Prenatal testing Flashcards

1
Q

What is prenatal testing?

A

Diagnostics before birth. The determination of whether a fetus has a disease or disorder while still in the womb. Implies analysis of the fetal genome (by various techniques).

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2
Q

What are the two main types of prenatal testing?

A

Prenatal screening and prenatal diagnosis.

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3
Q

What are the differences between prenatal screening and prenatal diagnosis?

A

Prenatal screening are performed on large populations. They’re inexpensive, low risk, and non-invasive methods.

Prenatal diagnosis are performed on selected groups. They’re generally more costly, higher in risk and imply invasive methods.

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4
Q

What is sequential screening?

A

Provision of an initial set of tests followed by another set usually for those at low or intermediate risk.

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5
Q

What is contingency screening?

A

Provision of an initial set of tests followed by another set only for those initially found to be at intermediate risk.

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6
Q

What is meant by “secondary” screening?

A

A follow-up screening test for those women who were positive by an initial primary test.

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7
Q

Name some of what characterizes a screening.

A

The condition tested for should be considered an important health problem.
The natural history of the condition should be understood.
There should be accepted management for affected cases.
Facilities for diagnosis and treatment should be available.
The screening test needs to have acceptable detection rates and false positive rates.
The test should be acceptable to the population.
The test should be cost effective.
There should be an agreement policy on who to screen.

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8
Q

What is detection rate?

A

The same as sensitivity. It is the proportion of affected individuals with positive results.
Sensitivity = (True positives) / (Total number of affected individuals).
(Total number of affected individuals = False negatives + True positives.)

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9
Q

What is false positive rate?

A

The ratio between the number of false positives and the total number of actual negative events. (Total number of actual negative events = True negatives + False positives.)

It is the same as 1 - specificity.

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10
Q

What is positive predictive value (PPV)?

A

The proportions of positive results that are true positives. PPV = (true positive) / (total number of positives). (Total number of positives = True positives + False positives.)

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11
Q

How are the odds of being affected given a positive result (OAPR) calculated?

A

The ratio of affected to unaffected cases among individuals with positive results.
OAPR = (True positives) / (False positives)
or
OAPR = 1 / ((False positives) / (True positives))

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12
Q

What is meant by a test’s precision and accuracy?

A

Precision: The closeness of the measurements to each other. A description of random errors.
Accuracy: The closeness of the measurements to a specific value. A description of systematic errors.

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13
Q

What are the purposes of prenatal testing?

A

Clarify risk.
Reduce anxiety in high risk situations.
Allow informed decision about pregnancy management to parents.
Enable timely medical or surgical treatment before or after birth.
Prepare parent and healthcare staff for the delivery of the child or for the likelihood of a stillbirth.
Diagnose high risk pregnancies early so that delivery can be scheduled in a tertiary care hospital - optimizing the outcome.
Give the parent a change to prepare psychologically, socially and financially.

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14
Q

Who should we refer for prenatal testing?

A

Couples who have previously had a child with a:

  • Chromosome abnormality
  • Severe autosomal dominant or recessive disorder (that can be identified through fetal diagnosis)
  • Severe X-linked recessive disorder
  • Mitochondrial disorder
  • Structural defect (of clinical relevance)

Couples who are carriers of a faulty gene or
chromosomal rearrangement.
Maternal age above 38 years.
Maternal consumption of teratogenic medications.
Overall evaluation (social aspects, maternal
disease, family situation).

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15
Q

What is a genetic aberration?

A

An abnormality of the chromosome number in a cell.

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16
Q

What is amniocentesis? When can the procedure be done?

A

An invasive method of prenatal testing. In this procedure, a small amount of amniotic fluid, which contains fetal tissues, is sampled from the amniotic sac surrounding a developing fetus. The procedure is done transabdominally and is guided by ultrasound.

The procedure can be done from the 15th week of pregnancy.

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17
Q

What is chorionic villus sampling? When can the procedure be done?

A

A form of prenatal diagnosis to determine chromosomal or genetic disorders in the fetus. It entails sampling of the chorionic villus (placental tissue) and testing it for chromosomal abnormalities. It can be performed in a transcervical or transabdominal manner. (Transcervical method is uncommon.) Ultrasound is used to locate fetus and placenta.

The procedure can be done from the 10th week of pregnancy.

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18
Q

What is the risk of miscarriage following amniocentesis?

A

0,5 %. (Higher in pregnancies with multiple fetuses.)

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19
Q

What are the possible complications following amniocentesis?

A
Miscarriage.
Fetomaternal bleedning (Rh-sensitization).
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20
Q

Which chromosomal analysis is commonly used for rapid aneuploidy testing?

A

Qualitative Fluorescence - Polymerase Chain Reaction (QF-RCR).

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21
Q

What are sources of errors when conduction chromosomal analysis from fetal DNA sampled through amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling?

A

Maternal contamination.
Mosaicism.
Ambiguous findings (supernumery marker chromosomes).

22
Q

Besides amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling, what are other methods of invasive prenatal testing?

A

Cordocentesis (blood sample from the umbilical cord).
Fetoscopy.
Fetal skin or liver biopsy.

23
Q

What is preimplantation genetic testing?

A

A technique used to identify genetic defects in embryos created through in vitro fertilization (IVF) before pregnancy.

24
Q

What is preimplantation genetic diagnosis?

A

Testing performed when one or both genetic parents has a known genetic abnormality and testing is performed on an embryo to determine if it also carries a genetic abnormality.

25
Q

What is in vitro fertilization (IVF)?

A

IVF is the process of fertilization by extracting eggs, retrieving a sperm sample, and then manually combining an egg and sperm in a laboratory dish. The embryo(s) is then transferred to the uterus.

26
Q

What are some advantages of preimplantation genetic diagnosis?

A

Prevents the transmission of inheritable genetic disease.

Eliminates the dilemma of terminating pregnancy because of unfavorable prenatal testing.

27
Q

What does preimplantation genetic screening (PGS) entail?

A

PGS is used to identify embryos at risk. Embryos from presumed chromosomally normal genetic parents are screened for aneuploidy to improve in vitro fertilization.

Test for anatomical, physiological, or genetic conditions in the absence of symptoms of disease (”profiling” embryos prior to implantation, e.g. HLA).

28
Q

How does “The Norwegian Biotechnology Act” state biotechnology is to be used?

A

With respect to human rights, human worth personal integrity.
Without discrimination due to genetic predisposition.
In reflection of the ethical standards of our western
cultural heritage.

29
Q

Is preimplantation genetic diagnosis allowed in Norway?

A

No.

30
Q

What are forms of non-invasive prenatal testing?

A

Ultrasound scan (during early gestational age).
Maternal biochemical serum markers (double test).
Analysis of cell free DNA (fetal DNA circulating in maternal blood).
Cell-based NIPT.

31
Q

What is a first trimester combined ultrasound and biochemical test (CUB)?

A

CUB is used for risk assessement of the common aneuploidies (trisomy 21, 18 and 13).

32
Q

What are some of the measurements taken or signs looked for during ultrasound scan when performing a CUB?

A
Structual malformations and so called "soft signs" listed below. 
Nuchal translucency.
Nasal bone presence and length.
Short femoral length.
Echogenic Intracardiac Focus.
Hydronephrosis.
33
Q

In the combined ultrasound and biochemical test, what does the biochemical testing entail?

A

It entails sampling of maternal blood testing for maternal biochemical serum markers, such as beta-hCG and PAPP-A. (The combined testing for beta-hCG and PAPP-A i referred to at a “double test”.)

34
Q

Many serum markers require adjustments to correct

for patient specific characteristics. Name examples of some such patient characteristics.

A

Race/ethnicity, weight, diabetic status and smoking.

35
Q

Can be combined ultrasound and biochemical testing (CUB) be used for multiple pregnancies?

A

No.

36
Q

What is included in the first trimester combined test?

A

Nuchal translucency, beta-hCG and PAPP-A.

37
Q

What is included in a so called triple test? When is the test done?

A

The test makes use of both maternal blood sampling, measuring levels of beta-hCG, AFP and estriol, and ultrasound scan.
The test is performed in week 15-17 of pregnancy.

38
Q

Besides ultrasound and maternal biochemical serum markers, which factor is additionally used to estimate the risk of trisomies?

A

Maternal age.

39
Q

True or false: Use of NIPT based on cell free fetal DNA in maternal plasma is complicated a woman second pregnancy because of remnant of fetal DNA from the previous pregnancy.

A

False. Cell free fetal DNA in maternal plasma is specific with each pregnancy because of the short lifespan of the DNA fragments. Free fetal DNA in the maternal circulation is degraded within 20 min after labour, so there is no carry-over from one pregnancy to the
next.

40
Q

True or false: Use of NIPT based on cell free fetal DNA in maternal plasma is complicated a woman second pregnancy because of remnant of fetal DNA from the previous pregnancy.

A

False. Cell free fetal DNA in maternal plasma is specific with each pregnancy because of the short lifespan of the DNA fragments. Free fetal DNA in the maternal circulation is degraded within 20 min after labor, so there is no carry-over from one pregnancy to the
next.

41
Q

True or false: Use of NIPT based on cell free fetal DNA in maternal plasma is complicated a woman second pregnancy because of remnant of fetal DNA from the previous pregnancy.

A

False. Cell free fetal DNA in maternal plasma is specific with each pregnancy because of the short lifespan of the DNA fragments. Free fetal DNA in the maternal circulation is degraded within 20 minuts after labor, so there is no carry-over from one pregnancy to the
next.

42
Q

True or false: Use of NIPT based on cell free fetal DNA in maternal plasma during a woman’s second pregnancy is complicated because of fetal DNA remnants from the previous pregnancy.

A

False. Cell free fetal DNA in maternal plasma is specific with each pregnancy because of the short lifespan of the DNA fragments. Free fetal DNA in the maternal circulation is degraded within 20 minutes after labor, so there is no carry-over from one pregnancy to the
next.

43
Q

Where does the circulating free fetal DNA in the maternal circulation stem from?

A

It stems from the placenta (apoptotic trophoblasts).

44
Q

What are some causes of false positives when using NIPT to estimate risk for trisomies?

A

Maternal cancer.
Maternal chromosomal aberrations.
Vanishing twin (when used early in pregnancy).
Confined placental mosaicism.

45
Q

Are there any cell-free DNA screening tests for microdeletions?

A

Yes, but cell-free DNA screening tests for microdeletions have not been validated clinically and are not recommended at this time.

46
Q

What is NIPD used for?

A

Determination of the fetal sex.
Determination of the fetal Rh genotype.
Testing for single gene disorders or specific genetic condition in high risk couples where the mutation is known.

47
Q

What type of cells are cbNIPT based on?

A

Fetal trophoblastic cells in the maternal circulation.

48
Q

What are some advantages and disdvantages of cbNIPT?

A

Advantages: High quality DNA. No intermixing with maternal DNA. High genomic resolution.
Disadvantages: Fetal cells in the maternal circulation are rare.

49
Q

What are some important aspects of pre- and posttest counseling?

A

Alternatives (cf-DNA, conventional screening, invasive
testing, nothing).
Additional factors (ultrasound findings etc.).
Scope and nature of disorders being tested.
Disorders that are not detectable.
The detection, false-positive, and no call rates.
An explanation that NIPT false-positive results can be common (PPV).
Need to confirm results through additional testing.
The potential detection of maternal chromosome
abnormalities.
Unexpected findings (other imbalances, maternal cancer,
etc.).

50
Q

What information should parents be given prior to prenatal diagnostics?

A

Requires written, informed consent.
Medical history, relevant pregnancies, past deliveries. Procedure for prenatal diagnostics.
Benefits and limitations of the diagnostic procedures.
Sources of diagnostic error.
Risks to mother/fetus.
Risk of repuncture/maternal cell contamination.
When/how results will be provided.
Information about the sex of the fetus.
General discussion – do all parents want prenatal diagnostics?