Preflight Flashcards
1
Q
How many hours of cross-country flight time as PIC are required for an instrument rating?
A
50 hours, with 10 hours in an airplane.
2
Q
How many hours of actual or simulated instrument time are required for an instrument rating?
___ hours, with ___ hours from an authorized instructor.
A
40 hours, with 15 hours from an authorized instructor.
3
Q
What specific instrument flight training is required within 2 calendar months before the practical test for an instrument rating?
A
3 hours of instrument flight training in an airplane appropriate to the instrument-airplane rating.
4
Q
What are the cross-country flight requirements for an instrument rating?
A
A cross-country flight of 250 NM with an authorized instructor under IFR, with a flight plan filed, involving an instrument approach at each airport and 3 different kinds of approaches.
5
Q
When is an instrument rating required for a pilot?
“I Can Always See Clear Night Conditions”
I.
C.
At night (when carrying passengers for hire over ___ NM)
S___________ ___________ (between sunset and sunrise)
Conditions below _____________ WX minimums
N.
A
IFR (Instrument Flight Rules)
Class A airspace
At night (when carrying passengers for hire over 50 NM)
Special VFR (between sunset and sunrise)
Conditions below VFR WX minimums
Night (when carrying passengers for hire)
6
Q
What are the recency-of-experience requirements to be PIC under IFR?
A
A flight review, 3 takeoffs and landings in the last 90 days, and within the last 6 months: 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting/tracking courses.
7
Q
Can a pilot use a flight training device for IFR currency without an instructor present?
A
Yes, as long as the device represents the category of aircraft for the instrument rating privileges.
8
Q
Is an instructor required when using a flight simulator for acquiring instrument aeronautical experience?
A
Yes, an authorized instructor must be present to observe and verify the time and content.
9
Q
How can a pilot regain instrument currency if it has lapsed for over 6 months? (Past the grace period)
A
By completing an instrument proficiency check with an examiner, authorized instructor, or FAA-approved person.
10
Q
What is the difference between being “current” and being “proficient” as a pilot?
A
“Current” means meeting minimum FAA requirements, while “proficient” means being capable and competent in conducting a flight.
11
Q
What qualifications must a safety pilot have?
A
At least a private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings and an appropriate medical certificate. If under IFR, the safety pilot must hold an instrument rating and be instrument current.
12
Q
Can a BasicMed authorized pilot act as a safety pilot?
A
Only if the pilot is acting as PIC.
13
Q
Can an instrument-rated pilot fly IFR under BasicMed?
A
Yes, as long as the aircraft is approved for IFR operations and the pilot holds an instrument rating and is instrument current.
14
Q
When can a pilot log instrument time?
A
When operating the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument conditions.
15
Q
What should be included in each logbook entry when logging instrument time?
A
The location and type of each instrument approach and the name of the safety pilot, if required.
16
Q
What conditions must exist to log “actual” instrument flight time?
A
Operating solely by reference to instruments under IMC conditions.
17
Q
What is the definition of “flight time”?
Pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own _____________ for flight and ends when the aircraft comes to _______________ after landing.
A
Pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own power for flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after landing.
18
Q
What requirements must be met before a pilot can log an instrument approach for currency or training?
A
The pilot must operate solely by reference to instruments and be established on each required segment to the MDA or DA/DH.
19
Q
What are the four methods to conduct and log instrument approaches (IAPs)?
___________ instrument conditions,
_____________ instrument conditions with a _____________ pilot,
_____________ instrument conditions in an FAA-approved device,
Or a _____________ of these methods.
A
Actual instrument conditions,
Simulated instrument conditions with a safety pilot,
Simulated instrument conditions in an FAA-approved device,
or a combination of these methods.
20
Q
Is it required to fly the entire approach procedure to log it for currency?
A
No, if radar vectored to the final approach course or cleared by ATC, the pilot can log the IAP.
21
Q
Does the FAA require the ceiling to be at MDA or DA/DH to log an IAP in IMC?
A
No, the pilot can log the IAP if transitioning from IMC to VMC or executing a missed approach at MAP or DA/DH.
22
Q
What does the PAVE checklist help pilots assess during preflight?
A
Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, and External pressures.
23
Q
How does a “personal minimums” checklist help a pilot?
A
It helps control risk by setting limits unique to the pilot’s experience and proficiency.
24
Q
What must a pilot-in-command be familiar with before an IFR flight?
A
NOTAMs, weather, traffic delays, runway lengths, alternatives, fuel requirements, performance data (NWKRAFT).
25
What are the fuel requirements for IFR flight?
Enough fuel to the first airport of intended landing, then to an alternate, plus 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
26
What checks should be made before an IFR flight using GPS?
***"I Don't Need Really Good Navigation Guidance"
***
Each word corresponds to a key check:
**I **-
**D** -
**N **-
**R** -
**G** -
**N **-)
I - Installation (Verify GPS installation)
D - Database (Database currency)
N - NOTAMs (Review NOTAMs)
R - RAIM (RAIM availability)
G - Ground-based NAVAIDs (Ground-based NAVAIDs status)
N - Navigation Guidance (Ensure GPS manuals are onboard)
27
What is RAIM and its function?
Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring ensures adequate GPS signals and alerts the pilot if they do not meet safe navigation criteria.
28
When is a RAIM check required for non-WAAS equipped aircraft?
Before IFR flight to ensure GPS RAIM availability for the intended route.
29
When is a RAIM check required for WAAS-equipped aircraft?
When flying outside the U.S. or where WAAS coverage is not available.
30
What should be done if there is a predicted RAIM outage of more than 5 minutes?
Delay, cancel, or reroute the flight to meet RAIM requirements.
31
Name one method to satisfy the predictive RAIM requirement.
Contact a Flight Service Station for RAIM information.
32
Name another method to satisfy the predictive RAIM requirement.
Use the FAA Service Availability Prediction Tool (SAPT).
33
Name a third method to satisfy the predictive RAIM requirement.
Use a third-party interface incorporating FAA RAIM prediction data.
34
Name a fourth method to satisfy the predictive RAIM requirement.
Use the receiver’s installed RAIM prediction capability.
35
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is airworthy?
The pilot-in-command.
36
What instruments and equipment are required for IFR operations?
Generator/alternator, radios, sensitive altimeter, ball, clock, attitude indicator, rate of turn, directional gyro, DME/RNAV (FL240+).
37
What inspections are required for an aircraft used in IFR operations?
Annual, AD compliance, VOR check (30 days), 100-hour (if for hire/instruction), altimeter/static (24 months), transponder (24 months), ELT (12 months).
38
How do you determine if an aircraft without an MEL is airworthy with inoperative equipment?
Check if the equipment is required by VFR-day type certification, KOEL, 14 CFR 91.205, or ADs.
39
Can portable electronic devices be operated on an aircraft?
Not on air carrier/commercial aircraft or under IFR, except certain devices like voice recorders and pacemakers.
40
Are electronic flight bags (EFBs) approved for use instead of paper charts?
Yes, if the information is current, up-to-date, and a backup is available.
41
What documents are required on board an aircraft before flight?
Airworthiness Certificate, Registration Certificate, Radio Station License (if international), Operating Limitations, Weight and Balance, Compass Deviation Card, External Data Plate/Serial Number.
42
What additional documentation is required for an aircraft with IFR-approved GPS?
Airplane Flight Manual Supplement and Cockpit Reference Guide.
43
How often must GPS databases be updated?
Navigation database every 28 days, obstacle database every 56 days, terrain/airport maps as needed.
44
Can a GPS with an expired database be used for IFR navigation? What specifically can't it be used for?
For enroute IFR operations, if waypoints are verified against a current source. Not for IFR approaches.
45
Can pilots update GPS databases themselves?
Yes, if updates can be done from the flight deck without tools or disassembly.
46
Is an alternate means of navigation required for IFR GPS navigation?
Yes, for non-WAAS equipment; WAAS receivers do not require additional equipment.
47
How can a pilot determine the approved operations for a GPS receiver?
Refer to the FAA-approved AFM and AFM supplements.
48
Can handheld GPS receivers be used for IFR operations?
No, they are only for situational awareness during IFR.
49
What is the function of static discharge wicks on an aircraft?
They reduce ____________ interference from corona discharge caused by precipitation static.
They reduce **radio** interference from corona discharge caused by precipitation static.
50
When must a pilot file an IFR flight plan?
Prior to departure from within or entering controlled airspace if weather is below VFR minimums.
51
When is it mandatory to use the ICAO flight plan format?
For RNAV __________ and _____________, all IFR flights ______________ and recommended for domestic IFR flights.
For RNAV **SIDs** and **STARs**, all IFR flights** departing U.S. airspace,** and recommended for domestic IFR flights.
52
When will ATC delete a departure flight plan not activated?
A minimum of 2 hours after the proposed departure time or EDCT.
53
When can you cancel your IFR flight plan?
Anytime in VFR conditions outside Class A airspace.
54
Can you depart VFR and pick up your IFR clearance in the air?
Yes, but you must maintain VFR, terrain, and obstruction clearance until IFR clearance is received.
55
What altitude does the requested altitude on an IFR flight plan represent?
The planned cruising level for the first or entire portion of the route.
56
What does the planned cruise speed on an ICAO flight plan represent?
The true airspeed for the first or whole cruising portion of the flight.
57
What are the alternate airport requirements for IFR flight?
1-2-3 Rule: If 2,000 ft ceiling and 3 SM visibility from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, no alternate needed; otherwise, alternate minimums apply.
58
How do you determine forecast weather at ETA if there's no Terminal Area Forecast?
Use the Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA) and the Zulu Time slider bar.
59
Do you need to file an alternate if your destination **has no instrument approach procedure** but the weather is good?
Yes, an alternate must be filed if there is no published instrument approach at the destination.
60
Does ATC know your filed alternate airport?
No, alternate information is not presented to controllers. You can divert to a different alternate than filed.
61
What is the definition of "ceiling"?
The ___________ above the ____________ surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena reported as __________, ____________, or _____________.
The **height** above the **Earth's** surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena reported as **broken**, **overcast**, or **obscuration**.
62
What minimums are used on arrival at the alternate airport?
The minimums specified in the published instrument approach procedure for that airport.
63
What restriction applies to filing an alternate with non-WAAS GPS equipment?
The alternate must have an approach procedure that does not require the use of GPS.
64
What approaches can you plan to use at the alternate with WAAS equipment?
Any approach authorized for WAAS avionics, with certain restrictions.
65
What restrictions apply to using **WAAS** **avionics** at the alternate airport?
Flight planning must use __________ or ___________ minima, or non-precision minima for conventional approaches with "or ____" in the title.
Flight planning must use **LNAV** or **circling** minima, or non-precision minima for conventional approaches with "or **GPS**" in the title.
66
What are preferred routes and where can they be found?
Routes between busier airports to increase system efficiency, listed in the Chart Supplement U.S.
67
What information do Enroute Low-Altitude Charts provide?
Navigation under IFR below _______ feet MSL, revised every ____ days, with magnetic courses and nautical mile distances.
Navigation under IFR below **18,000** feet MSL, revised every **56** days, with magnetic courses and nautical mile distances.
68
What information do Enroute **High-Altitude Charts** provide?
Navigation **at or above 18,000 feet MSL**, including ___________ routes, ____________ NAVAIDs, selected airports, revised every ____ days.
Navigation at or above 18,000 feet MSL, including **jet** routes, **VHF** NAVAIDs, selected airports, revised every **56** days.
69
What are area charts used for?
Showing ___________ terminal areas at a ____________ scale, included with subscriptions to U.S. Low charts, revised every ____ days.
Showing **congested** terminal areas at a **large** scale, included with subscriptions to U.S. Low charts, revised every **56** days.
70
Where can updated information about changes to aeronautical charts be found?
Chart Supplement U.S., published every 56 days.
71
What useful information for route planning can be found in the Chart Supplement U.S.?
***"SPAG-FAV"***
Special ____________
P____________ Routes
A____________ Frequencies
GPS ___ Routes
________ Frequencies
A____________ Chart Bulletins
V_____ Checkpoints
"SPAG-FAV"
Special **Notices**
**Preferred** Routes
**ARTCC** Frequencies
GPS **Q** Routes
**FSS** Frequencies
**Aeronautical** Chart Bulletins
**VOR** Checkpoints
72
How does a pilot determine the status of an instrument approach light system at the destination airport?
Check the Chart Supplement U.S. and NOTAMs or consult an FSS briefer.
73
What are NOTAMs?
____________-____________ ____________ information not known sufficiently in advance for chart publication, affecting flight decisions.
**Time-critical aeronautical** information not known sufficiently in advance for chart publication, affecting flight decisions.
74
What is a (D) NOTAM?
Information requiring wide ____________ via telecommunication, about enroute __________, ___________, __________, services, and procedures.
Information requiring wide **dissemination** via telecommunication, about enroute **navaids**, **airports**, **facilities**, services, and procedures.
75
What is an FDC NOTAM?
____________ flight information changes to __________ charts, procedures, and airspace usage.
**Regulatory** flight information changes to **IFR** charts, procedures, and airspace usage.
76
What is a Pointer NOTAM?
____________ or ____________ out another NOTAM, aiding users in cross-referencing important information.
**Highlights** or **points** out another NOTAM, aiding users in cross-referencing important information.
77
What is a Military NOTAM?
Pertains to navigational aids and airports used by U.S. military services.
78
What is an SAA NOTAM?
Issued when Special Activity Airspace will be active outside published times or when required.
79
What keywords might be found in (D) NOTAMs?
RWY, TWY, APRON, AD, OBST, NAV, COM, SVC, AIRSPACE, ODP, SID, STAR, CHART, DATA, IAP, VFP, ROUTE, SPECIAL, SECURITY, (U), (O).
80
Where can NOTAM information be obtained?
FSS, NOTAM search website, flight briefing website, FIS-B via ADS-B In.
81
How can a pilot obtain the latest GPS NOTAMs?
Request from an FSS briefer or check the NOTAM search website.
82
What do the terms “UNRELIABLE” and “MAY NOT BE AVAILABLE” indicate for GPS and WAAS NOTAMs?
Expected ___________ ___________ ___________ might not be available, but pilots can continue operations if GPS service is available.
Expected **level of service** might not be available, but pilots can continue operations if GPS service is available.
83
When flight planning an RNAV route, where should the route begin and end?
Over appropriate arrival and departure ____________ ___________ or navigation aids for the altitude stratum.
Over appropriate arrival and departure **transition fixes** or navigation aids for the altitude stratum.
84
What instruments operate from the pitot/static system?
Altimeter, vertical-speed indicator, and airspeed indicator.
85
How does an altimeter work?
Measures the ___________ ___________ of ambient air using ____________ capsules, displaying it in terms of feet or meters above a selected pressure level.
Measures the **absolute pressure** of ambient air using **aneroid** capsules, displaying it in terms of feet or meters above a selected pressure level.
86
What type of errors is the altimeter subject to?
____________ errors, non-standard _____________ and pressure, extreme _____________ errors, high pressure to low pressure, and low pressure to high pressure.
**Mechanical** errors, non-standard **temperature** and pressure, extreme **cold** errors, high pressure to low pressure, and low pressure to high pressure.
87
What is the maximum allowable error for an altimeter in IFR flight?
If off by more than 75 feet from field elevation with correct pressure set, it is unreliable.
88
Define and state how to determine indicated altitude, true altitude, absolute altitude, pressure altitude, and density altitude.
**Indicated Altitude:**
Read directly from the ___________.
**True Altitude:**
Vertical distance above ____________ ____________ (MSL).
**Absolute Altitude:**
____________ distance above ground level (AGL).
**Pressure Altitude:**
Indicated altitude with altimeter set to ______________.
**Density Altitude:**
____________ altitude corrected for ______________ temperature.
**Indicated Altitude:**
Read directly from the **altimeter**.
**True Altitude:**
Vertical distance above **sea level** (MSL).
**Absolute Altitude:**
**Vertical** distance above ground level (AGL).
**Pressure Altitude:**
Indicated altitude with altimeter set to **29.92 in. Hg**.
**Density Altitude:**
**Pressure** altitude corrected for **nonstandard** temperature.
89
Does adjusting the altimeter’s Kollsman window affect the altitude displayed to ATC? Why?
No, the encoding altimeter sends pressure altitude data to the transponder, unaffected by Kollsman adjustments.
90
How does the airspeed indicator operate?
Measures the difference between ___________ pressure from the ___________ ___________ and atmospheric pressure from the ___________ ___________.
Measures the difference between **ram** pressure from the** pitot tube** and atmospheric pressure from the **static** source.
91
What are the limitations of the airspeed indicator?
It requires proper ____________ in the ____________ ____________ system.
It requires proper **airflow** in the **pitot/static** system.
92
What errors is the airspeed indicator subject to?
**P**_________ error, **D**_________ error, and **C**____________ error.
**Position error, density error, and compressibility error.**
93
What are the different types of aircraft speeds?
Indicated Airspeed (IAS), Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), Equivalent Airspeed (EAS), True Airspeed (TAS).
94
What do the color codes on the airspeed indicator dial indicate?
White arc: flap operating range. Green arc: normal operating range. Yellow arc: caution range. Red line: never exceed speed.
95
How does the vertical-speed indicator work?
Measures rate of ____________ change using an ____________ and a ____________ ______________ to indicate climb or descent.
Measures rate of **pressure** change using an **aneroid** and a **calibrated leak** to indicate climb or descent.
96
What are the limitations of the vertical-speed indicator?
Not accurate until __________; sudden __________ changes cause erroneous readings.
Not accurate until **stabilized**; sudden **attitude** changes cause erroneous readings.
97
What could be the problem if, during a climb, the altimeter and VSI indicate a climb, but the airspeed indicator shows increasing airspeed?
Pitot tube blockage.
98
What might be the problem if the VSI indicates zero, the airspeed indicator is inaccurate, and the altimeter is frozen during a climb?
Static system blockage.
99
What is the approximate freezing level if the air temperature is +6°C at an airport elevation of 1,200 feet with a standard lapse rate?
4,200 MSL.
100
What corrective actions should be taken if the pitot tube or static port freezes?
Pitot tube: Turn on pitot heat. Static port: Use alternate air or break the VSI glass.
101
What instrument indications are expected when using alternate static pressure vented inside the airplane?
**Altimeter:** ____________ than actual altitude.
**Airspeed:** ___________ than actual airspeed.
**VSI:** momentary ____________ then stabilizes.
**Altimeter:** **higher** than actual altitude.
**Airspeed:** **greater** than actual airspeed.
**VSI:** momentary **climb** then stabilizes.
102
What instruments contain gyroscopes?
Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and turn coordinator/indicator.
103
What power sources are commonly used for gyroscopic instruments?
Electrical, pneumatic, venturi tube, wet-type vacuum pump, dry-air pump systems.
104
How does the vacuum system operate?
Spins the ____________ by drawing air against ________________ vanes, like a turbine, typically using an _____________-driven pump.
Spins the **gyro** by drawing air against **rotor** vanes, like a turbine, typically using an **engine**-driven pump.
105
What are two important characteristics of gyroscopes?
Rigidity and precession.
106
How does the turn coordinator operate?
Uses ____________ to indicate direction and _____________ of turn; the ______________ measures slip or skid.
Uses **precession** to indicate direction and **rate** of turn; the **inclonometer** measures slip or skid.
107
What information does the turn coordinator provide?
Rate of ____________, rate of ____________, ____________ of turn, and ____________ of turn (slip or skid).
Rate of **turn**, rate of **roll**, **direction** of turn, and **quality** of turn (slip or skid).
108
What is the power source for the turn coordinator?
Typically electrically powered, but some can be air-driven or dual-powered.
109
How does the heading indicator work?
Uses ____________; the ____________ in a vertical plane keeps the _____________ card fixed relative to the rotor.
Uses **rigidity in space**; the **rotor** in a vertical plane keeps the **compass** card fixed relative to the rotor.
110
What are the limitations of the heading indicator?
Typically, limits are around ____ degrees of ____________ and _____________; it may tumble if exceeded, though many modern instruments do not tumble.
Typically, limits are around **55** degrees of **pitch** and **bank**; it may tumble if exceeded, though many modern instruments do not tumble.
111
What type of error is the heading indicator subject to?
____________, causing it to drift from the set heading, potentially up to ___ degrees per hour.
**Precession**, causing it to drift from the set heading, potentially up to **15** degrees per hour.
112
How does the attitude indicator work?
The ___________ is mounted on a _____________ plane, and the _____________ bar remains fixed relative to the ____________ horizon as the aircraft moves.
The **gyro** is mounted on a **horizontal** plane, and the **horizon** bar remains fixed relative to the **true** horizon as the aircraft moves.
113
What are the limitations of the attitude indicator?
Bank limits are usually ____°-____°, and pitch limits are ____°-_____°. It may tumble if limits are exceeded, though many modern indicators do not tumble.
Bank limits are usually **100°-110°**, and pitch limits are **60°-70°**. It may tumble if limits are exceeded, though many modern indicators do not tumble.
114
Is the attitude indicator subject to errors?
Yes, slight ___________ indication during rapid ____________ and nose-down during rapid _____________; small ____________ and _____________ errors after ____° turns.
Yes, slight **nose-up** indication during rapid **acceleration** and **nose-down** during rapid **deceleration**; small **bank** and **pitch** errors after **180**° turns.
115
How does the magnetic compass work?
Magnets mounted on the compass card align with the Earth's magnetic field.
116
What limitations does the magnetic compass have?
It can tilt and become erratic at bank angles over 18 degrees.
117
What are the various compass errors?
**O**________, **D**________, **V**___________, and _____________ errors (acceleration error and northerly/southerly turning error).
**Oscillation**, **deviation**, **variation**, and **dip** errors (acceleration error and northerly/southerly turning error).
118
What is oscillation error in a magnetic compass?
___________ movement caused by ____________ or ____________ control technique.
**Erratic** movement caused by **turbulence** or **rough** control technique.
119
What is deviation error in a magnetic compass?
Error due to ___________ and ____________ disturbances in the aircraft.
Error due to **electrical** and **magnetic** disturbances in the aircraft.
120
What is variation error in a magnetic compass?
___________ difference between ___________ north and _____________ north.
**Angular** difference between **true** north and **magnetic** north.
121
What is acceleration error in a magnetic compass?
On ____________/_______________ headings, accelerating shows a turn ___________, and decelerating shows a turn __________ (ANDS).
On **east**/**west** headings, accelerating shows a turn **north**, and decelerating shows a turn **south** (ANDS).
122
What is northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?
The compass __________ during a turn to the north due to magnetic dip, requiring correction.
The compass **lags** during a turn to the north due to magnetic dip, requiring correction.
123
What is southerly turning error in a magnetic compass?
The compass __________ during a turn to the south due to magnetic dip, requiring correction.
The compass **leads** during a turn to the south due to magnetic dip, requiring correction.
124
What does PFD stand for and what is its function?
Primary Flight Display; replaces traditional instruments with a digital display showing horizon, airspeed, altitude, etc.
125
What does MFD stand for and what is its function?
Multi-Function Display; shows navigation data, moving maps, and other information, including PFD data if needed.
126
What does AHRS stand for and what is its function?
Attitude and Heading Reference System; provides attitude, heading, and yaw information.
127
What does ADC stand for and what is its function?
__________ ____________ ___________; processes __________ pressure and __________ data to provide altitude, airspeed, and vertical speed.
**Air Data Computer**; processes **air** pressure and **temperature** data to provide altitude, airspeed, and vertical speed.
128
What does FMS stand for and what is its function?
__________ __________ __________; manages __________ routes, approaches, and calculates __________ data like fuel consumption.
**Flight Management System**; manages **navigation** routes, approaches, and calculates **flight** data like fuel consumption.
129
What does FD stand for and what is its function?
__________ __________; provides __________ instructions on the flight display for the pilot to follow.
**Flight Director**; provides **steering** instructions on the flight display for the pilot to follow.
130
What does TAWS stand for and what is its function?
Terrain Awareness and Warning System; warns of potential terrain conflicts using GPS and altimetry data.
131
What does TIS stand for and what is its function?
Traffic Information Service; provides alerts about nearby aircraft using ATC radar data.
132
What is the function of a magnetometer?
Measures the Earth's __________ __________ to determine __________ heading and relays it to the __________.
Measures the Earth's **magnetic field** to determine **aircraft** heading and relays it to the **AHRS**.
133
Does an aircraft have to remain stationary during AHRS initialization?
Some AHRS systems must be initialized on the ground; others can initialize while taxiing or in-flight.
134
What happens to the remaining display if one (PFD or MFD) fails?
The remaining display may revert to show both primary flight instruments and engine instruments.
135
What other systems are affected by a display failure?
Navigation, communication, and GPS capability may be partially lost; refer to AFM/POH.
136
What happens if the ADC fails?
Inoperative_______________, _______________, and _______________ speed indicators, shown by _______________ on the PFD.
Inoperative **airspeed**, **altitude**, and **vertical** speed indicators, shown by **red Xs** on the PFD.
137
What happens if the AHRS fails?
The attitude indicator on the PFD will show an inoperative (red X).
138
How will a magnetometer failure affect the AHRS?
Heading information will be lost.
139
After an alternator failure, how long will the main battery last?
It depends on electrical load and battery condition; it may last an hour or only a few minutes.
140
What is the function of the standby battery in aircraft with electronic flight instrumentation?
Provides power to _____________ systems when the main battery fails, usually keeping the ___________ operational.
Provides power to **essential** systems when the main battery fails, usually keeping the **PFD** operational.
141
After alternator and main battery failure, what items will the standby battery power?
"Always Assume Powerful Navigation Continues Safely"
A____________ (Always)
A____________ (Assume)
P____________ (Powerful)
N____________ radio #1 (Navigation)
C____________ radio #1 (Continues)
S____________ indicator light (Safely)
**AHRS (Always)
ADC (Assume)
PFD (Powerful)
Navigation radio #1 (Navigation)
Communication radio #1 (Continues)
Standby indicator light (Safely)**
142
At what rate does atmospheric pressure decrease with altitude?
Approximately 1" Hg per 1,000 feet.
143
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
15°C and 29.92" Hg.
144
Describe the flow of air around high and low pressure systems in the northern hemisphere.
**Low pressure:** ____________, ____________, ____________.
**High pressure:** ____________, ____________, ______________.
**Low pressure: **inward, upward, counterclockwise.
**High pressure: **outward, downward, clockwise.
145
What weather can you expect when flying towards a low-pressure system? A high-pressure system?
Low pressure: cloudiness, precipitation, bad weather. High pressure: dissipation of cloudiness, good weather.
146
Describe the different types of fronts.
Cold front, occluded front (cold and warm), warm front, stationary front.
147
What weather is typically associated with a cold front? A warm front?
**Cold front:** ___________, heavy ___________, ___________ visibility, ___________ winds, ___________ drop.
**Warm front:** ___________ clouds, ___________, ___________ ceilings, ___________visibility, ___________ rise.
**Cold front:** **cumulonimbus**, heavy **rain**, **poor** visibility, **gusting** winds, **temperature** drop.
**Warm front:** **stratiform** clouds, **drizzle**, **low** ceilings, **poor** visibility, **temperature** rise.
148
What is a "trough"?
An elongated area of ___________ atmospheric pressure, associated with ___________ air, ___________, and ___________.
An elongated area of **low** atmospheric pressure, associated with **rising** air, **cloudiness**, and **precipitation**.
149
What is a "ridge"?
An elongated area of ___________ atmospheric pressure, associated with ___________ air and ___________ weather.
An elongated area of **high** atmospheric pressure, associated with **descending** air and **good** weather.
150
What is a dryline and why is it important?
A boundary separating ___________ and ___________ air masses, often associated with ___________ thunderstorms and ___________ when it moves eastward.
A boundary separating **moist** and **dry** air masses, often associated with **severe** thunderstorms and **tornadoes** when it moves eastward.
151
Why do surface winds generally flow across isobars at an angle?
Due to surface friction.
152
When temperature and dew point are close together, what type of weather is likely?
Visible moisture such as clouds, dew, or fog.
153
What factor primarily determines the type and vertical extent of clouds?
The stability of the atmosphere.
154
Explain the difference between a stable and an unstable atmosphere.
A stable atmosphere ___________ ___________ motion, while an unstable atmosphere allows ___________ air movements, affecting cloud formation and weather patterns.
A stable atmosphere **resists** **vertical** motion, while an unstable atmosphere allows **vertical** air movements, affecting cloud formation and weather patterns.
155
How do you determine the stability of the atmosphere?
Stability is determined by ________ lapse rates; *increasing lapse* rates ________ stability, while *decreasing lapse* rates ___________ stability.
Stability is determined by **temperature** lapse rates; increasing lapse rates **decrease** stability, while decreasing lapse rates **increase** stability.
156
**List the effects of stable and unstable air on clouds, turbulence, precipitation, and visibility.**
***Stable:*** ____________ clouds, ___________ air, steady ____________, _____________ visibility.
***Unstable:*** _____________ clouds, _____________ air, _____________ precipitation, _____________ visibility.
Stable: **stratiform** clouds, **smooth** air, steady **precipitation**, **poor** visibility.
Unstable: **cumuliform** clouds, **turbulent** air, **showery** precipitation, **good** visibility.
157
What are the two main categories of aircraft icing?
Structural icing and induction icing.
158
Name the three types of structural ice that may occur in flight.
Clear icing, rime icing, mixed icing.
159
Describe the types of icing found in stratiform and cumuliform clouds.
Stratiform: _____________ and _____________.
Cumuliform: _____________ or _____________ with rime in upper levels.
Stratiform: **rime** and **mixed**.
Cumuliform: **clear** or **mixed** with rime in upper levels.
160
What is necessary for structural icing to occur?
Visible moisture and temperatures at or below 0°C.
161
What are the intensity categories of aircraft structural icing?
Trace, light, moderate, severe.
162
**During preflight planning, what type of meteorological information should you be aware of with respect to icing?**
*"Freezing Can Form Troublesome Precipitation"*
F_____________ locations (Freezing)
C_____________ layers (Can)
F_____________ levels (Form)
T_____________ and pressure (Troublesome)
P_____________ types and locations (Precipitation)
Front locations (Freezing)
Cloud layers (Can)
Freezing levels (Form)
Temperature and pressure (Troublesome)
Precipitation types and locations (Precipitation)
163
What is the definition of the term “freezing level” and how can you determine where that level is?
The lowest _____________ where the ______________ temperature reaches ___°C. Determined using GFA, PIREPs, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, convective SIGMETs, and other weather charts.
The lowest **altitude** where the **air** temperature reaches **0**°C. Determined using GFA, PIREPs, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, convective SIGMETs, and other weather charts.
164
During preflight planning, how can you mitigate the total risk encountered en route when the possibility of operating in or around icing conditions exists?
Consider climb performance, icing exit strategies, fuel requirements, alternate airports with sufficient runway lengths, and additional fuel for icing systems.
165
What are the factors necessary for a thunderstorm to form and what are the three stages of thunderstorm development?
Sufficient water vapor, unstable lapse rate, lifting action. Stages: cumulus, mature, dissipating.
166
What are “squall line” thunderstorms?
A ___________-_____________, ____________ band of active thunderstorms, often developing ahead of a _____________ front, presenting severe weather hazards to aircraft.
A **non-frontal, narrow** band of active thunderstorms, often developing ahead of a **cold** front, presenting severe weather hazards to aircraft.
167
How does fog form?
When the temperature and dew point of the air become identical or nearly so.
168
Name several types of fog.
Radiation fog, advection fog, upslope fog, frontal fog, steam fog.
169
What causes radiation fog to form?
_____________ sky, little or no _____________, high relative _____________; typically forms at _____________ or near daybreak.
**Clear** sky, little or no **wind**, high relative **humidity**; typically forms at **night** or near daybreak.
170
What is advection fog, and where is it most likely to form?
Fog formed when ____________ air moves over ____________ ground or water, common along ____________ areas and deep in continental areas.
Fog formed when **moist** air moves over **colder** ground or water, common along **coastal** areas and deep in continental areas.
171
Define upslope fog.
Fog formed by ____________, ____________ air being ____________ as it moves up ____________ terrain, common along the eastern slopes of the Rockies.
Fog formed by **moist**, **stable** air being **cooled** as it moves up **sloping** terrain, common along the eastern slopes of the Rockies.
172
How does steam fog form?
When very ____________ air moves over relatively ____________ water, causing ____________ to evaporate and re-condense as rising fog.
When very **cold** air moves over relatively **warm** water, causing **moisture** to evaporate and re-condense as rising fog.
173
**Explain how frontal (or precipitation-induced) fog forms.
**
When ____________, _____________ air over a _____________ causes _____________ and _____________, saturating the cold air below and forming fog.
When **warm**, **moist** air over a **front** causes **clouds** and **precipitation**, saturating the cold air below and forming fog.
174
**Other than fog, what are several other examples of IFR weather producers?
**
Low _____________ (stratus), ___________, ____________, blowing _______________, and ______________.
Low **clouds** (stratus), **haze**, **smoke**, blowing **obstructions**, and **precipitation**.
175
What is the process for obtaining a good weather briefing prior to a flight?
1. Watch TV or check the internet for weather patterns several days prior. 2. Get an outlook briefing the day before. 3. Call Flight Service or use 1800wxbrief for a standard briefing close to departure. 4. Call FSS for an abbreviated briefing just before takeoff if needed.
176
What are some other sources of weather information?
Leidos Flight Services (1800wxbrief.com), private industry sources, and Flight Information Services (FIS-B via ADS-B In).
177
What pertinent information should a weather briefing include?
A VSC END WAN
*"A Very Simple Checklist Ensures No Dangers With A Notam."
*
Breaking it down:
A -
V -
S -
C -
E -
N -
D -
W -
A -
N -
A - Adverse conditions
V - VFR flight not recommended
S - Synopsis
C - Current conditions
E - Enroute forecast
N - NOTAMs
D - Destination forecast
W - Winds aloft
A - ATC delays
N - NOTAMs
178
How can a pilot obtain updated weather information while en route?
FSS on 122.2 or RCO frequency, ATIS/ASOS/AWOS, datalink weather (FIS-B), and ATC (workload permitting).
179
What is Flight Information Service (FIS) and how does it work?
FIS-B is a ground broadcast service provided through ______________ over the 978 MHz UAT data link, offering _____________ and _____________ information to properly-equipped aircraft.
FIS-B is a ground broadcast service provided through **ADS-B** over the 978 MHz UAT data link, offering **weather** and **aeronautical** information to properly-equipped aircraft.
180
What is a METAR?
A METAR is an aviation routine weather report providing weather conditions at a specific site and time, updated hourly. A SPECI is a special weather report for significant weather changes.
181
Describe the basic elements of a METAR.
Type of report, station identifier, date/time, modifier, wind, visibility, RVR, weather phenomena, sky condition, temperature/dew point, altimeter, and remarks.
182
What are some types of weather observing programs?
Manual observations, AWOS, AWOS broadcasts, ASOS/AWSS.
183
What are PIREPs (UA), and where are they usually found?
Pilot reports (PIREPs) provide real-time in-flight weather conditions. Available from ATC, FSS, and online at aviationweather.gov/airep.
184
What is a terminal aerodrome forecast (TAF)?
A concise statement of expected meteorological conditions significant to aviation within a _____ SM radius from an airport's runway complex, using METAR weather code.
A concise statement of expected meteorological conditions significant to aviation within a **5** SM radius from an airport's runway complex, using METAR weather code.
185
Describe the basic format of a TAF.
"TIDV Forecast With Sky Changes"
**Type of** ____________
**I**____________ station ID
**D**____________ /** T**____________ of origin
**V**____________ period
____________ **details**
With W_____________ V_______________ weather
S______________ Condition
**Change** indicators
T - Type of **report**
I - **ICAO** station identifier
D - **Date**/**time** of origin
V - **Valid** period
Forecast - **Forecast** details
With - **Wind, visibility, weather**
Sky - **Sky** condition
Changes - Change indicators
186
What is an aviation area forecast?
A ____________ ____________ forecast for enroute weather over a specified ____________, issued for the Gulf of Mexico, the Caribbean Sea, and Alaska, covering ____-____ hours.
A **plain language** forecast for enroute weather over a specified **region**, issued for the Gulf of Mexico, the Caribbean Sea, and Alaska, covering **18-24** hours.
187
Describe the Graphical Forecast for Aviation (GFA).
Web-based graphics providing _____________, _____________, and _____________ from ____ hours in the past to ____ hours in the future for the CONUS, up to FL480.
Web-based graphics providing **observations**, **forecasts**, and **warnings** from **14** hours in the past to **15** hours in the future for the CONUS, up to FL480.
188
What forecasts are available under the “Forecast” tab of the GFA?
"TCC PTT WI"
"The Captain Checks Pilots To Trust Weather Info"
T -
C -
C -
**P - PCPN/WX**
T - TS (______________)
T -
W -
I -
**T - TAF
C - CIG/VIS
C - Clouds
P - PCPN/WX
T - TS (Thunderstorms)
T - Turbulence
W - Winds
I - Ice**
189
What weather products are available under the "Observations/Warning" tab of the GFA?
"MPC PR"
"My Pilots Check Precipitation Radar"
**METAR, PCPN/WX, CIG/VIS, PIREP, RAD/SAT.**
190
What are the four types of Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories?
SIGMET (WS), convective SIGMET (WST), AIRMET (WA), and Center Weather Advisory (CWA).
191
What is a convective SIGMET?
A convective SIGMET implies severe or greater _______________, severe _______________, and low-level _______________ _______________ due to severe thunderstorms, _______________ thunderstorms, a line of thunderstorms, or heavy precipitation affecting _____%+ of an area.
A convective SIGMET implies severe or greater **turbulence**, severe **icing**, and low-level **wind** shear due to severe thunderstorms, **embedded** thunderstorms, a line of thunderstorms, or heavy precipitation affecting **40**%+ of an area.
192
What is a SIGMET?
A SIGMET advises of ***non-convective*** weather hazardous to all aircraft, such as severe _______________, _______________, _______________ storms, _______________, and _______________ ash.
A SIGMET advises of non-convective weather hazardous to all aircraft, such as severe **icing**, **turbulence**, **dust** storms, **sandstorms**, and **volcanic** ash.
193
What is an AIRMET?
An advisory of significant weather at lower intensities than SIGMETs, including IFR, mountain obscuration, turbulence, surface winds, icing, and freezing levels.
194
What are the different types of AIRMETs?
AIRMET Sierra (IFR and mountain obscuration), AIRMET Tango (turbulence and strong winds), AIRMET Zulu (icing and freezing levels).
195
What is a G-AIRMET?
A _______________ _______________ of weather hazards less severe than SIGMETs, issued at regular intervals, showing _______________, _______________, _______________, _______________ obscurations, and more.
A **graphical advisory** of weather hazards less severe than SIGMETs, issued at regular intervals, showing **turbulence, icing, IFR, mountain obscurations**, and more.
196
What is a winds and temperatures aloft forecast (FB)?
A forecast of wind direction, wind speed, and temperature at specified times, altitudes, and locations, produced four times daily for various regions.
197
What valuable information can be determined from a winds and temperatures aloft forecast?
Most favorable altitude, areas of possible icing, temperature inversions, turbulence.
198
What is a Center Weather Advisory (CWA)?
An aviation warning for adverse weather conditions expected within the next 2 hours, valid for a maximum of 2 hours.
199
Give examples of weather charts you will use during the flight planning process.
Surface Analysis Chart, Weather Depiction Chart, Significant Weather Prognostic Chart, Short-Range Surface Prognostic Chart, Convective Outlook Chart, Constant Pressure Analysis Chart, Freezing Level Graphics.
200
What is a surface analysis chart?
A charted analysis of surface weather observations, depicting sea-level pressure, positions of highs, lows, ridges, troughs, fronts, and boundaries like drylines.
201
Describe a ceiling and visibility analysis (CVA).
A real-time analysis of current ceiling and visibility conditions across the CONUS, updated every 5 minutes, providing ceiling height, surface visibility, and flight category designation.
202
Define the terms: LIFR, IFR, MVFR, and VFR.
LIFR: ceiling <500 feet and/or visibility <1 mile. IFR: ceiling 500 to <1,000 feet and/or visibility 1 to <3 miles. MVFR: ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles. VFR: ceiling >3,000 feet and visibility >5 miles.
203
What are Short-Range Surface Prognostic charts?
Charts providing a forecast of surface pressure systems, fronts, and precipitation for 2-1/2 days, issued four times daily, covering the 48 contiguous states and coastal waters.
204
Describe a U.S. Low-Level Significant Weather Prog chart.
A forecast of aviation weather hazards for the continental U.S. and coastal waters up to FL240, depicting weather categories, turbulence, and freezing levels, issued four times daily.
205
Describe a Mid-Level Significant Weather (SIGWX) chart.
A chart providing a forecast of significant enroute weather phenomena from 10,000 feet MSL to FL450, depicting hazardous weather elements, issued four times daily.
206
What information may be obtained from the U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prog charts?
Forecasts of significant enroute weather phenomena from FL250 to FL630, including thunderstorms, turbulence, icing, jet streams, and other hazards, issued four times daily.
207
What is a convective outlook chart?
A chart providing the potential for severe and non-severe convection over the next 8 days, including tornadoes, wind gusts, and hail threats, issued by the SPC.
208
What are constant pressure level forecasts?
Forecasts depicting weather (e.g., wind) at specified constant pressure levels, used to provide an overview of weather patterns and jet stream locations, issued four times daily.
209
Describe a constant pressure level forecast.
A computer model depiction of weather patterns at specified pressure levels, showing wind direction, wind speed, and temperature, used to understand weather patterns and jet streams.
210
What significance do height contour lines have on a constant pressure chart?
Contours depict highs, lows, troughs, and ridges aloft, with closely spaced contours indicating strong winds.
211
What significance do isotherms have on a constant pressure chart?
Isotherms show horizontal temperature variations, helping to determine if the flight will encounter warmer or colder air and possible icing conditions.
212
What is the significance of the isotach lines on a constant pressure chart?
Isotachs show constant wind speed, separating higher from lower speeds, and highlighting strong wind gradients and zones.
213
What information does a freezing level graphics chart provide?
It shows the height in hundreds of feet MSL of the lowest freezing levels, updated hourly, with forecast graphics updated every three hours.
214
What information can a pilot obtain from current and forecast icing products (CIP and FIP)?
CIP provides hourly diagnoses of icing conditions; FIP provides three-dimensional forecasts of icing potential, updated hourly for up to 3 hours into the future.
