Prenatal Flashcards

(72 cards)

1
Q

What is Cell-free fetal DNA (cffDNA)

A

fetal DNA circulating freely in the maternal blood stream

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2
Q

Where does cffDNA originate

A

From apoptotic trophoblasts making up the placenta, with placental microparticles shed into the maternal blood stream

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3
Q

when is there usually enough cffDNA for testing

A

10 weeks

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4
Q

What tissue makes up Chorionic Villus

A

trophoblasts and mesenchyme cells

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5
Q

When is CVS offered

A

11-13 weeks gestation

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6
Q

What is the approximate risk of miscarriage after CVS

A

1-2%

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7
Q

What are potential complications of CVS besides miscarriage

A

Can lead to infection and/or amniotic fluid leakage, damage to placental circulation, retro-placental haematoma, and/or a subchorionic haemorrhage

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8
Q

When is Amniocentesis offered

A

15 weeks onwards

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9
Q

What is the approximate risk of miscarriage after Amniocentesis

A

0.5-1%

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10
Q

What is Fetal Blood Sampling (FBS) / Cordocentesis

A

Taking blood from blood vessels of the umbilical cord or a fetal blood vessel

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11
Q

How is MCC normally assessed

A

F-PCR assays (most routinely used) to compare maternal genotype to that of the genotype from the CVS or amniocentesis DNA

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12
Q

Does culturing affect MCC risk in samples

A

Yes. Culturing amniotic fluid (AF) samples favours amniocytes and reduces maternal blood cells, lowering the rate of MCC. In CVS and POC samples, culturing increases the risk given the co-localization of maternal and fetal cell lineages.

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13
Q

How can MCC be minimised in Amniotic Fluid sampling

A

Culturing favours amniocytes and reduces maternal blood cell

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14
Q

What is Pseudomosaicism in amniotic fluid

A

mosaicism observed in amniotic fluid culture that is likely a cultural artefact rather than true fetal mosaicism

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15
Q

What is Confined Placental Mosaicism

A

Presence of abnormal cells restricted to the extraembryonic tissues, specifically the placenta

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16
Q

hat is Trisomy Rescue and what is it associated with in CPM?

A

A mechanism where a trisomic cell line loses one copy of the chromosome to become diploid. If this happens in cells destined for the fetus while the placenta retains the trisomy (Meiotic CPM), it is associated with an increased risk of pregnancy complications and Uniparental Disomy (UPD) in the ‘rescued’ diploid fetus

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17
Q

How can the potential impact of CPM be predicted

A

Factors include the origin of the error (somatic errors less severe), the level of mosaicism (correlation between high aneuploid cells and poor pregnancy progress), the specific chromosomes involved (some carry imprinted genes affecting growth/placental function), and the type of chromosome abnormality

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18
Q

How can CPM issues be minimised in prenatal testing interpretation

A

Mesenchymal core culture results are more likely to reflect true fetal mosaicism than direct preparation. If mosaicism is found on CVS (culture or direct), follow-up amniocentesis and detailed ultrasound scans should be offered. A decision to terminate should not be based solely on a CVS mosaic result. When performing array-CGH on uncultured CVS, it’s important to note that CPM cannot be ruled out, and confirmation studies on cultured CVS or amniotic fluid are ideal

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19
Q

What is the main advantage of CVS over Amniocentesis? Back: Earlier diagnosis

A

Lower risk of miscarriage and a more accurate representation of fetal genotype. Amniocentesis can also be used to test for neural tube defects, while CVS cannot.

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20
Q

What are the applications of QF-PCR in prenatal setting?

A

Trisomy and sex chromosome aneuploidies

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21
Q

What are the applications of CA in prenatal setting?

A

Aneuploidy, relatively large deletions or duplications and other structural rearrangements, such as balanced and unbalanced translocations.
Disdvantage of karyotyping include potential cell-culture failure and clonal selection and has a diagnostic resolution of 5–10 Mb.

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22
Q

What is the application of cell free fetal DNA?

A

Detection of paternally inherited alleles in maternal blood. The main clinical application has been for severe X-linked conditions and the principal approach is PCR with haplotype-based NGS. Another application has been for skeletal dysplasias using targeted NGS.

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23
Q

How can NGS use cffDNA to detect changes?

A

NGS, the short fragments of cffDNA can be sequenced and assigned to a specific region of the genome. Moreover, it is possible to detect changes in copy number of a specific region

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24
Q

what are some possibilities offered by NGS in prenatal diagnosis?

A

To design panels screening for multiple mutations in a single assay; analyse samples from different patients in a single run (reducing cost); use targeted cffDNA libraries to improve sequence depth; and be more suitable for detecting de novo mutations or diagnosing diseases of unknown pathophysiolog

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25
Describe the process of Haplotype-based NIPD NGS for X-linked & autosomal recessive disorders.
haplotype-based analysis used to determine the inheritance of parental mutations in a linkage type manner. This involves grouping SNPs into informative categories based on parental zygosity. Phasing of parental SNP haplotypes is achieved by comparing genomic DNA samples from the mother, father, and affected proband. Analysis of cfDNA sequencing data then enables the detection of the mutant or normal haplotype in the fetus
26
How does exome seq help in prenatal diagnosis?
fetuses with sonographic abnormalities can reveal the underlying cause in a significant proportion of cases. It illustrated the power of whole-exome sequencing for identifying variants that potentially cause abnormal fetal development
27
What is the main objective of the PAGE (Prenatal Assessment of Genome and Exomes) project?
The project's main objective is to answer questions regarding the use of exome sequencing as a diagnostic tool for invasively acquired samples when a structural anomaly is found on prenatal ultrasound examination
28
What are the eligibility criteria for the R21 test (Fetal anomalies with likely genetic cause) in the UK National Genomic Test Directory?
For fetus with multiple major structural abnormalities on ultrasound where an MDT considers a monogenic malformation disorder is likely
29
What is the rationale behind using prenatal microarrays in the context of fetal anomalies?
Major congenital abnormalities affect 1-1.5% of pregnancies, and chromosomal abnormalities account for 20-25% of these major fetal anomalies. Microarrays can provide higher resolution for detecting these abnormalities
30
In what specific circumstances might the use of prenatal microarrays be restricted as part of a diagnostic strategy?
For Abnormal ultrasound scan (USS) results and a normal QF-PCR result for the common aneuploidies (or other method for rapid aneuploidy screening)
31
Name at least two advantages of using microarrays in prenatal diagnosis compared to conventional karyotyping.
Culture is not required prior to reporting, leading to a faster turnaround time and exclusion of culture artefacts Higher resolution and better detection of sub-microscopic abnormalities, resulting in a higher pickup rate
32
Name at least two disadvantages of using microarrays in prenatal diagnosis.
Requires a high quantity of high quality DNA Does not detect balanced rearrangements Lower level mosaicism may be missed Triploidy will be missed or mis-classified Difficulties in interpretation of Variants of uncertain clinical significance (VOUS
33
If a CNV identified in a fetus is inherited from an apparently phenotypically normal parent, why can its pathogenicity not be completely excluded?
A gene within the deletion region on the homologous chromosome could be mutated (autosomal recessive condition) The CNV might contain an imprinted gene with a pathogenic effect only when inherited from a specific parent The CNV itself could be a risk factor with incomplete penetrance, requiring a specific genomic context Flashcard 9
34
According to the guidelines mentioned, what kind of incidental findings should generally not be reported in the prenatal context?
Incidental findings generally not to be reported include: 15q13.1q13.3 duplications 15q11 BP1-BP2 duplications or deletions Xp22.31 (STS) duplications 16p13 duplications Heterozygous deletion of recessive genes that cannot be linked to the presenting phenotype Variants with no relation to the prenatal phenotype or no clinically actionable consequence
35
What was a key conclusion of the EACH study regarding the use of CMA in care pathways?
Results suggest that CMA is a robust, acceptable, and probably cost-effective diagnostic test and should replace karyotyping in care pathways when the indication is one or more structural anomalies or an isolated NT of ≥ 3.5 mm on ultrasound after a normal QF-PCR result
36
Why is communication between the laboratory and clinicians considered essential when using prenatal arrays?
od communication is essential because many different results can be generated. There needs to be agreement on what to report to the clinician and the patient, especially regarding pathogenic CNVs inconsistent with ultrasound findings, the origin of CNVs, and how to handle unsolicited/incidental findings with implications for the fetus or parents
37
What is the recommended maximum reporting time for prenatal array results?
14 Days
38
What is the "fetal fraction"?
e percentage of total cell-free DNA in maternal plasma that comes from the placenta (cffDNA
39
When is cffDNA typically detectable and reliably testable for most applications?
Detectable from 4-5 weeks, reliably testable from 7-9 weeks
40
What are some technical challenges associated with distinguishing or isolating cffDNA
Low abundance Substantially outnumbered by cell-free maternal DNA (Nearly) indistinguishable from maternal cell-free DNA Need to prevent maternal genomic DNA release from blood cells
41
Why has the use of intact fetal cells for NIPD been limited so far?
Present in very low numbers (~1 to 2 cells per ml) Potential for sampling bias Requires visualization of multiple cell markers and high throughput image processing Whole genome amplification issues (allele dropout/preferential amplification)
42
How are fetal-specific markers used to confirm the presence of cffDNA?
-Analyzing paternally inherited SNPs where maternal DNA is homozygous for the other allele -Or using universal fetal epigenetic markers, such as methylation patterns specific to the placenta (e.g., SERPINB5, RASSF1)
43
hat is a limitation of using DNA methylation markers for NIPD?
Many methods, like methylation-specific PCR, use bisulfite conversion which causes massive degradation of input DNA (up to 95%). This is problematic due to the already low levels of cell-free DNA
44
What are some clinical applications of NIPD?
◦Fetal sex determination for sex-linked diseases ◦Diagnosis of fetal blood type (particularly RhD) ◦Detection of paternally inherited/de novo pathogenic variants for AD disorders ◦Testing for maternally inherited variants for AR/X-linked disorders using relative mutation dosage (RMD) or relative haplotype dosage (RHDO)
45
For which types of conditions is NIPD for fetal sex determination typically offered in the UK?
Pegnancies at risk of serious X-linked conditions (like Duchenne muscular dystrophy) and those at risk of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)
46
How is fetal sex determined using NIPD?
By detecting the presence of male Y chromosome DNA (e.g., SRY gene or DYS14) in maternal plasma using sensitive methods like Real-time PCR (RT-PCR). A female fetus is inferred by a negative result for the Y chromosome
47
What is the benefit of non-invasively testing for fetal RhD type in early pregnancy?
Anti-D therapy can be selectively given only to RHD negative women carrying an RHD positive fetus, avoiding unnecessary treatment for those carrying RhD negative fetuses
48
In NIPD for Autosomal Dominant (AD) disorders, what type of variant is easier to detect and why?
Maternally inherited or de novo pathogenic variants. This is because these altered alleles are not present in the high background of maternal cfDNA
49
What NIPD techniques are used for detecting paternally inherited/de novo variants in AD disorders?
NGS NIPD panels (e.g., for FGFR3-related conditions, Retinoblastoma, Apert syndrome) or PCR-based assays ("bespoke NIPD") designed to detect the relevant varian
50
Why is fetal sexing important in pregnancies at risk of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?
CAH is an autosomal recessive disorder. If a female fetus is detected, she can be treated with dexamethasone from 6-7 weeks gestation to prevent virilisation. If a male fetus is detected, this treatment is not required and can be avoided
51
What is Relative Mutation Dosage (RMD)?
RMD is a method for testing maternally inherited variants in AR/X-linked disorders where the fetal material is present in the background of maternal cfDNA containing the maternal variant. It involves determining the relative amounts of mutant and normal alleles in the maternal plasma *An affected fetus (homozygous mutant) would contribute only mutant alleles, leading to more mutant alleles than expected *An unaffected fetus (homozygous wildtype) would contribute only wildtype alleles, leading to more wildtype alleles than expected The shift in allele ratios is proportional to the fetal fraction, which must be high enough and accurately determined
52
What are the advantages OF RMD
Does not require paternal or proband samples
53
Disadvantages of RMD
Technically challenging as accurate counting of mutant and wild-type alleles is required Requires techniques like digital PCR or targeted NGS with high read depth and unique molecular identifiers High depth NGS is expensive It is targeted, only looking at a single mutation site, making it less statistically robust than RHDO
54
What is Relative Haplotype Dosage (RHDO)
RHDO is a linkage-based method that uses thousands of SNPs flanking the disease gene to determine maternal and paternal inheritance *The method used is capture-based targeted NGS *It is in diagnostic use for SMA, DMD, and CF
55
What samples are typically required for RHDO analysis
Proband or unaffected sibling sample Paternal sample Known parental carrier status *For X-linked RHDO, a paternal sample is not essential, but a closely-related unaffected/affected male is needed
56
What are the advantages of RHDO
Statistically robust as it uses many different loci Follow-up invasive testing is not necessary if a clear result is obtained (provided fetal fraction is high enough) Can be used for mutation types/genes not amenable to direct NGS Workup is not required prior to testing as it is a generic approach Possibility of multiplexing the assay
57
What are the disadvantages of RHDO?
Risk of double recombination Requires proband or unaffected sibling sample and paternal sample Expensive as it needs NGS depth and multiple samples Consanguinity may lead to issues if insufficient informative SNPs are available Can only be used for singleton pregnancies
58
How does RHDO determine fetal inheritance for autosomal recessive disorders, specifically paternal inheritance?
For paternal inheritance (using a KS test), RHDO uses SNPs that are homozygous in the maternal genotype and heterozygous in the paternal genotype (category 3 SNPs). If the paternal haplotype is present, approximately 5% of cfDNA (half of cffDNA) will contain the SNP present only in the paternal genotyp
59
ow does RHDO determine fetal inheritance for autosomal recessive disorders, specifically maternal inheritance
for maternal inheritance, RHDO uses SNPs that are heterozygous in the maternal genotype and homozygous in the paternal genotype (category 4 SNPs). These are divided into α-SNPs (mutant maternal allele matches paternal allele) or β-SNPs (normal maternal allele matches paternal allele). An over-representation of either the mutant (α-Mat) or normal (β-Mat) maternal allele can be used to infer the fetal genotype
60
What are some future possibilities mentioned for NIPD
Whole genome screening for multiple genetic diseases (including common microdeletion syndromes) from maternal blood Non-invasive exome screening to detect paternally inherited alleles and de novo pathogenic variants Applying a universal haplotyping approach to extend RHDO to many more disorders ‘Proband-free’ RHDO using methods for direct parental haplotyping from cell-free DNA, potentially using targeted locus amplification or linked read sequencin
61
Name some UK working groups or projects involved in the study or implementation of cffDNA testing
PHG – The Foundation for Genomics and Public Health (UK Expert Working Group) RAPID Project (Reliable Accurate Prenatal non Invasive Diagnostic) - a 5-year UK national programme
62
hat are the main benefits of NIPD?
Reduced number of invasive tests Safer for the fetus and mother (almost no risk of infection or physical trauma, unlike invasive tests which have ~1% miscarriage risk) Less expertise required (a blood test vs. invasive procedure) Can be offered earlier than invasive testing, allowing parents more time to decide about the pregnancy *Less traumatic for the parents * Improved quality and management of antenatal care (e.g., better targeting of anti-D therapy)
63
What are some limitations of NIPD?
in multiple pregnancies, it is not possible to differentiate between the fetuses cffDNA may not be present in equal proportions from all fetuses in multiple pregnancies Lower fetal fraction in women with a high BMI increases the chance of an inconclusive result Potential for incorrect results (false negatives due to low cffDNA or low fetal fraction; false positives due to technical issues like contamination or clinical abnormalities like a vanishing twin
64
What are some wider or ethical issues associated with NIPD?
Risk of false negative results leading to lack of treatment or birth of an affected child Risk of false positive results leading to termination of healthy pregnancies or unnecessary distress Availability of non-clinical applications (e.g., social sex selection, prenatal paternity testing) directly to consumers over the internet, raising questions about regulation of direct public access
65
What is the target turnaround time recommended by NHS England for rapid prenatal QF-PCR?
3 days
66
How does QF-PCR detect copy number changes of targeted chromosomes?
By amplifying highly polymorphic short tandemly repeated DNA fragments (STRs) found in non-coding regions. These STRs are used due to their polymorphic nature and tendency to mutate
67
Why is it recommended to run a maternal blood sample in parallel when performing QF-PCR on a prenatal sample?
To detect maternal cell contamination (MCC). MCC cases are expected to produce a characteristic pattern with extra alleles or skewed ratios between peaks for all chromosomes. Running the maternal sample allows for comparison of traces
68
What markers can help interpret X chromosome abnormalities in QF-PCR?
Multiple polymorphic X markers (though not 100% reliable), non-polymorphic markers such as AMELX/Y (Amelogenin), SRY, and non-polymorphic markers to determine X chromosome dosage compared to an autosome. Use of TAF9 on chromosome 3 and the X chromosome can help
69
hat types of chromosomal abnormalities can FISH help detect besides aneuploidy for common chromosomes?
It can also detect specific microdeletions, and cryptic or subtle duplications. It's particularly helpful when analysing complex structural rearrangements and marker chromosome
70
Why is it recommended to confirm CVS trisomies detected by QF-PCR (where no triallelic markers are found) with karyotype before acting on the result?
Due to confined placental mosaicism
71
Why is it recommended to confirm CVS trisomies detected by QF-PCR (where no triallelic markers are found) with karyotype before acting on the result?
: The limit for detection of mosaicism by QF-PCR is approximately 5-20%. However, mosaicism with an almost equal ratio (e.g. 50%) of 45,X and 47,XXX cells cannot be detected.
72