Prelims: Commonly Performed Lab Tests Flashcards
1
Q
This is a basic screening test and one of the most ordered tests in hematology
A
CBC
2
Q
The commonly used specimen in hematology
A
Whole blood
3
Q
This parameter of CBC describes leukocytes that fight off infections
A
WBC count
4
Q
Term referred to as high WBC count which means infection is present
A
Leukocytosis
5
Q
This parameter in CBC describes the percentage of each type of WBC
A
Differential count
6
Q
High number of neutrophils in a differential count means the presence of what?
A
Bacterial infection
7
Q
High number of eosinophils and basophils in a differential count means the presence of what?
A
Allergic disorders/parasitism
8
Q
High number of lymphocytes in a differential count means the presence of what?
A
Viral infection
9
Q
High number of monocytes in a differential count means the presence of what?
A
Chronic inflammation caused by a virus
10
Q
This parameter in a CBC is aka erythrocytes that carry out oxygen and carbon dioxide transportation
A
RBC count
11
Q
T or F: Hemoglobin does not readily bind with CO2, only O2
A
False (hemoglobin binds to CO2 as well)
12
Q
Decreased RBC count refers to what condition?
A
Anemia
13
Q
This parameter in a CBC serves as the transport vehicle for O2 and CO2 and gives the red pigment of RBCs
A
Hemoglobin concentration
14
Q
This parameter in a CBC refers to the percentage of packed RBCs in whole blood
A
Hematocrit
15
Q
Plasma/serum and blood cells are separated through what process?
A
Centrifugation
16
Q
Decreased hematocrit refers to what condition?
A
Anemia
17
Q
This parameter in a CBC is aka thrombocytes that are used to evaluate bleeding disorders, bone marrow diseases, and excessive clotting disorders as they function in blood coagulation
A
Platelet count
18
Q
T or F: More thrombocytes = greater tendency to bleed
A
False (inversely proportional)
19
Q
This area of study encapsulates blood-circulating proteins responsible for stable blood clot formation
A
Coagulation studies
20
Q
What is the most commonly used specimen in clinical chemistry?
A
Serum
21
Q
This sample came from an anti-coagulant tube and therefore will not clot
A
Plasma
22
Q
This sample came from a non-additive tube therefore blood clots will form
A
Serum
23
Q
This test in clinical chemistry screens for hyperglycemia/hypoglycemia and diagnoses diabetes mellitus when glucose levels are high
A
FBS
24
Q
This is known as the fasting specimen which is observed for 8 to 10 hours; it is the product of carbohydrate metabolism and a chief source of energy for all organisms
A
Glucose
25
Glucose cannot enter the cell without what hormone?
Insulin
26
Urea, Creatinine, and Uric Acid all fall under what type of testing?
Renal function tests (kidneys)
27
This analyte is the end product of protein metabolism as it is cleared through urine
Urea
28
High BUN indicates a disease in what organ?
Kidney
29
This analyte is formed by creatine breakdown during muscle metabolism
Creatinine
30
Increased creatinine levels indicate a disease in what organ?
Kidney
31
This analyte is the end product of purine metabolism
Uric acid
32
Meat and vegetables carry this compound which contributes greatly to high uric acid
Purine
33
Aside from kidney disease, what is present when uric acid levels are high?
Gout
34
Masses of uric acid are known as?
Tophi
35
This test determines risks for coronary heart disease through indicators like heart attacks and strokes triggered by atherosclerosis
Lipid profile test
36
This refers to the sum of all HDL and LDL in the blood
Total cholesterol
37
This good cholesterol helps remove other forms of cholesterol found in the blood
HDL
38
T or F: High LDL count = less risk for coronary disease
False (LDL is bad cholesterol)
39
This refers to the bad cholesterol
LDL
40
T or F: High HDL leads to lower risk of atherosclerosis
True
41
These store unused calories in the body and act as an energy reserve
Triglycerides
42
This is aka liver panel or hepatic function panel
Liver function tests
43
This is the major bile pigment formed through hemoglobin breakdown
Bilirubin
44
Bilirubin is removed by the liver which gets excreted into what fluid?
Bile
45
Increased bilirubin means excessive breakdown of what?
RBCs
46
T or F: Lower bilirubin means liver disease
False (higher)
47
This ratio states that low protein signifies liver disease
Total protein and albumin/globulin ratio
48
T or F: Low ALT, ALP, and GGT signifies liver disease
False (high)
49
ALT stands for?
Alanine amionotransferase
50
ALP stands for?
Alkaline phosphatase
51
GGT stands for?
Gamma-glutamyl transferase
52
The ff. tests fall under what section of the laboratory:
- CBC
- RBC, WBC, and Platelet count
- Differential count
- Hemoglobin
- Hematocrit
Hematology
53
The ff. tests fall under what section of the laboratory:
- FBS
- Renal and Liver function tests
- Lipid profile tests
Clinical Chemistry
54
Whole blood for hematology is stored in what evacuated tube?
EDTA tube (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid; purple)
55
This white blood cell has a kidney bean-shaped nucleus
Monocyte
56
This white blood cell has orange granules in the cytoplasm
Eosinophil
57
This refers to an immature neutrophil
Band cell
58
This determines the amount of hemoglobin content usually expressed in picograms
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
59
This determines the weight of hemoglobin in RBCs and compares it with the cell size usually expressed in percentage
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
60
This determines the size of the RBCs usually expressed in femtoliters
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
61
This determines the number and type of cells found in the bone marrow
Bone marrow exam
62
This acts as a non-specific indicator of inflammation
ESR
63
This evaluates bone marrow production of RBC
Reticulocyte count
64
Refers to stoppage of blood flow from a damaged vessel
Hemostasis
65
Plasma collected in a tube with a light blue stopper contains what anticoagulant
Sodium citrate
66
This evaluates the intrinsic system of the coagulation cascade and monitors heparin therapy
aPTT
67
This screens for decreased clotting tendencies as it prevents clots from forming by blocking thrombin
Antithrombin II
68
This time-dependent test evaluates platelet function
Bleeding time
69
This measures abnormal blood clotting and fibrinolysis
D-dimer
70
This detects factor deficiencies that prolong coagulation
Factor assays
71
This test for increased fibrinolysis by observing the by-products formed when fibrin is destroyed
Fibrin degradation products
72
This evaluates the extrinsic system of the coagulation cascade and monitors Coumadin therapy
Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio
73
This determines if adequate fibrinogen is present for normal coagulation
Thrombin time
74
T or F: FBS is for monitoring blood sugar while HbA1C is for diagnosing diabetes mellitus
False (reverse)
75
T or F: ALT is aka SGOT
False (ALT = SGPT)
76
T or F: AST is aka SGPT
False (AST = SGOT)
77
Elevated levels of this indicate myocardial infarction, lung, or liver disorders
LDH
78
Elevated levels of these indicate acute pancreatitis
Amylase and lipase
79
These evaluate body fluid balance
Electrolytes
80
Elevated levels of these indicate congestive heart failure
B-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
81
This is used for early diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction as it is the most accurate cardiac marker available
Troponin I
82
This test determines an individual’s blood group and what type of blood components the person can safely receive
Blood typing
83
The Rh typing is also known as what antigen?
D
84
T or F: Blood samples that agglutinate together after adding the corresponding Anti-A or Anti-B solution indicate that that is the individual’s blood type
True
85
T or F: Blood samples that agglutinate to the Anti-Rh solution indicate that the blood is Rh-
False (Rh+)
86
T or F: In the gel card method, the agglutinated RBCs sink to the bottom of the tubes which indicate the blood type
False (agglutinated RBCs stay on top)
87
This identifies bacterial infections using blood, urine, wound scrapings, genital discharge, CSF, sputum, stool, etc.
Gram stain
88
This is the primary stain
Crystal violet
89
This is the dye fixative
Iodine
90
This is the decolorizer
Alcohol
91
This is the secondary stain
Safranin
92
T or F: Gram positive bacteria will appear pink
False (retains the crystal violet color even after being washed by alcohol due to it not having an outer membrane hence being easily penetrable by the primary stain)
93
T or F: Gram negative bacteria will appear pink
True (is not able to absorb the color of crystal violet due to its membrane but will absorb the safranin due to the alcohol dissolving its outer membrane)
94
Which gram stained bacteria has a thick peptidoglycan layer but no outer layer?
Positive
95
Which gram stained bacteria has an outer layer but a thin peptidoglycan layer?
Negative
96
This smear is used to determine fungal infections
KOH
97
This stain is used to diagnose tuberculosis using sputum
Acid fast stain
98
This utilizes the culture and sensitivity test which observes antibiotic-containing discs and the zones of inhibition
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing
99
T or F: The bigger the zone of inhibition, the more effective the antibiotic
True
100
Which section of the laboratory is blood banking performed?
Blood bank/Immunology
101
Which section of the laboratory is gram staining performed?
Microbiology
102
This test in clinical microscopy detects diseases related to the kidneys and urinary tract
Urinalysis
103
This type of observation for clinical microscopy describes color, transparency, specific gravity, etc.
Macroscopic
104
This type of observation for clinical microscopy detects the presence protein, glucose, abnormal pH, etc.
Chemical
105
If there is presence of blood in the urine, the condition is called?
Hematuria
106
If bilirubin is present in the urine, what is the condition called?
Jaundice
107
If high amounts of glucose are in the urine, the condition is called?
Glucosuria (caused by diabetes mellitus, renal impairment, or ingestion of large amounts of carbohydrates)
108
This analyte in chemical analysis of urine describes uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and starvation
Ketones
109
Presence of leukocytes in urine indicate what disease?
UTI
110
High levels of protein in urine refers to what condition?
Proteinuria
111
Presence of nitrite in the urine indicates what?
Bacterial infection
112
High urobilinogen in the urine indicates what?
Hepatic or hemolytic problems
113
This type of observation in urinalysis involves cells, crystal casts, etc.
Microscopic
114
This area studies antigen-antibody reactions for diagnosis of infectious diseases, auto-immune disorders, and neoplastic diseases
Serology
115
This specimen is used in serology
Serum
116
This stimulates and reacts with the products of an immune response
Antigens (Ag)
117
These proteins are produced by the body’s immune response to antigens
Antibodies (Ab)
118
This test detects AIDS
HIV test
119
This detects malignancy of colon, pancreas, lung, and stomach cancers
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
120
This contains an antibody (anti-HCG) which detects the human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) antigen which is produced by the placenta
Pregnancy Test
121
This section in the laboratory examines tissue specimen under microscopes for cancer and other abnormality detection
Histopathology
122
This test uses cells scraped from the cervix to able to detect cancer using a staining method
Pap's Test
123
What is the recommended date for undergoing a Pap's Test
3 years after first sexual intercourse or after the age of 21
124
What are the 2 histopathologic tests?
Frozen biopsy and Tissue biopsy
125
Preserved samples are placed in what kind of block?
Paraffin
126
Paraffin blocks are cut using what instrument?
Microtomes
