately,a wired connection means that there is no mobility for the connect on;the users are literally wired to a desk.
Answer D is incorrect. A wireless connect onis foundin networks where mobility is required.Wireless is often usedin the SOHO (small office/home office) network settings.
121
John,a user,wants to view and change hardware devices on his operating system. Which of these will allow him to do so?
A Device Manager
B Windows Defender Firewall
C Bitlocker drive encryption
D Mail applet
Answer A is correct.
Device Manager will allow him to view and change hardware devices on his operating system.This applet allows the administrator toload and update third party drivers as well as drivers in the Windows Catalog.Device Manager is usually the first place you should check if a hardware device does not function after installation.
Answer B is incorrect. Bitlocker drive encryption is alow-levelfull-disk encryption feature that can be controlled from the Bitlocker Drive Encryption applet.
Answer C is incorrect. The Windows Firewall (f rewal .cpl), which in Windows 10 is named Windows Defender Firewall,is used to block access from the network (be it internalor the Internet).
Answer D is incorrect. When Microsoft Outlook is installedin Windows,it is configured throughthe Mail applet. If you do not have Microsoft Outlook installed,the iconwillsimply not show up in Control Panel."
122
What is the use of TPM in Microsoft's Bitlocker?
A To encrypt only the hibernation files inthe drive
B To encrypt the entire drive
C To encrypt only the user data in the drive
D To encrypt some specific files and folders inthe drive
Answer B is correct.
Microsoft's Bitlocker uses TPM (Trusted Platform Module) to encrypt the entire drive. Normally,only user data can be encrypted,but Bitlocker encrypts operating-system files,the Registry,the hibernation file,and so on. It also encrypts the files and folders that file-levelencryption secures.If any changes have occurred to the Windows installation,TPM does not release the keys required to decrypt and boot to the secured volume.
123
Which of these is a hierarchical scheme that maps domain names and hostnames to their correspondingIP addresses?
A HIDS
B WINS
C IPSec
D DNS server
Answer D is correct.
DNS (Domain Name System) is the primary name resolution service on the Internet and privateIP networks. DNS servers are a hierarchical system of
databases that map domain names and hostnames to their corresponding IP addresses.
Answer B is incorrect. WINS (Windows Internet Name Service)is Microsoft's implementation of NBNS (NetBIOS Name Service), a name server and service for NetBIOS computer names.
Answer A is incorrect. HIDS (host-basedintrusion detection system) is an intrusion detection system that monitors the device on whichitis installed to identify deviations from an established security policy. It can also monitor the network packets onthe device's network interfaces.
Answer C is incorrect. IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is theIETF (Internet Engineering Task Force) standard suite of protocols between two communicat on points across the IP network that provides data authentication,integrity,and confidentiality. It also defines the encrypted,decrypted,and authenticated packets."
124
Ann,a technician,has been assigned a task to validate certain Group Policies applied on a workstation.Which of the following commands willshe run on the workstation?
A gpupdate
B gpresult
C sfc
D tasklist
Answer B is correct.
The gpresu t command displays Group Policy settings and RSoP (Resultant Set of Policy) for the specified user or computer. The 'gpresult /r'
command shows a summary of RSoP data for the current user on the localcomputer.
Answer A is incorrect. The gpupdate command updateslocaland Active Directory group policy settings.Using the /force option, all policy settings, even the settings that are not changed,can be reapplied.
Answer C is incorrect. The sfc (System File Checker) command scans for corrupted Windows systemfiles and restores those ft les.
Answer D is incorrect. The tasklist command is used to display a list of applications and services currently running onthelocalcomputer (or a specified remote computer).The image name,process ID (PIO),session name and number, and memory usage are displayed in the task list."
125
Smith,a network administrator,wants to display the IP address of a host using thehost name. Which of the following commands will he use?
A nslookup
B netstat
C route
D tracert
Answer A is correct.
Smith will use the ns ookup command,which is a DNS (Domain Name System) utility that displays the IP address of a host using the host name. It gets this IP address by querying the appropriate name server (DNS server) onthe Internet.
Answer C is incorrect. The 'route' command permits manual updating of therouting table.
Answer D is incorrect. The tracert command determines the route that data takes to get to a particular destination.
Answer B is incorrect. The netstat command shows the status of each active network connection.
126
Jennifer,a user,needs to extend her computer capacity by connecting external storage devices.Which of the following connectors will allow her to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A SATA
B IEEE 1394
C eSATA
D USB
"Answers B,C,and D are correct.
eSATA (external Serial Advanced Technology Attachment),IEEE (Institute of Electricaland Electronics Engineers) 1394,and USB (Universal SerialBus) can be used to connect external storage devices.
"» IEEE 1394 connection is a PC connection that provides a high-speed interface for peripheral devices that are designed to use the IEEE 1394 standard.1 is also known as FireWire. IEEE 1394 supports up to 63 devices on one port,Plug-and-Play device discovery,hot-plugging,and provides power to devices. It is often used to connect peripheral devices such as external hard drives,digital cameras,and digitalvideo camcorders.
» eSATA is an externalinterface for SATA connections. Like IEEE 1394,eSATA provides a connection for external storage devices. eSATA connections provide fast data transfers without having to translate data between the device and the host computer. eSATA interfaces do require an additional powe connector to function.The users can provide eSATA functionality by installing eSATA cards in systems.
» USB is a physicalinterface standard used to connect up to 127 peripheraldevices to the computer. It can be used to connect all types of wired hardware,such as printers, scanners,keyboards,mice,flash drives,externalhard drives for storage,joysticks,and digital cameras.
Answer A is incorrect. SerialAdvanced Technology Attachment (SATA) is a computer bus interface that attaches host bus adapters to internal storage devices,such as hard disk dr ves and solid-state drives.
127
Which of the following networking devices work at the Data Link layer of the OSI model?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A Hub
B Router
C Bridge
D Switch
Answers C and D are correct.
The Data Linklayer of the OSI(Open Systems Interconnect on) modelstructures the data into a format appropriate for the transmission medium. It adds physical addresses, such as MAC (media access control) addresses or frame relay DLCI (data-link connection identifier) numbers. Switches and bridges are networking devices that work at this layer.A switch is a network hardware device thatjoins multiple computers together within the same LAN (localarea network),and a bridge is a network device that divides alogical bus network into segments."
Answer A is incorrect. A hub operates at the Physical layer of the OSI model.It is a very simple device and possesses no decision-making capability. It
simply repeats and forwards the data received on one port to all the other ports.
Answer B is incorrect. A router operates at the Network layer of the OSI model and has more intelligence than Data Link layer devices or Physical layer devices. It uses IP addresses to control the traffic flow.
128
Which of these is a rule of practice to avoid malicious apps or malware on a mobile device?
A Download apps from any app store.
B Use a VPN when on public networks.
C Avoid clicking links even if you are sure of the source.
D Jailbreak mobile devices.
Answer B is correct.
A good rule of pract ce to avoid malicious apps or malware on a mobile device are:
» Don't jailbreak mobile devices as it compromises built-in security mechanisms.
» Download apps only from officialapp stores.
» Always update the OS to the most current version.
» Avoid clicking linksif you are unsure of the source.
» Use a VPN (virtual pr vate network) when on public networks.
129
Which command shows how much space is free in the disk?
A df
B du
C fcsk
D fsck
Answer A is correct.
The df command shows how much space is free on the disk.
Answer D is incorrect. The fsck command checks and repairs the disks.
Answer B is incorrect. The du command how much disk space is in use.
130
You received an unwanted and unencrypted email containing a co-worker's birth date and social security number.You should immediately contact the IT department and report a violation of which of the following policies?
A MSDS
B EULA
C DRM
D PII
Answer D is correct.
You should immediately contact the IT department and report a violation of Pll (personally identifiable informat on) policies. Pll is any information that can be used by itself or in combination with additional information as a way toidentify,contact,find a single person,or identify a particular individualby using the various pieces of information together to determine the person's identity. Pllcan include a user's full name,fingerprints,date of birth,license plate number,phone number,street address,driver's license number,social secur ty number,and so on.
Answer C is incorrect. ORM (digitalrights management) is an approach that is used to protect digital assets such as online photos or videos. This approach limits the copying and usage of copyr ghted works and propr etary software by using various technologies.
Answer A is incorrect. MSOS (materialsafety data sheet) is a document that contains safety information about a given product. Information provided includes safe handling procedures,accident handling procedures, and disposal informat on.
Answer B is incorrect. EULA (end user license agreement)is a contract between a software company and the user of software that specifies the legal use of the company's application.
131
Which of the following security threats occurs when another person enters a secured area with an authorized person?
A Tailgating
B Spoofing
C Phishing
D Shoulder surfing
Answer A is correct.
Tailgating is a form of infiltration and social engineering attack that involves following someone else through a door as if you belongin the building. It involves getting into a secure area by tagging along right behind someone who has legitimate access with or without their knowledge.
Answer D is incorrect. Shoulder surfing is a human-based attack wherethe goal is to look over the shoulder of an individualas he enters password information or a PIN.
Answer B is incorrect. Spoofing is a human-based or software-based attack wherethe goalis to pretendto be someone else for the purpose of identity concealment.
Answer C is incorrect. Phishing is a commontype of email-based social engineering attack.In a phishing attack,the attacker sends an emailthat seems to come from a respected bank or other financial institution.
132
Which command checks the connectivity and latency of a given host?
A ping
B ifconfig
C ipconfig
D nslookup
Answer A is correct.
The ping command checks connectivity to a given host in terms of packet loss percentage along with latency and the number of hops traversed.
Answer C is incorrect. The pconfig command displays or refreshes IP settings for network interfaces inWindows operating systems.
Answer B is incorrect. The fconf g command displays or configures IP settings for network interfaces in Unix-like operating systems.
Answer D is incorrect. The nslookup command is used for diagnosing andtroubleshooting DNS (Domain Name System) problems. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at thecommand prompt.
133
Which of these is used to filter packets based on rules defined by a network administrator?
A Firewall
B NAS
C IDS
D DNS server
Answer A is correct.
A firewall is a hardware or software solution that serves as the network's security guard. It is probably the most important device on the network that is connected to theInternet. Firewalls can protect the users inthe following two ways:
» They protect the network resources from hackers lurking in the dark corners of theInternet.
» They can simultaneous ly prevent computers on the network from accessing undesirable content on the Internet. At a basic level,firewalls filter packets based on rules defined by the network administrator."
Answer B is incorrect. NAS (network-attached storage)is dedicated file storage that enables multiple users and heterogeneous client devices to retrieve
data from centralized disk capacity.
Answer D is incorrect. DNS (Domain Name System) server provides name resolution services for users accessing Internet resources. Name resolution allows users to use familiar web names,such as www.ucert fy.com,instead of using IP addresses to access websites."
Answer C is incorrect. IDS (intrusion detect on system)is software or hardware,or a combination of both,that scans,audits,and monitors the security infrastructure for signs of attacks in progress and automates the intrusion detection process.
134
A technician is tasked to implement a wireless router that will have the fastest data transfer speed at 5 GHz frequency.Which of the following standards will the technician select?
A 802.11ac
B 802.11b
c 802.11g
D 802.11a
Answer A is correct.
802.11ac is a wireless standard that operates at a frequency of 5 GHz and provides wireless speeds of up to 6.9 Gbps.It uses the OFDM (orthogonal frequency division multiplexing) modulation.
Answer D is incorrect. 802.11a is a wireless standard that provides a WLAN bandwidth of up to 54 Mbps in the 5 GHz frequency spectrum. It uses a more efficient encoding system,OFDM,rather than FHSS (frequency-hopping spread spectrum) or DSSS (direct-sequence spread spectrum)."
Answer B is incorrect. 802.11b is a wireless standard that operates at a frequency of 2.4 GHz and provides wireless speeds of up to 11Mbps.It uses DSSS for data encoding.
Answer C is incorrect. 802.11g is a wireless standard that operates at a frequency of 2.4 GHz. It is backward compatible with 802.11b and provides data transmission of up to 54 Mbps.
135
Which of the following types of network connectivities spans multiple geographic locations?
A WAN
B SAN
C PAN
D MAN
Answer A is correct.
WAN (wide area network) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations. It connects multiple LANs (localarea networks) using long-range transmission media.
Answer D is incorrect. MAN (metropolitan area network) covers an area of a few city blocks to the area of an entire city.In many cases,the MAN connects multiple LANs.
Answer C is incorrect. PAN (personal area network) is a network for interconnecting electronic devices that are centered on an individual's workspace.
Answer B is incorrect. SAN (storage area network) is a specialized type of LAN that connects computers to storage devices using network technology.
136
Which of these can transmit data at a speed of up to 16 Mbps?
A Cat 5
B Cat 6
C Cat 4
D Cat 3
Answer C is correct.
A Cat 4 (category 4) cable can transmit data at a speed of up to 16 Mbps.
Answer D is incorrect. A Cat 3 (category 3) cable can transmit data at a speed of up to 1O Mbps. It was popular for 1OBaseT installations before Cat 5 came out.
Answer A is incorrect. A Cat 5 (category 5) cable can transmit data at a speed of up to 100 Mbps.
Answer B is incorrect. A Cat 6 (category 6) cable can transmit data at speeds up to 1O Gbps,but only up to a distance of 55 meters.Its four twisted pairs of copper wire are oriented differently than in Cat Se.
137
The users can update Microsoft Defender from the Microsoft Defender Security Center by clicking the tray in the lower right corner of the desktop, then right-clicking the Windows Security shield,and finally clicking Check For Protection Updates.
A trash
B updated
C task
D recycler
Answer C is correct.
The users can update Microsoft Defender from the Microsoft Defender Security Center by clicking the task tray in the lower-right corner of the desktop, then right-clicking the Windows Security shield,and finally clicking Check For Protection Updates."
138
On which port does FTP operate?
A 53
B 80
C 21
D 25
Answer C is correct.
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) operates on ports 20 and 21. It includes both uploading and downloading files from one host to another.FTP is both a protocol and an application.
Answers D,A,and B areincorrect. Port 25 is used by SMTP (Simple MailTransfer Protocol), port 53 is used by DNS (Domain Name System),and port 80 is used by HTIP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol).
139
You have to connect to shared network resources on remote computers. Which command-line utility will you use to accomplish the task?
A net computer
B net share
C net use
D net sessions
Answer C is correct.
You can manage shared network resources from withinthe Windows GUI(graphical user interface) and by using the net command-line utility.To connect to or access shares on remote computers,you will use the 'net use' command-line utility.
Answer B is incorrect. The 'net share' command-line utility lists, creates, and removes network shares onthelocalcomputer."
Answer D is incorrect. The 'net sessions' command-line utility lists or ends communication sessions with network computers.
Answer A is incorrect. The 'net computer' command-line utility adds or removes a computer from a domain.
140
Why is image-based backup also called a bare-metalbackup?
A Becauseif the server software were to fail,you would restore the backup to a new server.
B Becauseif the server hardware were to fail,you would restore the backup to a new server.
C Becauseif the server hardware were to fail,you would regenerate the data to a new server.
D Becauseif the server software were to fail,you would restore the backup to an old server.
Answer B is correct.
The image-based backup is also called a bare-metalbackup because if the server hardware were to fail,you would restore the backup to a new server (bare metal) and restore it completely.
141
A network administrator diagnoses that port 23 is not open.Which of the following protocols is being blocked?
A SSH
B HTTPS
C Telnet
D FTP
Answer C is correct.
The Telnet protocol is being blocked.Itis a remote access protocolthat allows a command-line terminal interface with a remote system. It uses port 23 as the default port.
Answer A is incorrect. SSH (Secure Shell) uses port 22 as the default port.
Answer D is incorrect. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses ports 20 and 21 as the default ports.
Answer B is incorrect. HTIPS (Hypertext Transfer ProtocolSecure) uses port 443 as the default port.
142
Which of the following assemblies is responsible for moving the paper through the printer?
A Fusing
B Printer controller
C Paper transport
D Transfer corona
Answer C is correct.
The paper transport assembly is responsible for moving the paper through the printer.It consists of a motor and severalrubberized rollers that performs a different function.
Answer A is incorrect. The tonerin the EP (electrophotographic) toner cartridge willstick to just about anything,including paper.It is true because the toner has a negative static charge and most objects have a net positive charge. However,these toner particles can be removed by brushing any object across the page.It could be a problemif the users want theimages and letters to stay on the paper permanently."
Answer Dis incorrect. When the laser writes the images on the photosensitive drum,the toner then sticks to the exposed areas. The transfer corona assembly is given a high-voltage charge thatis transferred to the paper,which,in turn,pulls the toner from the photosensitive drum."
Answer B is incorrect. The printer controller assembly converts signals from the computerinto signals for the various assemblies inthelaser printer using a process known as rasterizing. This circuit board is usually mounted under the printer.The board has connectors for each type of interface and cables for each assembly.
143
You're using macOS X for your home PC. You need to search for documents, images, and applications on your system.Which feature of this operating system will help you in the search operation?
A Spotlight
B iCloud
C Keychain
D Mission control
Answer A is correct.
You should use Spotlight to searchthe required files. Spotlightis a search feature in macOS X to search for documents,images,applications,and so on. Recent versions include auto-complete features as well as suggestions for additionalresults on Wikipedia,iTunes,and more."
Answer B is incorrect. iCloud is Apple's feature for remote storage of fi es and documents.It allows youto configure Apple devices to place files on remote servers automatically or use them for backup.
Answer C is incorrect. Keychainis a password management system in macOS X developed by Apple. It stores and manages passwords for websites,mail servers,Wi-Fi,and so forth.
Answer Dis incorrect. Mission Controlis a feature in macOS X that allows you to arrange windows into severaldifferent screens so that you can quickly switch between them.
144
Which of the following registry subtrees contains all the file association information to determine which application Windows should open whenever the users double-click a file with a specific extension?
A HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG
B HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
C HKEY_USERS
D HKEY_ LOCAL_MACHINE
Answer B is correct.
The HKEY_ CLASSES_ROOT registry subtree contains all the file association informat on.Whenever the users double-click a file with a specific extension. Windows uses this information to determine which applicat on it should open.
Answer A is incorrect. The HKEY_ CURRENT_ CONFIG registry subtree contains information about the hardware profile that is used by the local computer at the system startup.
Answer D is incorrect. The HKEY_ LOCAL_MACHINE registry sub tree contains all the configuration information for the computer's hardware.
Answer C is incorrect. The HKEY_ USERS registry subtree contains all the actively loaded user profiles on the computer.
145
James,a network administrator,wants to make sure that only the computers authorized by him can connect to his network.What is the most appropriate security measure he will select?
A WEP encryption
B WPA encryption
C Content filtering
D MAC filtering
Answer D is correct.
James will select MAC (media access control)filtering as the most appropriate security measure. It only allows computers that have their MAC address listed with the router to connect to the network.It is a secur ty method that enables a device to allow only certain MAC addresses to access a network.
Answers A and B are incorrect. WEP (Wired Equivalent Pr vacy) and WPA (Wireless Protected Access) encryptions are used to secure the wireless connection and do not filter specific computers.
Answer C is incorrect. Content filteringis a method of excluding access to web pages. It can be based onlocat on,time,and user privileges. Withthis option administrators have the flexibility to whitelist and blacklist websites and applications so that employees are limited to browsing trusted websites.
146
Smith,a technician,is troubleshooting a problem. He has tested the theory to determine the actual cause of this problem. Which of the following should be the technician's next step?
A Implement the solution.
B Verify full system functionality.
C Establish a plan of action.
D Document lessons learned.
Answer C is correct.
There are certain general steps that the technician must apply while troubleshooting:
1.Identify the problem.
2. Establish a theory of probable cause.
3.Test your theory to determine the actualcause.
4. Once you've confirmed the cause, establish a plan of action to resolve the problem, then take steps to implement the solution.
5. When you've completed the steps to resolve the issue, verify full system functionality.
6. The final step is to document your findings,act ons taken, and the outcome.
147
Which of the following appliances is designed to protect electrical devices from voltage spikes?
A Port replicator
B NAS appliance
C Surge protector
D Set-top box
Answer C is correct.
A surge protectoris an appliance or device designed to protect electrical devices from voltage spikes. It is an electrical device that is used to protect equipment against power surges andvoltage spikes while blocking voltage over a safe threshold.
Answer A is incorrect. A port replicator is an attachment for a notebook computer that allows a number of devices,such as a printer. large monitor. and keyboard,to be simultaneously connected.
Answer B is incorrect. The NAS (network-attached storage) applianceis a data storage device that can be connected to a network to provide direct data access and file sharing to multiple computing devices attached to the network.
Answer D is incorrect. A set-top boxis a device that takes video content and convertsit into a format that can be viewed on a television.
148
A user needs a drive system that offers redundancy while providing the fastest read/write speeds possible.Which of the following RAID configurations should a technician configurein the user's workstation?
A RAID 10
B RAID 0
C RAID 5
D RAID 1
Answer A is correct.
The technician should configure RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disk) 1O in the user's workstation. RAID 1O combines two RAID levels into one. It uses RAID 1and RAID O to provide both mirroring from level 1 and striping from level 0. RAID 1O uses a minimum of four disks intwo disk mirrored blocks. This configuration gives better performance and system redundancy.
Answer B is incorrect. RAID O implements striping,whichis the process of spreading data across multiple drives. Striping can dramatically improve the read and write performance.Striping provides no fault tolerance and no redundancy,however; because the data is spread across multiple drives,if any one of the drives fails,the users willlose all of their data."
Answer D is incorrect. RAID 1 writes identical data to two or more hard drives. Itincreases the write overhead.In RAID 1,data from an entire partition is duplicated on twoidentical drives by either mirroring or duplexing.This redundancy provides fault tolerance and provides for quick failure recovery,but the storage overhead consumes half the available space."
Answer C is incorrect. RAID 5 spreads data byte by byte across multiple drives with parity information that also spreads across multiple drives. The users need atleast three physical disk drives that have the same capacity and are of the same type.If one drive fails,the parity information on the remaining drives can be used to reconstruct the lost data. Inthe event of a dr ve failure,data recovery is not instantaneous (as it is in RAID 1)."
149
Which of the following networking devices can send packets to the correct subnet to take them to their destination and can communicate with each other?
A Hub
B Repeater
C Router
D Switch
Answer C is correct.
In networking,a router is an intelligent connecting device that can send packets to the correct subnet to take themto their destination.Routers sit at boundar es withinthelarger network (or internetwork) and separate itinto smaller networks called subnets. They can read packets on theInternet layer to view their IP addresses and can communicate with other routers to find the best path through the network to any given host or subnet.
Answer A is incorrect. A hub,or multiport repeater, is a networking device that connects multiple Ethernet or twisted pair devices together."
Answer D is incorrect. A switch is a network hardware device that joins multiple computers together within the same LAN (local area network).
Answer B is incorrect. A repeater is a small,powered device that receives a signal,amplifies it,and sendsit on its way.The whole purpose of a repeater is to extend the functional distance of a cable run.
150
Which of these manage the purchase,installation,and upgrade of applications?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A Google Apps store
B Clips store
C Google Play Store
D Apple App Store
Answers C and D are correct.
The Google Play store and the Apple App Store manage the purchase,installation,and upgrade of applications. This upgrade maintenance on installed applications happens inthe background without the user ever knowing it even happens.
151
A client's computer is not connecting to a website.Which of the following commands will allow the technician to view the route/number of hops between the host and remote systemsto troubleshoot the issue in the given scenario?
A nslookup
B tracert
C ping
D netstat
Answer B is correct.
The tracert (Windows) and traceroute (Mac OS X,Linux) commands show the route that a packet takes to get to its destinat on.At the command prompt,type tracert or traceroute followed by a space and an IP address or URL.The output describes the route from the customer's machine to the destinat on machine, including all devices the packet passes through and how long each hop between devices takes.
Answer A is incorrect. The nslookup command is used for diagnosing and troubleshooting the DNS (Domain Name System) problems. It performs its
function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt.
Answer C is incorrect. The ping command transmits a datagram to another host.If network connectivity works properly,the receiving host sends the"
datagram back.
Answer D is incorrect. The netstat command shows the status of eachactive network connection.It displays statistics for both the TCP (Transmission
"Control Protocol) and the UDP (User Datagram Protocol). including the protocol,local address,foreign address,and the TCP connection state."
152
You are working on the Windows operating system. You want to update your system as a security problem has emerged,but you find that no updates are available onthe vendor's website of your operating system. Which of these could be the reason?
A EOA
B EOL
C EOS
D EULA
Answer B is correct.
EOL (end-of-life)is the reason that there are no updates available on the vendor's website of your operating system inthe given scenario.Vendors specify the EOL of a given OS version,and once the software reaches EOL, further updates and support will not be provided,andif any bug or security problem emerges at that point,users must address the problems themselves or else upgrade to a newer software version.
Answer Dis incorrect. EULA (end user license agreement) is a contract between a software company and an end user that specifies thelegal use of the company's application.
Answers C and A are incorrect. EOS (end of sale) and EOA (end of availability)terms have the same meaning.They refer to a date after which the operating system will no longer be available for purchase directly from a manufacturer.
153
Which opt cal disc type has the ability to erase the disc and write to it again multiple times?
A DVD-R
B CD-R
C CD-RW
D CD-ROM
Answer C is correct.
CD-RW (CD-Rewritable) is a compact disc that has the ability to erase the disc andwrite toit again multiple times.The capacity for CD-RWs ranges from 650 to 700 MB.
Answer D is incorrect. CD-ROM (Compact Disc-Read Only Memory) is a compact disc used as a read-only optical memory device for a computer system.
Answer B is incorrect. CD-R (Compact Disc-Recordable) is a compact disc that can be written once and read arbitrarily many times.
Answer A is incorrect. DVD-R (DigitalVersatile Disc-Recordable) is a digital optical disc storage format that can be written once and read arbitrarily many times.
154
Which of the following cloud services allows users to connect to cloud-based apps and use them over the Internet?
A IDaaS
B IaaS
C Naas
D Saas
Answer D is correct.
Saas (software as a service) allows users to connect to cloud-based apps and use them over the Internet. It eliminates the need to install software on user devices,andit can be helpfulfor mobile or transient workforces. Examples of Saas include Google Apps suite,Zoho suite,and Microsoft's Office Web Apps."
Answer B is incorrect.laaS (infrastructure as a service) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchase and run their own data center.
Answer C is incorrect. Naas (network as a service) provides network-based services throughthe cloud,including monitoring and QoS (quality of service) management.
Answer A is incorrect. IDaaS (identity as a service)is an authentication infrastructure that provides single sign-on capabilities for the cloud.
155
Which of these are the required elements for a cloud computing service according to NIST?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A Hypervisor
B On-demand self-service
C Elasticity
D Resource pooling
Answers B.C,and D are correct.
NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology) defines the following five elements, which a cloud computing service must have:
» On-demand self-service
» Broad network access
» Resource pooling
» Rapid elast city
» Measured service
Answer A is incorrect. A hypervisor is required for virtualization.The hypervisor is a software abstraction layer that runs VMs (virtualmachines) as applications, effect vely an operating system for operating systems. To the VM,the hypervisor is similar to the underlying hardware.but it's allocating the host resources and allowing multiple VMs to simultaneously share them."
156
Which of these is formed while sharing files via Bluetooth?
A Piconet
B RFID
C IrDA
D NFC
Answer A is correct.
The Piconet is a computer network that is formed while sharing fl es via Bluetooth.It allows one master device to interconnect with up to seven active slave devices. It is a computer network created after the Bluetooth discovery phase.
Answer B is incorrect. RFID (radio frequency identification) is a communications standard that uses radio waves to facilitate communication. It also affects the maximum distance that the waves can travel.
Answer D is incorrect. A subset of RFID is a very short-distance technology knownas NFC (near-field communication). NFC is designed to facilitate information sharing and,in particular,contactless payment. It transmits at 13.56 MHz."
Answer C is incorrect. lrDA (Infrared Data Assoc iation) was formed as a technicalconsortium to support interoperable,low-cost infrared data interconnection standards that support a walk-up,point-to-point user model."
157
to a network and enable those devices to automatically announce their presence to other devices on the network?
A DNAT
B UPnP
C NAT
D ACL
Answer B is correct.
UPnP (Universal Plug and Play) is a standard designed to simplify the process of connecting devices to a network and enable those devices to automaticall announce their presence to other devices on the network.The problem is that UPnP has no authentication mechanism. Any device or user is trusted and car join the network.
Answer D is incorrect. ACL (access control list) is the set of rules that determines which traff c gets through the firewall and which traffic is blocked.ACLs are configured to block traff c by IP address,port number,domain name,or some combinat on of allthree."
Answer A is incorrect. DNAT (dynamic network address translation) translates a group of private addresses into a poolof routable addresses.It is used to make a resource that's on a pr vate network available for consumption on public networks by appearing to give it a publicly available address.
Answer C is incorrect. NAT (network address translation) is a very coolservice that translates a pr vate IP address on the internal network to a public IP address on theInternet. If the users are using their wireless router to allow one or more clients to access the Internet but they have only one external public IP address,their router is using NAT."
158
Which of these is the premier retail edition of the Windows 10 operating system?
A Workstations
B Professional
C Home
D Enterprise
Answer B is correct.
Windows 1O Pro (Professional)is the premier retail edition of the Windows 1O operating system. It is the most common OEM (originalequipment manufacturer) operating system becauseit allows users to join corporate domains and becomes value-added for the hardware vendor.
Answer C is incorrect. Windows 1O Home is sold as a retail product,and it's preinstalled by the hardware vendor.When the operating system is preinstalled, it is referred to as an OEM operating system.
Answer A is incorrect. Windows 1O Pro for Workstations is used primarily for high-end computer workstations that require more than two CPUs and that need to address more than 2 TB of memory.
Answer D is incorrect. Windows 1O Enterprise supports all features of Windows 1O Pro and can be found in mid-sized to large-sized organizations.It also supports features generally found in mid-sized to large-sized organizations.
159
Which of the following display technologies requires a backlight?
A LCD
B CRT
C Plasma
D OLED
Answer A is correct.
A backlight is a form of illumination usedin LCDs (liquid crystal displays). LCD is a flat panelscreenthat uses a liquid crystal solution sandwiched between two polarizing filters and glass panels. The liquid crystals are polarized using an electr cal current.which straightens and twists themto achieve the desired color.LCDs use a backlight as they do not producelight by themselves.
Answer C is incorrect. Plasma display uses small cells filled with noble gases and phosphor to create color and provide visuals with high contrast, brightness, and vibrant colors that can be viewed from a multitude of angles. Plasma screens wereprimarily used forlarge televisions inthe late 1990s and early 2000s, but they've largely been replaced by LCDs. Plasma panels are locally lit and do not require a backlight."
Answer Dis incorrect. OLEO (organic light-emitting diode) is a display technology where an organic compound provides the light for the screen.thus eliminating the need for a backlight orinverter.An OLEO display works without a backlight. So, it can display deep black levels and can be thinner and lighter than LCD.In low ambient light conditions, such as a darkroom,an OLEO screen can achieve a higher contrast ratio than an LCD."
Answer B is incorrect. CRT (cathode ray tube) display contains a large vacuum tube with a flat end covered in phosphors. An emitterin the back shoots a stream of electrons at the phosphor to create an image.Due to their bulk and expense,CRTs weredisplaced entirely by flat-paneltechnologies,and are only seen on old computers today.CRTs produce their own illumination,so they don't require a backlight."
160
Which of the following server roles will an embedded appliance,such as a home router or network printer,use for its configuration interface?
A Proxy
B web
C Print
D Mail
Answer B is correct.
A web server provides access to personal,corporate,or education website content. Access to content is provided primarily to externalusers,such as customers or students,who access the web services from the Internet. Internet web servers might be most familiar,but localnetwork applications often USE web servers as well. Even an embedded appliance,such as a home router or network printer,will use a web server forits configuration interface."
Answer D is incorrect. A mail server,also called a message server,provides post office facilities by storing incoming mails or messages for distribution to"
users and forwarding outgoing emails or messages through appropriate channels.
Answer A is incorrect. A proxy serverisolates internal clients from servers by downloading and storing files on behalf of clients. It intercepts requests for web-based or other resources that come from clients,and if it does not have the data in its cache,it can generate a completely new request packet using itself as the source or simply relay the request. In additionto providing security,the data cache can also improve client response time and reduce network traffic by providing frequent ly used resources to clients from alocal source."
Answer C is incorrect. A print server makes printers available to clients over the network and accepts print requests from those clients. A print server can be a physicalserver such as a Windows-based or Linux-based server,a small stand-alone device attached to a printer (or several printers), or even a server built into the printer itself."
161
What suffix indicates that the capacity of an optical disc is roughly twice that of its standard counterpart?
A R
B DL
C RE
D RW
Answer B is correct.
D (double/duallayer) indicates that the capacity of an opticaldisc is roughly twice that ofits standard counterpart.With DVDs,the capacity almost doubles,but with Blu-ray discs,it actually does.
Answers A, D,and C are incorrect. R means recordable,and RW and RE are usedto designate rewritable or re-recordable.
162
James,a security analyst, is hardening an authentication server.One of the primary requirements is to ensure that there is SSO on this server.Which of the following technologies should he configure to fulfill the requirement in the given scenario?
A LDAP
B SSH
C Kerberos
D Telnet
Answer C is correct.
James should configure Kerberos to fulfill the requirement inthe given scenario. It is an authentication service that is based on a time-sensitive ticket granting system. It was developed by MIT (Massachusetts Institute of Technology) to use an SSO (single sign-on) method inwhich the user enters access credentials that are then passed to the authenticat on server.The authentication server contains an access list and permitted access credentials. Kerberos can be used to manage access control to several services by using one centralized authentication server.
Answer A is incorrect. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is a directory service protocolthat defines how a client can access informat on, perform operations,and share directory data on a directory server."
Answer B is incorrect. SSH (Secure Shell) is used to enable a user or an application to log on to another computer over a network,execute commands,and manage files.
Answer D is incorrect. Telnet is a remote access protocol that allows a command line terminal interface with a remote system. Its features are very basic, anditisn't very secure,soit's not nearly as popular as it once was."
163
A user reports to a technician that her Windows 7 Home Premium computer displays a stop error and automatically reboots. Which of the following system utilities will the technician use to find more informat on about the cause of the error?
A Disk Management
B Task Manager
C Event Viewer
D Action Center
Answer C is correct.
The technician will use the Event Viewer utility to find and identify the system errors. Event Viewer is a Windows utility used to keep a log of all recorded system and application events. It includes sign-on attempts, shutdown signals,system crashes, device driver errors,and many more scenarios that can help a user identify where problems exist. It can be helpfulin troubleshooting various systemissues. Any event that generates a message can be locatedin Even; Viewer,which is helpfulwhen a user cannot remember the exact wording of an error message."
Answer Dis incorrect. The Action Center utility provides information about potential secur ty and maintenance problems in your system. It provides access to helpfulresources about current security threats, including a check for the latest Windows Update.
Answer A is incorrect. The Disk Management utility is usedto create partitions and format new disks. It provides all the tools you need to manage the hard disks installed on your computer.
Answer B is incorrect. Task Manager is a basic system diagnost c and performance monitoring tool.It can be usedto monitor or terminate applications and processes,view current CPU and memory usage statistics,monitor network connection utilizat on,set the priority of various processes (if programs share resources),and manage logged-on local users.
164
What is the correct ID of uncorrectable sector count in S.M.A.R.T metrics?
A 187
B 198
C 197
D 188
Answer B is correct.
The uncorrectable sector count shows the total number of bad sectors when reading from or writing to a sector. Its correct IDin S.M.A.R.T (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology) metrics is 198.
Answer A is incorrect. 197 is the ID of the current pending sector count. It shows the number of unstable sectors waiting to be remapped.
Answer D is incorrect. 188 is the ID of the command timeout. It shows the number of failed hard drive read/write operations due to disk timeout.
Answer C is incorrect. 187 is the ID of the reported uncorrectable errors. It shows the number of errors that could not be recovered using hardware error correction.
165
Which of the following Linux commands is usedto switch ownership between an ordinary user and a root user and to change access perrnissions for administrative work?
A rm
B ps
C su
D mv
Answer C is correct.
The su {super user) commandis used to change the ownership of a login session without logging out.tis generally used to switch ownership between an ordinary user and a root user and to change access perrnissions for administrative work.
Answer B is incorrect.The ps {process status)command displays the currently running system processes.
Answer A is incorrect. The rm {remove)command removes the specified files.
Answer D is incorrect.The mv {move) command moves or renames files.
166
You want to share the Internet connect on of your smartphone with a laptop.Whichof the following features will you use?
A Virtual private network
B Tethering
C IMSI
D MEID
Answer B is correct.
You should use the tethering feature that allows sharing the Internet connect on of the smartphone with other devices,such as laptops. The connection of a mobile device with other devices can be done over wireless LAN (Wi-Fi), over Bluetooth,or by physical connection using a cable,for example,through USB (Universal SerialBus)."
Answer C is incorrect. IMSI (InternationalMobile Subscriber Identity) is a unique 15-digitidentifier that describes a specific mobile user and their network.
Answer A is incorrect. A VPN (virtual private network)is a secured network connection made over an unsecured network,such as the Internet."
Answer D is incorrect. MEID (mobile equipment identifier) is an alternate form of a serial number.It'sidentical to the first 14 numbers of the IMEI (International Mobile Equipment Identity). Sprint (now T-Mobile) andVerizon were the first to use MEIOs.
167
Which of the following form factors has a dimension of 120 mm x 120 mm?
A Nano- TX
B Mini-ITX
C Pico-ITX
D Mobile-ITX
Answer A is correct.
The ITX (Information Technology extended) line of motherboard form factors was developed by VIA Technologies in the early 2000s as a low-power SFF (small form factor) board for specialty uses, including home-theater systems,compact desktop systems, gaming systems, and embedded components. ITX itself is not an actualform factor but a family of form factors. The family consists of the following form factors:
» Mlnl-ITX: 6.7" x 6.7" (170 mm x 170 mm)
» Nano- TX: 4.7" x 4.7" (120 mm x 120 mm)
» Pico-ITX: 3.9" x 2.8" (100 mm x 72 mm)
» Mobile-ITX: 2.4"x 2.4" (60 mm x 60 mm)
168
John wants to evaluate,test,and deploy software updates. Which of the following management techniques will he use?
A Patch
B Privilege
C Asset
D Change
Answer A is correct.
John will use the patch management technique,whichis the pract ce of monitoring,obtaining,evaluating,testing,and deploying software patches and updates.In patch management,software updates are evaluated for their applicability to an environment andthentestedin a safe way on non-production systems.
Answer Dis incorrect. Change managementis a systematic way of approving and executing change to ensure maximum security,stability,and availability of information technology services.
Answer C is incorrect. Asset management deals with the management of the assets of an organization. It is essential for a company to identify,track, classify,and assign ownership to the most important assets."
Answer B is incorrect. Privilege management is the use of authentication and authorization mechanisms to provide an administrator with centralized or decentralized control of user and group role-based privilege management.
169
Which of the following Linux commands are used to elevate a user's access level to administrative privilege?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A sudo
B passwd
C chmod
D SU
Answers A and D are correct.
The sudo and su commands are used to elevate a user's access levelto administrative privilege.The sudo command allows users to run programs with the security privileges of the root user. It prompts the user for the personal password and confirms the user's request to execute a command by checking a file called sudoers,which the system administrator configures. The su command is used to change the ownership of alogin session without logging out. It is generally used to switch ownership between an ordinary user and a root user and to change access permissions for administrative work.
Answer C is incorrect. The chmod command enables the users to modify the default permissions of a file or directory.
Answer B is incorrect. The passwd command changes a uses password. Entering passwd username will allow the users to change the password for the specified usemame.
170
A technician needs to dispose of hard drives containing sensitive employee data. Which method would be the best for him to use?
A Shredding
B Overwriting
C Recycling
D Dumpster diving
Answer A is correct.
The shredding technique is used to destroy media, suchas hard drives, CDs,DVDs,and so on.A hard dr ve shredder is a mechanical device that physically destroys old hard drives in such a way that the data they contain cannot be recovered.The most effective way of ensuring complete data destruction on a hard driveis by pulverizing the assembly.
Answer Dis incorrect because dumpster diving is a type of social engineering attack wherean attacker rummages through the victim's trash,trying to find sensitive information that was carelessly discarded.
Answers C and B are incorrect because the data recovery can still be done after recycling and overwriting a hard drive.As long as the driveis physically intact,sensitive data can still be retrieved."
171
You work as an IT director for a company.Your company has various partners, and you want to share common informat on with them using the cloud without compromising security.Which type of cloud model will you use?
A Public
B Community
C Hybrid
D Private
Answer B is correct.
You will use a community cloud for sharing common information with partners without compromising security.A community cloud is a cloud computing method where multiple organizations from a specific community with common interests share the cloud infrastructure.This infrastructure can bemanaged internally or by a third party and either hosted internally or externally.
Answer A is incorrect. A public cloud is a cloud computing method that provides its services over a network that is open for public use.
Answer C is incorrect. A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing method that is a combination of two or more clouds that remain distinct but are bound together, offering thebenefits of multiple deployment models.
Answer D is incorrect. A private cloud is a cloud computing method where the cloud infrastructure is operated solely for a single organization.
172
When dealing with a difficult customer,which of the following is the best way to handle the situat on?
A Use technicalterms to assure customer confidence.
B Escalate the customer's issue to a supervisor.
C Do not argue with the customer or be defensive.
D Minimize the problems.
Answer C is correct.
It is important that you are flexible in dealing with challenging or difficult situations. When someone's computer has failed,they likely aren't going to bein a good mood,which can make them a difficult customer to dealwith. In situations like these,keepin mind the following principles:
» Avoid arguing or being defensive.
» Don't minimize their problems.
» Avoid being judgmental.
Answers A and B are incorrect. Using technicalterms to assure customer confidence and escalating the customer's issue to a supervisor will not help in handling the situation.
173
Which of these is a connection-oriented protocol that can be used to set up a secure Telnet session for remote logins or for remotely executing programs and transferring files?
A IMAP
B SSH
C HTTP
D LDAP
Answer B is correct.
SSH (Secure Shell)is a connection-oriented protocol that can be used to set up a secure Telnet session for remote logins or for remotely executing programs and transferring files.It was originally designed to be a replacement for the unsecure telnet command.
Answer C is incorrect. HTIP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) manages the communicat on between a web server and a client. It also lets the users connect to and view all the content they enjoy onthe Internet.
Answer A is incorrect. IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is a secure protocoldesigned to download email.Its current version is version 4 or IMAP4. It's the client-side email management protocolof choice,having replaced the unsecure POP3 (Post Office Protocolversion 3)."
Answer D is incorrect. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is a directory services protocol based on the X.500 standard.It is designed to access information stored in an information directory known as an LDAP directory or LDAP database.
174
Which of these is a cryptographic suite of protocols that use PKI to provide secure data transfer?
A SSL
B IPSec
C ARP
D SSH
Answer A is correct.
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is a cryptographic suite of protocols that use PKI(public keyinfrastructure) to provide secure data transfer.
Answer B is incorrect.IPSec (Internet ProtocolSecur ty) is a set of open and non-proprietary standards that the users can use to secure data as it travels across the network or theInternet.
Answer D is incorrect. SSH (Secure Shell) is a program that enables a user or an application to log on to another computer over a network,execute commands,and manage files."
Answer C is incorrect. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is a communicat on protocolthat resolves IP addresses to MAC (media access control) addresse
175
What is the difference between a whileloop and a do whileloop?
A In a while loop,the condition is specified inthe middle,whereas in a do while loop,the condition is specified at the end.
B In a while loop,the condition is specified at the beginning,whereas in a do while loop,the condition is specified at the end.
C In a while loop,the condition is specified at the end,whereas in a do while loop, the condition is specified at the beginning.
D In a while loop,the condition is specified at the beginning,whereas in a do while loop,the condition is specified in the middle.
Answer B is correct.
The while and 'do while' loops are identical infunctionality;they both loop until a condition is no longer true.The difference between the two is that in a whiie loop,the condition is specified at the beginning,whereas in a 'do while' loop,the condition is specified at the end. Each language supports either one loop or the other,and sometimes both types ofloop. However,the concept remains the same:the loop will continue until the condition is no longer true."
176
Which of these is used to safely ground a person working on very sensitive electronic equipment?
A Antistatic bag
B Air filter mask
C Safety goggles
D ESD wrist strap
Answer D is correct.
An antistatic wrist strap, ESD (electrostatic discharge) wrist strap,or ground braceletis an antistat c device used to safely ground a person working on very sensitive electronic equipment to prevent the buildup of static electricity ontheir body,which can result in ESD.
Answer A is incorrect. An antistatic bag is made from PET (plastic polyethylene terephthalate) used to store components that are sensitive to electrostatic discharge.
Answers C and B are incorrect. If the users are using chemicals or heat to clean or repair a component or device,they should wear safety goggles to protect their eyes from cuts, scrapes,and burns.They should also wear an airfilter mask to protect their lungs from any harmfulfumes.
177
Which of the following wireless technologies is most commonly used forinventory tracking and identification badges?
A Bluetooth
B NFC
C OFDMA
D RFID
Answer D is correct.
RFID (radio frequency identificat ion)is a wireless technology that allowsidentification and communication between nodes using electromagnetic fields. Unlike most networking technologies, RFID supports passive tags that are transceivers,which have no power source of their own but are activated by powered transceivers called readers. RFID can be used for short-range communication,butit's most commonly used for inventory tracking,identification badges,and evenimplanted chips to identify pets in case they'relost.
Answer B is incorrect. NFC (near field communication) is a wireless communication method that enables wireless devices to establish radio communicat ons by touching themtogether or by bringing them into close proximity with each other,typically within 4 cm or less.
Answer A is incorrect. Bluetooth is a wireless technology that is commonly usedto enable communication over short distances between small personal electronic devices, such as between a cellular phone and a wireless earpiece or between a laptop and a Bluetooth speaker.
Answer C is incorrect. Wi-Fi 6 introduces a new modulationtechnique called OFDMA (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access), whichis an enhancement over the previously used OFDM.While OFDM was fast,it had a limitation that it could only transmit to one recipient at a time.OFDMA can handle communications with severalclients at once.
178
An organization wants to perform a form of redirection in which the traffic intended for one host is sent to another. Which of these will help the organization in the given scenario?
A Desktop alert
B NFC
C Pop-ups
D Pharming
Answer D is correct.
Pharming will help the organization inthe given scenario. It is a form of redirection in which traffic intended for one host is sent to another.It can be accomplished on a small scale by changing entries inthe hosts'file and on a large scale by changing entries in a DNS (Domain Name System) server,also known as DNS poisoning.
Answer A is incorrect. A desktop alert is a not fication or dialog box thatis crafted to look like it was generated by the operating system.It is a crafty way of social engineering the user into becoming a victim.
Answer C is incorrect. Pop-ups (also commonly known as popups) are both frustrating and chancy.When a user visits a website and another instance (either another tab or another browser window) opens in the foreground,it is called a pop-up
Answer B is incorrect. NFC (near field communication) is a short-distance wireless communication protocol. NFC is built into many mobile devices for the application of payment systems, such as Google Pay and Apple Pay.
179
John,a support analyst, is tasked with preparing a document on MSDS. What should the documentation include?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A Disposal recommendat ons
B Hardware and software malfunctions
C Safety and health-related information about chemical products
D Violation of company policies
Answers A and C are correct.
MSDS (material safety data sheets) should include safety and health-related information about chemical products, including health risks and storage, disposal recommendations,and procedures for containing a leak or a spill. It is an essential starting point for the development of a complete health and safety program. It also contains information on the use,storage,handling,and emergency procedures related to the hazards of the material.
180
Which of these best complies with EULA terms for commercialsoftware used by multiple usersina corporate environment?
A Source code
B Open-source
C Object code
D Enterprise
Answer Dis correct.
Enterprise license best complies with EULA (end user license agreement) terms for commercial software used by multiple users in a corporate environment. EULA is a contract between a softwarecompany and an end user that specifies the legal use of the company's application. For commercialpurposes,an enterprise license permits an organization to install the applicat on on an agreed-upon number of PCs. Enterprise licenses might be available for applications and closed-source operating systems for large organizations.
Answers A and C are incorrect. Source code and object code are not types of a license. Source code is a code used by programmers to develop applications and it is shared with users of software inan open-source license.Object code is generated from source code after going through a compiler or other translator.
Answer B is incorrect. An open-source license is more than free;not only is the application free,but the source code (code used by programmers)is also shared to encourage others to contribute to the future development and improvement of the application.It generally includes a Free Software License that gives the owner of the software rights to modify the software.
181
What is the purpose of demineralized water?
A To clean external computers and monitor cases
B To suck up dust and small particles
C To clean metal contacts,such as those on expansion cards
D To clean keyboards or other devices that have contact points, which are not metal
Answer D is correct.
The purpose of demineralized water is to clean keyboards or other devices that have contact points,which are not metal."
Answer B is incorrect. The purpose of a computer vacuum is to suck up dust and small particles.
Answer A is incorrect. The purpose of mild soap and water is to clean externalcomputers and monitor cases.
Answer C is incorrect. The purpose of denaturedisopropylalcoholis to clean metal contacts,such as those on expansion cards."
182
You open a user's computer and see a large amount of accumulated dust. Which of the following is the best way of removing the dust from the interior of the computer?
A Toner cloth
B Small paintbrush
C Mid household cleaner
D Compressed air canister
Answer D is correct.
A compressed air canisteris the best way of removing the dust from the interior of the computer. Itis a canister with a nozzle that can be aimed at components to blow dust out. It is often used when removing dust from the interior of a computer or laptop. Be sure to blow the dust away from the power supply and dr ves. You can also use it to blow dust out of the power supply fan area, from keyboards,and from the ventilation holes onvar ous components.
Answer C is incorrect. You can use a mild household cleaner to keep the exterior of computer components clean. It helps prevent dirt and debris from
getting inside the equipment.
Answer A is incorrect. A toner cloth is a special cloth that picks up toner particles present either inthe printer or around the printer.Be carefulif you're using it inside the printer so that the cloth does not get caught on any components and leave fibers behind.
Answer B is incorrect. You can use a small paintbrush to remove dust from between keys on a keyboard. If the brush has long bristles,it can reach under the keys where other cleaning objects would not be able to reach.
183
Which port should be opened to connect a PC through RDP?
A 443
B 3389
C 22
D 25
Answer B is correct.
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) uses port 3389 to allow remote connect ons to other computers on a network.This port should be opened to connect a PC through RDP.It is a proprietary protocol created by Microsoft for connecting to and managing computers that are not necessarily located at the same place as the administrator.
Answer D is incorrect. SMTP (Simple MailTransfer Protocol) uses port 25 as the default port.
Answer C is incorrect. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) uses port 22 as the default port.
Answer A is incorrect. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) uses port 443 as the default port.
184
Which commands can you use to test network connectivity between your workstation and the server?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A ping
B tracert
C ipconfig
D nslookup
Answers A and B arecorrect.
The tracert and ping commands can verify connectivity betweentwo computers. The tracert command is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) packets to reach a remote computer. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host.The ping command is used to test the connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network.This testing is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host.
Answer C is incorrect. The ipconfig command displays the current TCP/IP configuration,such as the IP address,subnet mask,default gateway,and so on,of a networked computer."
Answer Dis incorrect. The nslookup command is used for diagnosing andtroubleshooting DNS (Domain Name System) problems. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at thecommand prompt.
185
Luci,a user,reports that she received a call from someone asking for informat on about her email account. Which of the following types of potential security threats does this scenario describe?
A Rootkit
B Spam
C Zero-day attack
D Social engineering
Answer D is correct.
This scenar o describes a social engineering attack. It is a type of attack that uses deception and trickery to convince unsuspecting users to provide sensitive data or to violate security guidelines. Socialengineering is often a precursor to another type of attack. Because these attacks depend on human factors rather than on technology,their symptoms can be vague and hard to identify.Social engineering attacks can come ina variety of methods,such as ir person,through email,or over the phone.
Answer A is incorrect. A rootkit is a code that is intended to take full or partial controlof a system at the lowest level. Rootkits often attempt to hide themselves from monitoring or detection and modify low-level systemfiles when integrating themselves into a system.
Answer C is incorrect. A zero-day attack is an attack that exploits a previously unknown vulnerability in an application or operating system. In such a situat on,developers do not have time to address the vulnerability and patch it. It is called a zero-day attack because developers have zero days to fix the flaw."
Answer B is incorrect. Spamis an email-based threat that presents various advertising materials,promot onal content,or get-rich-quick schemes to users. The messages can quickly fill a user's inbox and cause storage issues.Spam can also carry malicious code and other types of malware.
186
Which of these are the causes of ghost images on a printed output in the laser printing process?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A High-humidity
B Build up of toner on the fuser rollers
C Loose or damaged data cable
D Drum failure
Answers A, B,and D are correct.
The following are the causes of ghost images on a printed output inthelaser printing process:
» Build up of toner on the fuser rollers
» High-humidity
» Drum failure
» Incorrect paper
» Fuser unit failure
Answer C is incorrect. The printer will not print if the data cable isloose or damaged.
187
Which of these contains important information regarding hazardous materials,such as safe use procedures and emergency response instructions?
A EULA
B PII
C MSDS
D DRM
Answer C is correct.
MSOS (materialsafety data sheet) contains important information regarding hazardous materials,such as safe use procedures and emergency response instructions. It is a technical bulletin that provides detailed information about potential environmental hazards and proper disposal methods associated with various computing components. It applies to any situation in which an employee is exposed to a chemical under normaluse conditions or in the event of an emergency.The manufacturer supplies MSOSs with the first shipment to a new customer andwith any shipment after the MSOS is updated with significant and new information about safety hazards.
Answer D is incorrect. DRM (digital rights management) is used to protect digitalassets,such as online photos or videos."
Answer B is incorrect. PII (personallyidentifiable information) is anything that can be used to identify a person onits own or in context with other information.
Answer A is incorrect. EULA (end user license agreement) is a contract between a software company and an end user that specifies thelegal use of the company's application.
188
Which of the following files bootstraps the system?
A BOOTMGR
B BOOT
C MGRBOOT
D BOOTSTRAP
Answer A is correct.
BOOTMGR (Windows Boot Manager) bootstraps the system.In other words,this file starts the loading of an operating system on the computer.
189
Which statementis true about the MDM software?
A It describes classes of objects and the attributes that define each object.
B It is a service that can contain many different objects,including users,computers,and printers.
C It helps organizations to protect their data on devices that are personally owned by the employees.
D It is a hierarchical collection of security objects,such as users, computers,and policies,among other components.
Answer C is correct.
The MDM (mobile device management) software helps organizat ons to protect their data on devices that are personally owned by the employees. When
employees are terminated or a deviceis lost.the MOM software allows a secure remote wipe of the company's data onthe device.
Answers B and A are incorrect. Active Directory is a highly scalable directory service that can contain many different objects.including users, computers, anc"
printers.Active Directory uses a directory part tion called the schema partition to describe classes of objects and the attributes that define each object.Eact attribute is definedin the schema based on the value it will contain.
Answer D is incorrect. A domain is a hierarchical collection of security objects.such as users, computers,and policies,among other components. Active"
Directory domains are named with a DNS (Domain Name System) name.
190
In Windows, where is the page file located?
A It is located in the root directory of the drive on which the users installed the OS files.
B It is located in the root directory of the drive on which the users updated the OS files.
C It is located in the root directory of the drive on which the users installed the log files.
D It is located in the root directory of the drive on which the users updated thelog files.
Answer A is correct.
In Windows,the page file is called pagefile.sys and is located in the root directory of the drive on which the users installed the OS files. The page file is a hidden file;to see this file in Windows File Explorer,the users must have the Folder options configured to show hidden files.
191
HKEY_ CLASSES_ROOT
registry subtree contains....
The HKEY_ CLASSES_ROOT registry subtree contains all the file association informat on.Whenever the users double-click a file with a specific extension. Windows uses this information to determine which applicat on it should open.
192
HKEY_ CURRENT_ CONFIG
registry subtree contains....
HKEY_ CURRENT_ CONFIG registry subtree contains information about the hardware profile that is used by the local computer at the system startup.
193
HKEY_ LOCAL_MACHINE registry sub tree contains....
HKEY_ LOCAL_MACHINE registry sub tree contains all the configuration information for the computer's hardware.
194
HKEY_ USERS registry subtree contains....
HKEY_ USERS registry subtree contains all the actively loaded user profiles on the computer
