Prelim Flashcards

INDUSTRIAL/ORGANIZATIONAL PSYCHOLOGY (124 cards)

1
Q

Focuses on determining the competencies needed to perform a job.

A. ORGANIZATIONAL APPROACH
B. INDUSTRIAL APPROACH
C. INDUSTRY
D. ORGANIZATIONAL PSYCHOLOGY

A

B. INDUSTRIAL APPROACH

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2
Q

Creates an organizational structure and culture that will motivate the employees to perform well.

A. ORGANIZATIONAL APPROACH
B. INDUSTRIAL APPROACH
C. INDUSTRY
D. ORGANIZATIONAL PSYCHOLOGY

A

A. ORGANIZATIONAL APPROACH

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3
Q

The field of study that concentrates on the selection and evaluation of employees.

A. Industrial Psychology
B. Human factors/Ergonomics
C. Organizational Psychology
D. Personnel Psychology

A

D. Personnel Psychology

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4
Q

The field of study that investigates the behavior of employees within the
context of an organization.

A. Industrial Psychology
B. Human factors/Ergonomics
C. Organizational Psychology
D. Personnel Psychology

A

C. Organizational Psychology

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5
Q

The field of study that concentrates on the interaction between humans and the machines.

A. Industrial Psychology
B. Human factors/Ergonomics
C. Organizational Psychology
D. Personnel Psychology

A

B. Human Factors/Ergonomics

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6
Q

who published the Theory of Advertising and Increasing Human Efficiency in Business?

A. Hugo Munsterberg
B. Bruce Moore and Merril Ream
C. Walter Dill Scott
D. Morris Viteles

A

C. Walter Dill Scott

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7
Q

Who published Psychology and Industrial Efficiency?

A. Hugo Munsterberg
B. Bruce Moore and Merril Ream
C. Walter Dill Scott
D. Morris Viteles

A

A. Hugo Munsterberg

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8
Q

First to be awarded Ph. D. in I/O Psychology

A. Hugo Munsterberg
B. Bruce Moore and Merril Ream
C. Walter Dill Scott
D. Morris Viteles

A

B. Bruce Moore and Merril Ream

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9
Q

First author to write a text on I/O

A. Hugo Munsterberg
B. Bruce Moore and Merril Ream
C. Walter Dill Scott
D. Morris Viteles

A

D. Morris Viteles

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10
Q

first woman president of Division 14 of APA’

A. Michelle Obama
B. Marion Bills

A

B. Marion Bills

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11
Q

foundation of almost all human resource activities

A. Job Analysis
B. Job Descriptions
C. Job Appraisal
D. Peter Principle

A

A. Job Analysis

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12
Q

Summary of the tasks and job requirements found in the job analysis.

A. Job Analysis
B. Job Descriptions
C. Job Appraisal
D. Peter Principle

A

B. Job Descriptions

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13
Q

determine whether a particular applicant possesses the necessary knowledge, skills, and abilities to carry out the requirements of the job.

A. Job Classification
B. Performance Appraisal
C. Employee Selection
D. Performance Classification
E. Personpower Planning

A

C. Employee Selection

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14
Q

to determine worker mobility within an organization.

A. Job Classification
B. Performance Appraisal
C. Employee Selection
D. Performance Classification
E. Personpower Planning

A

E. Personpower Planning

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15
Q

promoting employees until they eventually reach their highest level of incompetence

A. Job Analysis
B. Job Descriptions
C. Job Appraisal
D. Peter Principle

A

D. Peter Principle

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16
Q

the evaluation of employee performance must be job related.

A. Job Classification
B. Performance Appraisal
C. Employee Selection
D. Performance Classification
E. Personpower Planning

A

B. Performance Appraisal

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17
Q

to classify jobs into groups based on similarities in requirements and duties, useful for determining pay levels, transfers, and promotions.

A. Job Classification
B. Performance Appraisal
C. Employee Selection
D. Performance Classification
E. Personpower Planning

A

A. Job Classification

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18
Q

to determine the worth of a job

A. JOB DESIGN
B. JOB EVALUATION
C. JOB COMPLIANCE
D. JOB CLASSIFICATION

A

B. JOB EVALUATION

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19
Q

used to determine the optimal way in which a job should be performed.

A. JOB DESIGN
B. JOB EVALUATION
C. JOB COMPLIANCE
D. JOB CLASSIFICATION

A

A. JOB DESIGN

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20
Q

An accurate title describes the nature of the job, it also aids in employee selection and recruitment.

A. JOB COMPETENCIES
B. WORK PERFORMANCE
C. COMPENSATION INFORMATION
D. JOB DESCRIPTION
E. JOB TITLE

A

E. JOB TITLE

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21
Q

only a paragraph in length but should briefly describe the nature and purpose of the job.

A. JOB ABSTRACT
B. JOB OBJECTIVES
C. BRIEF SUMMARY
D. BOTH B AND C

A

D. BOTH B AND C

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22
Q

lists the tasks and activities in which the worker is involved.

A. WORK ACTIVITIES
B. JOB CONTEXT
C. TOOLS AND EQUIPMENTS USED
D. WORK ACTIVITIES

A

A. WORK ACTIVITIES

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23
Q

lists all the tools and equipment used to perform the work activities in the previous section.

A. WORK ACTIVITIES
B. JOB CONTEXT
C. TOOLS AND EQUIPMENTS USED
D. WORK ACTIVITIES

A

C. TOOLS AND EQUIPMENTS USED

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24
Q

describe the environment in which the employee works and should mention stress level, work schedule, physical demands, level of responsibility, temperature, number of coworkers, degree of danger, and any other relevant information.

A. WORK ACTIVITIES
B. JOB CONTEXT
C. TOOLS AND EQUIPMENTS USED
D. WORK ACTIVITIES

A

B. JOB CONTEXT

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25
should outline standards of performance. A. JOB COMPETENCIES B. WORK PERFORMANCE C. COMPENSATION INFORMATION D. JOB DESCRIPTION E. JOB TITLE
B. WORK PERFORMANCE
26
contain information on the salary grade, whether the position is exempt, and the compensable factors used to determine salary. A. JOB COMPETENCIES B. WORK PERFORMANCE C. COMPENSATION INFORMATION D. JOB DESCRIPTION E. JOB TITLE
C. COMPENSATION INFORMATION
27
Josh is a hiring manager selecting candidates for a high-risk security position. Which selection method would provide the most reliable predictor of job performance? a) Unstructured interviews b) Graphology analysis c) Cognitive ability tests d) Employee referrals
c) Cognitive ability tests
28
the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) (such as interest, personality, and training) that are necessary to be successful on the job. A. JOB COMPETENCIES B. WORK PERFORMANCE C. COMPENSATION INFORMATION D. JOB DESCRIPTION E. JOB TITLE
A. JOB COMPETENCIES
29
WHO WILL CONDUCT JOB ANALYSIS? A. a trained individual in the human resources department B. job incumbents and outside consultants C. supervisors D. All of the above
D. All of the above
30
HOW OFTEN SHOULD A JOB DESCRIPTION BE UPDATED? A. When the previous employee quits B. If the minimum wage changes C. When the job fires an employee D. If a job changes significantly.
D. If a job changes significantly.
31
Cha applied for a job requiring high levels of problem-solving and adaptability. Which selection test is most appropriate? a) Integrity test b) Work sample test c) Job knowledge test d) Biodata test
b) Work sample test
32
the informal changes that employees make in their jobs. A. job crafting B. Minecraft C. job revision d. rewrite
A. job crafting
33
a group of subject matter experts (e.g., employees, supervisors) meet to generate the tasks performed, the conditions under which they are performed, and the KSAOs needed to perform them. A. Evaluation-based job analysis B. Committee-based job analysis C. Analysis-based job analysis D. Field-based job analysis
B. Committee-based job analysis
34
An organization using Realistic Job Previews (RJPs) aims to: a) Ensure only the most skilled candidates apply b) Increase employee retention by setting accurate expectations c) Discourage unqualified candidates from applying d) Shorten the recruitment process
b) Increase employee retention by setting accurate expectations
35
the job analyst individually interviews/observes a number of incumbents out in the field. Taken together, the results of four studies suggest that committee-based job analyses yield similar results to field-based job analyses. A. Evaluation-based job analysis B. Committee-based job analysis C. Analysis-based job analysis D. Field-based job analysis
D. Field-based job analysis
36
The goal of most job analyses 1. Identify the tasks performed in a job 2. Identify the conditions under which the tasks are performed 3. Determine the demand for the job 4. Determine the KSAOs needed to perform the task 5. Identify the necessary competence to accomplish the job A. 1,2, and 3 C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, and 4 E. 1, 3, and 4
D. 1, 2, and 4
37
The first step in conducting a job analysis is to A. Identify the major job dimensions and the tasks performed for each dimension B. Gather Existing Information C. Establishing rapport D. Asking open-ended questions
A. Identify the major job dimensions and the tasks performed for each dimension
38
using a group of SMEs to rate each task statement on the frequency and the importance or criticality of the task being performed. A. Task Statement B. Task Analysis C. Task Range D. Task Frequency
B. Task analysis
39
A structured interview differs from an unstructured interview because it: a) Uses different questions for each applicant b) Focuses only on technical skills c) Provides standardized questions and scoring criteria d) Allows interviewers to assess personality traits freely
c) Provides standardized questions and scoring criteria
40
The best source of external recruitment for a highly specialized IT position is: a) Job fairs b) Campus recruitment c) Executive search firms d) Newspaper advertisements
c) Executive search firms
41
Job analysis interviews come in two main forms: A. Individual B. Chronological C. Group D. A and C
D. A and C
42
Which performance appraisal method involves setting measurable goals for employees and evaluating them based on achievement? a) Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS) b) Management by Objectives (MBO) c) 360-degree feedback d) Forced ranking method
b) Management by Objectives (MBO)
43
An excellent job analysis interview technique was developed by A. Binet B. Wundt C. Ammerman D. Witmer
C. Ammerman
44
A common drawback of the graphic rating scale in performance evaluation is: a) It lacks clear criteria for ratings b) It provides objective results c) It involves too many observers d) It is only useful for manual labor jobs
a) It lacks clear criteria for ratings
45
The most effective method for training employees on complex machinery is: a) Job shadowing b) Simulation-based training c) Lecture-style training d) Self-paced e-learning
b) Simulation-based training
46
using a group of SMEs to rate each task statement on the frequency and the importance or criticality of the task being performed. A. Task Statement B. Task Analysis C. Task Range D. Task Frequency
B. Task analysis
47
a body of information needed to perform a task. A. knowledge B. ability C. Other characteristics
A. knowledge
48
the proficiency to perform a learned task. A. knowledge B. skill C. Other Characteristics
B. skill
49
a basic capacity for performing a wide range of different tasks, acquiring knowledge, or developing a skill. A. knowledge B. ability C. Other Characteristics
B. ability
50
include such personal factors as personality, willingness, interest, and motivation and such tangible factors as licenses, degrees, and years of experience. A. skill B. ability C. Other Characteristics
C. Other Characteristics
51
Josh, a manager, wants to reinforce good performance immediately. Which reward system aligns with reinforcement theory? a) Annual bonuses b) Monthly recognition programs c) Immediate verbal praise or incentives d) End-of-year awards
c) Immediate verbal praise or incentives
52
A company rejects an applicant solely due to their age, despite meeting all job qualifications. This violates: a) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act b) Americans with Disabilities Act c) Age Discrimination in Employment Act d) Equal Pay Act
c) Age Discrimination in Employment Act
53
When competencies are tied to an organization’s strategic initiatives and plans rather than to specific tasks, the process is called A. competency model B. competence model C. ability model D. integrity model
A. competency model
54
contains 194 items organized into six main dimensions: information output, mental processes, work output, relationships with other persons, job context and other job-related variables such as work schedule, pays. A. Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) B. Job Structure Profile C. Job Elements Inventory D. Functional Job Analysis
A. Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ)
55
revised version of PAQ, includes item content and style, new items to increase the discriminatory power of the intellectual and decision-making dimensions A. Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) B. Job Structure Profile C. Job Elements Inventory D. Functional Job Analysis
B. Job Structure Profile
56
A structured job analysis technique developed by Cornelius and Hakel that is similar to PAQ but easy to read. A. Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) B. Job Structure Profile C. Job Elements Inventory D. Functional Job Analysis
C. Job Elements Inventory
57
job analysis method developed by Fine that rates the extent to which a job incumbent is involved with functions in the categories of data, people and things. A. Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) B. Job Structure Profile C. Job Elements Inventory D. Functional Job Analysis
D. Functional Job Analysis
58
A structured job analysis technique that concentrates on worker requirements for performing a job rather than on specific tasks. A. Job Components Inventory (JCI) B. AET C. Occupational Information Network (OINET) D. Critical Incident Technique
A. Job Components Inventory (JCI)
59
An ergonomic job analysis method developed in German. A. Job Components Inventory (JCI) B. AET C. Occupational Information Network (OINET) D. Critical Incident Technique
B. AET
60
The job analysis system used by the federal government that has replaced the Dictionary of Occupational Titles A. Job Components Inventory (JCI) B. AET C. Occupational Information Network (OINET) D. Critical Incident Technique
C. Occupational Information Network (OINET)
61
The job analysis method developed by John Flanagan that uses written reports of good and bad employee behavior. A. Job Components Inventory (JCI) B. AET C. Occupational Information Network (OINET) D. Critical Incident Technique
D. Critical Incident Technique
62
A 33-item questionnaire developed by Lopez that identifies traits necessary to successfully perform a job. A. Job Components Inventory (JCI) B. Threshold Traits Analysis C. Fleishman Job Analysis (F-JAS) D. Job Adaptability Inventory (JAI)
B. Threshold Traits Analysis
63
A job analysis method in which jobs are rated on the basis of the abilities needed to perform them A. Job Components Inventory (JCI) B. Threshold Traits Analysis C. Fleishman Job Analysis (F-JAS) D. Job Adaptability Inventory (JAI)
C. Fleishman Job Analysis (F-JAS)
64
A Job analysis method that taps the extent to which a job involves eight types of adaptability A. Job Components Inventory (JCI) B. Threshold Traits Analysis C. Fleishman Job Analysis (F-JAS) D. Job Adaptability Inventory (JAI)
D. Job Adaptability Inventory (JAI)
65
A questionnaire sent to other organizations to see how much they are paying their employees in positions similar to those in the organization sending the survey. A. Salary Matrix B. Direct Compensation C. Salary Surveys D. Comparable Worth
C. Salary surveys
66
The amount of money paid to an employee (does not count benefit, time off and so forth). A. Salary Matrix B. Direct Compensation C. Salary Surveys D. Comparable Worth
B. Direct Compensation
67
the idea that jobs requiring the same level of skill and responsibility should be paid the same regardless of supply and demand. A. Salary Matrix B. Direct Compensation C. Salary Surveys D. Comparable Worth
D. Comparable Worth
68
Attracting people with the right qualifications (as determined in the job analysis) to apply for the job A. Recruitment B. Advertisement C. Screening D. Analysis
A. Recruitment
69
promote someone from within the organization. A. External Recruitment B. Internal Recruitment C. Inside Recruitment D. Outside Recruitment
B. Internal Recruitment
70
hire someone from outside the organization. A. External Recruitment B. Internal Recruitment C. Inside Recruitment D. Outside Recruitment
A. External Recruitment
71
Recruitment ads in which applicants are instructed to call rather than apply in person or send resumes. A. SEND RESUME ADS B. BLIND BOX C. APPLY-IN-PERSON ADS D. RESPOND BY CALLING
D. RESPOND BY CALLING
72
Recruitment ads that instruct applicants to apply in person rather than to call or send resumes. A. SEND RESUME ADS B. BLIND BOX C. APPLY-IN-PERSON ADS D. RESPOND BY CALLING
C. APPLY-IN-PERSON ADS
73
Recruitment ads in which applicants are instructed to send their resume to the company rather than call or apply in person. A. SEND RESUME ADS B. BLIND BOX C. APPLY-IN-PERSON ADS D. RESPOND BY CALLING
A. SEND RESUME ADS
74
Under Bona Fide Occupational Qualification (BFOQ), which hiring restriction is legally valid? a) Only men can apply for executive positions b) A Catholic school requires religion teachers to be Catholic c) A company hires only single applicants d) A hotel refuses to hire applicants with tattoos
b) A Catholic school requires religion teachers to be Catholic
75
Recruitment ads that instruct applicants to send their resume to a box at the newspaper, neither the name nor the address of the company is provided. A. SEND RESUME ADS B. BLIND BOX C. APPLY-IN-PERSON ADS D. RESPOND BY CALLING
B. BLIND BOX
76
Organizations send recruiters to college campuses to do some recruitment and selection A. Virtual Job Fair B. Employee Referral C. Campus Recruiters D. Executive Search Firms E Publich Employment Agency
C. Campus Recruiters
77
A job fair held on campus in which students can tour a company online, ask questions of recruiters and electronically send resumes A. Virtual Job Fair B. Employment Agency C. Campus Recruiters D. Executive Search Firms E Publich Employment Agency
A. Virtual Job Fair
78
Employment agencies, often also called headhunters that specialize in placing applicants in high-paying jobs A. Virtual Job Fair B. Employment Agency C. Campus Recruiters D. Executive Search Firms E Publich Employment Agency
D. Executive Search Firms
79
An organization that specializes in finding jobs for applications and finding applicants for organizations looking for employees A. Virtual Job Fair B. Employment Agency C. Campus Recruiters D. Executive Search Firms E Publich Employment Agency
B. Employment Agency
80
An employment service operated by a state or local government, designed to match applicants with job openings. A. Virtual Job Fair B. Employment Agency C. Campus Recruiters D. Executive Search Firms E Publich Employment Agency
E. Public Employment Agency
81
A method of recruitment in which a current an employee refers to a friend or family member for a job .were rated as the most effective recruitment method A. Virtual Job Fair B. Employee Referral C. Campus Recruiters D. Executive Search Firms E Publich Employment Agency
B. Employee Referral
82
reward for successful employee referral A. Referral bonus B. Recruitment bonus C. bonus D. Commision
A. Referral bonus
83
A method of recruitment in which an organization sends out mass mailings of information about job openings to potential applicants. A. Employer- Based Websites B. Job Boards C. Job Fairs D. Direct Mail
D. Direct Mail
84
The organization lists available job openings and provides information about itself and the minimum requirements needed to apply a particular job A. Employer-Based Websites B. Job Boards C. Job Fairs D. Direct Mail
A. Employer-Based Websites
85
It is a private company website lists of job openings for hundreds of thousands of organizations looking for applicants in a particular job A. Employer- Based Websites B. Job Boards C. Job Fairs D. Direct Mail
B. Job Boards
86
A recruitment method in which several employers are available at one location so that many applicants can obtain information at one time. A. Employer- Based Websites B. Job Boards C. Job Fairs D. Direct Mail
C. Job Fairs
87
A method of recruitment in which job applicants are told both the positive and the negative aspects of a job. A. Effective Employee Selection Techniques B. Realistic Job Previews C. Expectation-lowering procedure D. Data Selection
B. Realistic Job Previews
88
A form of RJP that lowers an applicant’s expectations about the various aspects of the job. A. Effective Employee Selection Techniques B. Realistic Job Previews C. Expectation-lowering procedure D. Data Selection
C. Expectation-lowering procedure
89
is one that is based on a job analysis (content validity), predicts work-related behavior (criterion validity), and measures the construct it purports to measure (construct validity). A. invalid selection test B. devalidated selection test C. devaluated selection test D. valid selection test
D. valid selection test
90
will reduce the chance of a legal challenge if their content appears to be job related (face validity), the questions don’t invade an applicant’s privacy, and adverse impact is minimized. A. invalid selection test B. Selection tests C. Re-evaluated selection test D. valid selection test
B. Selection tests
91
are also cost-effective in terms of the costs to purchase or create, to administer, and to score. A. Ideal selection tests B. devalidated selection tests C. Reduced selection test D. cheap selection tests
A. Ideal selection tests
92
A method of selecting employees in which an interviewer asks questions of an applicant and then makes an employment decision based on the answers to the questions as well as the way in which the questions were answered. A. Employement Interviews B. Structured Interviews C. Unstructured Interviews D. Psycyhological Interviews
A. Employment Interviews
93
Interviews in which questions are based on a job analysis, every applicant is asked the same questions, and there is a standardized scoring system so that identical answers are given identical scores A. Analytical Interviews B. Structured Interviews C. Unstructured Interviews D. Psycyhological Interviews
B. Structured Interviews
94
An interview in which applicants are not asked the same questions and in which there is no standard scoring system to score applicant answers. A. Employement Interviews B. Structured Interviews C. Unstructured Interviews D. Deliberate Interviews
C. Unstructured Interviews
95
A type of structured interview questions that clarifies information on the resume or application. A. Future- Focused Question (Situational Questions) B. Skill- Level Determiner C. Clarifier D. Organizational- fit Questions E. Past- Focused Questions (Patterned-behavior descriptions)
C. Clarifier
96
A type of structured interview questions in which a wrong answer will disqualify the applicant from further consideration. A. Disqualifier B. Skill- Level Determiner C. Clarifier D. Organizational- fit Questions E. Past- Focused Questions (Patterned-behavior descriptions)
A. Disqualifier
97
A type of structured interview questions designed to tap an applicant’s knowledge or skill. A. Future- Focused Question (Situational Questions) B. Skill- Level Determiner C. Clarifier D. Organizational- fit Questions E. Past- Focused Questions (Patterned-behavior descriptions)
B. Skill- Level Determiner
98
A type of structured interview question in which applicants are given a situation and asked how they would handle it. A. Future- Focused Question (Situational Questions) B. Skill- Level Determiner C. Clarifier D. Organizational- fit Questions E. Past- Focused Questions (Patterned-behavior descriptions)
A. Future- Focused Question (Situational Questions)
99
A type of structured interview questions that taps an applicant’s experience. A. Disqualifier B. Skill- Level Determiner C. Clarifier D. Organizational- fit Questions E. Past- Focused Questions (Patterned-behavior descriptions)
E. Past- Focused Question (Patterned-behavior descriptions)
100
A type of structured interview questions that taps how well an applicant’s personality and values will fit with the organizational culture. A. Disqualifier B. Skill- Level Determiner C. Clarifier D. Organizational- fit Questions E. Past- Focused Questions (Patterned-behavior descriptions)
D. Organizational- fit Questions
101
A method of scoring interview answers that compares an applicant’s answer with benchmark answers. A. Integral pproach B. Comparable pproach C. Key-Issues approach D. Typical-answer approach
D. Typical-answer approach
102
A method of scoring interview answers that provides points for each part of an answer that matches the scoring key.purchase or create, to administer, and to score. A. Integral pproach B. Comparable pproach C. Key-Issues approach D. Typical-answer approach
C. Key-Issues approach
103
A formal summary of an applicant’s professional and educational background A. Formal Resume B. Resume C. Functional Resume D. Chronological Resume E. Psychological Resume
B. Resume
104
A resume in which jobs are listed in order from most to least recent A. Formal Resume B. Resume C. Functional Resume D. Chronological Resume E. Psychological Resume
D. Chronological Resume
105
A resume format in which jobs are grouped by function rather than listed in order by date A. Formal Resume B. Resume C. Functional Resume D. Chronological Resume E. Psychological Resume
C. Functional Resume
106
A resume style that takes advantage of psychological principles pertaining to memory organization and impression formation. A. Formal Resume B. Resume C. Functional Resume D. Chronological Resume E. Psychological Resume
E. Psychological Resume
107
the national government agency mandated to formulate policies, implement programs, and serve as the policy-coordinating arm of the Executive Branch in the field of labor and employment. madali naman to
Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE)
108
employees take their complaints to an internal committee that makes a decision regarding the complaints. A. complaint system B. mediation C. arbitration D. grievance system
D. grievance system
109
employees and the organization meet with a neutral third party who tries to help the two sides reach a mutually agreed upon solution. A. complaint system B. mediation C. arbitration D. grievance system
B. mediation
110
the two sides present their case to a neutral third party who then makes a decision as to which side is right. A. complaint system B. mediation C. arbitration D. grievance system
C. arbitration
111
refers to the administrative approach to provide an accessible, speedy, impartial, and inexpensive settlement procedure of all labor and employment issues through a 30-day mandatory conciliation mediation A. Single Entry-Apprach B. Double Entry-Approach C. Entry-Approach E. Legal-Approach
A. Single Entry-Approach
112
may be filed by any aggrieved person such as employer, worker, including kasambahay, or group of workers, whether local or overseas, or a union, workers association or federation. A. Request for Assistance (RFA) B. Request for Leave (RFL) C. Request for Support (RFS) D. Request for Aggrievance (RFA)
A. Request for Assistance (RFA)
113
a quasi-judicial agency tasked to promote and maintain industrial peace based on social justice by resolving labor and management disputes involving local and overseas workers through compulsory arbitration and alternative modes of dispute resolution A. National Labor Relations Commision B. National Labor and Employment C. Laborer's Commision D. Employee Guild
A. National Labor Relations Commission
114
unlawful to discriminate with respect to terms and conditions of employment lam nayan
ANTI-DISCRIMINATION LAW
115
REPUBLIC ACT No. 10911 A. "Anti-unlawful firing in Employment Act" B. "Anti-Age Discrimination in Employment Act" C. "Anti-Gender Discrimination in Employment Act" D. "Anti-Inflammatory in Employment Act"
B. "Anti-Age Discrimination in Employment Act" .
116
The Philippine law ensures that Filipino women have rights in and outside their workplace. Republic Act 9710: A. Anti-Gender Discrimination B. Magna Carta of Women C. Anti-Age Discrimination D. Anti-Sex Discrimination
B. Magna Carta of Women
117
Signed in 2019, this law increased the paid maternity leave from 60 to 105 days. A. Republic Act 11210 B. Republic Act 7877 C. Republic Act 3310 D. Republic Act 7277
A. Republic Act 11210: Expanded Maternity Leave
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This protects women from sexual harassment in the workplace and other places like schools and training facilities. A. Republic Act 11210 B. Republic Act 7877 C. Republic Act 3310 D. Republic Act 7277
B. Republic Act 7877: Anti-Sexual Harassment Act
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“those suffering from restriction of different abilities, as a result of a mental, physical or sensory impairment, to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for a human being. ” madali nayan
Discrimination Against Persons with Disabilities (PWDs)
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Granting of sexual favors is tied to such employment decisions as promotions and salary increases. A. Equivalent Exchange B. Quid Pro Quo C. Hostile Environment D. Favors
B. Quid Pro Quo
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sexual harassment occurs when an unwanted pattern of conduct related to gender unreasonably interferes with an individual’s work performance. A. Equivalent Exchange B. Quid Pro Quo C. Hostile Environment D. Favors
A. Hostile Environment
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For conduct to be considered sexual harassment based on a hostile environment, the conduct must be a ______ rather than an isolated incident. A. multiple attempt B. significant event C. pattern of actions D. pattern of behavior
D. pattern of behavior
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To be considered sexual harassment, conduct must be due to the _____ of the employee. A. gender B. orientation C. sex D. preference
C. sex
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Any pattern of behavior based on gender that causes an employee discomfort might constitute sexual harassment A. Negative to the Reasonable Person. B. Negative to the Unreasonable Person. C. Positive to the Reasonable Person D. Positive to the Unreasonab Person
A. Negative to the Reasonable Person.