PRELIM Flashcards
(133 cards)
1
Q
Containment principles, technologies and practices that are implemented to prevent unintentional exposure to biological agents or their inadvertent release.
A
BIOSAFETY
2
Q
Principles, technologies and practices that are implemented for the protection, control and accountability of biological materials and/or the equipment, skills and data related to their handling. It aims to prevent their unauthorized access, loss, theft, misuse, diversion or release.
A
BIOSECURITY
3
Q
describes safe methods for managing infectious materials in the laboratory environment where they are being handled or maintained.
*To reduce exposure
A
CONTAINMENT
4
Q
Not known to constantly cause disease to adults, not too harmful. What biosafety level is this?
A
bsl 1
5
Q
microbes in this bsl has a pose moderate potential hazard
A
bsl 2
6
Q
it describes safe
methods for managing infectious
materials in the laboratory
environment where they are being
handled or maintained.
A
containment
7
Q
WHAT BSL LEVEL;
Exotic agents that pose a high risk of
aerosol-transmitted laboratory infections and
life-threatening disease that is frequently fatal,
for which there are no vaccines or treatments.
A
BSL 4
8
Q
WHAT BSL LEVEL
-Air-supplied positive pressure suit that covers
the full body must be worn.
-Examples:
Ebola virus, Smallpox Virus, Marburg viruses
A
BSL 4
9
Q
WHAT BSL LEVEL//?
Indigenous or exotic microbes that may cause
serious or potentially lethal disease via
inhalation.
A
BSL 3
10
Q
WHAT BSL
Examples:
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Covid-19 virus,
HIV, H1N1, Yersinia pestis, SARS, rabies,
West Nile viruses, and Rickettsia.
A
BSL 3
11
Q
WHAT BSL
➢ Microbes pose moderate potential hazard to
personnel and the environment.
➢ Varying severity
➢ The microbes usually infect humans and
produce diseases of different degrees of
severity.
➢ They include microorganisms that cause mild
symptoms to human or are not usually
acquired through airborne particles in a
laboratory environment.
A
BSL 2
12
Q
WHAT BSL
Examples:
Staphylococcus aureus, Chlamydiae,
Hepatitis A, B, and C, Influenza A,
Salmonella, Mumps, and Measles.
A
BSL 2
13
Q
COV 2 specimen, it must be processed within a
BSL-__ – follow BSL procedures.
A
BSL 3
14
Q
If the skin or face is accidentally splattered
by corrosive or harmful chemicals, bacterial or
cell culture
✓ Immediately use emergency safety
shower and flush skin or face with
water for at least __ minutes, if eyes
are affected use the eyewash station.
A
15 MINS
15
Q
Used agar or any solid material (petri dishes,
pipette tips, toothpicks, cuvettes, soaked paper
towel, etc.)
o should be autoclaved at 121°C for __
min under __ psi.
A
3O MINS UNDER 15 PSI
16
Q
_________ must be disinfected with 10% bleach
solution 30 min or autoclaved at 121°C for 30
min at 15 psi, and subsequently discarded on
the sink.
A
CULTURES
17
Q
SOLID WASTE
o has to be autoclaved in special
biohazard bags at ___°C for __ min.
A
121°C for 20 min
18
Q
LIQUID WASTE
o Either disinfected with 10% ______
solution 30 min,
- Can also be 10% Clorox
o Or autoclaved at 121°C for 20 min,
and then poured down the sink.
A
o Either disinfected with 10% bleach
solution 30 min,
19
Q
T OR F
Most buffers can be poured down the
sink.
A
TRUEW
20
Q
an unbranched polymer
in which the monomer units are
nucleotides.
A
nucleic acid
21
Q
a three-subunit molecule in which a
pentose sugar is bonded to a phosphate group and a nitrogen-containing heterocyclic base.
A
nucleotide
22
Q
3 PYRIMIDINE DERIVATIVES FOUND IN
NUCLEOTIDES:
A
- Thymine (T)
- Cytosine (C)
- Uracil (U)
23
Q
2 PURINE DERIVATIVES FOUND IN
NUCLEOTIDES:
A
- Adenine (A)
- Guanine (G)
24
Q
Adenine, Guanine, and Cytosine can be found in both DNA and RNA.
t or f
A
true !
25
Uracil can be found in DNA
FALSE! URACIL IS ONLY FOUND IN RNA !!
26
DNA OR RNA:
THYMINE?
DNA
27
It is the third component of a nucleotide
phosphate
28
the pentose sugar and nitrogen-
containing base react to form a two-
subunit entity called a _________.
nucleoside (sa nucleotide formation 2 guys eto yung first step process :> )
29
Addition of a phosphate group to a
nucleoside produces a ____________
nucleotide
30
The nucleotide units within a nucleic acid
molecule are linked to each other through:
* sugar–phosphate bonds
31
They gave an explanation for the base
composition patterns associated with
DNA molecules
▪ American microbiologist: James Watson
▪ English biophysicist: Francis Crick.
32
The 2 strands in DNA are connected by ___________________
between their bases.
hydrogen bonds
33
A physical restriction, the size of the interior
of the DNA double helix, limits the base pairs
that can hydrogen-bond to one another.
BASE PAIRING
34
➢ are pairs of bases in a nucleic acid
structure that can hydrogen-bond to
each other.
COMPLEMENTARY BASES
35
is the biochemical process by which DNA
molecules produce exact duplicates of
themselves.
DNA REPLICATION
36
This enzyme
* verifies that the base pairing is
correct
* and then catalyzes the formation of a
new phosphodiester linkage between
the nucleotide and the growing
strand.
dna polymerase
37
PRIMERS are produced by
DNA PRIMASE
38
The breaks or gaps in this daughter strand
are called _____
NICKS
39
The strand that grows continuously is called
the?
leading strand
40
The process of DNA unwinding does not have
to begin at an end of the DNA molecule. It
may occur at any location within the molecule.
T OR F
TRUEW
41
➢ is an individual DNA molecule bound to a
group of proteins.
CHROMOSOMES
42
Once the DNA within a cell has been
replicated, it interacts with specific proteins in
the cell called ______ to form structural
units that provide the most stable
arrangement for the long DNA molecules.
HISTONES
43
consists of a purine or a pyrimidine
base that is covalently bonded to a
sugar.
NUCLEOSIDES
44
➢ The chemical bond that connects all
nucleotides together to form a nucleic
acid molecule.
3’,5’-PHOSPHODIESTER BOND
45
➢ necessary to initiate DNA replication
RNA PRIMERS
46
▪ unravels the DNA double
strands
DNA helicase
47
▪ stabilizes the unwound regions
as replication proceeds, this
protects the single-stranded
DNA from exonuclease
attacks.
Single-Stranded DNA Binding Protein
(SSB)
48
▪ is necessary to facilitate the
unwinding of the twisted DNA
without breaking the strands.
DNA topoisomerase I
49
➢ is RNA formed directly by DNA
transcription
HETEROGENEOUS NUCLEAR RNA (hnRNA)
50
➢ is RNA that carries instructions for
protein synthesis (genetic information)
to the sites for protein synthesis.
MESSENGER RNA (mRNA)
51
➢ is RNA that facilitates the conversion
of heterogeneous nuclear RNA to
messenger RNA.
SMALL NUCLEAR RNA (snRNA)
52
➢ is RNA that combines with specific
proteins to form ribosomes
RIBOSOMAL RNA (rRNA)
53
➢ is RNA that delivers amino acids to the
sites for protein synthesis
TRANSFER RNA (tRNA)
54
the process by which DNA directs
the synthesis of hnRNA/mRNA
molecules that carry the coded
information needed for protein
synthesis.
TRANSCRIPTION
55
IT carry the coded
information needed for
protein synthesis.
hnRNA/mRNA
56
It helps the conversion of
hnRNA to mRNA
snRNA
57
o is involved in the linkage of
ribonucleotides to the
growing hnRNA molecule.
RNA polymerase
58
➢ The RNA produced from a gene through
transcription is _____, the precursor for
mRNA
hnRNA
59
Is a gene segment that conveys
(codes for) genetic information.
exon
60
➢ a gene segment that does not convey
(code for) genetic information.
INTRON
61
➢ is the process of removing introns
from an hnRNA molecule
➢ joining the remaining exons together
to form an mRNA molecule.
splicing
62
➢ is always found complexed with
proteins in particles called small
nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles
* which are usually called
snRNPs (snurps)
snRNA MOLECULE
63
➢ is a large assembly of snRNA
molecules
➢ and proteins involved in the
conversion of hnRNA molecules to
mRNA molecules.
SPLICEOSOME
64
is a process by which several different
proteins that are variations of a basic
structural motif can be produced from a
single gene.
* End product is the variation of the
gene
alternative splicing
65
➢ is a three-nucleotide sequence in an
mRNA molecule that codes for a
specific amino acid.
➔ CODON
66
➢ is the assignment of the 64 mRNA
codons to specific
GENETIC CODE
67
There is a pattern to the arrangement of
synonyms in the genetic code table.
t or f?
true ! - Left side is the first letters
- upper part is the second letters
- right side is for the third letters
68
Has an active site
for tRNA and a
binding site for the
particular amino acid
that is to be
attached to the
tRNA
Aminoacyl-tRNA
synthetase
69
a three-
nucleotide sequence on a
tRNA molecule that
is complementary
to a codon on an
mRNA molecule.
anticodon
70
the process by which mRNA
codons are deciphered in a
particular protein
translation
71
Next to the P site in an mRNA–ribosome
complex is a second binding site called
* the A site (aminoacyl site)
72
➢ is the part of translation in which a
ribosome moves down an mRNA
molecule three base positions (one
codon) so that a new codon can
TRANSLOCATION
73
step 1 in translation phase
activation of tRNA
74
step 2 in translation phase
➢ The mRNA attaches to a ribosome so that
the first codon (AUG) is at the P site.
➢ A tRNA carrying methionine attaches to a
first codon.
initiation
75
➢ Another tRNA with the second amino acid
binds at the A site.
➢ The methionine transfers from P site to the
A site.
➢ The ribosome shifts to the next codon,
making its A site available for the tRNA
carrying the third amino acid.
step 3 in translation phase
elongation
76
step 4 & 5 in translation phase
➢ The polypeptide chain continues to
lengthen until a stop codon appears on the
mRNA.
➢ The new protein is cleaved from the last
tRNA.
➢ During this post-translation processing,
cleavage of Met (the initiation codon)
usually occurs.
➢ S-S bonds between Cys units can also
form
TERMINATION AND POST-
TRANSLATION PROCESSING
77
a complex of mRNA and several
ribosomes.
polyribosome
78
➢ is an error in base sequence in a gene that is
reproduced during DNA replication.
➢ Passed on during transcription
mutation
79
- a substance or agent that causes a
change in the structure of a gene.
MUTAGEN
80
common type of mutation is a
point mutation
81
a mutation in which one
nucleotide is substituted for
another.
point mutation
82
➢ From the original sequence, a
nucleotide was replaced by a
different nucleotide
➢ So instead of cytosine, the mutated
sequence produced thymine
(type of mutation)
substitution
83
➢ There is a substitution in one
nucleotide of a codon. But the
sequence still produced the same
amino acid
silent mutation
84
➢ There is an amino acid substitution.
The change in nucleotide resulted to a
change in the amino acid
missense
85
➢ The substitution resulted to having a
stop codon
nonsense
86
➢ Is a procedure used to isolate DNA from the
nucleus of cells from other cellular
components
dna extraction
87
- remove proteinaceous
material
phenol/chloroform
88
examples of organic extraction reagent are ?
* Cell lysis Buffer
* EDTA
* Proteinase K
* Phenol/ chloroform
* TE buffer
* Ethanol
89
In inorganic DNA extraction, Digested proteins are removed by ?
salting out
90
Relies on the fact that the nucleic acids may
bind (adsorption) to the solid phase (silica or
other)
➢ A spin column using a silica-based
extraction method is used, this does not
require the use of hazardous chemicals.
minicolumn purification
91
are attracted to the silica bead
under high chaotropic salt concentrations
nucleic acids
92
Degrades single stranded RNA
RNAse (ThermoFisher)
93
dissolves RNAse
buffer 1
94
digests proteins
proteinase K
95
SEPARATE DNA FROM OTHER CELLULAR
PHENOL, CHLOROFORM
96
PRECIPITATES DNA FROM SOLUTION
ETHANOL
97
DISSOLVES PRECIPITATED AND DRIED DNA
TRIS-EDTA
98
The most frequently used method Of
concentration is
- ethanol precipitation
99
With a pure sample of DNA, the ratio of the
absorbance at ___ nm and 280 nm
equals 1.8
260
100
➢ Common laboratory contaminant
➢ Also released from cellular components
during isolation of RNA from biological
samples
➢ Difficult to inactivate
RNases
101
is a ready-to-use reagent used for
RNA isolation from cells and tissues.
➢ It works by maintaining RNA integrity during
tissue homogenization, while at the same time
disrupting and breaking down cells and cell
components.
➢ Is light sensitive and often stored in a dark-
colored, glass container covered in foil
TRIzol reagent
102
Proteins/DNA
* are precipitated with a ____
concentration salt solution
high
103
➢ RNA
* is precipitated with _______ and
rehydrated
alcohol
104
* utilize membranes that are seated at
the bottom of a small plastic basket
Filter-based formats
105
In UV Spectroscopy, the A260/A280 ratio is used to assess
?
RNA purity
106
In UV Spectroscopy, An A260/A280 ratio of 2.0 indicates
what?
indicates highly purified RNA
107
the application of practices that will protect,
regulate, and account for microorganisms
held in the laboratory that will avert their
misuse, loss, illicit access, pilfering, or
deliberate release
LAB BIOSECURITY
108
➔ The practice of precautionary measures to
minimize possible exposure of the laboratory
worker to hazards coming from materials that
are potentially infectious.
➔ This applies to the reduction of possibility of
contamination of the workplace, and
eventually the population.
LAB BIOSAFETY
109
- the space must have a
window, where specimen can
pass through from outside to
inside reception
* Specimen reception
110
Provides a physical method of
sterilization by killing bacteria, viruses,
and even spores present in the material
put inside of the vessel using steam
under pressure.
AUTOCLAVE
111
o A closed device primarily for processes
or instruments sensitive to microbial
contamination
LAMINAR FLOW/ LAMINAR HOOD
112
o Simple device used commonly in
laboratories to mix small vials of
liquid.
VORTEX MIXER
113
o It is a compact type of centrifuge ideal
for separating small liquid samples at
high speed (usually more than 6,000
rpm).
MICRO CENTRIFUGE
114
o For quick spin-downs of 5ml
centrifuge tubes
o Includes adapters for 12x75mm tubes
o Conserves valuable bench space
o Starts and stops with closing/opening
of the lid
MINI CENTRIFUGE
115
o a procedure that separates
components of liquids that
have different weights.
Centrifugation
116
o designed for small
tubes of between 0.2
mL and 2.0 mL.
Microcentrifuge
117
➢ Instrument used to measure how much
a chemical substance absorbs light
by measuring the intensity of light as
beam of light passes through sample
solution.
SPECTROPHOTOMETER
118
➢ used to amplify (like a photocopier) a
specific region of any DNA sample
with polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
in a test tube
THERMOCYCLER
119
➢ used in molecular biology to separate
charged molecules such as DNA, RNA,
or proteins using an electric field.
ELECTROPHORESIS APPARATUS
120
➢ an apparatus used for viewing DNA or
protein molecules separated by:
* agarose or polyacrylamide
UV TRANSILLUMINATOR
121
A is a measure of a substance's capacity to absorb light at a
given wavelength. It is equal to the logarithm of the reciprocal of the transmittance. It is also called optical density.
* It states that a substance's concentration is directly
proportional to the amount of light absorbed or inversely proportional to the transmitted light logarithm
absorbance
122
A mathematical relationship which is the basis of analysis
using spectrophotometry. It states that the amount of light absorbed by a substance is directly proportional to its concentration
beer's law
123
A tube that holds the solution to be analyzed using a
spectrophotometer. It is manufactured to strict standards for clarity and lack of distortion in the glass
cuvette
124
A device which isolates the wavelength of interest in the
electromagnetic spectrum. This can be made up of colored glass filters, interference filters, prisms or diffraction gratings
monochromator
125
A device that converts radiant energy to electrical energy.
Types of photodetectors are photocell, phototube, and photomultiplier tube
photo detector
126
A solution which contains some of all the reagents used in the
test except the substance being tested
reagent blank
127
is a graph which show
the relationship between concentrations and absorbances (or percent transmittances) of a series of standard solutions
standard curve
128
A measure of how much light passes through a substance
transmittance
129
Introduced by Mary Lou Pardue and Joseph Gall at Yale
University in 1969.
* In this technique, fluorescently labeled DNA probes are used to screen the interphase or metaphase spread of chromosomes on a glass slide
Fluorescence In-Situ Hybridization (FISH
130
This technique was developed in 1977 by
James Alwine, David Kemp, and George Stark at Stanford University
northern blot
131
The probe is a single-stranded DNA, where as the
target is usually RNA.
* It is also known as RNA plot is a technique used in
molecular biology research to study gene expression
northern blot
132
can* There is blotting step and hybridization step.
* Both the probe and target nucleic acid or DNA.
* It used to detect the presence of the specific DNA by blotting technique with the use of DNA probes.
* It refers to the technique of transferring DNA
southern blot
133
the double stranded formation or annealing
between two different single strands of DNA or RNA, due to complementary base pairing regions of these two nucleic acids
hybridization
